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H.B. 78
1
UTAH UNIFORM SECURITIES ACT
2
MODIFICATIONS
3
2009 GENERAL SESSION
4
STATE OF UTAH
5
Chief Sponsor: Jim Bird
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Senate Sponsor:
Lyle W. Hillyard
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8
LONG TITLE
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General Description:
10
This bill modifies the Utah Uniform Securities Act to create the Securities
11
Commission, outline its powers and duties, and make other substantive changes.
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Highlighted Provisions:
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This bill:
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. creates the Securities Commission;
15
. outlines the powers and duties of the Securities Commission, including modifying
16
the powers and duties of the Division of Securities and its director;
17
. modifies definitions including the definition of a security;
18
. addresses disciplinary proceedings;
19
. addresses language related to licensing;
20
. addresses requirements related to associations between licensed and unlicensed
21
persons;
22
. requires the identification of a principal or designated official;
23
. expands the scope of criminal pleas considered to determine if disciplinary action or
24
licensing restrictions should be taken;
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. addresses disciplinary action or licensing restrictions for entities that are materially
26
the same;
27
. addresses civil actions that could result in disciplinary action;
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. repeals registration by notification;
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. modifies the automatic effectiveness related to registration;
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. updates language related to means of providing notices;
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. addresses provisions related to an issuer agent;
32
. modifies provisions related to exemptions and registration of securities;
33
. modifies remedies available for enforcement;
34
. modifies provisions related to private causes of action;
35
. provides that prosecutors may bring criminal proceedings without referral from the
36
division;
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. deletes outdated language including references to repealed federal law; and
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. makes technical and conforming changes.
39
Monies Appropriated in this Bill:
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None
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Other Special Clauses:
42
None
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Utah Code Sections Affected:
44
AMENDS:
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31A-5-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1987, Chapter 91
46
61-1-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 160
47
61-1-4, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
48
61-1-6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
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61-1-9, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 161
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61-1-11, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 12
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61-1-11.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
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61-1-12, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
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61-1-13, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
54
61-1-14, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
55
61-1-15.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
56
61-1-18, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 139
57
61-1-18.2, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1983, Chapter 284
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61-1-18.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1983, Chapter 284
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61-1-18.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 176
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61-1-18.6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
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61-1-18.7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
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61-1-19, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1990, Chapter 133
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61-1-20, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 12
64
61-1-21, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 149
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61-1-21.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapters 38 and 158
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61-1-22, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 292
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61-1-23, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
68
61-1-24, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 161
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61-1-25, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1983, Chapter 284
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REPEALS:
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61-1-8, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 161
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61-1-30, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 250
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Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
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Section 1.
Section
31A-5-302
is amended to read:
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31A-5-302. Registration of securities.
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(1) [Insurance securities] (a) An insurance security shall be registered with the
78
commissioner [by notification under Section
61-1-8
,]:
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(i) by coordination under Section
61-1-9
[,]; or
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(ii) by qualification under Section
61-1-10
. [The]
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(b) A registration statement [in each case] under this Subsection (1) shall conform to
82
[the provisions of] Section
61-1-11
.
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(2) The commissioner has the powers specified in Sections
61-1-12
,
61-1-15
,
61-1-19
,
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61-1-20
, and
61-1-24
.
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(3) [The provisions of] Sections
61-1-16
,
61-1-17
,
61-1-18.3
, and
61-1-25
apply to the
86
regulation of securities under this part.
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(4) As used in this chapter, the words "commission" or "division" under Title 61,
88
Chapter 1, Utah Uniform Securities Act, mean the insurance commissioner.
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Section 2.
Section
61-1-3
is amended to read:
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61-1-3. Licensing of broker-dealers, agents, and investment advisers.
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(1) It is unlawful for [any] a person to transact business in this state as a broker-dealer
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or agent unless the person is licensed under this chapter.
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(2) (a) It is unlawful for [any] a broker-dealer or issuer to employ or engage an agent
94
unless the agent is licensed. The license of an agent is not effective during any period when
95
[he] the agent is not associated with:
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(i) a particular broker-dealer licensed under this chapter; or
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(ii) a particular issuer.
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(b) When an agent begins or terminates [a connection] an association with a
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broker-dealer or issuer, or begins or terminates [those] activities [which make him] as an agent,
100
the agent [as well as] and the broker-dealer or issuer shall promptly notify the division.
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(c) An agent who terminates an association with a broker-dealer or issuer is considered
102
to be unlicensed until the day on which the division:
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(i) approves the agent's association with a different broker-dealer or issuer; and
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(ii) notifies the agent of the division's approval of the association.
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(d) (i) It is unlawful for a broker-dealer or an issuer engaged, directly or indirectly, in
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offering, offering to purchase, purchasing, or selling a security in this state, to employ or
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associate with an individual to engage in an activity related to a securities transaction in this
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state if:
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(A) (I) the license of the individual is suspended or revoked; or
110
(II) the individual is barred from employment or association with a broker-dealer, an
111
issuer, or a state or federal covered investment adviser; and
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(B) the suspension, revocation, or bar described in Subsection (2)(d)(i)(A) is by an
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order:
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(I) under this chapter;
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(II) of the Securities and Exchange Commission;
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(III) of a self-regulatory organization; or
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(IV) of a securities administrator of a state other than Utah.
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(ii) A broker-dealer or issuer does not violate this Subsection (2)(d) if the broker-dealer
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or issuer did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the
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suspension, revocation, or bar.
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(iii) An order under this chapter may modify or waive, in whole or in part, the
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application of Subsection (2)(d)(i) to a broker-dealer or issuer.
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(3) It is unlawful for [any] a person to transact business in this state as an investment
124
adviser or as an investment adviser representative unless:
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(a) the person is licensed under this chapter; [or]
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(b) the person's only clients in this state are:
127
(i) one or more of the following whether acting for itself or as a trustee with investment
128
control:
129
(A) an investment [companies] company as defined in the Investment Company Act of
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1940[, other];
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(B) another investment [advisers,] adviser;
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(C) a federal covered [advisers, broker-dealers, banks, trust companies, savings and
133
loan associations,] adviser;
134
(D) a broker-dealer;
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(E) a depository institution;
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(F) a trust company;
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(G) an insurance [companies,] company;
138
(H) an employee benefit [plans] plan with assets of not less than $1,000,000[, and]; or
139
(I) a governmental [agencies or instrumentalities, whether acting for themselves or as
140
trustees with investment control,] agency or instrumentality; or
141
(ii) other institutional investors as are designated by rule or order of the director; or
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(c) the person has no place of business in this state and during the preceding 12-month
143
period has had not more than five clients, other than those specified in Subsection (3)(b), who
144
are residents of this state.
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(4) (a) It is unlawful for [any]:
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(i) a person required to be licensed as an investment adviser under this chapter to
147
employ an investment adviser representative unless the investment adviser representative is
148
licensed under this chapter, [provided] except that the license of an investment adviser
149
representative is not effective during any period when the person is not employed by an
150
investment adviser licensed under this chapter; [or]
151
(ii) a federal covered adviser to employ, supervise, or associate with an investment
152
adviser representative having a place of business located in this state, unless [such] the
153
investment adviser representative is:
154
(A) licensed under this chapter; or [is]
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(B) exempt from licensing[.]; or
156
(iii) an investment adviser, directly or indirectly, to employ or associate with an
157
individual to engage in an activity related to providing investment advice in this state if:
158
(A) (I) the license of the individual is suspended or revoked; or
159
(II) the individual is barred from employment or association with a state or federal
160
covered investment adviser, broker-dealer, or issuer; and
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(B) the suspension, revocation, or bar is by an order:
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(I) under this chapter;
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(II) of the Securities and Exchange Commission;
164
(III) a self-regulatory organization; or
165
(IV) a securities administrator of a state other than Utah.
166
(b) (i) An investment adviser does not violate Subsection (4)(a)(iii) if the investment
167
adviser did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the
168
suspension, revocation, or bar.
169
(ii) An order under this chapter may waive, in whole or in part, the application of
170
Subsection (4)(a)(iii) to an investment adviser.
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[(b)] (c) When an investment adviser representative required to be licensed under this
172
chapter begins or terminates employment with an investment adviser, the investment adviser
173
shall promptly notify the division.
174
(d) An investment adviser representative who terminates association with an
175
investment adviser is considered unlicensed until the day on which the division:
176
(i) approves the investment adviser representative's association with a different
177
investment adviser; and
178
(ii) notifies the investment adviser representative of the division's approval of the
179
association.
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(5) Except with respect to an investment [advisers] adviser whose only clients are those
181
described under Subsections (3)(b) or (3)(c), it is unlawful for [any] a federal covered adviser
182
to conduct advisory business in this state unless [such] the person complies with [the
183
provisions of] Section
61-1-4
.
184
Section 3.
Section
61-1-4
is amended to read:
185
61-1-4. Licensing and notice filing procedure.
186
(1) (a) A broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative
187
[must] shall obtain an initial or renewal license by filing with the division or its designee an
188
application together with a consent to service of process under Section
61-1-26
.
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(b) (i) The application shall contain the applicant's Social Security number and
190
whatever information the division by rule requires concerning such matters as:
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(A) the applicant's form and place of organization;
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(B) the applicant's proposed method of doing business;
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(C) (I) the qualifications and business history of the applicant; and
194
(II) in the case of a broker-dealer or investment adviser, the qualifications and business
195
history of any partner, officer, or director, any person occupying a similar status or performing
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similar functions, or any person directly or indirectly controlling the broker-dealer or
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investment adviser;
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(D) [any] whether the applicant has been subject to:
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(I) an injunction [or], administrative order [or], or misdemeanor conviction [of a
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misdemeanor] involving a security or any aspect of the securities business [and any]; or
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(II) a felony conviction [of a felony]; and
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(E) the applicant's financial condition and history.
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(ii) An applicant's Social Security number is a private record under Subsection
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63G-2-302
(1)(h).
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(c) The division may, by rule or order, require an applicant for an initial license to
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publish an announcement of the application in one or more specified newspapers published in
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this state.
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(d) [Licenses or notice filings of broker-dealers, agents, investment advisers, and
209
investment adviser representatives shall expire] A license or notice filing of a broker-dealer,
210
agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative expires on December 31 of
211
each year.
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(e) (i) If no denial order is in effect and no proceeding is pending under Section
61-1-6
,
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a license becomes effective at noon of the 30th day after an application is filed.
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(ii) The division may by rule or order specify an earlier effective date and may by order
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defer the effective date until noon of the 30th day after the filing of any amendment.
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(iii) Licensing of a broker-dealer automatically constitutes licensing of only one
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partner, officer, director, or a person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions
218
as a licensed agent of the broker-dealer.
219
(iv) Licensing of an investment adviser automatically constitutes licensing of only one
220
partner, officer, director, or a person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions.
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(v) (A) For purposes of the activities of a licensee in this state, during the time period
222
that a broker-dealer or investment adviser is licensed in this state:
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(I) the broker-dealer shall maintain a principal; and
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(II) the investment adviser shall maintain a designated official.
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(B) The division may by rule made in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
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Administrative Rulemaking Act, provide a process for a person to identify for the division:
227
(I) a principal or designated official at the time a license is issued; and
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(II) a different principal or designated official if:
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(Aa) a broker-dealer changes its principal; or
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(Bb) an investment adviser changes its designated official.
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(C) A principal or designated official identified in Subsection (1)(e)(v)(A) is not
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required to be separately licensed with the division.
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(2) Except with respect to a federal covered [advisers] adviser whose only clients are
234
those described in Subsection
61-1-3
(3)(b) or (c), a federal covered adviser shall file with the
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division, [prior to] before acting as a federal covered adviser in this state, a notice filing
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consisting of [such] the documents [as have been] filed with the Securities and Exchange
237
Commission as the division by rule or order may require.
238
(3) (a) [Any] An applicant for an initial or renewal license as a broker-dealer or agent
239
shall pay a reasonable filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
240
(b) [Any] An applicant for an initial or renewal license as an investment adviser or
241
investment adviser representative who is subject to licensing under this chapter shall pay a
242
reasonable filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
243
(c) [Any] A person acting as a federal covered adviser in this state shall pay an initial
244
and renewal notice filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
245
(d) If the license or renewal is not granted or the application is withdrawn, the division
246
shall retain the fee.
247
(4) A licensed broker-dealer or investment adviser may file an application for licensing
248
of a successor for the unexpired portion of the year. There shall be no filing fee.
249
(5) The division may by rule or order:
250
(a) require a minimum capital for a licensed [broker-dealers] broker-dealer, subject to
251
the limitations of Section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934[,]; and
252
(b) establish minimum financial requirements for an investment [advisers,] adviser:
253
(i) subject to the limitations of Section 222 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940[,];
254
and
255
(ii) which may include different requirements for [those] an investment [advisers]
256
adviser who [maintain] maintains custody of or [have] has discretionary authority over client
257
funds or securities and [those] an investment [advisers] adviser who [do] does not.
258
(6) (a) The division may by rule or order require a licensed [broker-dealers and]
259
broker-dealer or investment [advisers] adviser who [have] has custody of or discretionary
260
authority over client funds or securities to post one or more bonds in amounts and under
261
conditions as the division may prescribe, subject to the limitations of Section 15 of the
262
Securities Exchange Act of 1934 for [broker-dealers] a broker-dealer, and Section 222 of the
263
Investment Advisers Act of 1940 for an investment [advisers, and may determine their
264
conditions] adviser.
265
(b) [Any] An appropriate deposit of cash or securities may be accepted in lieu of [any]
266
a required bond.
267
(c) [No] A bond may not be required of [any] a licensee whose net capital, or in the
268
case of an investment adviser whose minimum financial requirements, which may be defined
269
by rule, exceeds the amounts required by the division.
270
(d) [Every] A bond shall provide for suit on the bond by [any] a person who has a
271
cause of action under Section
61-1-22
and, if the division by rule or order requires, by any
272
person who has a cause of action not arising under this chapter.
273
(e) [Every] A bond shall provide that [no] a suit may not be maintained to enforce
274
[any] liability on the bond unless brought before the earlier of:
275
(i) the expiration of [four] five years after the act or transaction constituting the
276
violation; or
277
(ii) the expiration of two years after the discovery by the plaintiff of the facts
278
constituting the violation[, whichever expires first].
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Section 4.
Section
61-1-6
is amended to read:
280
61-1-6. Denial, suspension, revocation, cancellation, or withdrawal of license --
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Sanctions.
282
(1) Subject to the [requirements of Subsections (2) and (3), the director,] other
283
provisions of this section and by means of an adjudicative [proceedings] proceeding conducted
284
in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act[,]:
285
(a) the commission may issue an order:
286
[(a) denying,] (i) suspending[,] or revoking [any] a license;
287
[(b)] (ii) barring or censuring [any] a licensee or [any] an officer, director, partner, or
288
person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions for a licensee from
289
employment with a licensed broker-dealer or investment adviser;
290
[(c)] (iii) restricting or limiting a licensee as to [any] a function or activity of the
291
business for which a license is required in this state;
292
[(d)] (iv) imposing a fine; or
293
[(e)] (v) taking any combination of [Subsections (1)(a) through (d)] actions under this
294
Subsection (1)(a); or
295
(b) the director may deny a license.
296
(2) (a) The [director] commission may impose [the sanctions] a sanction in accordance
297
with Subsection (1)(a) or the director may impose a sanction in accordance with Subsection
298
(1)(b) if the commission or director finds:
299
(i) that it is in the public interest; and [finds,]
300
(ii) with respect to the applicant or licensee or, in the case of a broker-dealer or
301
investment adviser, [any] a partner, officer, or director, or [any] a person occupying a similar
302
status or performing similar functions, or [any] a person directly or indirectly controlling the
303
broker-dealer or investment adviser, that the person:
304
[(a)] (A) has filed an application for a license that, as of [its] the effective date of the
305
application or as of any date after filing in the case of an order denying effectiveness[,]:
306
(I) was incomplete in [any] a material respect; or
307
(II) contained [any] a statement that was, in light of the circumstances under which it
308
was made, false or misleading with respect to [any] a material fact;
309
[(b)] (B) has willfully violated or willfully failed to comply with [any provision of] this
310
chapter or a predecessor act or [any] a rule or order under this chapter or a predecessor act;
311
[(c)] (C) was convicted[, within the past ten years,] of [any], or entered a plea of guilty,
312
a plea of no contest, a plea in abeyance, or a similar plea of guilty to:
313
(I) a misdemeanor involving:
314
(Aa) fraud or dishonesty; or
315
(Bb) a security or any aspect of the securities business[,]; or [any]
316
(II) a felony;
317
[(d)] (D) is permanently or temporarily enjoined by [any] a court of competent
318
jurisdiction from engaging in or continuing [any] a conduct or practice involving any aspect of
319
the securities business;
320
[(e)] (E) (I) is the subject of an order of the [director] commission or [any] a
321
predecessor [denying,] suspending[,] or revoking a license as a broker-dealer, agent,
322
investment adviser, or investment adviser representative; or
323
(II) is the subject of an order of the director or a predecessor denying a license as a
324
broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative;
325
[(f)] (F) subject to Subsection (2)(b), is the subject of:
326
[(i)] (I) an adjudication or determination, within the past five years by a securities or
327
commodities agency or administrator of another state, Canadian province or territory, or a court
328
of competent jurisdiction that the person has willfully violated:
329
(Aa) the Securities Act of 1933[,];
330
(Bb) the Securities Exchange Act of 1934[,];
331
(Cc) the Investment Advisers Act of 1940[,];
332
(Dd) the Investment Company Act of 1940[,];
333
(Ee) the Commodity Exchange Act[,]; or
334
(Ff) the securities or commodities law of [any other] another state; or
335
[(ii)] (II) an order:
336
(Aa) entered within the past five years by the securities administrator of [any] a state or
337
Canadian province or territory or by the Securities and Exchange Commission denying or
338
revoking a license as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser
339
representative, or the substantial equivalent of those terms; [or is the subject of an order]
340
(Bb) of the Securities and Exchange Commission suspending or expelling the person
341
from a national securities exchange or national securities association registered under the
342
Securities Exchange Act of 1934[,]; or [is the subject of]
343
(Cc) that is a United States post office fraud order; [except that]
344
[(iii) the division may not commence agency action to revoke or suspend any license
345
under Subsection (2)(f) more than one year from the date of the order relied on, and the director
346
may not enter an order under Subsection (2)(f) on the basis of an order under another state's
347
law unless that order was based on facts that would currently constitute a ground for an agency
348
action under this section;]
349
[(g)] (G) has engaged in dishonest or unethical practices in the securities business;
350
[(h)] (H) is insolvent, either in the sense that liabilities exceed assets or in the sense
351
that obligations cannot be met as they mature, except that the director or commission may not
352
enter an order against a broker-dealer or investment adviser under this Subsection
353
(2)[(h)](a)(ii)(H) without a finding of insolvency as to the broker-dealer or investment adviser;
354
[(i)] (I) is not qualified on the basis of the lack of training, experience, and knowledge
355
of the securities business, except as otherwise provided in Subsection [(6)] (5);
356
[(j)] (J) has failed reasonably to supervise the person's:
357
(I) agents or employees, if the person is a broker-dealer[,]; or [his]
358
(II) investment adviser representatives or employees, if the person is an investment
359
adviser; [or]
360
[(k)] (K) has failed to pay the proper filing fee within 30 days after being notified by
361
the division of a deficiency[.];
362
[(3) Before the director may issue an order under Subsection (1) that: revokes any
363
license; bars or censures any licensee or any officer, director, partner, or person occupying a
364
similar status or performing similar functions for a licensee from employment with a licensed
365
broker-dealer or investment adviser; or imposes a fine, the Securities Advisory Board shall:]
366
[(a) review the order; and]
367
[(b) if a majority of the Securities Advisory Board approves the order, authorize the
368
director to issue it.]
369
(L) subject to Subsection (2)(c), is a licensee or applicant that is materially the same
370
entity as an entity that is defunct, insolvent, statutorily disqualified, barred, or described in
371
Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(D); or
372
(M) has had a final judgment entered against the person in a civil action on grounds of:
373
(I) fraud;
374
(II) embezzlement;
375
(III) misrepresentation; or
376
(IV) deceit.
377
(b) (i) The commission may not commence an agency action to revoke or suspend a
378
license under Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(F) more than one year from the day on which the order on
379
which the division relies is entered.
380
(ii) The commission or director may not enter an order under Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(F)
381
on the basis of an order under another state's law unless that order is issued on the basis of facts
382
that would constitute a ground for an agency action under this section on the day on which the
383
notice of agency action is filed.
384
(c) (i) For purposes of Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(L), the director or commission may
385
consider one or more factors in determining whether an entity is materially the same as another
386
entity including the following:
387
(A) the entity has one or more of the same executive officers as the prior entity;
388
(B) the entity conducts operations in the same location as the prior entity;
389
(C) the entity employs two or more agents from the prior entity;
390
(D) the entity solicits or serves two or more customers of the prior entity;
391
(E) the entity has a name similar to the prior entity; or
392
(F) another factor showing a relationship between the entity and the prior entity.
393
(ii) In addition to imposing a sanction in accordance with Subsection (1), for an entity
394
that is materially the same as an entity described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(L), the director or the
395
commission may:
396
(A) limit the license of the entity; or
397
(B) require additional disclosures to the customers or employees of the entity.
398
[(4)] (3) The [division] director may enter a denial order under Subsection (2)[(j) or
399
(k)](a)(ii)(K), but shall vacate the order when the deficiency [has been] is corrected.
400
[(5)] (4) The division may not institute a suspension or revocation proceeding on the
401
basis of a fact or transaction known to [it] the division when the license became effective
402
unless the proceeding is instituted within the [next] 120 days after the day on which the license
403
takes effect.
404
[(6)] (5) The following provisions govern the application of Subsection
405
(2)[(i)](a)(ii)(I):
406
(a) The director or commission may not enter an order against a broker-dealer on the
407
basis of the lack of qualification of [any] a person other than:
408
(i) the broker-dealer if the broker-dealer is an individual; or
409
(ii) an agent of the broker-dealer.
410
(b) The director or commission may not enter an order against an investment adviser
411
on the basis of the lack of qualification of [any] a person other than:
412
(i) the investment adviser if the investment adviser is an individual; or
413
(ii) an investment adviser representative.
414
(c) The director or commission may not enter an order solely on the basis of lack of
415
experience if the applicant or licensee is qualified by training or knowledge.
416
(d) The director or commission shall consider that:
417
(i) an agent who will work under the supervision of a licensed broker-dealer need not
418
have the same qualifications as a broker-dealer; and [that]
419
(ii) an investment adviser representative who will work under the supervision of a
420
licensed investment adviser need not have the same qualifications as an investment adviser.
421
(e) (i) The director or commission shall consider that an investment adviser is not
422
necessarily qualified solely on the basis of experience as a broker-dealer or agent.
423
(ii) When the director finds that an applicant for a license as a broker-dealer is not
424
qualified as an investment adviser, the director may condition the applicant's license as a
425
broker-dealer upon the applicant's not transacting business in this state as an investment
426
adviser.
427
(f) (i) The division may by rule provide for examinations, which may be written or oral
428
or both, to be taken by any class of or all applicants.
429
(ii) The division may by rule or order waive the examination requirement as to a person
430
or class of persons if the division determines that the examination is not necessary for the
431
protection of investors.
432
[(7)] (6) If the director finds that [any] a licensee or applicant for a license is no longer
433
in existence, has ceased to do business as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or
434
investment adviser representative, or is subject to an adjudication of mental incompetence or to
435
the control of a committee, conservator, or guardian, or cannot be located after reasonable
436
search, the division may summarily cancel or deny the license or application according to the
437
procedures and requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
438
[(8)] (7) (a) Withdrawal from license as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or
439
investment adviser representative becomes effective 30 days after receipt of an application to
440
withdraw or within a shorter period of time as determined by the director, unless:
441
(i) a revocation or suspension proceeding is pending when the application is filed;
442
(ii) a proceeding to revoke or suspend or to impose conditions upon the withdrawal is
443
instituted within 30 days after the application is filed; or
444
(iii) additional information is requested by the division regarding the withdrawal
445
application.
446
(b) (i) If a proceeding described in Subsection [(8)] (7)(a) is pending or instituted, the
447
director shall designate by order when and under what conditions the withdrawal becomes
448
effective.
449
(ii) If additional information is requested, withdrawal is effective 30 days after the
450
additional information is filed.
451
(c) (i) If no proceeding is pending or instituted, and withdrawal automatically becomes
452
effective, the director may initiate a revocation or suspension proceeding under this section
453
within one year after withdrawal [became] becomes effective.
454
(ii) The [director] commission shall enter [any] an order under Subsection
455
(2)[(b)](a)(ii)(B) as of the last date on which the license [was] is effective.
456
Section 5.
Section
61-1-9
is amended to read:
457
61-1-9. Registration by coordination.
458
(1) [Any] A security for which a registration statement or a notification under
459
Regulation A or [any] a successor to Regulation A [has been] is filed under the Securities Act
460
of 1933 in connection with the same offering may be registered by coordination.
461
(2) A registration statement under this section shall contain the following information
462
and be accompanied by the following documents in addition to the information specified in
463
Subsection
61-1-11
(3) and the consent to service of process required by Section
61-1-26
:
464
(a) one copy of the disclosure statement together with all its amendments filed under
465
the Securities Act of 1933;
466
(b) if the division by rule or otherwise requires, a copy of the articles of incorporation
467
and bylaws or their substantial equivalents currently in effect, a copy of any agreements with or
468
among underwriters, a copy of any indenture or other instrument governing the issuance of the
469
security to be registered and a specimen or copy of the security;
470
(c) if the division requests, any other information, or copies of any other documents,
471
filed under the Securities Act of 1933; and
472
(d) an undertaking to forward all future amendments to the disclosure statement
473
promptly and in any event not later than the first working day after the day they are forwarded
474
to or filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission, whichever first occurs.
475
(3) A registration statement under this section automatically becomes effective at the
476
moment the disclosure statement becomes effective if all the following conditions are satisfied:
477
(a) no stop order is in effect and no proceeding is pending under Section
61-1-12
;
478
(b) the disclosure statement [has been] is on file with the division for at least [ten] 20
479
working days; and
480
(c) a statement of the maximum and minimum proposed offering prices and the
481
maximum underwriting discounts and commissions [has been] is on file for two full working
482
days or such shorter period as the division permits by rule or otherwise and the offering is
483
made within those limitations.
484
(4) (a) [The] A registrant shall promptly:
485
(i) notify the division [by telephone or telegram] in a record of the date and time when
486
the disclosure statement became effective and the content of the price amendment, if any[,];
487
and [shall promptly]
488
(ii) file a posteffective amendment containing the information and documents in the
489
price amendment.
490
(b) "Price amendment" means the final federal amendment [which] that includes a
491
statement of the:
492
(i) offering price[,];
493
(ii) underwriting and selling discounts or commissions[,];
494
(iii) amount of proceeds[,];
495
(iv) conversion rates[,];
496
(v) call prices[,]; and
497
(vi) other matters dependent upon the offering price.
498
(5) (a) Upon failure to receive the required notification and posteffective amendment
499
with respect to the price amendment, the division may enter a stop order, without notice or
500
hearing, retroactively denying effectiveness to the registration statement or suspending its
501
effectiveness until compliance with Subsection (4), if [it] the division promptly notifies the
502
registrant [by telephone or telegram and promptly confirms by letter or telegram when it
503
notifies by telephone] in a record of the issuance of the order.
504
(b) If the registrant proves compliance with the requirements of Subsection (4) as to
505
notice and posteffective amendment, the stop order is void as of the time of its entry.
506
(6) The division may by rule or otherwise waive either or both of the conditions
507
specified in Subsections (3)(b) and (3)(c).
508
(7) If the disclosure statement becomes effective before all the conditions in
509
Subsections (3)(b) and (3)(c) are satisfied and they are not waived, the disclosure statement
510
automatically becomes effective as soon as all the conditions are satisfied.
511
(8) If the registrant advises the division of the date when the disclosure statement is
512
expected to become effective, the division shall promptly advise the registrant [by telephone or
513
telegram] in a record, at the registrant's expense, whether all the conditions are satisfied and
514
whether it then contemplates the institution of proceedings under Section
61-1-12
, but this
515
advice by the division does not preclude the institution of such a proceeding at any time.
516
(9) The division may by rule or order permit registration by coordination of [any] a
517
security for which a notification or similar document [has been] is filed under the Securities
518
Act of 1933 in connection with the same offering.
519
Section 6.
Section
61-1-11
is amended to read:
520
61-1-11. Provisions applicable to registration generally.
521
(1) A registration statement may be filed by the issuer, [any other] another person on
522
whose behalf the offering is to be made, or a licensed broker-dealer.
523
(2) [Every] A person filing a registration statement shall pay a filing fee as determined
524
under Section
61-1-18.4
.
525
(3) [Every] A registration statement shall specify:
526
(a) the amount of securities to be offered in this state;
527
(b) the states in which a registration statement or similar document in connection with
528
the offering [has been] is or is to be filed; and
529
(c) [any] an adverse order, judgment, or decree entered in connection with the offering
530
by the regulatory authorities in each state or by [any] a court or the Securities and Exchange
531
Commission.
532
(4) [Any] A document filed under this chapter or a predecessor act within five years
533
preceding the filing of a registration statement may be incorporated by reference in the
534
registration statement to the extent that the document is currently accurate.
535
(5) The division may permit the omission of [any] an item of information or document
536
from [any] a registration statement.
537
(6) In the case of a nonissuer distribution, information may not be required under
538
Subsection (9) or Section
61-1-10
[or Subsection
61-1-11
(9)] unless it is known to the person
539
filing the registration statement or to the persons on whose behalf the distribution is to be
540
made, or can be furnished by them without unreasonable effort or expense.
541
(7) (a) The division may require as a condition of registration by qualification or
542
coordination:
543
(i) that [any] security issued within the past three years or to be issued to a promoter for
544
a consideration substantially different from the public offering price, or to [any] a person for a
545
consideration other than cash, be deposited in escrow; and
546
(ii) that the proceeds from the sale of the registered security be impounded until the
547
issuer receives a specified amount from the sale of the security either in this state or elsewhere.
548
(b) The division may determine the conditions of [any] an escrow or impounding
549
required by this Subsection (7), but it may not reject a depository solely because of location in
550
another state.
551
(8) (a) [Every] A registration statement is effective for one year from its effective date.
552
(b) All outstanding securities of the same class as a registered security are considered
553
to be registered for the purpose of [any] a nonissuer transaction:
554
(i) so long as the registration statement is effective; and
555
(ii) between the 30th day after the entry of [any] a stop order suspending or revoking
556
the effectiveness of the registration statement under Section
61-1-12
, if the registration
557
statement did not relate in whole or in part to a nonissuer distribution, and one year from the
558
effective date of the registration statement.
559
(c) A registration statement may not be withdrawn for one year from its effective date
560
if [any securities] a security of the same class [are] is outstanding.
561
(d) A registration statement may be withdrawn otherwise only in the discretion of the
562
division.
563
(9) So long as a registration statement is effective and the offering is not completely
564
sold, the division may require the person who filed the registration statement to file reports, not
565
more often than quarterly, to keep reasonably current the information contained in the
566
registration statement and to disclose the progress of the offering.
567
(10) (a) A registration statement may be amended after its effective date so as to
568
increase the securities specified to be offered and sold, if the public offering price and
569
underwriters' discounts and commissions are not changed from the respective amounts of
570
which the division was informed.
571
(b) The amendment becomes effective when the division so orders.
572
(c) [Every] A person filing an amendment shall pay a registration fee as determined
573
under Section
61-1-18.4
with respect to the additional securities proposed to be offered.
574
(d) The amendment relates back to the date of the sale of the additional security being
575
registered, provided that within six months of the date of the sale the amendment is filed and
576
the additional registration fee is paid.
577
[(11) (a) Except as otherwise provided in Subsection (b), an issuer may only employ or
578
engage an agent to effect or attempt to effect transactions in its securities who is licensed under
579
this chapter and associated with a licensed broker-dealer.]
580
[(b) A partner, officer, or director of an issuer, or a person occupying a similar status or
581
performing similar functions, may act as an agent of the issuer to effect or attempt to effect
582
transactions in its securities, provided the person is licensed under this chapter and receives no
583
commission or other remuneration, directly or indirectly, for effecting or attempting to effect
584
the transactions.]
585
[(12)] (11) (a) [Any] A security that is offered or sold under Section 4(5) of the
586
Securities Act of 1933 or that is a "mortgage related security" as defined in Section 3(a)(41) of
587
the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 [shall] may not be exempt under Subsection
61-1-14
(1)(a)
588
to the same extent as [any] an obligation issued by or guaranteed as to principal and interest by
589
the United States or an agency or instrumentality of the United States. Accordingly, any such
590
security shall comply with the applicable registration and qualification requirements set forth in
591
this chapter.
592
(b) This Subsection (11) specifically overrides the preemption of state law contained in
593
Section 106(c) of the Secondary Mortgage Market Enhancement Act of 1984, Public Law
594
Number 98-440.
595
Section 7.
Section
61-1-11.1
is amended to read:
596
61-1-11.1. Hearings for certain exchanges of securities.
597
(1) An application may be made to the division for approval to issue securities or to
598
deliver other consideration in exchange for:
599
(a) one or more [bona fide] outstanding securities, claims, or property interests; or
600
(b) partly in exchange for one or more [bona fide] outstanding securities, claims, or
601
property interests, and partly for cash.
602
(2) The director may:
603
(a) hold a hearing upon the fairness of the terms and conditions of an exchange
604
described in Subsection (1); and
605
(b) approve or disapprove the terms and conditions of an exchange described in
606
Subsection (1).
607
(3) After conducting a hearing under this section, if the director finds that the terms and
608
conditions of an exchange described in Subsection (1) are fair to those to whom the securities
609
will be issued, the director may:
610
(a) approve the fairness of the terms and conditions of the exchange described in
611
Subsection (1); and
612
(b) approve the exchange described in Subsection (1).
613
(4) In a hearing under this section, all persons to whom it is proposed to issue securities
614
or to deliver other consideration in an exchange under Subsection (1) may appear.
615
(5) An application under Subsection (1) shall contain the information and be
616
accompanied by the documents required by rule or order of the division.
617
(6) [Every] A person filing an application under Subsection (1) shall pay a filing fee as
618
determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
619
(7) An applicant under this section shall provide adequate notice of any hearing under
620
this section to all persons that have a right to appear, under Subsection (4), at the hearing.
621
(8) An application may be made under this section regardless of whether the security or
622
transaction being issued is:
623
(a) exempt from registration; or
624
(b) not required to be registered.
625
(9) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
626
division may establish rules to govern the conduct of a hearing permitted by this section in
627
accordance with Sections
61-1-18.5
and
61-1-24
.
628
(10) This section is intended to provide for a fairness hearing that satisfies the
629
requirements of [Section 3(a)(10) of the] Securities Act of 1933, Section 3(a)(10), 15 U.S.C.
630
Section 77c(a)(10), or any comparable section that may subsequently be enacted.
631
Section 8.
Section
61-1-12
is amended to read:
632
61-1-12. Denial, suspension, and revocation of registration.
633
(1) Upon approval by a majority of the [Securities Advisory Board] commission, the
634
director, by means of an adjudicative [proceedings] proceeding conducted in accordance with
635
Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, may issue a stop order that denies
636
effectiveness to, or suspends or revokes the effectiveness of, any securities registration
637
statement and may impose a fine if the director finds that the order is in the public interest and
638
that:
639
(a) the registration statement, as of its effective date or as of any earlier date in the case
640
of an order denying effectiveness, or [any] an amendment under Subsection
61-1-11
(10) as of
641
its effective date, or [any] a report under Subsection
61-1-11
(9), is incomplete in [any] a
642
material respect, or contains [any] a statement that was, in the light of the circumstances under
643
which it was made, false or misleading with respect to [any] a material fact;
644
(b) [any provision of] this chapter, or [any] a rule, order, or condition lawfully imposed
645
under this chapter, [has been] is willfully violated, in connection with the offering, by:
646
(i) the person filing the registration statement;
647
(ii) the issuer, [any] a partner, officer, or director of the issuer, [any] a person
648
occupying a similar status or performing similar functions, or [any] a person directly or
649
indirectly controlling or controlled by the issuer, but only if the person filing the registration
650
statement is directly or indirectly controlled by or acting for the issuer; or
651
(iii) [any] an underwriter;
652
(c) subject to Subsection (5), the security registered or sought to be registered is the
653
subject of an administrative stop order or similar order, or a permanent or temporary injunction
654
of [any] a court of competent jurisdiction entered under [any other] another federal or state act
655
applicable to the offering; [except that the division may not commence agency action against
656
an effective registration statement under this subsection more than one year from the date of
657
the order or injunction relied on, and it may not enter an order under this subsection on the
658
basis of an order or injunction entered under the securities act of any other state unless that
659
order or injunction was based on facts that would currently constitute a ground for a stop order
660
under this section;]
661
(d) the issuer's enterprise or method of business includes or would include activities
662
that are illegal where performed;
663
(e) the offering has worked or tended to work a fraud upon purchasers or would so
664
operate;
665
(f) the offering [has been] is or would be made with unreasonable amounts of
666
underwriters' and sellers' discounts, commissions, or other compensation, or promoters' profits
667
or participation, or unreasonable amounts or kinds of options;
668
[(g) when a security is sought to be registered by notification, it is not eligible for such
669
registration;]
670
[(h)] (g) when a security is sought to be registered by coordination, there [has been] is a
671
failure to comply with the undertaking required by Subsection
61-1-9
(2)(d); or
672
[(i)] (h) the applicant or registrant has failed to pay the proper filing fee.
673
(2) The director may enter an order under this section but may vacate the order if the
674
director finds that the conditions that prompted its entry have changed or that it is otherwise in
675
the public interest to do so.
676
(3) The director may not issue a stop order against an effective registration statement
677
on the basis of a fact or transaction known to the division when the registration statement
678
became effective unless the proceeding is instituted within the [next] 120 days after the day on
679
which the registration statement becomes effective.
680
(4) [No] A person may not be considered to have violated Section
61-1-7
or
61-1-15
by
681
reason of [any] an order or sale effected after the entry of an order under this section if that
682
person proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the person did not know, and in the
683
exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the order.
684
(5) (a) The director may not commence agency action against an effective registration
685
statement under Subsection (1)(c) more than one year from the day on which the order or
686
injunction on which the director relies is issued.
687
(b) The director may not enter an order under Subsection (1)(c) on the basis of an order
688
or injunction entered under the securities act of another state unless that order or injunction is
689
issued on the basis of facts that would constitute a ground for a stop order under this section at
690
the time the director commences the agency action.
691
Section 9.
Section
61-1-13
is amended to read:
692
61-1-13. Definitions.
693
(1) As used in this chapter:
694
(a) "Affiliate" means a person that, directly or indirectly, through one or more
695
intermediaries, controls or is controlled by, or is under common control with a person
696
specified.
697
(b) (i) "Agent" means [any] an individual other than a broker-dealer who represents a
698
broker-dealer or issuer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities.
699
(ii) "Agent" does not include an individual who represents:
700
(A) an issuer, who receives no commission or other remuneration, directly or
701
indirectly, for effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities in this state, and
702
who effects transactions:
703
(I) in securities exempted by Subsection
61-1-14
(1)(a), (b), (c), [(i), or (j)] or (g);
704
(II) exempted by Subsection
61-1-14
(2);
705
(III) in a covered security as described in Sections 18(b)(3) and 18(b)(4)(D) of the
706
Securities Act of 1933; or
707
(IV) with existing employees, partners, officers, or directors of the issuer; or
708
(B) a broker-dealer in effecting transactions in this state limited to those transactions
709
described in Section 15(h)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
710
(iii) A partner, officer, or director of a broker-dealer or issuer, or a person occupying a
711
similar status or performing similar functions, is an agent only if the partner, officer, director,
712
or person otherwise comes within the definition of "agent."
713
(iv) "Agent" does not include a person described in Subsection (3).
714
(c) (i) "Broker-dealer" means [any] a person engaged in the business of effecting
715
transactions in securities for the account of others or for the person's own account.
716
(ii) "Broker-dealer" does not include:
717
(A) an agent;
718
(B) an issuer;
719
(C) a [bank, savings institution, or trust company] depository institution or trust
720
company;
721
(D) a person who has no place of business in this state if:
722
(I) the person effects transactions in this state exclusively with or through:
723
(Aa) the issuers of the securities involved in the transactions;
724
(Bb) other broker-dealers; [or]
725
[(Cc) banks, savings institutions, trust companies, insurance companies, investment
726
companies as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, pension or profit-sharing trusts,
727
or other financial institutions or institutional buyers, whether acting for themselves or as
728
trustees; or]
729
(Cc) a depository institution, whether acting for itself or as a trustee;
730
(Dd) a trust company, whether acting for itself or as a trustee;
731
(Ee) an insurance company, whether acting for itself or as a trustee;
732
(Ff) an investment company, as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940,
733
whether acting for itself or as a trustee;
734
(Gg) a pension or profit-sharing trust, whether acting for itself or as a trustee; or
735
(Hh) another financial institution or institutional buyer, whether acting for itself or as a
736
trustee; or
737
(II) during any period of 12 consecutive months the person does not direct more than
738
15 offers to sell or buy into this state in any manner to persons other than those specified in
739
Subsection (1)(c)(ii)(D)(I), whether or not the offeror or [any of the offerees] an offeree is then
740
present in this state;
741
(E) a general partner who organizes and effects transactions in securities of three or
742
fewer limited partnerships, of which the person is the general partner, in any period of 12
743
consecutive months;
744
(F) a person whose participation in transactions in securities is confined to those
745
transactions made by or through a broker-dealer licensed in this state;
746
(G) a person who is a real estate broker licensed in this state and who effects
747
transactions in a bond or other evidence of indebtedness secured by a real or chattel mortgage
748
or deed of trust, or by an agreement for the sale of real estate or chattels, if the entire mortgage,
749
deed or trust, or agreement, together with all the bonds or other evidences of indebtedness
750
secured thereby, is offered and sold as a unit;
751
(H) a person effecting transactions in commodity contracts or commodity options;
752
(I) a person described in Subsection (3); or
753
(J) other persons as the division, by rule or order, may designate, consistent with the
754
public interest and protection of investors, as not within the intent of this Subsection (1)(c).
755
(d) "Buy" or "purchase" means [every] a contract for purchase of, contract to buy, or
756
acquisition of a security or interest in a security for value.
757
(e) "Commission" means the Securities Commission created in Section
61-1-18.5
.
758
[(e)] (f) "Commodity" means, except as otherwise specified by the division by rule:
759
(i) [any] an agricultural, grain, or livestock product or byproduct, except real property
760
or [any] a timber, agricultural, or livestock product grown or raised on real property and offered
761
or sold by the owner or lessee of the real property;
762
(ii) [any] a metal or mineral, including a precious metal, except a numismatic coin
763
whose fair market value is at least 15% greater than the value of the metal it contains;
764
(iii) [any] a gem or gemstone, whether characterized as precious, semi-precious, or
765
otherwise;
766
(iv) [any] a fuel, whether liquid, gaseous, or otherwise;
767
(v) [any] a foreign currency; and
768
(vi) all other goods, articles, products, or items of any kind, except [any] a work of art
769
offered or sold by art dealers, at public auction or offered or sold through a private sale by the
770
owner of the work.
771
[(f)] (g) (i) "Commodity contract" means [any] an account, agreement, or contract for
772
the purchase or sale, primarily for speculation or investment purposes and not for use or
773
consumption by the offeree or purchaser, of one or more commodities, whether for immediate
774
or subsequent delivery or whether delivery is intended by the parties, and whether characterized
775
as a cash contract, deferred shipment or deferred delivery contract, forward contract, futures
776
contract, installment or margin contract, leverage contract, or otherwise.
777
(ii) [Any] A commodity contract offered or sold shall, in the absence of evidence to the
778
contrary, be presumed to be offered or sold for speculation or investment purposes.
779
(iii) (A) A commodity contract [shall] may not include [any] a contract or agreement
780
[which] that requires, and under which the purchaser receives, within 28 calendar days from the
781
payment in good funds any portion of the purchase price, physical delivery of the total amount
782
of each commodity to be purchased under the contract or agreement.
783
(B) [The] A purchaser is not considered to have received physical delivery of the total
784
amount of each commodity to be purchased under the contract or agreement when the
785
commodity or commodities are held as collateral for a loan or are subject to a lien of any
786
person when the loan or lien arises in connection with the purchase of each commodity or
787
commodities.
788
[(g)] (h) (i) "Commodity option" means [any] an account, agreement, or contract giving
789
a party to the option the right but not the obligation to purchase or sell one or more
790
commodities or one or more commodity contracts, or both whether characterized as an option,
791
privilege, indemnity, bid, offer, put, call, advance guaranty, decline guaranty, or otherwise.
792
(ii) "Commodity option" does not include an option traded on a national securities
793
exchange registered:
794
(A) with the [United States] Securities and Exchange Commission; or
795
(B) on a board of trade designated as a contract market by the Commodity Futures
796
Trading Commission.
797
(i) "Depository institution" is as defined in Section
7-1-103
.
798
[(h)] (j) "Director" means the director of the [Division of Securities charged with the
799
administration and enforcement of this chapter] division appointed in accordance with Section
800
61-1-18
.
801
[(i)] (k) "Division" means the Division of Securities established by Section
61-1-18
.
802
[(j)] (l) "Executive director" means the executive director of the Department of
803
Commerce.
804
[(k)] (m) "Federal covered adviser" means a person who:
805
(i) is registered under Section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940; or
806
(ii) is excluded from the definition of "investment adviser" under Section 202(a)(11) of
807
the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
808
[(l)] (n) "Federal covered security" means [any] a security that is a covered security
809
under Section 18(b) of the Securities Act of 1933 or rules or regulations promulgated under
810
Section 18(b) of the Securities Act of 1933.
811
[(m)] (o) "Fraud," "deceit," and "defraud" are not limited to their common-law
812
meanings.
813
[(n)] (p) "Guaranteed" means guaranteed as to payment of principal or interest as to
814
debt securities, or dividends as to equity securities.
815
[(o)] (q) (i) "Investment adviser" means [any] a person who:
816
(A) for compensation, engages in the business of advising others, either directly or
817
through publications or writings, as to the value of securities or as to the advisability of
818
investing in, purchasing, or selling securities; or
819
(B) for compensation and as a part of a regular business, issues or promulgates
820
analyses or reports concerning securities.
821
(ii) "Investment adviser" includes a financial [planners and] planner or other [persons]
822
person who:
823
(A) as an integral component of other financially related services, [provide] provides
824
the investment advisory services described in Subsection (1)[(o)](q)(i) to others for
825
compensation and as part of a business; or
826
(B) [hold themselves] holds the person out as providing the investment advisory
827
services described in Subsection (1)[(o)](q)(i) to others for compensation.
828
(iii) "Investment adviser" does not include:
829
(A) an investment adviser representative;
830
(B) a [bank, savings institution,] depository institution or trust company;
831
(C) a lawyer, accountant, engineer, or teacher whose performance of these services is
832
solely incidental to the practice of the profession;
833
(D) a broker-dealer or its agent whose performance of these services is solely
834
incidental to the conduct of its business as a broker-dealer and who receives no special
835
compensation for the services;
836
(E) a publisher of [any] a bona fide newspaper, news column, news letter, news
837
magazine, or business or financial publication or service, of general, regular, and paid
838
circulation, whether communicated in hard copy form, or by electronic means, or otherwise,
839
that does not consist of the rendering of advice on the basis of the specific investment situation
840
of each client;
841
(F) [any] a person who is a federal covered adviser;
842
(G) a person described in Subsection (3); or
843
(H) such other persons not within the intent of this Subsection (1)[(o)](q) as the
844
division may by rule or order designate.
845
[(p)] (r) (i) "Investment adviser representative" means [any] a partner, officer, director
846
of, or a person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions, or other individual,
847
except clerical or ministerial personnel, who:
848
(A) (I) is employed by or associated with an investment adviser who is licensed or
849
required to be licensed under this chapter; or
850
(II) has a place of business located in this state and is employed by or associated with a
851
federal covered adviser; and
852
(B) does any of the following:
853
(I) makes [any recommendations] a recommendation or otherwise renders advice
854
regarding securities;
855
(II) manages accounts or portfolios of clients;
856
(III) determines which recommendation or advice regarding securities should be given;
857
(IV) solicits, offers, or negotiates for the sale of or sells investment advisory services;
858
or
859
(V) supervises employees who perform any of the acts described in this Subsection
860
(1)[(p)](r)(i)(B).
861
(ii) "Investment [advisor] adviser representative" does not include a person described
862
in Subsection (3).
863
(s) "Investment contract" includes:
864
(i) an investment in a common enterprise with the expectation of profit to be derived
865
through the essential managerial efforts of someone other than the investor; or
866
(ii) an investment by which:
867
(A) an offeree furnishes initial value to an offerer;
868
(B) a portion of the initial value is subjected to the risks of the enterprise;
869
(C) the furnishing of the initial value is induced by the offerer's promises or
870
representations that give rise to a reasonable understanding that a valuable benefit of some kind
871
over and above the initial value will accrue to the offeree as a result of the operation of the
872
enterprise; and
873
(D) the offeree does not receive the right to exercise practical or actual control over the
874
managerial decisions of the enterprise.
875
(t) "Isolated transaction" means not more than a total of two transactions that occur
876
anywhere during six consecutive months.
877
[(q)] (u) (i) "Issuer" means [any] a person who issues or proposes to issue [any] a
878
security or has outstanding a security that it has issued.
879
(ii) With respect to a preorganization certificate or subscription, "issuer" means the
880
[promoter or the] one or more promoters of the person to be organized.
881
(iii) "Issuer" means the [person or] one or more persons performing the acts and
882
assuming duties of a depositor or manager under the provisions of the trust or other agreement
883
or instrument under which the security is issued with respect to:
884
(A) interests in trusts, including collateral trust certificates, voting trust certificates, and
885
certificates of deposit for securities; or
886
(B) shares in an investment company without a board of directors.
887
(iv) With respect to an equipment trust certificate, a conditional sales contract, or
888
similar securities serving the same purpose, "issuer" means the person by whom the equipment
889
or property is to be used.
890
(v) With respect to interests in partnerships, general or limited, "issuer" means the
891
partnership itself and not the general partner or partners.
892
(vi) With respect to certificates of interest or participation in oil, gas, or mining titles or
893
leases or in payment out of production under the titles or leases, "issuer" means the owner of
894
the title or lease or right of production, whether whole or fractional, who creates fractional
895
interests therein for the purpose of sale.
896
[(r)] (v) "Nonissuer" means not directly or indirectly for the benefit of the issuer.
897
[(s)] (w) "Person" means:
898
(i) an individual;
899
(ii) a corporation;
900
(iii) a partnership;
901
(iv) a limited liability company;
902
(v) an association;
903
(vi) a joint-stock company;
904
(vii) a joint venture;
905
(viii) a trust where the interests of the beneficiaries are evidenced by a security;
906
(ix) an unincorporated organization;
907
(x) a government; or
908
(xi) a political subdivision of a government.
909
[(t)] (x) "Precious metal" means the following, whether in coin, bullion, or other form:
910
(i) silver;
911
(ii) gold;
912
(iii) platinum;
913
(iv) palladium;
914
(v) copper; and
915
(vi) such other substances as the division may specify by rule.
916
[(u)] (y) "Promoter" means [any] a person who, acting alone or in concert with one or
917
more persons, takes initiative in founding or organizing the business or enterprise of a person.
918
(z) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(z)(ii), "record" means information that is:
919
(A) inscribed in a tangible medium; or
920
(B) (I) stored in an electronic or other medium; and
921
(II) retrievable in perceivable form.
922
(ii) This Subsection (1)(z) does not apply when the context requires otherwise,
923
including when "record" is used in the following phrases:
924
(A) "of record";
925
(B) "official record"; or
926
(C) "public record."
927
[(v)] (aa) (i) "Sale" or "sell" includes [every] a contract for sale of, contract to sell, or
928
disposition of, a security or interest in a security for value.
929
(ii) "Offer" or "offer to sell" includes [every] an attempt or offer to dispose of, or
930
solicitation of an offer to buy, a security or interest in a security for value.
931
(iii) The following are examples of the definitions in Subsection (1)[(v)](aa)(i) or (ii):
932
(A) [any] a security given or delivered with or as a bonus on account of [any] a
933
purchase of a security or any other thing, is part of the subject of the purchase, and [has been] is
934
offered and sold for value;
935
(B) a purported gift of assessable stock is an offer or sale as is each assessment levied
936
on the stock;
937
(C) an offer or sale of a security that is convertible into, or entitles its holder to acquire
938
or subscribe to another security of the same or another issuer is an offer or sale of that security,
939
and also an offer of the other security, whether the right to convert or acquire is exercisable
940
immediately or in the future;
941
(D) [any] a conversion or exchange of one security for another [shall constitute]
942
constitutes an offer or sale of the security received in a conversion or exchange, and the offer to
943
buy or the purchase of the security converted or exchanged;
944
(E) securities distributed as a dividend wherein the person receiving the dividend
945
surrenders the right, or the alternative right, to receive a cash or property dividend is an offer or
946
sale;
947
(F) a dividend of a security of another issuer is an offer or sale; or
948
(G) the issuance of a security under a merger, consolidation, reorganization,
949
recapitalization, reclassification, or acquisition of assets [shall constitute] constitutes the offer
950
or sale of the security issued as well as the offer to buy or the purchase of [any] a security
951
surrendered in connection therewith, unless the sole purpose of the transaction is to change the
952
issuer's domicile.
953
(iv) The terms defined in Subsections (1)[(v)](aa)(i) and (ii) do not include:
954
(A) a good faith gift;
955
(B) a transfer by death;
956
(C) a transfer by termination of a trust or of a beneficial interest in a trust;
957
(D) a security dividend not within Subsection (1)[(v)](aa)(iii)(E) or (F); or
958
(E) a securities split or reverse split[; or].
959
[(F) any act incident to a judicially approved reorganization in which a security is
960
issued in exchange for one or more outstanding securities, claims, or property interests, or
961
partly in such exchange and partly for cash.]
962
[(w)] (bb) "Securities Act of 1933," "Securities Exchange Act of 1934," ["Public
963
Utility Holding Company Act of 1935,"] and "Investment Company Act of 1940" mean the
964
federal statutes of those names as amended before or after the effective date of this chapter.
965
(cc) "Securities Exchange Commission" means the United States Securities Exchange
966
Commission created by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
967
[(x)] (dd) (i) "Security" means [any] a:
968
(A) note;
969
(B) stock;
970
(C) treasury stock;
971
(D) bond;
972
(E) debenture;
973
(F) evidence of indebtedness;
974
(G) certificate of interest or participation in [any] a profit-sharing agreement;
975
(H) collateral-trust certificate;
976
(I) preorganization certificate or subscription;
977
(J) transferable share;
978
(K) investment contract;
979
(L) burial certificate or burial contract;
980
(M) voting-trust certificate;
981
(N) certificate of deposit for a security;
982
(O) certificate of interest or participation in an oil, gas, or mining title or lease or in
983
payments out of production under such a title or lease;
984
(P) commodity contract or commodity option;
985
(Q) interest in a limited liability company;
986
(R) viatical settlement interest; or
987
(S) in general, [any] an interest or instrument commonly known as a "security," or
988
[any] a certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for,
989
guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase [any of the foregoing] an item
990
listed in Subsections (1)(dd)(i)(A) through (R).
991
(ii) "Security" does not include [any]:
992
(A) an insurance or endowment policy or annuity contract under which an insurance
993
company promises to pay money in a lump sum or periodically for life or some other specified
994
period;
995
(B) an interest in a limited liability company in which the limited liability company is
996
formed as part of an estate plan where all of the members are related by blood or marriage,
997
[there are five or fewer members,] or the person claiming this exception can prove that all of
998
the members are actively engaged in the management of the limited liability company; or
999
(C) (I) a whole long-term estate in real property;
1000
(II) an undivided fractionalized long-term estate in real property that consists of ten or
1001
fewer owners; or
1002
(III) an undivided fractionalized long-term estate in real property that consists of more
1003
than ten owners if, when the real property estate is subject to a management agreement:
1004
(Aa) the management agreement permits a simple majority of owners of the real
1005
property estate to not renew or to terminate the management agreement at the earlier of the end
1006
of the management agreement's current term, or 180 days after the day on which the owners
1007
give notice of termination to the manager;
1008
(Bb) the management agreement prohibits, directly or indirectly, the lending of the
1009
proceeds earned from the real property estate or the use or pledge of its assets to [any] a person
1010
or entity affiliated with or under common control of the manager; and
1011
(Cc) the management agreement complies with any other requirement imposed by rule
1012
by the Real Estate Commission under Section
61-2-26
.
1013
(iii) For purposes of Subsection (1)[(x)](dd)(ii)(B), evidence that members vote or
1014
have the right to vote, or the right to information concerning the business and affairs of the
1015
limited liability company, or the right to participate in management, [shall] may not establish,
1016
without more, that all members are actively engaged in the management of the limited liability
1017
company.
1018
[(y)] (ee) "State" means [any] a state, territory, or possession of the United States, the
1019
District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.
1020
[(z)] (ff) (i) "Undivided fractionalized long-term estate" means an ownership interest in
1021
real property by two or more persons that is a:
1022
(A) tenancy in common; or
1023
(B) any other legal form of undivided estate in real property including:
1024
(I) a fee estate;
1025
(II) a life estate; or
1026
(III) other long-term estate.
1027
(ii) "Undivided fractionalized long-term estate" does not include a joint tenancy.
1028
[(aa)] (gg) (i) "Viatical settlement interest" means the entire interest or [any] a
1029
fractional interest in any of the following that is the subject of a viatical settlement:
1030
(A) a life insurance policy; or
1031
(B) the death benefit under a life insurance policy.
1032
(ii) "Viatical settlement interest" does not include the initial purchase from the viator
1033
by a viatical settlement provider.
1034
[(bb)] (hh) "Whole long-term estate" means a person owns or persons through joint
1035
tenancy [owns] own real property through:
1036
(i) a fee estate;
1037
(ii) a life estate; or
1038
(iii) other long-term estate.
1039
[(cc)] (ii) "Working days" means 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, exclusive
1040
of legal holidays listed in Section
63G-1-301
.
1041
(2) A term not defined in this section shall have the meaning as established by division
1042
rule. The meaning of a term neither defined in this section nor by rule of the division shall be
1043
the meaning commonly accepted in the business community.
1044
(3) (a) This Subsection (3) applies to:
1045
(i) the offer or sale of a real property estate exempted from the definition of security
1046
under Subsection (1)[(x)](dd)(ii)(C); or
1047
(ii) the offer or sale of an undivided fractionalized long-term estate that is the offer of a
1048
security.
1049
(b) A person who, directly or indirectly receives compensation in connection with the
1050
offer or sale as provided in this Subsection (3) of a real property estate is not an agent,
1051
broker-dealer, investment adviser, or [investor] investment adviser representative under this
1052
chapter if that person is licensed under Chapter 2, Division of Real Estate, as:
1053
(i) a principal real estate broker;
1054
(ii) an associate real estate broker; or
1055
(iii) a real estate sales agent.
1056
(4) The list of real property estates excluded from the definition of securities under
1057
Subsection (1)[(x)](dd)(ii)(C) is not an exclusive list of real property estates or interests that are
1058
not a security.
1059
Section 10.
Section
61-1-14
is amended to read:
1060
61-1-14. Exemptions.
1061
(1) The following securities are [exempted] exempt from Sections
61-1-7
and
61-1-15
:
1062
(a) [any] a security, including a revenue obligation, issued or guaranteed by the United
1063
States, [any] a state, [any] a political subdivision of a state, or [any] an agency or corporate or
1064
other instrumentality of one or more of the foregoing, or [any] a certificate of deposit for any of
1065
the foregoing;
1066
(b) [any] a security issued or guaranteed by Canada, [any] a Canadian province, [any] a
1067
political subdivision of [any] a Canadian province, [any] an agency or corporate or other
1068
instrumentality of one or more of the foregoing, or [any other] another foreign government with
1069
which the United States currently maintains diplomatic relations, if the security is recognized
1070
as a valid obligation by the issuer or guarantor;
1071
(c) [any] a security issued by and representing an interest in or a debt of, or guaranteed
1072
by, [any bank] a depository institution organized under the laws of the United States, or [any
1073
bank, savings institution,] a depository institution or trust company supervised under the laws
1074
of [any] a state;
1075
[(d) any security issued by and representing an interest in or a debt of, or guaranteed
1076
by, any federal savings and loan association, or any building and loan or similar association
1077
organized under the laws of any state and authorized to do business in this state;]
1078
[(e) any security issued or guaranteed by any federal credit union or any credit union,
1079
industrial loan association, or similar association organized and supervised under the laws of
1080
this state;]
1081
[(f) any] (d) a security issued or guaranteed by [any] a public utility [or holding
1082
company which is a registered holding company under the Public Utility Holding Company
1083
Act of 1935 or a subsidiary of such a company within the meaning of that act,] or [any] a
1084
security regulated in respect of its rates or in its issuance by a governmental authority of the
1085
United States, [any] a state, Canada, or [any] a Canadian province;
1086
[(g) any security listed on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated
1087
Quotation National Market System, the New York Stock Exchange, the American Stock
1088
Exchange, or on any other stock exchange or medium approved by the division, except that the
1089
director may at any time suspend or revoke this exemption for any particular stock exchange,
1090
medium, security, or securities under Subsection (4); any other security of the same issuer
1091
which is of senior or substantially equal rank to any security so listed and approved by the
1092
director, any security called for by subscription rights or warrants so listed or approved, or any
1093
warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to any of the foregoing;]
1094
(e) (i) a federal covered security specified in the Securities Act of 1933, Section
1095
18(b)(1), 15 U.S.C. Section 77r(b)(1), or by rule adopted under that provision;
1096
(ii) a security listed or approved for listing on another securities market specified by
1097
rule under this chapter;
1098
(iii) any of the following with respect to a security described in Subsection (1)(e)(i) or
1099
(ii):
1100
(A) a put or a call option contract;
1101
(B) a warrant; or
1102
(C) a subscription right on or with respect to the security;
1103
(iv) an option or similar derivative security on a security or an index of securities or
1104
foreign currencies issued by a clearing agency that is:
1105
(A) registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; and
1106
(B) listed or designated for trading on a national securities exchange, or a facility of a
1107
national securities association registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
1108
(v) an offer or sale, of the underlying security in connection with the offer, sale, or
1109
exercise of an option or other security that was exempt when the option or other security was
1110
written or issued; or
1111
(vi) an option or a derivative security designated by the Securities and Exchange
1112
Commission under Securities Exchange Act of 1934, Section 9(b), 15 U.S.C. Section 78i(b);
1113
[(h)] (f) (i) [any] a security issued by [any] a person organized and operated not for
1114
private profit but exclusively for religious, educational, benevolent, charitable, fraternal, social,
1115
athletic, or reformatory purposes, or as a chamber of commerce or trade or professional
1116
association; and
1117
(ii) [any] a security issued by a corporation organized under Title 3, Chapter 1, General
1118
Provisions Relating to Agricultural Cooperative Associations, and [any] a security issued by a
1119
corporation to which [the provisions of] that chapter [are] is made applicable by compliance
1120
with [the requirements of] Section
3-1-21
;
1121
[(i) a promissory note, draft, bill of exchange, or banker's acceptance that evidences an
1122
obligation to pay cash within nine months after the date of issuance, exclusive of days of grace,
1123
or a renewal of such an obligation that is likewise limited, or a guarantee of such an obligation
1124
or of a renewal:]
1125
[(i) issued in denominations of at least $50,000; and]
1126
[(ii) either:]
1127
[(A) receives a rating in one of the three highest rating categories from a nationally
1128
recognized statistical rating organization; or]
1129
[(B) the issuer satisfies requirements established by rule or order of the division;]
1130
[(j) any] (g) an investment contract issued in connection with an employees' stock
1131
purchase, option, savings, pension, profit-sharing, or similar benefit plan;
1132
[(k) a security issued by an issuer registered as an open-end management investment
1133
company or unit investment trust under Section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, if:]
1134
[(i) (A) the issuer is advised by an investment adviser that is a depository institution
1135
exempt from registration under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or that is currently
1136
registered as an investment adviser, and has been registered, or is affiliated with an adviser that
1137
has been registered, as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 for at
1138
least three years next preceding an offer or sale of a security claimed to be exempt under this
1139
subsection; and]
1140
[(B) the adviser has acted, or is affiliated with an investment adviser that has acted as
1141
investment adviser to one or more registered investment companies or unit investment trusts
1142
for at least three years next preceding an offer or sale of a security claimed to be exempt under
1143
this subsection; or]
1144
[(ii) the issuer has a sponsor that has at all times throughout the three years before an
1145
offer or sale of a security claimed to be exempt under this subsection sponsored one or more
1146
registered investment companies or unit investment trusts the aggregate total assets of which
1147
have exceeded $100,000,000;]
1148
[(iii) in addition to Subsection (i) or (ii), the division has received prior to any sale
1149
exempted herein:]
1150
[(A) a notice of intention to sell which has been executed by the issuer which sets forth
1151
the name and address of the issuer and the title of the securities to be offered in this state; and]
1152
[(B) a filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
;]
1153
[(iv) in the event any offer or sale of a security of an open-end management investment
1154
company is to be made more than 12 months after the date on which the notice and fee under
1155
Subsection (iii) is received by the director, another notice and payment of the applicable fee
1156
shall be required;]
1157
[(v) for the purpose of this subsection, an investment adviser is affiliated with another
1158
investment adviser if it controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the other
1159
investment adviser; and]
1160
(h) a security issued by an investment company that is registered, or that has filed a
1161
registration statement, under the Investment Company Act of 1940; and
1162
[(l)] (i) [any] a security as to which the director, by rule or order, finds that registration
1163
is not necessary or appropriate for the protection of investors.
1164
(2) The following transactions are [exempted] exempt from Sections
61-1-7
and
1165
61-1-15
:
1166
(a) [any] an isolated nonissuer transaction, whether effected through a broker-dealer or
1167
not;
1168
(b) [any] a nonissuer transaction in an outstanding security, if as provided by rule of the
1169
division:
1170
(i) information about the issuer of the security as required by the division is currently
1171
listed in a securities manual recognized by the division, and the listing is based upon such
1172
information as required by rule of the division; or
1173
(ii) the security has a fixed maturity or a fixed interest or dividend provision and there
1174
[has been] is no default during the current fiscal year or within the three preceding fiscal years,
1175
or during the existence of the issuer and any predecessors if less than three years, in the
1176
payment of principal, interest, or dividends on the security;
1177
(c) [any] a nonissuer transaction effected by or through a registered broker-dealer
1178
pursuant to an unsolicited order or offer to buy;
1179
(d) [any] a transaction between the issuer or other person on whose behalf the offering
1180
is made and an underwriter, or among underwriters;
1181
(e) [any] a transaction in a bond or other evidence of indebtedness secured by a real or
1182
chattel mortgage or deed of trust, or by an agreement for the sale of real estate or chattels, if the
1183
entire mortgage, deed of trust, or agreement, together with all the bonds or other evidences of
1184
indebtedness secured thereby, is offered and sold as a unit;
1185
(f) [any] a transaction by an executor, administrator, sheriff, marshal, receiver, trustee
1186
in bankruptcy, guardian, or conservator;
1187
(g) [any] a transaction executed by a bona fide pledgee without [any] a purpose of
1188
evading this chapter;
1189
(h) [any] an offer or sale to one of the following whether the purchaser is acting for
1190
itself or in a fiduciary capacity:
1191
(i) a [bank, savings institution,] depository institution;
1192
(ii) a trust company[,];
1193
(iii) an insurance company[,];
1194
(iv) an investment company as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940[,];
1195
(v) a pension or profit-sharing trust[, or];
1196
(vi) other financial institution or institutional investor[,]; or [to]
1197
(vii) a broker-dealer[, whether the purchaser is acting for itself or in some fiduciary
1198
capacity];
1199
(i) [any] an offer or sale of a preorganization certificate or subscription if:
1200
(i) no commission or other remuneration is paid or given directly or indirectly for
1201
soliciting [any] a prospective subscriber;
1202
(ii) the number of subscribers acquiring [any] a legal or beneficial interest therein does
1203
not exceed ten; [and]
1204
(iii) there is no general advertising or solicitation in connection with the offer or sale;
1205
and
1206
(iv) no payment is made by a subscriber;
1207
(j) [any] subject to Subsection (6), a transaction pursuant to an offer by an issuer of its
1208
securities to its existing securities holders, if:
1209
(i) no commission or other remuneration, other than a standby commission is paid or
1210
given directly or indirectly for soliciting [any] a security [holders] holder in this state; and
1211
(ii) the transaction constitutes [either]:
1212
(A) the conversion of convertible securities;
1213
(B) the exercise of nontransferable rights or warrants;
1214
(C) the exercise of transferable rights or warrants if the rights or warrants are
1215
exercisable not more than 90 days after their issuance; or
1216
(D) the purchase of securities under a preemptive right; [and] or
1217
[(ii) the exemption created by Subsection (2)(j) is not available for an offer or sale of
1218
securities to existing securities holders who have acquired their securities from the issuer in a
1219
transaction in violation of Section
61-1-7
;]
1220
(E) a transaction other than one specified in Subsections (2)(j)(ii)(A) through (D) if:
1221
(I) the division is furnished with:
1222
(Aa) a general description of the transaction;
1223
(Bb) the disclosure materials to be furnished to the issuer's securities holders in the
1224
transaction; and
1225
(Cc) a non-refundable fee; and
1226
(II) the division does not, by order, deny or revoke the exemption within 20 working
1227
days after the day on which the filing required by Subsection (2)(j)(ii)(E)(I) is complete;
1228
(k) [any] an offer, but not a sale, of a security for which a registration [statements have
1229
been] statement is filed under both this chapter and the Securities Act of 1933 if no stop order
1230
or refusal order is in effect and no public proceeding or examination looking toward such an
1231
order is pending;
1232
(l) a distribution of securities as a dividend if the person distributing the dividend is the
1233
issuer of the securities distributed;
1234
(m) [any] a nonissuer transaction effected by or through a registered broker-dealer
1235
where the broker-dealer or issuer files with the division, and the broker-dealer maintains in the
1236
broker-dealer's records, and makes reasonably available upon request to [any] a person
1237
expressing an interest in a proposed transaction in the security with the broker-dealer
1238
information prescribed by the division under its rules;
1239
(n) [any transactions] a transaction not involving a public offering;
1240
(o) [any] an offer or sale of "condominium units" or "time period units" as those terms
1241
are defined in [the] Title 57, Chapter 8, Condominium Ownership Act, whether or not to be
1242
sold by installment contract, if the [provisions of the] following are complied with:
1243
(i) Title 57, Chapter 8, Condominium Ownership Act, or if the units are located in
1244
another state, the condominium act of that state[, the];
1245
(ii) Title 57, Chapter 11, Utah Uniform Land Sales Practices Act[, the Utah];
1246
(iii) Title 57, Chapter 19, Timeshare and Camp Resort Act[,]; and [the]
1247
(iv) Title 70C, Utah [Uniform] Consumer Credit Code [are complied with];
1248
(p) [any] a transaction or series of transactions involving a merger, consolidation,
1249
reorganization, recapitalization, reclassification, or sale of assets, if the consideration for
1250
which, in whole or in part, is the issuance of securities of a person or persons, and if:
1251
(i) the transaction or series of transactions is incident to a vote of the securities holders
1252
of each person involved or by written consent or resolution of some or all of the securities
1253
holders of each person involved;
1254
(ii) the vote, consent, or resolution is given under a provision in:
1255
(A) the applicable corporate statute or other controlling statute;
1256
(B) the controlling articles of incorporation, trust indenture, deed of trust, or
1257
partnership agreement; or
1258
(C) the controlling agreement among securities holders;
1259
(iii) (A) one person involved in the transaction is required to file proxy or
1260
informational materials under Section 14(a) or (c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or
1261
Section 20 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 and has so filed;
1262
(B) one person involved in the transaction is an insurance company [which] that is
1263
exempt from filing under Section 12(g)(2)(G) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and has
1264
filed proxy or informational materials with the appropriate regulatory agency or official of its
1265
domiciliary state; or
1266
(C) all persons involved in the transaction are exempt from filing under Section
1267
12(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and file with the division such proxy or
1268
informational material as the division requires by rule;
1269
(iv) the proxy or informational material is filed with the division and distributed to all
1270
securities holders entitled to vote in the transaction or series of transactions at least ten working
1271
days prior to any necessary vote by the securities holders or action on any necessary consent or
1272
resolution; and
1273
(v) the division does not, by order, deny or revoke the exemption within ten working
1274
days after filing of the proxy or informational materials;
1275
(q) [any] subject to Subsection (7), a transaction pursuant to an offer to sell securities
1276
of an issuer if:
1277
(i) the transaction is part of an issue in which there are not more than 15 purchasers in
1278
this state, other than those designated in Subsection (2)(h), during any 12 consecutive months;
1279
(ii) no general solicitation or general advertising is used in connection with the offer to
1280
sell or sale of the securities;
1281
(iii) no commission or other similar compensation is given, directly or indirectly, to a
1282
person other than a broker-dealer or agent licensed under this chapter, for soliciting a
1283
prospective purchaser in this state;
1284
(iv) the seller reasonably believes that all the purchasers in this state are purchasing for
1285
investment; and
1286
(v) the transaction is part of an aggregate offering that does not exceed [$500,000]
1287
$1,000,000, or a greater amount as prescribed by a division rule, during any 12 consecutive
1288
months; [and]
1289
[(vi) the director, as to a security or transaction, or a type of security or transaction,
1290
may withdraw or further condition this exemption or waive one or more of the conditions in
1291
Subsection (q);]
1292
(r) [any] a transaction involving a commodity contract or commodity option; [and]
1293
(s) a transaction in a security, whether or not the security or transaction is otherwise
1294
exempt if:
1295
(i) the transaction is:
1296
(A) in exchange for one or more outstanding securities, claims, or property interests; or
1297
(B) partly for cash and partly in exchange for one or more outstanding securities,
1298
claims, or property interests; and
1299
(ii) the terms and conditions are approved by the director after a hearing under Section
1300
61-1a-408
;
1301
(t) a transaction incident to a judicially approved reorganization in which a security is
1302
issued:
1303
(i) in exchange for one or more outstanding securities, claims, or property interests; or
1304
(ii) partly for cash and partly in exchange for one or more outstanding securities,
1305
claims, or property interests;
1306
(u) a nonissuer transaction by a federal covered investment adviser with investments
1307
under management in excess of $100,000,000 acting in the exercise of discretionary authority
1308
in a signed record for the account of others; and
1309
[(s) any] (v) a transaction as to which the division finds that registration is not
1310
necessary or appropriate for the protection of investors.
1311
(3) [Every] A person filing an exemption notice or application shall pay a filing fee as
1312
determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
1313
(4) Upon approval by a majority of the [Securities Advisory Board] commission, the
1314
director, by means of an adjudicative proceeding conducted in accordance with Title 63G,
1315
Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, may deny or revoke [any] an exemption specified in
1316
Subsection (1)[(g), (h), or (j)] (f) or (g) or in Subsection (2) with respect to:
1317
(a) a specific security, transaction, or series of transactions; or
1318
(b) [any] a person or issuer, [any] an affiliate or successor to a person or issuer, or
1319
[any] an entity subsequently organized by or on behalf of a person or issuer generally and may
1320
impose a fine if the [person] director finds that the order is in the public interest and that:
1321
(i) the application for or notice of exemption filed with the division is incomplete in
1322
[any] a material respect or contains [any] a statement which was, in the light of the
1323
circumstances under which it was made, false or misleading with respect to [any] a material
1324
fact;
1325
(ii) [any provision of] this chapter, or [any] a rule, order, or condition lawfully imposed
1326
under this chapter has been willfully violated in connection with the offering or exemption by:
1327
(A) the person filing [any] an application for or notice of exemption;
1328
(B) the issuer, [any] a partner, officer, or director of the issuer, [any] a person
1329
occupying a similar status or performing similar functions, or [any] a person directly or
1330
indirectly controlling or controlled by the issuer, but only if the person filing the application for
1331
or notice of exemption is directly or indirectly controlled by or acting for the issuer; or
1332
(C) [any] an underwriter;
1333
(iii) subject to Subsection (8), the security for which the exemption is sought is the
1334
subject of an administrative stop order or similar order, or a permanent or temporary injunction
1335
or [any] a court of competent jurisdiction entered under [any other] another federal or state act
1336
applicable to the offering or exemption; [the division may not institute a proceeding against an
1337
effective exemption under this subsection more than one year from the date of the order or
1338
injunction relied on, and it may not enter an order under this subsection on the basis of an order
1339
or injunction entered under any other state act unless that order or injunction was based on
1340
facts that would currently constitute a ground for a stop order under this section;]
1341
(iv) the issuer's enterprise or method of business includes or would include activities
1342
that are illegal where performed;
1343
(v) the offering has worked, has tended to work, or would operate to work a fraud upon
1344
purchasers;
1345
(vi) the offering [has been] is or was made with unreasonable amounts of underwriters'
1346
and sellers' discounts, commissions, or other compensation, or promoters' profits or
1347
participation, or unreasonable amounts or kinds of options;
1348
(vii) an exemption is sought for a security or transaction [which] that is not eligible for
1349
the exemption; or
1350
(viii) the proper filing fee, if required, has not been paid.
1351
(5) (a) [No] An order under Subsection (4) may not operate retroactively.
1352
(b) [No] A person may not be considered to have violated Section
61-1-7
or
61-1-15
by
1353
reason of [any] an offer or sale effected after the entry of an order under this [subsection]
1354
Subsection (5) if the person sustains the burden of proof that the person did not know, and in
1355
the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the order.
1356
(6) The exemption created by Subsection (2)(j) is not available for an offer or sale of a
1357
security to an existing securities holder who has acquired the holder's security from the issuer
1358
in a transaction in violation of Section
61-1-7
.
1359
(7) As to a security, a transaction, or a type of security or transaction, the division may:
1360
(a) withdraw or further condition the exemption described in Subsection (2)(q); or
1361
(b) waive one or more of the conditions described in Subsection (2)(q).
1362
(8) (a) The director may not institute a proceeding against an effective exemption under
1363
Subsection (4)(b) more than one year from the day on which the order or injunction on which
1364
the director relies is issued.
1365
(b) The director may not enter an order under Subsection (4)(b) on the basis of an order
1366
or injunction entered under another state act unless that order or injunction is issued on the
1367
basis of facts that would constitute a ground for a stop order under this section at the time the
1368
director enters the order.
1369
Section 11.
Section
61-1-15.5
is amended to read:
1370
61-1-15.5. Federal covered securities.
1371
(1) The division by rule or order may require the filing of any of the following
1372
documents with respect to a covered security under Section 18(b)(2) of the Securities Act of
1373
1933:
1374
(a) prior to the initial offer of federal covered security in this state, a notice form as
1375
prescribed by the division or all documents that are part of a federal registration statement filed
1376
with the [U.S.] Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Act of 1933,
1377
together with a consent to service of process signed by the issuer and a filing fee as determined
1378
under Section
61-1-18.4
;
1379
(b) after the initial offer of such federal covered security in this state, all documents
1380
that are part of an amendment to a federal registration statement filed with the U.S. Securities
1381
and Exchange Commission under the Securities Act of 1933, which shall be filed concurrently
1382
with the division;
1383
(c) a report of the value of federal covered securities offered or sold in this state,
1384
together with a filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
; and
1385
(d) a notice filing under this section shall be effective for one year and shall be
1386
renewed annually in order to continue to offer or sell the federal covered securities for which
1387
the notice was filed.
1388
(2) With respect to [any] a security that is a covered security under Section 18(b)(4)(D)
1389
of the Securities Act of 1933, the division by rule or order may require the issuer to file a notice
1390
on SEC Form D and a consent to service of process signed by the issuer no later than 15 days
1391
after the first sale of such covered security in this state, together with a filing fee as determined
1392
under Section
61-1-18.4
.
1393
(3) The division by rule or order may require the filing of [any] a document filed with
1394
the [U.S.] Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Act of 1933, with respect
1395
to a covered security under [Section 18(b)(3) or (4) of the] Securities Act of 1933, Section
1396
18(b)(3) or (4), together with a filing fee as determined under Section
61-1-18.4
.
1397
(4) Upon approval by a majority of the [Securities Advisory Board] commission, the
1398
director, by means of an adjudicative [proceedings] proceeding conducted in accordance with
1399
Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, may issue a stop order suspending the
1400
offer and sale of [any] a federal covered security, except a covered security under Section
1401
18(b)(1) of the Securities Act of 1933, if the director finds that the order is in the public interest
1402
and there is a failure to comply with any condition established under this section.
1403
(5) The division by rule or order may waive any or all of the provisions of this section.
1404
Section 12.
Section
61-1-18
is amended to read:
1405
61-1-18. Division of Securities established -- Director -- Investigators.
1406
(1) (a) There is established within the Department of Commerce a Division of
1407
Securities.
1408
(b) The division [shall be] is under the direction and control of a director[, appointed
1409
by the]. The executive director shall appoint the director with the governor's approval.
1410
(c) [The director shall be responsible for the administration and enforcement of]
1411
Subject to Section
61-1-18.5
, the division shall administer and enforce this chapter.
1412
(d) The director shall hold office at the pleasure of the governor.
1413
(2) The director, with the approval of the executive director, may employ [such] the
1414
staff [as] necessary to discharge the duties of the division or commission at salaries to be fixed
1415
by the director according to standards established by the Department of Human Resource
1416
Management.
1417
(3) An investigator employed pursuant to Subsection (2) who meets the training
1418
requirements of Subsection
53-13-105
(3) may be designated a special function officer, as
1419
defined in Section
53-13-105
, by the director, but is not eligible for retirement benefits under
1420
the Public Safety Employee's Retirement System.
1421
Section 13.
Section
61-1-18.2
is amended to read:
1422
61-1-18.2. Budget -- Annual report.
1423
The director shall annually prepare and submit to the executive director:
1424
(1) a budget for the expenses of the division and commission for the administration and
1425
enforcement of this chapter for the next fiscal year; and
1426
(2) a report outlining the division's and commission's work for the preceding fiscal
1427
year.
1428
Section 14.
Section
61-1-18.3
is amended to read:
1429
61-1-18.3. Information obtained by division or commission -- Use for personal
1430
benefit prohibited -- Disclosure.
1431
(1) It is unlawful for [any of the division's employees] an employee of the division or
1432
[any] a member of the [Securities Advisory Board] commission to use for personal benefit any
1433
non-public information [which] that is filed with or obtained by the division or commission.
1434
[No provision of this]
1435
(2) This chapter [authorizes] does not authorize the division, an employee of the
1436
division, the commission, or [any of its officers or employees] a member of the commission to
1437
disclose [any such] information described in Subsection (1), except among themselves or when
1438
necessary or appropriate in a proceeding or investigation under this chapter.
1439
(3) No provision of this chapter either creates or derogates from [any] a privilege
1440
[which] that exists at common law or otherwise when documentary or other evidence is sought
1441
under subpoena directed to:
1442
(a) the division;
1443
(b) the commission; or [any of its employees]
1444
(c) a member of the commission; or
1445
(d) an employee of the division.
1446
Section 15.
Section
61-1-18.5
is amended to read:
1447
61-1-18.5. Securities Commission -- Transition.
1448
(1) (a) There is [hereby established] created a Securities [Advisory Board]
1449
Commission.
1450
[(b) Members of the board shall be appointed by the governor with the consent of the
1451
Senate.]
1452
(b) The division shall provide staffing to the commission.
1453
[(c)] (2) (a) The [board] commission shall [have the following duties]:
1454
(i) formulate and make recommendations to the director regarding policy and
1455
budgetary matters;
1456
(ii) submit recommendations regarding registration requirements [and division rules];
1457
(iii) formulate and make recommendations to the director regarding the establishment
1458
of reasonable fees; [and]
1459
(iv) [generally] act in an advisory capacity to the director with respect to the exercise of
1460
[his] the director's duties, powers, and responsibilities[.];
1461
(v) conduct an administrative hearing under this chapter that is not:
1462
(A) delegated by the commission to an administrative law judge or the division relating
1463
to a violation of this chapter; or
1464
(B) expressly delegated to the division under this chapter;
1465
(vi) except as provided in Subsection (2)(b), impose a sanction as provided in this
1466
chapter;
1467
(vii) review rules made by the division for purposes of concurrence in accordance with
1468
Section
61-1-24
; and
1469
(viii) perform other duties as this chapter provides.
1470
(b) (i) The commission may delegate to the division the authority to impose a sanction
1471
under this chapter.
1472
(ii) If under Subsection (2)(b)(i) the commission delegates to the division the authority
1473
to impose a sanction, a person who is subject to the sanction may petition the commission for
1474
review of the sanction.
1475
(iii) A person who is sanctioned by the division in accordance with this Subsection
1476
(2)(b) may seek agency review by the executive director only after the commission reviews the
1477
division's action.
1478
[(2)] (3) (a) The [Securities Advisory Board shall be comprised of] governor shall
1479
appoint five members [who shall be appointed in accordance with the following] to the
1480
commission with the consent of the Senate as follows:
1481
(i) two members from the securities brokerage community:
1482
(A) who are not from the same broker-dealer or affiliate; and
1483
(B) who have at least five years prior experience in securities matters;
1484
(ii) one member from the securities section of the Utah State Bar [Association;]:
1485
(A) whose practice primarily involves:
1486
(I) corporate securities; or
1487
(II) representation of plaintiffs in securities cases;
1488
(B) who does not routinely represent clients involved in:
1489
(I) civil or administrative litigation with the division; or
1490
(II) criminal cases brought under this chapter; and
1491
(C) who has at least five years prior experience in securities matters;
1492
(iii) one member who is an officer or director of a [corporation] business entity not
1493
subject to the reporting requirements of Section 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of
1494
1934 ; and
1495
(iv) one member from the public at large who has no active participation in the
1496
securities business.
1497
(b) [No] A member may not serve more than two consecutive terms.
1498
[(3)] (4) (a) Except as required by Subsection [(3)] (4)(b) and subject to Subsection
1499
(4)(c), as terms of current [board] members expire, the governor shall appoint [each] a new
1500
member or reappointed member to a four-year term.
1501