Download Zipped Amended WordPerfect HB0230S01.ZIP
[Introduced][Status][Bill Documents][Fiscal Note][Bills Directory]

First Substitute H.B. 230

This document includes House Floor Amendments incorporated into the bill on Mon, Feb 7, 2011 at 11:49 AM by jeyring. -->

Representative Paul Ray proposes the following substitute bill:


             1     
DISABILITY AMENDMENTS

             2     
2011 GENERAL SESSION

             3     
STATE OF UTAH

             4     
Chief Sponsor: Paul Ray

             5     
Senate Sponsor: Lyle W. Hillyard

             6     
             7      LONG TITLE
             8      General Description:
             9          To the extent possible, this bill replaces outdated terms relating to persons with a
             10      disability with updated terms.
             11      Highlighted Provisions:
             12          This bill:
             13          .    defines terms;
             14          .    except where impracticable due to language used in federal law, uniform law,
             15      interstate compacts, or case law, replaces terms as follows:
             16              .    replaces the term "mental retardation," and its variations, with "intellectual
             17      disability";
             18              .    replaces the term "crippled," with "disability";
             19              .    replaces the term "disabled person," and similar references, with the term
             20      "person with a disability" or similar variations;
             21              .    replaces the term "mentally ill person" and similar references, with the term
             22      "person with a mental illness" or similar variations;
             23              .    replaces the term "paraplegic" and similar references, with the term "person with
             24      paraplegia" or similar variations;
             25              .    replaces the term "guilty and mentally ill," with the term "guilty with a mental


             26      illness";
             27              .    replaces the term "guilty of a lesser offense and mentally ill," with the term
             28      "guilty of a lesser offense with a mental illness"; and
             29          .    makes technical changes.
             30      Money Appropriated in this Bill:
             31          None
             32      Other Special Clauses:
             33          This bill provides an effective date.
             33a      H. This bill coordinates with H.B. 13, Immunizations for Teen Mothers, by providing
             33b      technical amendments. .H
             34      Utah Code Sections Affected:
             35      AMENDS:
             36          9-4-801, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
             37          9-4-802, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 278
             38          9-4-903, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 319
             39          17B-2a-823, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 329
             40          19-6-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 72
             41          20A-1-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 264
             42          20A-3-108, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 75
             43          20A-3-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 273
             44          20A-3-406, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 169
             45          20A-3-408, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 112
             46          20A-3-410, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 16
             47          20A-8-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 177
             48          23-19-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 69
             49          23-19-14, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 171
             50          23-19-36, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1999, Chapter 128
             51          23-19-38.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 192
             52          23-20-12, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1975, Chapter 60
             53          24-1-7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 296
             54          26-1-18, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
             55          26-2-27, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 263
             56          26-4-7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 278


             57          26-10-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 73
             58          26-10-2, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1981, Chapter 126
             59          26-10-6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
             60          26-18-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 149, 323, 340, and 391
             61          26-18-3.1, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 314
             62          26-18-501, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 215
             63          26-19-13.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 72
             64          26-21-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 74
             65          26-21-9.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 267
             66          26-21-13.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 201
             67          26-35a-102, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 284
             68          26-35a-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 83
             69          26-35a-108, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 31
             70          31A-1-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 10
             71          31A-22-611, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 188
             72          31A-22-614, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 116
             73          31A-22-625, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 10 and 68
             74          31A-22-802, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 90
             75          31A-23a-114, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 298
             76          31A-26-215, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 116
             77          31A-36-111, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 355
             78          34-38-14, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 284
             79          34-41-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375
             80          34A-2-107, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
             81          34A-2-413, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 59
             82          34A-2-703, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375
             83          34A-2-902, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
             84          34A-2-903, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 243
             85          34A-3-104, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375
             86          34A-3-107, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375
             87          34A-4-101, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375


             88          34A-4-102, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 375
             89          34A-8a-102, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 158
             90          34A-8a-301, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 158
             91          34A-8a-302, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 158
             92          34A-8a-303, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 158
             93          39-1-59, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 210
             94          41-6a-1011, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 2
             95          41-22-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapters 289 and 311
             96          49-11-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 257, 266, and 321
             97          49-11-404, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 266 and 321
             98          49-12-601, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 250
             99          49-14-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 240
             100          49-14-504, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 224
             101          49-15-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 240
             102          49-15-504, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 224
             103          49-16-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 266
             104          49-16-502, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 250
             105          49-16-504, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 240
             106          49-16-602, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 130
             107          49-21-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 130
             108          49-21-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 321
             109          49-21-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 266 and 321
             110          49-22-402, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 266
             111          53-3-807, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 315
             112          53-10-208.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 356
             113          53A-1a-704, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 197
             114          53A-3-204, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 2
             115          53A-9-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapters 73 and 86
             116          53A-15-205, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 210
             117          53A-17a-112, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 3
             118          53A-17a-127, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 305


             119          53B-23-101, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 301
             120          54-1-1.6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 176
             121          57-21-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 114
             122          58-15-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 297
             123          58-15-3, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 297
             124          58-17b-503, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 160
             125          58-17b-701, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             126          58-26a-307, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
             127          58-31b-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 214 and 382
             128          58-31b-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 214 and 382
             129          58-60-114, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 356
             130          58-60-509, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 356
             131          58-61-602, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 356
             132          58-67-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             133          58-68-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             134          58-69-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             135          58-71-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             136          58-73-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 324
             137          59-2-1101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 329
             138          59-2-1104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 71
             139          59-2-1105, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 104 and 382
             140          59-2-1109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 72
             141          59-7-602, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 169
             142          59-10-1011, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 223
             143          62A-1-108.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             144          62A-2-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 75
             145          62A-2-120, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 365
             146          62A-2-122, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 75
             147          62A-4a-1010, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 3 and 299
             148          62A-5-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 75
             149          62A-5-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382


             150          62A-5-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 75
             151          62A-5-110, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 145
             152          62A-5-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 42
             153          62A-5-206, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 79
             154          62A-5-207, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 104
             155          62A-5-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 114
             156          62A-5-304, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 207
             157          62A-5-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 207
             158          62A-5-308, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 132
             159          62A-5-309, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 114
             160          62A-5-310, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 1
             161          62A-5-311, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 114
             162          62A-5-312, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 114
             163          62A-5-313, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             164          62A-5-316, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 1
             165          62A-5-317, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 114
             166          62A-5-318, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 132
             167          62A-6-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 254
             168          62A-11-111, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 12
             169          62A-15-605, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
             170          62A-15-608, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             171      Chapter 8
             172          62A-15-610, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 195
             173          62A-15-616, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             174      Chapter 8
             175          62A-15-619, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             176      Chapter 8
             177          62A-15-629, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             178      Chapter 8
             179          62A-15-631, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 303
             180          62A-15-632, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,


             181      Chapter 8
             182          62A-15-644, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             183      Chapter 8
             184          62A-15-706, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session,
             185      Chapter 8
             186          62A-15-902, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 218
             187          63M-9-103, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             188          64-9b-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 363
             189          67-19-27, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 344
             190          68-3-12.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 254
             191          71-10-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 329
             192          71-10-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 134
             193          71-11-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 173
             194          72-10-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 329
             195          75-2-801, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 39
             196          75-5-303, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 104
             197          75-5-316, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 73
             198          75-5-408, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1975, Chapter 150
             199          75-5-425, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1977, Chapter 194
             200          75-5-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 241
             201          76-3-203.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 334
             202          76-3-406, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 339
             203          76-5-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 45
             204          76-5-110, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 219
             205          77-13-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 306
             206          77-16a-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 13
             207          77-16a-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 206
             208          77-16a-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 61
             209          77-16a-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 206
             210          77-16a-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 61
             211          77-16a-202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session, Chapter 8


             212          77-16a-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 61
             213          77-16a-204, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session, Chapter 8
             214          77-16a-205, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 171
             215          77-16a-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Fifth Special Session, Chapter 8
             216          77-16a-304, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 61
             217          77-16a-306, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 171
             218          77-18-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 81
             219          77-18-1.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 337
             220          77-18-8.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 210
             221          77-18-8.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 210
             222          77-27-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 110
             223          77-27-5.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 161
             224          77-27-10.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 10
             225          77-33-5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1980, Chapter 15
             226          77-38-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 339 and renumbered and
             227      amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
             228          78A-2-302, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
             229          78A-6-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 146
             230          78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/11), as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah
             231      2008, Chapter 3
             232          78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/11), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 276
             233          78A-11-108, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
             234          78B-3-110, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
             234a      H. Utah Code Sections Affected by Coordination Clause:
             234b          26-10-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 73
             234c          26-10-2, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1981, Chapter 126 .H
             235     
             236      Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
             237          Section 1. Section 9-4-801 is amended to read:
             238           9-4-801. Creation.
             239          (1) There is created the Homeless Coordinating Committee.
             240          (2) (a) The committee shall consist of the state planning coordinator, the state
             241      superintendent of public instruction, the chair of the board of trustees of the Utah Housing
             242      Corporation, and the executive directors of the Department of Human Services, the Department


             243      of Corrections, the Department of Community and Culture, the Department of Workforce
             244      Services, and the Department of Health, or their designees.
             245          (b) The governor shall appoint the chair from among these members.
             246          (3) The governor may also appoint as members of the committee representatives of
             247      local governments, local housing authorities, local law enforcement agencies, and of federal
             248      and private agencies and organizations concerned with the homeless, [mentally ill,] persons
             249      with a mental illness, the elderly, single-parent families, substance abusers, and persons with a
             250      disability.
             251          (4) (a) Except as required by Subsection (4)(b), as terms of current committee members
             252      expire, the governor shall appoint each new member or reappointed member to a four-year
             253      term.
             254          (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (4)(a), the governor shall, at the
             255      time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
             256      committee members are staggered so that approximately half of the committee is appointed
             257      every two years.
             258          (c) A person appointed under this Subsection (4) may not be appointed to serve more
             259      than three consecutive terms.
             260          (5) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
             261      appointed for the unexpired term.
             262          (6) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
             263      may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
             264          (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
             265          (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
             266          (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
             267      63A-3-107 .
             268          Section 2. Section 9-4-802 is amended to read:
             269           9-4-802. Purposes of Homeless Coordinating Committee -- Uses of Pamela
             270      Atkinson Homeless Account.
             271          (1) (a) The Homeless Coordinating Committee shall work to ensure that services
             272      provided to the homeless by state agencies, local governments, and private organizations are
             273      provided in a cost-effective manner.


             274          (b) Programs funded by the committee shall emphasize emergency housing and
             275      self-sufficiency, including placement in meaningful employment or occupational training
             276      activities and, where needed, special services to meet the unique needs of the homeless who:
             277          (i) have families with children[, or who are mentally ill, disabled, or];
             278          (ii) have a disability or a mental illness; or
             279          (iii) suffer from other serious challenges to employment and self-sufficiency.
             280          (c) The committee may also fund treatment programs to ameliorate the effects of
             281      substance abuse or a disability.
             282          (2) The committee members designated in Subsection 9-4-801 (2) shall:
             283          (a) award contracts funded by the Pamela Atkinson Homeless Account with the advice
             284      and input of those designated in Subsection 9-4-801 (3);
             285          (b) consider need, diversity of geographic location, coordination with or enhancement
             286      of existing services, and the extensive use of volunteers; and
             287          (c) give priority for funding to programs that serve the homeless who [are mentally ill]
             288      have a mental illness and who are in families with children.
             289          (3) (a) In any fiscal year, no more than 80% of the funds in the Pamela Atkinson
             290      Homeless Account may be allocated to organizations that provide services only in Salt Lake,
             291      Davis, Weber, and Utah Counties.
             292          (b) The committee may:
             293          (i) expend up to 3% of its annual appropriation for administrative costs associated with
             294      the allocation of funds from the Pamela Atkinson Homeless Account, and up to 2% of its
             295      annual appropriation for marketing the account and soliciting donations to the account; and
             296          (ii) pay for the initial costs of the State Tax Commission in implementing Section
             297      59-10-1306 from the account.
             298          (4) (a) The committee may not expend, except as provided in Subsection (4)(b), an
             299      amount equal to the greater of $50,000 or 20% of the amount donated to the Pamela Atkinson
             300      Homeless Account during fiscal year 1988-89.
             301          (b) If there are decreases in contributions to the account, the committee may expend
             302      funds held in the account to provide program stability, but the committee shall reimburse the
             303      amounts of those expenditures to the account.
             304          (5) The committee shall make an annual report to the Economic Development and


             305      Human Resources Appropriations Subcommittee regarding the programs and services funded
             306      by contributions to the Pamela Atkinson Homeless Account.
             307          (6) The money in the Pamela Atkinson Homeless Account shall be invested by the
             308      state treasurer according to the procedures and requirements of Title 51, Chapter 7, State
             309      Money Management Act, except that all interest or other earnings derived from the restricted
             310      account shall be deposited in the restricted account.
             311          Section 3. Section 9-4-903 is amended to read:
             312           9-4-903. Definitions.
             313          As used in this part the following words and terms have the following meanings, unless
             314      a different meaning clearly appears from the context:
             315          (1) "Bonds," "notes," and "other obligations" mean any bonds, notes, debentures,
             316      interim certificates, or other evidences of financial indebtedness of the corporation authorized
             317      to be issued under the provisions of this part.
             318          (2) "Construction loan" means a short-term advance of money for the purpose of
             319      constructing residential housing for low and moderate income persons.
             320          (3) "Corporation" means the Utah Housing Corporation created by Section 9-4-904 ,
             321      which, prior to July 1, 2001, was named the Utah Housing Finance Agency.
             322          (4) "Employee of the corporation" means any individual who is employed by the
             323      corporation but who is not a trustee of the corporation.
             324          (5) "Financial assistance" includes:
             325          (a) a loan, whether interest or noninterest bearing, secured or unsecured;
             326          (b) a loan that converts to a grant upon the occurrence of specified conditions;
             327          (c) a development loan;
             328          (d) a grant;
             329          (e) an award;
             330          (f) a subsidy;
             331          (g) a guarantee;
             332          (h) a warranty;
             333          (i) a lease;
             334          (j) a payment on behalf of a borrower of an amount usually paid by a borrower,
             335      including a down payment;


             336          (k) any other form of financial assistance that helps provide affordable housing for low
             337      and moderate income persons; or
             338          (l) any combination of the foregoing.
             339          (6) "Housing development" means a residential housing project, which includes
             340      residential housing for low and moderate income persons.
             341          (7) "Housing sponsor" includes a person who constructs, develops, rehabilitates,
             342      purchases, or owns a housing development that is or will be subject to legally enforceable
             343      restrictive covenants that require the housing development to provide, at least in part,
             344      residential housing to low and moderate income persons, including a local public body, a
             345      nonprofit, limited profit, or for profit corporation, a limited partnership, a limited liability
             346      company, a joint venture, a subsidiary of the corporation, or any subsidiary of the subsidiary, a
             347      cooperative, a mutual housing organization, or any other type of entity or arrangement that
             348      helps provide affordable housing for low and moderate income persons.
             349          (8) "Interest rate contract" means interest rate exchange contracts, interest rate floor
             350      contracts, interest rate ceiling contracts, and other similar contracts authorized in a resolution
             351      or policy adopted or approved by the trustees.
             352          (9) "Local public body" means the state, any municipality, county, district, or other
             353      subdivision or instrumentality of the state, including redevelopment agencies and housing
             354      authorities created under Part 6, Housing Authorities.
             355          (10) "Low and moderate income persons" means persons, irrespective of race, religion,
             356      creed, national origin, or sex, as determined by the corporation to require such assistance as is
             357      made available by this part on account of insufficient personal or family income taking into
             358      consideration factors, including:
             359          (a) the amount of income that persons and families have available for housing needs;
             360          (b) the size of family;
             361          (c) whether or not a person is a single head of household;
             362          (d) the cost and condition of residential housing available; and
             363          (e) the ability of persons and families to compete successfully in the normal private
             364      housing market and to pay the amounts at which private enterprise is providing decent, safe,
             365      and sanitary housing.
             366          [(13)] (11) "Mortgage" means a mortgage, deed of trust, or other instrument securing a


             367      mortgage loan and constituting a lien on real property (the property being held in fee simple or
             368      on a leasehold under a lease having a remaining term, at the time the mortgage is acquired, of
             369      not less than the term for repayment of the mortgage loan secured by the mortgage) improved
             370      or to be improved by residential housing, creating a lien which may be first priority or
             371      subordinate.
             372          [(11)] (12) "Mortgage lender" means any bank, trust company, savings and loan
             373      association, credit union, mortgage banker, or other financial institution authorized to transact
             374      business in the state, any local public body, or any other entity, profit or nonprofit, that makes
             375      mortgage loans.
             376          [(12)] (13) "Mortgage loan" means a loan secured by a mortgage, which loan may bear
             377      interest at either a fixed or variable rate or which may be noninterest bearing, the proceeds of
             378      which are used for the purpose of financing the construction, development, rehabilitation, or
             379      purchase of residential housing for low and moderate income persons, including low and
             380      moderate income persons who:
             381          (a) are first-time homebuyers[,];
             382          (b) are single heads of household[,];
             383          (c) are elderly[,];
             384          (d) are homeless[, or disabled.]; or
             385          (e) have a disability.
             386          (14) "Rehabilitation" includes the reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, and
             387      repair of residential housing.
             388          (15) "Residential housing" means a specific work or improvement within this state
             389      undertaken primarily to provide dwelling accommodations, including land, buildings, and
             390      improvements to land and buildings, whether in one to four family units or multifamily units,
             391      and other incidental or appurtenant nonhousing facilities, or as otherwise specified by the
             392      agency.
             393          (16) "State" means the state of Utah.
             394          (17) "State housing credit ceiling" means the amount specified in Subsection
             395      42(h)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code for each calendar year.
             396          Section 4. Section 17B-2a-823 is amended to read:
             397           17B-2a-823. Public transit district special services.


             398          (1) As used in this section, "bureau" means a recreational, tourist, or convention bureau
             399      established under Section 17-31-2 .
             400          (2) (a) A public transit district may lease its buses to private certified public carriers or
             401      operate transit services requested by a public entity if a bureau certifies that privately owned
             402      carriers furnishing like services or operating like equipment within the area served by the
             403      bureau:
             404          (i) have declined to provide the service; or
             405          (ii) do not have the equipment necessary to provide the service.
             406          (b) A public transit district may lease its buses or operate services as authorized under
             407      Subsection (2)(a) outside of the area served by the district.
             408          (3) If part or all of the transportation services are paid for by public funds, a public
             409      transit district may:
             410          (a) provide school bus services for transportation of pupils and supervisory personnel
             411      between homes and school and other related school activities within the area served by the
             412      district; or
             413          (b) provide the transportation of passengers covered by [an elderly or disabled persons]
             414      a program within the district for people who are elderly or who have a disability.
             415          (4) Notwithstanding the provisions in Subsection (3), a municipality or county is not
             416      prohibited from providing the transportation services identified in Subsection (3).
             417          Section 5. Section 19-6-102 is amended to read:
             418           19-6-102. Definitions.
             419          As used in this part:
             420          (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created in Section
             421      19-1-106 .
             422          (2) "Closure plan" means a plan under Section 19-6-108 to close a facility or site at
             423      which the owner or operator has disposed of nonhazardous solid waste or has treated, stored, or
             424      disposed of hazardous waste including, if applicable, a plan to provide postclosure care at the
             425      facility or site.
             426          (3) (a) "Commercial nonhazardous solid waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility"
             427      means a facility that receives, for profit, nonhazardous solid waste for treatment, storage, or
             428      disposal.


             429          (b) "Commercial nonhazardous solid waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility"
             430      does not include a facility that:
             431          (i) receives waste for recycling;
             432          (ii) receives waste to be used as fuel, in compliance with federal and state
             433      requirements; or
             434          (iii) is solely under contract with a local government within the state to dispose of
             435      nonhazardous solid waste generated within the boundaries of the local government.
             436          (4) "Construction waste or demolition waste":
             437          (a) means waste from building materials, packaging, and rubble resulting from
             438      construction, demolition, remodeling, and repair of pavements, houses, commercial buildings,
             439      and other structures, and from road building and land clearing; and
             440          (b) does not include: asbestos; contaminated soils or tanks resulting from remediation
             441      or cleanup at any release or spill; waste paints; solvents; sealers; adhesives; or similar
             442      hazardous or potentially hazardous materials.
             443          (5) "Demolition waste" has the same meaning as the definition of construction waste in
             444      this section.
             445          (6) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or
             446      placing of any solid or hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that the waste or any
             447      constituent of the waste may enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or discharged into
             448      any waters, including groundwaters.
             449          (7) "Executive secretary" means the executive secretary of the board.
             450          (8) "Generation" or "generated" means the act or process of producing nonhazardous
             451      solid or hazardous waste.
             452          (9) "Hazardous waste" means a solid waste or combination of solid wastes other than
             453      household waste which, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or
             454      infectious characteristics may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an
             455      increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or may pose a substantial
             456      present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated,
             457      stored, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.
             458          (10) "Health facility" means hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, home health agencies,
             459      hospices, skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, intermediate care facilities for


             460      [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual disability, residential health care facilities,
             461      maternity homes or birthing centers, free standing ambulatory surgical centers, facilities owned
             462      or operated by health maintenance organizations, and state renal disease treatment centers
             463      including free standing hemodialysis units, the offices of private physicians and dentists
             464      whether for individual or private practice, veterinary clinics, and mortuaries.
             465          (11) "Household waste" means any waste material, including garbage, trash, and
             466      sanitary wastes in septic tanks, derived from households, including single-family and
             467      multiple-family residences, hotels and motels, bunk houses, ranger stations, crew quarters,
             468      campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas.
             469          (12) "Infectious waste" means a solid waste that contains or may reasonably be
             470      expected to contain pathogens of sufficient virulence and quantity that exposure to the waste by
             471      a susceptible host could result in an infectious disease.
             472          (13) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the quantity, composition, origin,
             473      routing, and destination of hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of
             474      generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.
             475          (14) "Mixed waste" means any material that is a hazardous waste as defined in this
             476      chapter and is also radioactive as defined in Section 19-3-102 .
             477          (15) "Modification plan" means a plan under Section 19-6-108 to modify a facility or
             478      site for the purpose of disposing of nonhazardous solid waste or treating, storing, or disposing
             479      of hazardous waste.
             480          (16) "Operation plan" or "nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste operation plan"
             481      means a plan or approval under Section 19-6-108 , including:
             482          (a) a plan to own, construct, or operate a facility or site for the purpose of disposing of
             483      nonhazardous solid waste or treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste;
             484          (b) a closure plan;
             485          (c) a modification plan; or
             486          (d) an approval that the executive secretary is authorized to issue.
             487          (17) "Permittee" means a person who is obligated under an operation plan.
             488          (18) (a) "Solid waste" means any garbage, refuse, sludge, including sludge from a
             489      waste treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility, or other
             490      discarded material, including solid, liquid, semi-solid, or contained gaseous material resulting


             491      from industrial, commercial, mining, or agricultural operations and from community activities
             492      but does not include solid or dissolved materials in domestic sewage or in irrigation return
             493      flows or discharges for which a permit is required under Title 19, Chapter 5, Water Quality
             494      Act, or under the Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C., Section 1251, et seq.
             495          (b) "Solid waste" does not include any of the following wastes unless the waste causes
             496      a public nuisance or public health hazard or is otherwise determined to be a hazardous waste:
             497          (i) certain large volume wastes, such as inert construction debris used as fill material;
             498          (ii) drilling muds, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration,
             499      development, or production of oil, gas, or geothermal energy;
             500          (iii) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste
             501      generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
             502          (iv) solid wastes from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and
             503      minerals; or
             504          (v) cement kiln dust.
             505          (19) "Storage" means the actual or intended containment of solid or hazardous waste
             506      either on a temporary basis or for a period of years in such a manner as not to constitute
             507      disposal of the waste.
             508          (20) "Transportation" means the off-site movement of solid or hazardous waste to any
             509      intermediate point or to any point of storage, treatment, or disposal.
             510          (21) "Treatment" means a method, technique, or process designed to change the
             511      physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any solid or hazardous waste so as
             512      to neutralize the waste or render the waste nonhazardous, safer for transport, amenable for
             513      recovery, amenable to storage, or reduced in volume.
             514          (22) "Underground storage tank" means a tank which is regulated under Subtitle I of
             515      the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C., Section 6991, et seq.
             516          Section 6. Section 20A-1-501 is amended to read:
             517           20A-1-501. Candidate vacancies -- Procedure for filling.
             518          (1) The state central committee of a political party, for candidates for United States
             519      senator, United States representative, governor, lieutenant governor, attorney general, state
             520      treasurer, and state auditor, and for legislative candidates whose legislative districts encompass
             521      more than one county, and the county central committee of a political party, for all other party


             522      candidates seeking an office elected at a regular general election, may certify the name of
             523      another candidate to the appropriate election officer if:
             524          (a) after the close of the period for filing declarations of candidacy and continuing
             525      through the date 15 days before the date of the primary election:
             526          (i) only one or two candidates from that party have filed a declaration of candidacy for
             527      that office; and
             528          (ii) one or both:
             529          (A) dies;
             530          (B) resigns because of [becoming physically or mentally disabled] acquiring a physical
             531      or mental disability as certified by a physician; or
             532          (C) is disqualified by an election officer for improper filing or nominating procedures;
             533      or
             534          (b) after the close of the primary election and continuing through the date of the voter
             535      registration deadline for the general election as established in Section 20A-2-102.5 , the party's
             536      candidate:
             537          (i) dies;
             538          (ii) resigns because of [becoming physically or mentally disabled] acquiring a physical
             539      or mental disability as certified by a physician;
             540          (iii) is disqualified by an election officer for improper filing or nominating procedures;
             541      or
             542          (iv) resigns to become a candidate for President or Vice President of the United States.
             543          (2) If no more than two candidates from a political party have filed a declaration of
             544      candidacy for an office elected at a regular general election and one resigns to become the party
             545      candidate for another position, the state central committee of that political party, for candidates
             546      for governor, lieutenant governor, attorney general, state treasurer, and state auditor, and for
             547      legislative candidates whose legislative districts encompass more than one county, and the
             548      county central committee of that political party, for all other party candidates, may certify the
             549      name of another candidate to the appropriate election officer.
             550          (3) Each replacement candidate shall file a declaration of candidacy as required by
             551      Title 20A, Chapter 9, Part 2, Candidate Qualifications and Declarations of Candidacy.
             552          (4) A replacement candidate may not be certified for an election during the period


             553      beginning on the day after the date of the voter registration deadline and continuing through the
             554      date of the election.
             555          Section 7. Section 20A-3-108 is amended to read:
             556           20A-3-108. Assisting disabled, illiterate, or blind voters.
             557          (1) Any voter who has a disability, or is blind, [disabled,] unable to read or write,
             558      unable to read or write the English language, or is physically unable to enter a polling place,
             559      may be given assistance by a person of the voter's choice.
             560          (2) The person providing assistance may not be:
             561          (a) the voter's employer;
             562          (b) an agent of the employer;
             563          (c) an officer or agent of the voter's union; or
             564          (d) a candidate.
             565          (3) The person providing assistance may not request, persuade, or otherwise induce the
             566      voter to vote for or vote against any particular candidate or issue or release any information
             567      regarding the voter's selection.
             568          (4) Each time a voter is assisted, the poll worker shall note that fact in the official
             569      register and the pollbook.
             570          Section 8. Section 20A-3-403 is amended to read:
             571           20A-3-403. Definitions.
             572          As used in this part:
             573          (1) (a) "Ballot," ["disabled voter's ballot"] "ballot of a person with a disability," and
             574      "official Utah military ballot" [means] mean the same ballots that will be submitted to and used
             575      by other voters of Utah at the primary or general election.
             576          (b) "Ballot" includes any official federal ballot provided by any Act of Congress to
             577      allow voting by voters in the military service of the United States.
             578          (2) "Federal postcard application form" means the form created by the Federal Voting
             579      Assistance Program (FVAP) which allows military and overseas citizens to register to vote and
             580      apply for an absentee ballot.
             581          (3) "Hostile fire zone" means a geographical area in which forces are assigned on
             582      official temporary duty and placed in imminent danger of being exposed to hostile fire or
             583      explosion of hostile mines.


             584          (4) "Military voter" means each person who is qualified as a voter under the Utah
             585      Constitution and laws or who is eligible for registration and who would, by registration, be
             586      qualified to vote, and who is:
             587          (a) a member of the armed forces of the United States while in the active service or is
             588      the spouse or dependent of that member;
             589          (b) a member of the merchant marine of the United States or is the spouse or dependent
             590      of that member;
             591          (c) a civilian employee of the United States in all categories who is serving outside the
             592      territorial limits of the United States whether or not the employee is subject to the civil service
             593      laws and the Classification Act of 1949, and whether or not the employee is paid from funds
             594      appropriated by the Congress or is the spouse or dependent of that member when residing with
             595      or accompanying them; and
             596          (d) a member of religious groups or welfare agencies assisting members of the armed
             597      forces, who is officially attached to and serving with the armed forces, or is the spouse or
             598      dependent of that member.
             599          (5) "Overseas citizen voter" means:
             600          (a) a member of the armed forces of the United States while in the active service or the
             601      spouse or dependent of that member;
             602          (b) a member of the merchant marines of the United States or the spouse or dependent
             603      of that member; and
             604          (c) a citizen of the United States residing outside the territorial limits of the United
             605      States or the spouse or dependent of that member when residing with them or accompanying
             606      them.
             607          Section 9. Section 20A-3-406 is amended to read:
             608           20A-3-406. Absentee ballots for military personnel and citizens living overseas --
             609      Federal postcard applications for ballot.
             610          (1) (a) An application for an absentee ballot for a military voter who is located in the
             611      United States shall be filed in the county clerk's office no later than the Friday immediately
             612      before the day of election.
             613          (b) A member of the military voting an absentee ballot at the office of the clerk shall
             614      apply and cast the absentee ballot no later than the day before the election.


             615          (2) (a) (i) A military voter stationed overseas and an overseas citizen voter shall file an
             616      application for a ballot with the county clerk no later than 20 days before the date of the
             617      election.
             618          (ii) The application for an overseas military voter under Subsection (2)(a)(i) may be
             619      filed electronically as provided in Section 20A-3-408.5 .
             620          (b) Upon receipt of a properly completed application for an absentee ballot signed by a
             621      military voter or an overseas citizen voter, the county clerk shall mail an appropriate ballot to
             622      the military voter or overseas citizen voter.
             623          (c) At the time the ballot is furnished, the county clerk shall record, in a record book
             624      provided for that purpose:
             625          (i) the name and home address of the military voter or overseas citizen voter to whom
             626      the ballot is mailed;
             627          (ii) the address to which the ballot was mailed; and
             628          (iii) the date the ballot was mailed.
             629          (d) If the military voter or overseas citizen voter sends the absentee ballot application
             630      to the lieutenant governor, the lieutenant governor shall forward the application to the county
             631      clerk of the county where the military voter or overseas citizen voter is entitled to vote.
             632          (e) If the county clerk rejects the application for an absentee ballot from a military or
             633      overseas citizen voter, the county clerk shall inform the voter of the reasons for rejecting the
             634      application.
             635          (3) A military voter or overseas citizen voter who [is physically disabled and] has a
             636      disability and is unable to see or write may apply for a ballot by having a commissioned,
             637      noncommissioned, or petty officer not below the rank of sergeant or other person authorized to
             638      administer oaths to apply for a ballot on the voter's behalf.
             639          (4) (a) A federal postcard application issued under the authority of any Act of Congress
             640      or federal regulation is acceptable, when properly executed, as an application for a ballot under
             641      this chapter.
             642          (b) The county clerk shall accept the completed postcard application as an application
             643      for ballots for each election for federal office held in the next general election and shall send
             644      the applicant a ballot for each of those elections, as required by Section 20A-3-407 .
             645          (5) The county clerk shall retain the application for use at the time the ballot is received


             646      from the military voter or overseas citizen voter.
             647          Section 10. Section 20A-3-408 is amended to read:
             648           20A-3-408. Voting of ballot by military or overseas citizen voter.
             649          (1) (a) The military or overseas citizen voter shall:
             650          (i) upon receipt of the ballot, mark it in secret;
             651          (ii) seal it in the ballot envelope provided for that purpose; and
             652          (iii) execute the registration and voting certificate and mailing affidavit on the back of
             653      the envelope.
             654          (b) (i) If the military or overseas citizen voter [is physically disabled so as to be] has a
             655      disability that renders the voter unable to see or write, [he] the voter may request assistance
             656      from two persons, each of whom shall be qualified to certify to the registration and voting
             657      certificate.
             658          (ii) The military or overseas citizen voter shall tell those persons how [he] the citizen
             659      wishes [his] the citizen's ballot marked.
             660          (iii) Those persons shall mark the ballot as directed by the military or overseas citizen
             661      voter in [his] the voter's presence.
             662          (iv) One of the persons assisting the military or overseas citizen voter shall:
             663          (A) read to the voter the registration and voting certificate upon the ballot;
             664          (B) fill in its blanks as the voter directs; and
             665          (C) sign, on the line provided for the signature of the voter, the name of the voter and
             666      [his] the person's own name.
             667          (2) (a) The ballot shall be sent by any available mail service to the county clerk who
             668      issued it.
             669          (b) The military or overseas citizen voter is not required to return the ballot by
             670      registered mail.
             671          (3) The ballot is not valid unless:
             672          (a) (i) it is clearly postmarked by the appropriate military post office, the Fleet Post
             673      Office (FPO) or the Army/Air Force Post Office (APO), before election day and received in the
             674      office of the election officer before noon on the day of the official canvass following the
             675      election; or
             676          (ii) the voter has signed the mailing affidavit on the back of the ballot envelope and the


             677      ballot is received in the office of the election officer before noon on the day of the official
             678      canvass following the election.
             679          (b) The county clerk shall cause a mailing affidavit to be printed on the back of the
             680      ballot envelope that is in substantially the following form:
             681          "I certify that I am/may be unable to obtain a proper postmark and, subject to penalty of
             682      law for false statements, swear or affirm that this ballot was voted and mailed before the day of
             683      the election.
             684          Signature of
             685          Voter______________________________________________________________
             686          Date_______________________________________________________________
             687          To be signed when voter is physically unable to see or write:
             688          ______________________________________________________Signature of
             689      additional witness who is a commissioned, noncommissioned, or petty officer not below the
             690      rank of sergeant or its equivalent, or another person authorized to administer oaths who does
             691      swear, under penalty of law for false statements, that at the request of
             692      _____________________(name of the voter), I completed the mailing affidavit because the
             693      voter was unable to see or write because of a physical disability."
             694          Section 11. Section 20A-3-410 is amended to read:
             695           20A-3-410. Duty of election judges.
             696          (1) (a) Voting precinct election judges shall open envelopes containing military or
             697      overseas citizen voter ballots that are in their custody on election day at the polling places
             698      during the time the polls are open as provided in this subsection.
             699          (b) The election judges shall:
             700          (i) first, open the outer envelope only; and
             701          (ii) unless the ballot is a [disabled] ballot of a military or overseas citizen [voter's
             702      ballot] with a disability, compare the signature of the military or overseas citizen voter on the
             703      application with the signature on the registration and voting certificate.
             704          (2) (a) The judges shall register the military or overseas citizen voter to vote if the
             705      voter is not already registered if the judges find that:
             706          (i) the registration and voting certificate appears to be executed in proper form and
             707      contains information qualifying the military or overseas citizen voter to be registered as a voter;


             708      and
             709          (ii) the signatures on the certificate and the application correspond, where a
             710      comparison is required.
             711          (b) If the election judges determine that the registration and voting certificate is
             712      insufficient or that the signatures do not correspond, they shall:
             713          (i) disallow the registration; and
             714          (ii) without opening the ballot envelope, mark across the face of the envelope
             715      "Rejected as defective because of __________ ." with the reason for the rejection placed in the
             716      blank.
             717          (c) When a military or overseas citizen voter's name is entered upon the registration
             718      books, the voter is considered to be registered and the registration and voting certificate, signed
             719      and sworn to by the military or overseas citizen voter on the back of the ballot envelope,
             720      together with [his] the military or overseas citizen voter's name upon the registration books,
             721      constitute [his] the military or overseas citizen voter's registration record.
             722          (d) Nothing in this title may abridge the right of the military or overseas citizen voter to
             723      be registered as provided in this section.
             724          (3) (a) After registering the voter, the judges shall carefully open the ballot envelope so
             725      as not to destroy the information printed on it if they find that:
             726          (i) the registration and voting certificate is sufficient; and
             727          (ii) the signatures on the certificate and the application correspond, where a
             728      comparison is required.
             729          (b) The election judges shall:
             730          (i) remove the ballot from the envelope without unfolding it or permitting it to be
             731      opened or examined;
             732          (ii) initial the stub in the same manner as for other ballots;
             733          (iii) deposit the ballot in the proper ballot box; and
             734          (iv) mark the official register and pollbook to show that the voter has voted.
             735          (c) If the election judges determine that the registration and voting certificate is
             736      insufficient or that the signatures do not correspond, they shall:
             737          (i) disallow the vote; and
             738          (ii) without opening the ballot envelope, mark across the face of the envelope


             739      "Rejected as defective because of __________ ." with the reason for the rejection placed in the
             740      blank.
             741          (4) The election judges shall deposit the envelope, when the ballot is voted, and the
             742      envelope with its contents unopened, when the absent vote is rejected, in the ballot box
             743      containing the ballots.
             744          (5) The county clerk shall retain and preserve the envelopes in the manner provided by
             745      law for the retention and preservation of official ballots voted at that election.
             746          Section 12. Section 20A-8-401 is amended to read:
             747           20A-8-401. Registered political parties -- Bylaws.
             748          (1) (a) Each registered state political party shall file a copy of its constitution and
             749      bylaws with the lieutenant governor by January 1, 1995.
             750          (b) Each new or unregistered state political party that seeks to become a registered
             751      political party under the authority of this chapter shall file a copy of its proposed constitution
             752      and bylaws at the time it files its registration information.
             753          (c) Each registered state political party shall file revised copies of its constitution or
             754      bylaws with the lieutenant governor within 15 days after the constitution or bylaws are adopted
             755      or amended.
             756          (2) Each state political party, each new political party seeking registration, and each
             757      unregistered political party seeking registration shall ensure that its constitution or bylaws
             758      contain:
             759          (a) provisions establishing party organization, structure, membership, and governance
             760      that include:
             761          (i) a description of the position, selection process, qualifications, duties, and terms of
             762      each party officer and committees defined by constitution and bylaws;
             763          (ii) a provision requiring a designated party officer to serve as liaison with the
             764      lieutenant governor on all matters relating to the political party's relationship with the state;
             765          (iii) a description of the requirements for participation in party processes;
             766          (iv) the dates, times, and quorum of any regularly scheduled party meetings,
             767      conventions, or other conclaves; and
             768          (v) a mechanism for making the names of delegates, candidates, and elected party
             769      officers available to the public shortly after they are selected;


             770          (b) a procedure for selecting party officers that allows active participation by party
             771      members;
             772          (c) a procedure for selecting party candidates at the federal, state, and county levels that
             773      allows active participation by party members;
             774          (d) (i) a procedure for selecting electors who are pledged to cast their votes in the
             775      electoral college for the party's candidates for President and Vice President of the United
             776      States; and
             777          (ii) a procedure for filling vacancies in the office of presidential elector because of
             778      death, refusal to act, failure to attend, ineligibility, or any other cause;
             779          (e) a procedure for filling vacancies in the office of representative or senator because of
             780      death, resignation, or ineligibility;
             781          (f) a provision requiring the governor and lieutenant governor to run as a joint ticket;
             782          (g) a procedure for replacing party candidates who die, [become disabled] acquire a
             783      disability, or are disqualified before a primary or regular general election;
             784          (h) provisions governing the deposit and expenditure of party funds, and governing the
             785      accounting for, reporting, and audit of party financial transactions;
             786          (i) provisions governing access to party records;
             787          (j) a procedure for amending the constitution or bylaws that allows active participation
             788      by party members or their representatives;
             789          (k) a process for resolving grievances against the political party; and
             790          (l) if desired by the political party, a process for consulting with, and obtaining the
             791      opinion of, the political party's Utah Senate and Utah House members about:
             792          (i) the performance of the two United States Senators from Utah, including
             793      specifically:
             794          (A) their views and actions regarding the defense of state's rights and federalism; and
             795          (B) their performance in representing Utah's interests;
             796          (ii) the members' opinion about, or rating of, and support or opposition to the policy
             797      positions of any candidates for United States Senate from Utah, including incumbents,
             798      including specifically:
             799          (A) their views and actions regarding the defense of state's rights and federalism; and
             800          (B) their performance in representing Utah's interests; and


             801          (iii) the members' collective or individual endorsement or rating of a particular
             802      candidate for United States Senate from Utah.
             803          Section 13. Section 23-19-1 is amended to read:
             804           23-19-1. Possession of licenses, certificates of registration, permits, and tags
             805      required -- Nonassignability -- Exceptions -- Free fishing day.
             806          (1) A person may not engage in hunting, trapping, fishing, or seining protected wildlife
             807      or in the sale, trade, or barter of protected wildlife or their parts without first having procured
             808      the necessary licenses, certificates of registration, permits, and tags as provided under this
             809      chapter and having at the same time the licenses, certificates of registration, permits, and tags
             810      on his or her person, except as provided under Subsection (3).
             811          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(b) a person may not:
             812          (i) lend, transfer, sell, give, or assign licenses, certificates of registration, permits, or
             813      tags belonging to the person or the rights granted by licenses, certificates of registration,
             814      permits, or tags; or
             815          (ii) use or attempt to use a license, certificate of registration, permit, or tag of another
             816      person.
             817          (b) The Wildlife Board may make exceptions to the prohibitions specified in
             818      Subsection (2)(a) for purposes of:
             819          (i) transporting wildlife;
             820          (ii) taking protected wildlife for a person who has a permanent physical impairment
             821      due to injury or disease, congenital or acquired, [which renders the person so severely disabled
             822      as to be] that results in the person having a disability that renders the person physically unable
             823      to use a legal hunting weapon or fishing device; or
             824          (iii) transferring a certificate of registration to harvest brine shrimp and brine shrimp
             825      eggs to another person, if the certificate is transferred in connection with the sale or transfer of
             826      the brine shrimp harvest operation or the harvesting equipment, subject to the restrictions
             827      referred to under Subsection (2)(c).
             828          (c) (i) A certificate of registration to harvest brine shrimp and brine shrimp eggs may
             829      not be transferred without the approval of the division.
             830          (ii) Application to allow the transfer of a certificate of registration to harvest brine
             831      shrimp and brine shrimp eggs shall be made to the division on a form prescribed and furnished


             832      by it.
             833          (iii) The division may grant a transfer of a certificate of registration to harvest brine
             834      shrimp and brine shrimp eggs if the proposed transferee meets all the requirements necessary to
             835      obtain an original certificate of registration.
             836          (3) No license, certificate of registration, permit, or tag is required to:
             837          (a) fish on a free fishing day which the Wildlife Board may establish each year under
             838      rules prescribed by the board;
             839          (b) fish at a private fish pond operated in accordance with Section 23-15-10 ; or
             840          (c) hunt birds on a commercial hunting area that the owner or operator is authorized to
             841      propagate, keep, and release for shooting pursuant to a certificate of registration issued under
             842      Section 23-17-6 .
             843          Section 14. Section 23-19-14 is amended to read:
             844           23-19-14. Persons residing in certain institutions authorized to fish without
             845      license.
             846          (1) The Division of Wildlife Resources shall permit a person to fish without a license
             847      if:
             848          (a) (i) the person resides in:
             849          (A) the Utah State Developmental Center in American Fork;
             850          (B) the state hospital;
             851          (C) a veteran's hospital;
             852          (D) a veteran's nursing home;
             853          (E) a mental health center;
             854          (F) an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual
             855      disability;
             856          (G) a group home licensed by the Department of Human Services and operated under
             857      contract with the Division of Services for People with Disabilities;
             858          (H) a group home or other community-based placement licensed by the Department of
             859      Human Services and operated under contract with the Division of Juvenile Justice Services;
             860          (I) a private residential facility for at-risk youth licensed by the Department of Human
             861      Services; or
             862          (J) another similar institution approved by the division; or


             863          (ii) the person is a youth who participates in a work camp operated by the Division of
             864      Juvenile Justice Services;
             865          (b) the person is properly supervised by a representative of the institution; and
             866          (c) the institution obtains from the division a certificate of registration that specifies:
             867          (i) the date and place where the person will fish; and
             868          (ii) the name of the institution's representative who will supervise the person fishing.
             869          (2) The institution must apply for the certificate of registration at least 10 days before
             870      the fishing outing.
             871          (3) (a) An institution that receives a certificate of registration authorizing at-risk youth
             872      to fish shall provide instruction to the youth on fishing laws and regulations.
             873          (b) The division shall provide educational materials to the institution to assist it in
             874      complying with Subsection (3)(a).
             875          Section 15. Section 23-19-36 is amended to read:
             876           23-19-36. Persons with a physical or intellectual disability, terminally ill persons,
             877      and children in the custody of the state -- License to fish for free.
             878          (1) A resident who is blind, [paraplegic, or otherwise permanently disabled] has
             879      paraplegia, or has another permanent disability so as to be permanently confined to a
             880      wheelchair or the use of crutches, or who has lost either or both lower extremities, may receive
             881      a free license to fish upon furnishing satisfactory proof of this fact to the Division of Wildlife
             882      Resources.
             883          (2) A resident who [is a mentally retarded person] has an intellectual disability and is
             884      not eligible under Section 23-19-14 to fish without a license may receive a free license to fish
             885      upon furnishing verification [of mental retardation, as defined in Section 62A-5-101 ,] from a
             886      physician that the person has an intellectual disability.
             887          (3) A resident who is terminally ill, and has less than five years to live, may receive a
             888      free license to fish:
             889          (a) upon furnishing verification from a physician; and
             890          (b) if [he] the resident qualifies for assistance under any low income public assistance
             891      program administered by a state agency.
             892          (4) A child placed in the custody of the state by a court order may receive a free fishing
             893      license upon furnishing verification of custody to the Division of Wildlife Resources.


             894          Section 16. Section 23-19-38.3 is amended to read:
             895           23-19-38.3. Fishing licenses for disabled veterans -- Free or reduced price.
             896          (1) The division may make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             897      Administrative Rulemaking Act, under which a [disabled] veteran with a disability may receive
             898      a fishing license free or at a reduced price.
             899          (2) In making rules under this section, the division shall utilize the same guidelines for
             900      disability as the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.
             901          Section 17. Section 23-20-12 is amended to read:
             902           23-20-12. Airplanes or terrestrial or aquatic vehicles -- Use in taking wildlife
             903      unlawful -- Exceptions.
             904          (1) It is unlawful for any person to take any wildlife from an airplane or any other
             905      airborne vehicle or device or any motorized terrestrial or aquatic vehicle, including
             906      snowmobiles and other recreational vehicles, except as provided by this code or in the rules
             907      and regulations of the Wildlife Board. [Provided, however, that an]
             908          (2) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), an individual validly licensed to hunt [who is a
             909      paraplegic, or otherwise permanently disabled so as to be permanently confined to a wheelchair
             910      or the use of crutches,] may be authorized to hunt from a vehicle under terms and conditions
             911      specified by the Wildlife Board[.] if the individual has:
             912          (a) paraplegia; or
             913          (b) a disability that permanently confines the individual to a wheelchair or the use of
             914      crutches.
             915          Section 18. Section 24-1-7 is amended to read:
             916           24-1-7. Hardship release of seized property.
             917          (1) After property is seized for forfeiture, a person or entity may not alienate, convey,
             918      sequester, or attach that property until the court issues a final order of dismissal or an order of
             919      forfeiture regarding the property.
             920          (2) The seizing agency or the prosecuting attorney may authorize the release of
             921      property seized for forfeiture to its owner if retention of actual custody is unnecessary.
             922          (3) With the consent of a court of competent jurisdiction, the prosecuting attorney may
             923      discontinue forfeiture proceedings and transfer the action to another state or federal agency
             924      which has initiated forfeiture proceedings involving the same property.


             925          (4) Property seized for forfeiture is considered to be in the custody of the district court
             926      and subject only to:
             927          (a) the orders and decrees of the court having jurisdiction over the property or the
             928      forfeiture proceedings; and
             929          (b) the acts of the seizing agency or the prosecuting attorney pursuant to this chapter.
             930          (5) (a) An owner of property seized pursuant to this chapter may obtain release of the
             931      property by posting with the district court a surety bond or cash in an amount equal to the
             932      current fair market value of the property as determined by the court or by the parties'
             933      stipulation.
             934          (b) The district court may refuse to order the release of the property if:
             935          (i) the bond tendered is inadequate;
             936          (ii) the property is contraband or is retained as evidence; or
             937          (iii) the property is particularly altered or designed for use in conduct giving cause for
             938      forfeiture.
             939          (c) If a surety bond or cash is posted and the property seized and then released on a
             940      bond or cash is forfeited, the court shall order the forfeiture of the surety bond or cash in lieu of
             941      the property.
             942          (6) (a) As soon as practicable after seizure for forfeiture, and in no case later than 30
             943      days after seizure for forfeiture, the seizing agency shall conduct a written inventory of the
             944      property seized.
             945          (b) The seizing agency shall deposit property that is in the form of cash or other readily
             946      negotiable instruments into a restricted account maintained by the agency solely for the purpose
             947      of managing and protecting the property from commingling, loss, or devaluation during the
             948      pendency of the forfeiture proceedings.
             949          (c) The seizing agency shall have in place written policy for the identification, tracking,
             950      management, and safekeeping of seized property, which shall include a prohibition against the
             951      transfer, sale, or auction of forfeited property to any employee of the seizing agency.
             952          (d) An agency may not be awarded any funds from forfeiture through the Crime
             953      Reduction Assistance Program under Section 24-1-19 if the agency has not established or
             954      maintained the inventory policy, restricted account, and written policies required by this
             955      Subsection (6).


             956          (7) An owner is entitled to the immediate release of seized property from the seizing
             957      agency pending the final determination of forfeiture if:
             958          (a) the owner had a possessory interest in the property at the time of seizure;
             959          (b) continued possession by the agency or the state pending the final disposition of the
             960      forfeiture proceedings will cause substantial hardship to the owner, such as:
             961          (i) preventing the functioning of a legitimate business;
             962          (ii) preventing any individual from working;
             963          (iii) preventing any minor child or student from attending school;
             964          (iv) preventing or hindering any person from receiving necessary medical care;
             965          (v) hindering the care of:
             966          (A) an elderly [or disabled] dependent adult;
             967          (B) a dependent child [or adult;] with a disability; or
             968          (C) a dependent adult with a disability;
             969          (vi) preventing an owner from retaining counsel to provide a defense in the forfeiture
             970      proceeding; or
             971          (vii) leaving any individual homeless, or any other condition that the court determines
             972      causes a substantial hardship;
             973          (c) the hardship from the continued possession by the agency of the seized property
             974      outweighs the risk that the property will be destroyed, damaged, lost, concealed, or transferred
             975      if it is returned to the owner during the pendency of the proceeding; and
             976          (d) determination of substantial hardship under this Subsection (7) is based upon the
             977      property's use prior to the seizure.
             978          (8) The right to appointed counsel under Section 24-1-9 applies throughout civil
             979      forfeiture proceedings, including an owner's motion for hardship release.
             980          (9) An owner may file a motion for hardship release:
             981          (a) in the court in which forfeiture proceedings have commenced; or
             982          (b) in any district court having jurisdiction over the property, if forfeiture proceedings
             983      have not yet commenced.
             984          (10) The motion for hardship release shall also be served upon the prosecuting attorney
             985      or the seizing agency within 10 days after filing the motion.
             986          (11) The court shall render a decision on a motion for hardship filed under this section


             987      not later than 20 days after the date of filing, or 10 days after service upon the prosecuting
             988      attorney or seizing agency, whichever is earlier, unless this period is extended by the parties or
             989      by the court for good cause shown.
             990          (12) (a) If the owner demonstrates substantial hardship pursuant to this section, the
             991      court shall order the property immediately released to the owner pending completion of
             992      proceedings by the government to obtain forfeiture of the property.
             993          (b) The court may place conditions on release of the property as it finds necessary and
             994      appropriate to preserve the availability of the property or its equivalent for forfeiture.
             995          (13) The hardship release does not apply if the seized property is:
             996          (a) contraband;
             997          (b) currency or other monetary instrument or electronic funds, unless the property is
             998      used to pay for the reasonable costs of defending against the forfeiture proceeding or
             999      constitutes the assets of a legitimate business; or
             1000          (c) likely to be used to commit additional illegal acts if returned to the owner.
             1001          (14) (a) The court may order property which has been seized for forfeiture to be sold as
             1002      allowed by Subsection (15), leased, rented, or operated to satisfy a specified interest of any
             1003      owner or interest holder, or to preserve the interests of any party on motion of that party.
             1004          (b) The court may enter orders under Subsection (14)(a) after notice to persons known
             1005      to have an interest in the property, and after an opportunity for a hearing.
             1006          (15) (a) A sale may be ordered under Subsection (14) when the property is liable to
             1007      perish, waste, or be significantly reduced in value, or when the expenses of maintaining the
             1008      property are disproportionate to its value.
             1009          (b) A third party designated by the court shall dispose of the property by commercially
             1010      reasonable public sale and distribute the proceeds in the following order of priority:
             1011          (i) first, for the payment of reasonable expenses incurred in connection with the sale;
             1012          (ii) second, for the satisfaction of any interests, including those of interest holders, in
             1013      the order of their priority as determined by Title 70A, Uniform Commercial Code; and
             1014          (iii) third, any balance of the proceeds shall be preserved in the actual or constructive
             1015      custody of the court, in an interest-bearing account, subject to further proceedings under this
             1016      chapter.
             1017          Section 19. Section 26-1-18 is amended to read:


             1018           26-1-18. Authority of department generally.
             1019          The department is the health, health planning, and medical assistance authority of the
             1020      state and is the sole state agency for administration of federally assisted state programs or plans
             1021      for public health, health planning, maternal and child health, [crippled children's services]
             1022      services for children with a disability, and medical assistance.
             1023          Section 20. Section 26-2-27 is amended to read:
             1024           26-2-27. Identifying birth certificates of missing persons -- Procedures.
             1025          (1) As used in this section:
             1026          (a) "Division" means the Criminal Investigations and Technical Services Division,
             1027      Department of Public Safety, in Title 53, Chapter 10, Criminal Investigation and Technical
             1028      Services Act.
             1029          (b) "Missing child" means a person younger than 18 years of age who is missing from
             1030      [his] the person's home environment or a temporary placement facility for any reason, and
             1031      whose whereabouts cannot be determined by the person responsible for the child's care.
             1032          (c) "Missing person" means a person who:
             1033          (i) is missing from [his] the person's home environment; and [is: (i) physically or
             1034      mentally disabled;]
             1035          (ii) (A) has a physical or mental disability;
             1036          [(ii)] (B) is missing under circumstances that indicate that [they are] the person is
             1037      endangered, missing involuntarily, or a victim of a catastrophe; or
             1038          [(iii)] (C) is a missing child.
             1039          (2) (a) In accordance with Section 53-10-203 , upon the state registrar's notification by
             1040      the division that a person who was born in this state is missing, the state and local registrars
             1041      shall flag the registered birth certificate of that person so that when a copy of the registered
             1042      birth certificate or information regarding the birth record is requested, the state and local
             1043      registrars are alerted to the fact the registered birth certificate is that of a missing person.
             1044          (b) Upon notification by the division the missing person has been recovered, the state
             1045      and local registrars shall remove the flag from that person's registered birth certificate.
             1046          (3) The state and local registrars may not provide a copy of a registered birth certificate
             1047      of any person whose record is flagged under Subsection (2), except as approved by the
             1048      division.


             1049          (4) (a) When a copy of the registered birth certificate of a person whose record has
             1050      been flagged is requested in person, the state or local registrar shall require that person to
             1051      complete a form supplying [his] that person's name, address, telephone number, and
             1052      relationship to the missing person, and the name and birth date of the missing person.
             1053          (b) The state or local registrar shall inform the requester that a copy of the registered
             1054      birth certificate will be mailed to [him] the requester.
             1055          (c) The state or local registrar shall note the physical description of the person making
             1056      the request, and shall immediately notify the division of the request and the information
             1057      obtained pursuant to this Subsection (4).
             1058          (5) When a copy of the registered birth certificate of a person whose record has been
             1059      flagged is requested in writing, the state or local registrar or [his] personnel of the state or local
             1060      registrar shall immediately notify the division, and provide it with a copy of the written request.
             1061          Section 21. Section 26-4-7 is amended to read:
             1062           26-4-7. Custody by medical examiner.
             1063          Upon notification under Section 26-4-8 or investigation by the medical examiner's
             1064      office, the medical examiner shall assume custody of a deceased body if it appears that death
             1065      was:
             1066          (1) by violence, gunshot, suicide, or accident unless the accident is a highway accident.
             1067      If the death was from a highway accident, custody shall only be assumed if an autopsy is
             1068      required or permitted under the provisions of Section 26-4-13 or if requested by the law
             1069      enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the highway accident;
             1070          (2) sudden death while in apparent good health;
             1071          (3) unattended deaths, except that an autopsy may only be performed in accordance
             1072      with the provisions of Subsection 26-4-9 (3);
             1073          (4) under suspicious or unusual circumstances;
             1074          (5) resulting from poisoning or overdose of drugs;
             1075          (6) resulting from diseases that may constitute a threat to the public health;
             1076          (7) resulting from disease, injury, toxic effect, or unusual exertion incurred within the
             1077      scope of the decedent's employment;
             1078          (8) due to sudden infant death syndrome;
             1079          (9) resulting while the decedent was in prison, jail, police custody, the state hospital, or


             1080      in a detention or medical facility operated for the treatment of [the mentally ill,] persons with a
             1081      mental illness, persons who are emotionally disturbed, or delinquent persons;
             1082          (10) associated with diagnostic or therapeutic procedures; or
             1083          (11) described in this section when request is made to assume custody by a county or
             1084      district attorney or law enforcement agency in connection with a potential homicide
             1085      investigation or prosecution.
             1086          Section 22. Section 26-10-1 is amended to read:
             1087           26-10-1. Definitions.
             1088          As used in this chapter:
             1089          (1) "Maternal and child health services" means:
             1090          (a) the provision of educational, preventative, diagnostic, and treatment services,
             1091      including medical care, hospitalization, and other institutional care and aftercare, appliances,
             1092      and facilitating services directed toward reducing infant mortality and improving the health of
             1093      mothers and children provided, however, that nothing in this section shall be construed to
             1094      allow any agency of the state to interfere with the rights of the parent of an unmarried minor in
             1095      decisions about the providing of health information or services;
             1096          (b) the development, strengthening, and improvement of standards and techniques
             1097      relating to the services and care;
             1098          (c) the training of personnel engaged in the provision, development, strengthening, or
             1099      improvement of the services and care; and
             1100          (d) necessary administrative services connected with Subsections (1)(a), (b), and (c).
             1101          (2) ["Crippled children's services"] "Services for children with a disability" means:
             1102          (a) the early location of [crippled] children with a disability, provided that any program
             1103      of prenatal diagnosis for the purpose of detecting the possible disease or disabilities of an
             1104      unborn child will not be used for screening, but rather will be utilized only when there are
             1105      medical or genetic indications that warrant diagnosis;
             1106          (b) the provision for [such] children described in Subsection (2)(a) of preventive,
             1107      diagnosis, and treatment services, including medical care, hospitalization, and other
             1108      institutional care and aftercare, appliances, and facilitating services directed toward the
             1109      diagnosis of the condition of [such] those children or toward the restoration of the children to
             1110      maximum physical and mental health;


             1111          (c) the development, strengthening, and improvement of standards and techniques
             1112      relating to such services and care;
             1113          (d) the training of personnel engaged in the provision, development, strengthening, or
             1114      improvement of such services and care; and
             1115          (e) necessary administrative services connected with Subsections (2)(a), (b), and (c).
             1116          Section 23. Section 26-10-2 is amended to read:
             1117           26-10-2. Maternal and child health services -- Services for children with a
             1118      disability.
             1119          The department shall provide for maternal and child health services and [crippled
             1120      children's] services for children with a disability to individuals who need [such] these services
             1121      and cannot reasonably obtain them from other sources.
             1122          Section 24. Section 26-10-6 is amended to read:
             1123           26-10-6. Testing of newborn infants.
             1124          (1) Except in the case where parents object on the grounds that they are members of a
             1125      specified, well-recognized religious organization whose teachings are contrary to the tests
             1126      required by this section, each newborn infant shall be tested for:
             1127          (a) phenylketonuria (PKU);
             1128          (b) other metabolic diseases which may result in [mental retardation] an intellectual
             1129      disability or brain damage and for which:
             1130          (i) a preventive measure or treatment is available; and
             1131          (ii) there exists a reliable laboratory diagnostic test method; and
             1132          (c) (i) beginning July 1, 1998, for an infant born in a hospital with 100 or more live
             1133      births annually, hearing loss; and
             1134          (ii) beginning July 1, 1999, for an infant born in a setting other than a hospital with 100
             1135      or more live births annually, hearing loss.
             1136          (2) In accordance with Section 26-1-6 , the department may charge fees for:
             1137          (a) materials supplied by the department to conduct tests required under Subsection (1);
             1138          (b) tests required under Subsection (1) conducted by the department;
             1139          (c) laboratory analyses by the department of tests conducted under Subsection (1); and
             1140          (d) the administrative cost of follow-up contacts with the parents or guardians of tested
             1141      infants.


             1142          (3) Tests for hearing loss under Subsection (1) shall be based on one or more methods
             1143      approved by the Newborn Hearing Screening Committee, including:
             1144          (a) auditory brainstem response;
             1145          (b) automated auditory brainstem response; and
             1146          (c) evoked otoacoustic emissions.
             1147          (4) Results of tests for hearing loss under Subsection (1) shall be reported to:
             1148          (a) parents when results of tests for hearing loss under Subsection (1) suggest that
             1149      additional diagnostic procedures or medical interventions are necessary; and
             1150          (b) the department.
             1151          (5) (a) There is established the Newborn Hearing Screening Committee.
             1152          (b) The committee shall advise the department on:
             1153          (i) the validity and cost of newborn infant hearing loss testing procedures; and
             1154          (ii) rules promulgated by the department to implement this section.
             1155          (c) The committee shall be composed of at least 11 members appointed by the
             1156      executive director, including:
             1157          (i) one representative of the health insurance industry;
             1158          (ii) one pediatrician;
             1159          (iii) one family practitioner;
             1160          (iv) one ear, nose, and throat specialist nominated by the Utah Medical Association;
             1161          (v) two audiologists nominated by the Utah Speech-Language-Hearing Association;
             1162          (vi) one representative of hospital neonatal nurseries;
             1163          (vii) one representative of the Early Intervention Baby Watch Program administered by
             1164      the department;
             1165          (viii) one public health nurse;
             1166          (ix) one consumer; and
             1167          (x) the executive director or his designee.
             1168          (d) Of the initial members of the committee, the executive director shall appoint as
             1169      nearly as possible half to two-year terms and half to four-year terms. Thereafter, appointments
             1170      shall be for four-year terms except:
             1171          (i) for those members who have been appointed to complete an unexpired term; and
             1172          (ii) as necessary to ensure that as nearly as possible the terms of half the appointments


             1173      expire every two years.
             1174          (e) A majority of the members constitute a quorum and a vote of the majority of the
             1175      members present constitutes an action of the committee.
             1176          (f) The committee shall appoint a chairman from its membership.
             1177          (g) The committee shall meet at least quarterly.
             1178          (h) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
             1179      may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
             1180          (i) Section 63A-3-106 ;
             1181          (ii) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
             1182          (iii) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
             1183      63A-3-107 .
             1184          (i) The department shall provide staff for the committee.
             1185          Section 25. Section 26-18-3 is amended to read:
             1186           26-18-3. Administration of Medicaid program by department -- Reporting to the
             1187      Legislature -- Disciplinary measures and sanctions -- Funds collected -- Eligibility
             1188      standards -- Internal audits -- Studies -- Health opportunity accounts.
             1189          (1) The department shall be the single state agency responsible for the administration
             1190      of the Medicaid program in connection with the United States Department of Health and
             1191      Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
             1192          (2) (a) The department shall implement the Medicaid program through administrative
             1193      rules in conformity with this chapter, Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking
             1194      Act, the requirements of Title XIX, and applicable federal regulations.
             1195          (b) The rules adopted under Subsection (2)(a) shall include, in addition to other rules
             1196      necessary to implement the program:
             1197          (i) the standards used by the department for determining eligibility for Medicaid
             1198      services;
             1199          (ii) the services and benefits to be covered by the Medicaid program; and
             1200          (iii) reimbursement methodologies for providers under the Medicaid program.
             1201          (3) (a) The department shall, in accordance with Subsection (3)(b), report to the Health
             1202      and Human Services Appropriations Subcommittee when the department:
             1203          (i) implements a change in the Medicaid State Plan;


             1204          (ii) initiates a new Medicaid waiver;
             1205          (iii) initiates an amendment to an existing Medicaid waiver;
             1206          (iv) applies for an extension of an application for a waiver or an existing Medicaid
             1207      waiver; or
             1208          (v) initiates a rate change that requires public notice under state or federal law.
             1209          (b) The report required by Subsection (3)(a) shall:
             1210          (i) be submitted to the Health and Human Services Appropriations Subcommittee prior
             1211      to the department implementing the proposed change; and
             1212          (ii) include:
             1213          (A) a description of the department's current practice or policy that the department is
             1214      proposing to change;
             1215          (B) an explanation of why the department is proposing the change;
             1216          (C) the proposed change in services or reimbursement, including a description of the
             1217      effect of the change;
             1218          (D) the effect of an increase or decrease in services or benefits on individuals and
             1219      families;
             1220          (E) the degree to which any proposed cut may result in cost-shifting to more expensive
             1221      services in health or human service programs; and
             1222          (F) the fiscal impact of the proposed change, including:
             1223          (I) the effect of the proposed change on current or future appropriations from the
             1224      Legislature to the department;
             1225          (II) the effect the proposed change may have on federal matching dollars received by
             1226      the state Medicaid program;
             1227          (III) any cost shifting or cost savings within the department's budget that may result
             1228      from the proposed change; and
             1229          (IV) identification of the funds that will be used for the proposed change, including any
             1230      transfer of funds within the department's budget.
             1231          (4) (a) The Department of Human Services shall report to the Legislative Health and
             1232      Human Services Appropriations Subcommittee no later than December 31, 2010 in accordance
             1233      with Subsection (4)(b).
             1234          (b) The report required by Subsection (4)(a) shall include:


             1235          (i) changes made by the division or the department beginning July 1, 2010 that effect
             1236      the Medicaid program, a waiver under the Medicaid program, or an interpretation of Medicaid
             1237      services or funding, that relate to care for children and youth in the custody of the Division of
             1238      Child and Family Services or the Division of Juvenile Justice Services;
             1239          (ii) the history and impact of the changes under Subsection (4)(b)(i);
             1240          (iii) the Department of Human Service's plans for addressing the impact of the changes
             1241      under Subsection (4)(b)(i); and
             1242          (iv) ways to consolidate administrative functions within the Department of Human
             1243      Services, the Department of Health, the Division of Child and Family Services, and the
             1244      Division of Juvenile Justice Services to more efficiently meet the needs of children and youth
             1245      with mental health and substance disorder treatment needs.
             1246          (5) Any rules adopted by the department under Subsection (2) are subject to review and
             1247      reauthorization by the Legislature in accordance with Section 63G-3-502 .
             1248          (6) The department may, in its discretion, contract with the Department of Human
             1249      Services or other qualified agencies for services in connection with the administration of the
             1250      Medicaid program, including:
             1251          (a) the determination of the eligibility of individuals for the program;
             1252          (b) recovery of overpayments; and
             1253          (c) consistent with Section 26-20-13 , and to the extent permitted by law and quality
             1254      control services, enforcement of fraud and abuse laws.
             1255          (7) The department shall provide, by rule, disciplinary measures and sanctions for
             1256      Medicaid providers who fail to comply with the rules and procedures of the program, provided
             1257      that sanctions imposed administratively may not extend beyond:
             1258          (a) termination from the program;
             1259          (b) recovery of claim reimbursements incorrectly paid; and
             1260          (c) those specified in Section 1919 of Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.
             1261          (8) Funds collected as a result of a sanction imposed under Section 1919 of Title XIX
             1262      of the federal Social Security Act shall be deposited in the General Fund as dedicated credits to
             1263      be used by the division in accordance with the requirements of Section 1919 of Title XIX of
             1264      the federal Social Security Act.
             1265          (9) (a) In determining whether an applicant or recipient is eligible for a service or


             1266      benefit under this part or Chapter 40, Utah Children's Health Insurance Act, the department
             1267      shall, if Subsection (9)(b) is satisfied, exclude from consideration one passenger vehicle
             1268      designated by the applicant or recipient.
             1269          (b) Before Subsection (9)(a) may be applied:
             1270          (i) the federal government must:
             1271          (A) determine that Subsection (9)(a) may be implemented within the state's existing
             1272      public assistance-related waivers as of January 1, 1999;
             1273          (B) extend a waiver to the state permitting the implementation of Subsection (9)(a); or
             1274          (C) determine that the state's waivers that permit dual eligibility determinations for
             1275      cash assistance and Medicaid are no longer valid; and
             1276          (ii) the department must determine that Subsection (9)(a) can be implemented within
             1277      existing funding.
             1278          (10) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (10):
             1279          (i) "aged, blind, or [disabled" shall be defined by administrative rule] has a disability"
             1280      means an aged, blind, or disabled individual, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 1382c(a)(1); and
             1281          (ii) "spend down" means an amount of income in excess of the allowable income
             1282      standard that must be paid in cash to the department or incurred through the medical services
             1283      not paid by Medicaid.
             1284          (b) In determining whether an applicant or recipient who is aged, blind, or [disabled]
             1285      has a disability is eligible for a service or benefit under this chapter, the department shall use
             1286      100% of the federal poverty level as:
             1287          (i) the allowable income standard for eligibility for services or benefits; and
             1288          (ii) the allowable income standard for eligibility as a result of spend down.
             1289          (11) The department shall conduct internal audits of the Medicaid program, in
             1290      proportion to at least the level of funding it receives from Medicaid to conduct internal audits.
             1291          (12) In order to determine the feasibility of contracting for direct Medicaid providers
             1292      for primary care services, the department shall:
             1293          (a) issue a request for information for direct contracting for primary services that shall
             1294      provide that a provider shall exclusively serve all Medicaid clients:
             1295          (i) in a geographic area;
             1296          (ii) for a defined range of primary care services; and


             1297          (iii) for a predetermined total contracted amount; and
             1298          (b) by February 1, 2011, report to the Health and Human Services Appropriations
             1299      Subcommittee on the response to the request for information under Subsection (12)(a).
             1300          (13) (a) By December 31, 2010, the department shall:
             1301          (i) determine the feasibility of implementing a three year patient-centered medical
             1302      home demonstration project in an area of the state using existing budget funds; and
             1303          (ii) report the department's findings and recommendations under Subsection (13)(a)(i)
             1304      to the Health and Human Services Appropriations Subcommittee.
             1305          (b) If the department determines that the medical home demonstration project
             1306      described in Subsection (13)(a) is feasible, and the Health and Human Services Appropriations
             1307      Subcommittee recommends that the demonstration project be implemented, the department
             1308      shall:
             1309          (i) implement the demonstration project; and
             1310          (ii) by December 1, 2012, make recommendations to the Health and Human Services
             1311      Appropriations Subcommittee regarding the:
             1312          (A) continuation of the demonstration project;
             1313          (B) expansion of the demonstration project to other areas of the state; and
             1314          (C) cost savings incurred by the implementation of the demonstration project.
             1315          (14) (a) The department may apply for and, if approved, implement a demonstration
             1316      program for health opportunity accounts, as provided for in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396u-8.
             1317          (b) A health opportunity account established under Subsection (14)(a) shall be an
             1318      alternative to the existing benefits received by an individual eligible to receive Medicaid under
             1319      this chapter.
             1320          (c) Subsection (14)(a) is not intended to expand the coverage of the Medicaid program.
             1321          Section 26. Section 26-18-3.1 is amended to read:
             1322           26-18-3.1. Medicaid expansion.
             1323          (1) The purpose of this section is to expand the coverage of the Medicaid program to
             1324      persons who are in categories traditionally not served by that program.
             1325          (2) Within appropriations from the Legislature, the department may amend the state
             1326      plan for medical assistance to provide for eligibility for Medicaid:
             1327          (a) on or after July 1, 1994, for children 12 to 17 years old who live in households


             1328      below the federal poverty income guideline; and
             1329          (b) on or after July 1, 1995, for persons who have incomes below the federal poverty
             1330      income guideline and who are aged, blind, or [disabled] have a disability.
             1331          (3) (a) Within appropriations from the Legislature, on or after July 1, 1996, the
             1332      Medicaid program may provide for eligibility for persons who have incomes below the federal
             1333      poverty income guideline.
             1334          (b) In order to meet the provisions of this subsection, the department may seek
             1335      approval for a demonstration project under 42 U.S.C. Section 1315 from the secretary of the
             1336      United States Department of Health and Human Services. This demonstration project may also
             1337      provide for the voluntary participation of private firms that:
             1338          (i) are newly established or marginally profitable;
             1339          (ii) do not provide health insurance to their employees;
             1340          (iii) employ predominantly low wage workers; and
             1341          (iv) are unable to obtain adequate and affordable health care insurance in the private
             1342      market.
             1343          (4) Services available for persons described in this section shall include required
             1344      Medicaid services and may include one or more optional Medicaid services if those services
             1345      are funded by the Legislature. The department may also require persons described in this
             1346      section to meet an asset test.
             1347          Section 27. Section 26-18-501 is amended to read:
             1348           26-18-501. Definitions.
             1349          As used in this part:
             1350          (1) "Certified program" means a nursing care facility program with Medicaid
             1351      certification.
             1352          (2) "Director" means the director of the Division of Health Care Financing.
             1353          (3) "Medicaid certification" means the right to Medicaid reimbursement as a provider
             1354      of a nursing care facility program as established by division rule.
             1355          (4) (a) "Nursing care facility" means the following facilities licensed by the department
             1356      under Chapter 21, Health Care Facility Licensing and Inspection Act:
             1357          (i) skilled nursing homes;
             1358          (ii) intermediate care facilities; and


             1359          (iii) an intermediate care [facilities for the mentally retarded] facility for people with an
             1360      intellectual disability.
             1361          (b) "Nursing care facility" does not mean a critical access hospital that meets the
             1362      criteria of 42 U.S.C. 1395i-4(c)(2) (1998).
             1363          (5) "Nursing care facility program" means the personnel, licenses, services, contracts
             1364      and all other requirements that must be met for a nursing care facility to be eligible for
             1365      Medicaid certification under this part and division rule.
             1366          (6) "Physical facility" means the buildings or other physical structures where a nursing
             1367      care facility program is operated.
             1368          (7) "Service area" means the boundaries of the distinct geographic area served by a
             1369      certified program as determined by the division in accordance with this part and division rule.
             1370          Section 28. Section 26-19-13.5 is amended to read:
             1371           26-19-13.5. Estate and trust recovery.
             1372          (1) Upon a recipient's death, the department may recover from the recipient's estate and
             1373      any trust, in which the recipient is the grantor and a beneficiary, medical assistance correctly
             1374      provided for the benefit of the recipient when [he] the recipient was 55 years of age or older if,
             1375      at the time of death, the recipient has no:
             1376          (a) surviving spouse; or
             1377          (b) child:
             1378          (i) younger than 21 years of age; or
             1379          (ii) who is blind or [permanently and totally disabled] has a permanent and total
             1380      disability.
             1381          (2) (a) The amount of medial assistance correctly provided for the benefit of a recipient
             1382      and recoverable under this section is a lien against the estate of the deceased recipient or any
             1383      trust when the recipient is the grantor and a beneficiary.
             1384          (b) The lien holds the same priority as reasonable and necessary medical expenses of
             1385      the last illness as provided in Section 75-3-805 .
             1386          (3) (a) The department shall perfect the lien by filing a notice in the court of
             1387      appropriate jurisdiction for the amount of the lien, in the same manner as a creditor's claim is
             1388      filed, prior to final distribution.
             1389          (b) The department may file an amended lien prior to the entry of the final order


             1390      closing the estate.
             1391          (4) Claims against a deceased recipient's inter vivos trust shall be presented in
             1392      accordance with Sections 75-7-509 and 75-7-510 .
             1393          (5) Any trust provision that denies recovery for medical assistance is void at the time of
             1394      its making.
             1395          (6) Nothing in this section affects the right of the department to recover Medicaid
             1396      assistance before a recipient's death under Section 26-19-4.5 or Section 26-19-13.7 .
             1397          Section 29. Section 26-21-3 is amended to read:
             1398           26-21-3. Health Facility Committee -- Members -- Terms -- Organization --
             1399      Meetings.
             1400          (1) The Health Facility Committee created by Section 26-1-7 consists of 15 members
             1401      appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate. The appointed members shall be
             1402      knowledgeable about health care facilities and issues. The membership of the committee is:
             1403          (a) one physician, licensed to practice medicine and surgery under Title 58, Chapter 67,
             1404      Utah Medical Practice Act, or Title 58, Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act,
             1405      who is a graduate of a regularly chartered medical school;
             1406          (b) one hospital administrator;
             1407          (c) one hospital trustee;
             1408          (d) one representative of a freestanding ambulatory surgical facility;
             1409          (e) one representative of an ambulatory surgical facility that is affiliated with a
             1410      hospital;
             1411          (f) two representatives of the nursing care facility industry;
             1412          (g) one registered nurse, licensed to practice under Title 58, Chapter 31b, Nurse
             1413      Practice Act;
             1414          (h) one professional in the field of [mental retardation] intellectual disabilities not
             1415      affiliated with a nursing care facility;
             1416          (i) one licensed architect or engineer with expertise in health care facilities;
             1417          (j) two representatives of assisted living facilities licensed under this chapter;
             1418          (k) two consumers, one of whom has an interest in or expertise in geriatric care; and
             1419          (l) one representative from either a home health care provider or a hospice provider.
             1420          (2) (a) Except as required by Subsection (2)(b), members shall be appointed for a term


             1421      of four years.
             1422          (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (2)(a), the governor shall, at the
             1423      time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
             1424      committee members are staggered so that approximately half of the committee is appointed
             1425      every two years.
             1426          (c) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
             1427      appointed for the unexpired term by the governor, giving consideration to recommendations
             1428      made by the committee, with the consent of the Senate.
             1429          (d) A member may not serve more than two consecutive full terms or 10 consecutive
             1430      years, whichever is less. However, a member may continue to serve as a member until he is
             1431      replaced.
             1432          (e) The committee shall annually elect from its membership a chair and vice chair.
             1433          (f) The committee shall meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as determined by the
             1434      chair or five members of the committee.
             1435          (g) Eight members constitute a quorum. A vote of the majority of the members present
             1436      constitutes action of the committee.
             1437          Section 30. Section 26-21-9.5 is amended to read:
             1438           26-21-9.5. Criminal background check and Licensing Information System check.
             1439          (1) For purposes of this section:
             1440          (a) "Covered employer" means an individual who:
             1441          (i) is not a covered health care facility;
             1442          (ii) is not a licensed business within the state; and
             1443          (iii) is hiring an individual to provide services to an elderly [or disabled] person or a
             1444      person with a disability in the person's home [of the elderly or disabled person].
             1445          (b) "Covered health care facility" means:
             1446          (i) home health care agencies;
             1447          (ii) hospices;
             1448          (iii) nursing care facilities;
             1449          (iv) assisted-living facilities;
             1450          (v) small health care facilities; and
             1451          (vi) end stage renal disease facilities.


             1452          (c) "Covered person" includes:
             1453          (i) the following people who provide direct patient care:
             1454          (A) employees;
             1455          (B) volunteers; and
             1456          (C) people under contract with the covered health care facility; and
             1457          (ii) for residential settings, any individual residing in the home where the assisted
             1458      living or small health care program is to be licensed who:
             1459          (A) is 18 years of age or older; or
             1460          (B) is a child between the age of 12 and 17 years of age[; however, the identifying
             1461      information required for a child between the age of 12 and 17 does not include fingerprints].
             1462          (2) In addition to the licensing requirements of Sections 26-21-8 and 26-21-9 , a
             1463      covered health care facility at the time of initial application for a license and license renewal
             1464      shall:
             1465          (a) submit the name and other identifying information of each covered person at the
             1466      covered facility who:
             1467          (i) provides direct care to a patient; and
             1468          (ii) has been the subject of a criminal background check within the preceding
             1469      three-year period by a public or private entity recognized by the department; and
             1470          (b) submit the name and other identifying information, which, except as provided in
             1471      Subsection (3)(c), may include fingerprints, of each covered person at the covered facility who
             1472      has not been the subject of a criminal background check in accordance with Subsection
             1473      (2)(a)(ii).
             1474          (3) (a) The department shall forward the information received under Subsection (2)(b)
             1475      or (6)(b) to the Criminal Investigations and Technical Services Division of the Department of
             1476      Public Safety for processing to determine whether the individual has been convicted of any
             1477      crime.
             1478          (b) Except for individuals described in Subsection (1)(c)(ii)(B), if an individual has not
             1479      had residency in Utah for the last five years, the individual shall submit fingerprints for an FBI
             1480      national criminal history record check. The fingerprints shall be submitted to the FBI through
             1481      the Criminal Investigations and Technical Services Division. The individual or licensee is
             1482      responsible for the cost of the fingerprinting and national criminal history check.


             1483          (c) Identifying information required under this section for a covered person who is
             1484      between the age of 12 and 17 does not include fingerprints.
             1485          (4) The department may determine whether:
             1486          (a) an individual whose name and other identifying information has been submitted
             1487      pursuant to Subsection (2) and who provides direct care to children is listed in the Licensing
             1488      Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006 or has a substantiated finding by a court
             1489      of a severe type of child abuse or neglect under Section 78A-6-323 , if identification as a
             1490      possible perpetrator of child abuse or neglect is relevant to the employment activities of that
             1491      individual;
             1492          (b) an individual whose name and other identifying information has been submitted
             1493      pursuant to Subsection (2) or (6)(b) and who provides direct care to [disabled or elder adults]
             1494      an elderly person or an adult with a disability, or who is residing in a residential home that is a
             1495      facility licensed to provide direct care to [disabled or elder adults] an elderly person or an adult
             1496      with a disability, has a substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of [a disabled or
             1497      elder adult] an elderly person or an adult with a disability by accessing in accordance with
             1498      Subsection (5) the database created in Section 62A-3-311.1 if identification as a possible
             1499      perpetrator of disabled or elder adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation is relevant to the
             1500      employment activities or residence of that person; or
             1501          (c) an individual whose name or other identifying information has been submitted
             1502      pursuant to Subsection (2) or (6)(b) has been adjudicated in a juvenile court of committing an
             1503      act which if committed by an adult would be a felony or a misdemeanor if:
             1504          (i) the individual is under the age of 28 years; or
             1505          (ii) the individual is over the age of 28 and has been convicted, has pleaded no contest,
             1506      or is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for any felony or
             1507      misdemeanor.
             1508          (5) (a) The department shall:
             1509          (i) designate persons within the department to access:
             1510          (A) the Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006 ;
             1511          (B) court records under Subsection 78A-6-323 (6);
             1512          (C) the database described in Subsection (4)(b); and
             1513          (D) juvenile court records as permitted by Subsection (4)(c); and


             1514          (ii) adopt measures to:
             1515          (A) protect the security of the Licensing Information System, the court records, and the
             1516      database; and
             1517          (B) strictly limit access to the Licensing Information System, the court records, and the
             1518      database to those designated under Subsection (5)(a)(i).
             1519          (b) Those designated under Subsection (5)(a)(i) shall receive training from the
             1520      Department of Human Services with respect to:
             1521          (i) accessing the Licensing Information System, the court records, and the database;
             1522          (ii) maintaining strict security; and
             1523          (iii) the criminal provisions in Section 62A-4a-412 for the improper release of
             1524      information.
             1525          (c) Those designated under Subsection (5)(a)(i):
             1526          (i) are the only ones in the department with the authority to access the Licensing
             1527      Information System, the court records, and database; and
             1528          (ii) may only access the Licensing Information System, the court records, and the
             1529      database for the purpose of licensing and in accordance with the provisions of Subsection (4).
             1530          (6) (a) Within 10 days of initially hiring a covered individual, a covered health care
             1531      facility shall submit the covered individual's information to the department in accordance with
             1532      Subsection (2).
             1533          (b) (i) [Prior to] Before, or within 10 days of initially hiring an individual to provide
             1534      care to an elderly [adult] person or a [disabled person] person with a disability in the home of
             1535      the [elderly adult or disabled] person, a covered employer may submit the employed
             1536      individual's information to the department.
             1537          (ii) The department shall:
             1538          (A) in accordance with Subsections (4) and (6)(c) [of this section], and Subsection
             1539      62A-3-311.1 [(4)] (2)(b), determine whether the individual has a substantiated finding of abuse,
             1540      neglect, or exploitation of a minor or an elderly [adult] person; and
             1541          (B) in accordance with Subsection (9), inform the covered employer of the
             1542      department's findings.
             1543          (c) A covered employer:
             1544          (i) must certify to the department that the covered employer intends to hire, or has


             1545      hired, the individual whose information the covered employer has submitted to the department
             1546      for the purpose of providing care to an elderly [adult or a disabled] person or a person with a
             1547      disability in the home of the [elderly adult or disabled] person;
             1548          (ii) must pay the reasonable fees established by the department under Subsection (8);
             1549      and
             1550          (iii) commits an infraction if the covered employer intentionally misrepresents any fact
             1551      certified under Subsection (6)(c)(i).
             1552          (7) The department shall adopt rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             1553      Rulemaking Act, consistent with this chapter, defining the circumstances under which a person
             1554      who has been convicted of a criminal offense, or a person described in Subsection (4), may
             1555      provide direct care to a patient in a covered health care facility, taking into account the nature
             1556      of the criminal conviction or substantiated finding and its relation to patient care.
             1557          (8) The department may, in accordance with Section 26-1-6 , assess reasonable fees for
             1558      a criminal background check processed pursuant to this section.
             1559          (9) The department may inform the covered health care facility or a covered employer
             1560      of information discovered under Subsection (4) with respect to a covered individual, or an
             1561      individual whose name is submitted by a covered employer.
             1562          (10) (a) A covered health care facility is not civilly liable for submitting information to
             1563      the department as required by this section.
             1564          (b) A covered employer is not civilly liable for submitting information to the
             1565      department as permitted by this section if the covered employer:
             1566          (i) complies with Subsection (6)(c)(i); and
             1567          (ii) does not use the information obtained about an individual under this section for any
             1568      purpose other than hiring decisions directly related to the care of the elderly [adult or disabled]
             1569      person or the person with a disability.
             1570          Section 31. Section 26-21-13.5 is amended to read:
             1571           26-21-13.5. Intermediate care facilities for people with an intellectual disability --
             1572      Licensing.
             1573          (1) (a) It is the Legislature's intent that [developmentally disabled persons] a person
             1574      with a developmental disability be provided with an environment and surrounding that, as
             1575      closely as possible, resembles small community-based, homelike settings, to allow those


             1576      persons to have the opportunity, to the maximum extent feasible, to exercise their full rights
             1577      and responsibilities as citizens.
             1578          (b) It is the Legislature's purpose, in enacting this section, to provide assistance and
             1579      opportunities to enable [persons] a person with a developmental [disabilities] disability to
             1580      achieve [their] the person's maximum potential through increased independence, productivity,
             1581      and integration into the community.
             1582          (2) After July 1, 1990, the department may only license intermediate care beds for [the
             1583      mentally retarded] people with an intellectual disability in small health care facilities.
             1584          (3) The department may define by rule "small health care facility" for purposes of
             1585      licensure under this section and adopt rules necessary to carry out the requirements and
             1586      purposes of this section.
             1587          (4) This section does not apply to the renewal of a license or the licensure to a new
             1588      owner of any facility that was licensed on or before July 1, 1990, and that licensure has been
             1589      maintained without interruption.
             1590          Section 32. Section 26-35a-102 is amended to read:
             1591           26-35a-102. Legislative findings.
             1592          (1) The Legislature finds that there is an important state purpose to improve the quality
             1593      of care given to [the elderly and the physically disabled] persons who are elderly and to people
             1594      who have a disability, in long-term care nursing facilities.
             1595          (2) The Legislature finds that in order to improve the quality of care to those persons
             1596      described in Subsection (1), the rates paid to the nursing care facilities by the Medicaid
             1597      program must be adequate to encourage and support quality care.
             1598          (3) The Legislature finds that in order to meet the objectives in Subsections (1) and (2),
             1599      adequate funding must be provided to increase the rates paid to nursing care facilities providing
             1600      services pursuant to the Medicaid program.
             1601          Section 33. Section 26-35a-103 is amended to read:
             1602           26-35a-103. Definitions.
             1603          As used in this chapter:
             1604          (1) (a) "Nursing care facility" means:
             1605          (i) a nursing care facility described in Subsection 26-21-2 (17);
             1606          (ii) beginning January 1, 2006, a designated swing bed in:


             1607          (A) a general acute hospital as defined in Subsection 26-21-2 (11); and
             1608          (B) a critical access hospital which meets the criteria of 42[,] U.S.C. Sec. 1395i-4(c)(2)
             1609      (1998); and
             1610          (iii) an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual
             1611      disability that is licensed under Section 26-21-13.5 .
             1612          (b) "Nursing care facility" does not include:
             1613          (i) the Utah State Developmental Center;
             1614          (ii) the Utah State Hospital;
             1615          (iii) a general acute hospital, specialty hospital, or small health care facility as defined
             1616      in Section 26-21-2 ; or
             1617          (iv) a Utah State Veterans' Home.
             1618          (2) "Patient day" means each calendar day in which an individual patient is admitted to
             1619      the nursing care facility during a calendar month, even if on a temporary leave of absence from
             1620      the facility.
             1621          Section 34. Section 26-35a-108 is amended to read:
             1622           26-35a-108. Intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability --
             1623      Uniform rate.
             1624          An intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual
             1625      disability is subject to all the provisions of this chapter, except that the department shall
             1626      establish a uniform rate for [intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded] an
             1627      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability that:
             1628          (1) is based on the same formula specified for nursing care facilities under the
             1629      provisions of Subsection 26-35a-104 (1)(b); and
             1630          (2) may be different than the uniform rate established for other nursing care facilities.
             1631          Section 35. Section 31A-1-301 is amended to read:
             1632           31A-1-301. Definitions.
             1633          As used in this title, unless otherwise specified:
             1634          (1) (a) "Accident and health insurance" means insurance to provide protection against
             1635      economic losses resulting from:
             1636          (i) a medical condition including:
             1637          (A) a medical care expense; or


             1638          (B) the risk of disability;
             1639          (ii) accident; or
             1640          (iii) sickness.
             1641          (b) "Accident and health insurance":
             1642          (i) includes a contract with disability contingencies including:
             1643          (A) an income replacement contract;
             1644          (B) a health care contract;
             1645          (C) an expense reimbursement contract;
             1646          (D) a credit accident and health contract;
             1647          (E) a continuing care contract; and
             1648          (F) a long-term care contract; and
             1649          (ii) may provide:
             1650          (A) hospital coverage;
             1651          (B) surgical coverage;
             1652          (C) medical coverage;
             1653          (D) loss of income coverage;
             1654          (E) prescription drug coverage;
             1655          (F) dental coverage; or
             1656          (G) vision coverage.
             1657          (c) "Accident and health insurance" does not include workers' compensation insurance.
             1658          (2) "Actuary" is as defined by the commissioner by rule, made in accordance with Title
             1659      63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             1660          (3) "Administrator" is defined in Subsection (159).
             1661          (4) "Adult" means an individual who has attained the age of at least 18 years.
             1662          (5) "Affiliate" means a person who controls, is controlled by, or is under common
             1663      control with, another person. A corporation is an affiliate of another corporation, regardless of
             1664      ownership, if substantially the same group of individuals manage the corporations.
             1665          (6) "Agency" means:
             1666          (a) a person other than an individual, including a sole proprietorship by which an
             1667      individual does business under an assumed name; and
             1668          (b) an insurance organization licensed or required to be licensed under Section


             1669      31A-23a-301 .
             1670          (7) "Alien insurer" means an insurer domiciled outside the United States.
             1671          (8) "Amendment" means an endorsement to an insurance policy or certificate.
             1672          (9) "Annuity" means an agreement to make periodical payments for a period certain or
             1673      over the lifetime of one or more individuals if the making or continuance of all or some of the
             1674      series of the payments, or the amount of the payment, is dependent upon the continuance of
             1675      human life.
             1676          (10) "Application" means a document:
             1677          (a) (i) completed by an applicant to provide information about the risk to be insured;
             1678      and
             1679          (ii) that contains information that is used by the insurer to evaluate risk and decide
             1680      whether to:
             1681          (A) insure the risk under:
             1682          (I) the coverage as originally offered; or
             1683          (II) a modification of the coverage as originally offered; or
             1684          (B) decline to insure the risk; or
             1685          (b) used by the insurer to gather information from the applicant before issuance of an
             1686      annuity contract.
             1687          (11) "Articles" or "articles of incorporation" means:
             1688          (a) the original articles;
             1689          (b) a special law;
             1690          (c) a charter;
             1691          (d) an amendment;
             1692          (e) restated articles;
             1693          (f) articles of merger or consolidation;
             1694          (g) a trust instrument;
             1695          (h) another constitutive document for a trust or other entity that is not a corporation;
             1696      and
             1697          (i) an amendment to an item listed in Subsections (11)(a) through (h).
             1698          (12) "Bail bond insurance" means a guarantee that a person will attend court when
             1699      required, up to and including surrender of the person in execution of a sentence imposed under


             1700      Subsection 77-20-7 (1), as a condition to the release of that person from confinement.
             1701          (13) "Binder" is defined in Section 31A-21-102 .
             1702          (14) "Blanket insurance policy" means a group policy covering a defined class of
             1703      persons:
             1704          (a) without individual underwriting or application; and
             1705          (b) that is determined by definition with or without designating each person covered.
             1706          (15) "Board," "board of trustees," or "board of directors" means the group of persons
             1707      with responsibility over, or management of, a corporation, however designated.
             1708          (16) "Business entity" means:
             1709          (a) a corporation;
             1710          (b) an association;
             1711          (c) a partnership;
             1712          (d) a limited liability company;
             1713          (e) a limited liability partnership; or
             1714          (f) another legal entity.
             1715          (17) "Business of insurance" is defined in Subsection (85).
             1716          (18) "Business plan" means the information required to be supplied to the
             1717      commissioner under Subsections 31A-5-204 (2)(i) and (j), including the information required
             1718      when these subsections apply by reference under:
             1719          (a) Section 31A-7-201 ;
             1720          (b) Section 31A-8-205 ; or
             1721          (c) Subsection 31A-9-205 (2).
             1722          (19) (a) "Bylaws" means the rules adopted for the regulation or management of a
             1723      corporation's affairs, however designated.
             1724          (b) "Bylaws" includes comparable rules for a trust or other entity that is not a
             1725      corporation.
             1726          (20) "Captive insurance company" means:
             1727          (a) an insurer:
             1728          (i) owned by another organization; and
             1729          (ii) whose exclusive purpose is to insure risks of the parent organization and an
             1730      affiliated company; or


             1731          (b) in the case of a group or association, an insurer:
             1732          (i) owned by the insureds; and
             1733          (ii) whose exclusive purpose is to insure risks of:
             1734          (A) a member organization;
             1735          (B) a group member; or
             1736          (C) an affiliate of:
             1737          (I) a member organization; or
             1738          (II) a group member.
             1739          (21) "Casualty insurance" means liability insurance.
             1740          (22) "Certificate" means evidence of insurance given to:
             1741          (a) an insured under a group insurance policy; or
             1742          (b) a third party.
             1743          (23) "Certificate of authority" is included within the term "license."
             1744          (24) "Claim," unless the context otherwise requires, means a request or demand on an
             1745      insurer for payment of a benefit according to the terms of an insurance policy.
             1746          (25) "Claims-made coverage" means an insurance contract or provision limiting
             1747      coverage under a policy insuring against legal liability to claims that are first made against the
             1748      insured while the policy is in force.
             1749          (26) (a) "Commissioner" or "commissioner of insurance" means Utah's insurance
             1750      commissioner.
             1751          (b) When appropriate, the terms listed in Subsection (26)(a) apply to the equivalent
             1752      supervisory official of another jurisdiction.
             1753          (27) (a) "Continuing care insurance" means insurance that:
             1754          (i) provides board and lodging;
             1755          (ii) provides one or more of the following:
             1756          (A) a personal service;
             1757          (B) a nursing service;
             1758          (C) a medical service; or
             1759          (D) any other health-related service; and
             1760          (iii) provides the coverage described in this Subsection (27)(a) under an agreement
             1761      effective:


             1762          (A) for the life of the insured; or
             1763          (B) for a period in excess of one year.
             1764          (b) Insurance is continuing care insurance regardless of whether or not the board and
             1765      lodging are provided at the same location as a service described in Subsection (27)(a)(ii).
             1766          (28) (a) "Control," "controlling," "controlled," or "under common control" means the
             1767      direct or indirect possession of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management
             1768      and policies of a person. This control may be:
             1769          (i) by contract;
             1770          (ii) by common management;
             1771          (iii) through the ownership of voting securities; or
             1772          (iv) by a means other than those described in Subsections (28)(a)(i) through (iii).
             1773          (b) There is no presumption that an individual holding an official position with another
             1774      person controls that person solely by reason of the position.
             1775          (c) A person having a contract or arrangement giving control is considered to have
             1776      control despite the illegality or invalidity of the contract or arrangement.
             1777          (d) There is a rebuttable presumption of control in a person who directly or indirectly
             1778      owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds proxies to vote 10% or more of the
             1779      voting securities of another person.
             1780          (29) "Controlled insurer" means a licensed insurer that is either directly or indirectly
             1781      controlled by a producer.
             1782          (30) "Controlling person" means a person that directly or indirectly has the power to
             1783      direct or cause to be directed, the management, control, or activities of a reinsurance
             1784      intermediary.
             1785          (31) "Controlling producer" means a producer who directly or indirectly controls an
             1786      insurer.
             1787          (32) (a) "Corporation" means an insurance corporation, except when referring to:
             1788          (i) a corporation doing business:
             1789          (A) as:
             1790          (I) an insurance producer;
             1791          (II) a limited line producer;
             1792          (III) a consultant;


             1793          (IV) a managing general agent;
             1794          (V) a reinsurance intermediary;
             1795          (VI) a third party administrator; or
             1796          (VII) an adjuster; and
             1797          (B) under:
             1798          (I) Chapter 23a, Insurance Marketing - Licensing Producers, Consultants, and
             1799      Reinsurance Intermediaries;
             1800          (II) Chapter 25, Third Party Administrators; or
             1801          (III) Chapter 26, Insurance Adjusters; or
             1802          (ii) a noninsurer that is part of a holding company system under Chapter 16, Insurance
             1803      Holding Companies.
             1804          (b) "Stock corporation" means a stock insurance corporation.
             1805          (c) "Mutual" or "mutual corporation" means a mutual insurance corporation.
             1806          (33) (a) "Creditable coverage" has the same meaning as provided in federal regulations
             1807      adopted pursuant to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. L.
             1808      104-191, 110 Stat. 1936.
             1809          (b) "Creditable coverage" includes coverage that is offered through a public health plan
             1810      such as:
             1811          (i) the Primary Care Network Program under a Medicaid primary care network
             1812      demonstration waiver obtained subject to Section 26-18-3 ;
             1813          (ii) the Children's Health Insurance Program under Section 26-40-106 ; or
             1814          (iii) the Ryan White Program Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, Pub. L.
             1815      101-381, and Ryan White HIV/AIDS Treatment Modernization Act of 2006, Pub. L. 109-415.
             1816          (34) "Credit accident and health insurance" means insurance on a debtor to provide
             1817      indemnity for payments coming due on a specific loan or other credit transaction while the
             1818      debtor [is disabled] has a disability.
             1819          (35) (a) "Credit insurance" means insurance offered in connection with an extension of
             1820      credit that is limited to partially or wholly extinguishing that credit obligation.
             1821          (b) "Credit insurance" includes:
             1822          (i) credit accident and health insurance;
             1823          (ii) credit life insurance;


             1824          (iii) credit property insurance;
             1825          (iv) credit unemployment insurance;
             1826          (v) guaranteed automobile protection insurance;
             1827          (vi) involuntary unemployment insurance;
             1828          (vii) mortgage accident and health insurance;
             1829          (viii) mortgage guaranty insurance; and
             1830          (ix) mortgage life insurance.
             1831          (36) "Credit life insurance" means insurance on the life of a debtor in connection with
             1832      an extension of credit that pays a person if the debtor dies.
             1833          (37) "Credit property insurance" means insurance:
             1834          (a) offered in connection with an extension of credit; and
             1835          (b) that protects the property until the debt is paid.
             1836          (38) "Credit unemployment insurance" means insurance:
             1837          (a) offered in connection with an extension of credit; and
             1838          (b) that provides indemnity if the debtor is unemployed for payments coming due on a:
             1839          (i) specific loan; or
             1840          (ii) credit transaction.
             1841          (39) "Creditor" means a person, including an insured, having a claim, whether:
             1842          (a) matured;
             1843          (b) unmatured;
             1844          (c) liquidated;
             1845          (d) unliquidated;
             1846          (e) secured;
             1847          (f) unsecured;
             1848          (g) absolute;
             1849          (h) fixed; or
             1850          (i) contingent.
             1851          (40) (a) "Customer service representative" means a person that provides an insurance
             1852      service and insurance product information:
             1853          (i) for the customer service representative's:
             1854          (A) producer; or


             1855          (B) consultant employer; and
             1856          (ii) to the customer service representative's employer's:
             1857          (A) customer;
             1858          (B) client; or
             1859          (C) organization.
             1860          (b) A customer service representative may only operate within the scope of authority of
             1861      the customer service representative's producer or consultant employer.
             1862          (41) "Deadline" means a final date or time:
             1863          (a) imposed by:
             1864          (i) statute;
             1865          (ii) rule; or
             1866          (iii) order; and
             1867          (b) by which a required filing or payment must be received by the department.
             1868          (42) "Deemer clause" means a provision under this title under which upon the
             1869      occurrence of a condition precedent, the commissioner is considered to have taken a specific
             1870      action. If the statute so provides, a condition precedent may be the commissioner's failure to
             1871      take a specific action.
             1872          (43) "Degree of relationship" means the number of steps between two persons
             1873      determined by counting the generations separating one person from a common ancestor and
             1874      then counting the generations to the other person.
             1875          (44) "Department" means the Insurance Department.
             1876          (45) "Director" means a member of the board of directors of a corporation.
             1877          (46) "Disability" means a physiological or psychological condition that partially or
             1878      totally limits an individual's ability to:
             1879          (a) perform the duties of:
             1880          (i) that individual's occupation; or
             1881          (ii) any occupation for which the individual is reasonably suited by education, training,
             1882      or experience; or
             1883          (b) perform two or more of the following basic activities of daily living:
             1884          (i) eating;
             1885          (ii) toileting;


             1886          (iii) transferring;
             1887          (iv) bathing; or
             1888          (v) dressing.
             1889          (47) "Disability income insurance" is defined in Subsection (76).
             1890          (48) "Domestic insurer" means an insurer organized under the laws of this state.
             1891          (49) "Domiciliary state" means the state in which an insurer:
             1892          (a) is incorporated;
             1893          (b) is organized; or
             1894          (c) in the case of an alien insurer, enters into the United States.
             1895          (50) (a) "Eligible employee" means:
             1896          (i) an employee who:
             1897          (A) works on a full-time basis; and
             1898          (B) has a normal work week of 30 or more hours; or
             1899          (ii) a person described in Subsection (50)(b).
             1900          (b) "Eligible employee" includes, if the individual is included under a health benefit
             1901      plan of a small employer:
             1902          (i) a sole proprietor;
             1903          (ii) a partner in a partnership; or
             1904          (iii) an independent contractor.
             1905          (c) "Eligible employee" does not include, unless eligible under Subsection (50)(b):
             1906          (i) an individual who works on a temporary or substitute basis for a small employer;
             1907          (ii) an employer's spouse; or
             1908          (iii) a dependent of an employer.
             1909          (51) "Employee" means an individual employed by an employer.
             1910          (52) "Employee benefits" means one or more benefits or services provided to:
             1911          (a) an employee; or
             1912          (b) a dependent of an employee.
             1913          (53) (a) "Employee welfare fund" means a fund:
             1914          (i) established or maintained, whether directly or through a trustee, by:
             1915          (A) one or more employers;
             1916          (B) one or more labor organizations; or


             1917          (C) a combination of employers and labor organizations; and
             1918          (ii) that provides employee benefits paid or contracted to be paid, other than income
             1919      from investments of the fund:
             1920          (A) by or on behalf of an employer doing business in this state; or
             1921          (B) for the benefit of a person employed in this state.
             1922          (b) "Employee welfare fund" includes a plan funded or subsidized by a user fee or tax
             1923      revenues.
             1924          (54) "Endorsement" means a written agreement attached to a policy or certificate to
             1925      modify the policy or certificate coverage.
             1926          (55) "Enrollment date," with respect to a health benefit plan, means:
             1927          (a) the first day of coverage; or
             1928          (b) if there is a waiting period, the first day of the waiting period.
             1929          (56) (a) "Escrow" means:
             1930          (i) a real estate settlement or real estate closing conducted by a third party pursuant to
             1931      the requirements of a written agreement between the parties in a real estate transaction; or
             1932          (ii) a settlement or closing involving:
             1933          (A) a mobile home;
             1934          (B) a grazing right;
             1935          (C) a water right; or
             1936          (D) other personal property authorized by the commissioner.
             1937          (b) "Escrow" includes the act of conducting a:
             1938          (i) real estate settlement; or
             1939          (ii) real estate closing.
             1940          (57) "Escrow agent" means:
             1941          (a) an insurance producer with:
             1942          (i) a title insurance line of authority; and
             1943          (ii) an escrow subline of authority; or
             1944          (b) a person defined as an escrow agent in Section 7-22-101 .
             1945          (58) (a) "Excludes" is not exhaustive and does not mean that another thing is not also
             1946      excluded.
             1947          (b) The items listed in a list using the term "excludes" are representative examples for


             1948      use in interpretation of this title.
             1949          (59) "Exclusion" means for the purposes of accident and health insurance that an
             1950      insurer does not provide insurance coverage, for whatever reason, for one of the following:
             1951          (a) a specific physical condition;
             1952          (b) a specific medical procedure;
             1953          (c) a specific disease or disorder; or
             1954          (d) a specific prescription drug or class of prescription drugs.
             1955          (60) "Expense reimbursement insurance" means insurance:
             1956          (a) written to provide a payment for an expense relating to hospital confinement
             1957      resulting from illness or injury; and
             1958          (b) written:
             1959          (i) as a daily limit for a specific number of days in a hospital; and
             1960          (ii) to have a one or two day waiting period following a hospitalization.
             1961          (61) "Fidelity insurance" means insurance guaranteeing the fidelity of a person holding
             1962      a position of public or private trust.
             1963          (62) (a) "Filed" means that a filing is:
             1964          (i) submitted to the department as required by and in accordance with applicable
             1965      statute, rule, or filing order;
             1966          (ii) received by the department within the time period provided in applicable statute,
             1967      rule, or filing order; and
             1968          (iii) accompanied by the appropriate fee in accordance with:
             1969          (A) Section 31A-3-103 ; or
             1970          (B) rule.
             1971          (b) "Filed" does not include a filing that is rejected by the department because it is not
             1972      submitted in accordance with Subsection (62)(a).
             1973          (63) "Filing," when used as a noun, means an item required to be filed with the
             1974      department including:
             1975          (a) a policy;
             1976          (b) a rate;
             1977          (c) a form;
             1978          (d) a document;


             1979          (e) a plan;
             1980          (f) a manual;
             1981          (g) an application;
             1982          (h) a report;
             1983          (i) a certificate;
             1984          (j) an endorsement;
             1985          (k) an actuarial certification;
             1986          (l) a licensee annual statement;
             1987          (m) a licensee renewal application;
             1988          (n) an advertisement; or
             1989          (o) an outline of coverage.
             1990          (64) "First party insurance" means an insurance policy or contract in which the insurer
             1991      agrees to pay a claim submitted to it by the insured for the insured's losses.
             1992          (65) "Foreign insurer" means an insurer domiciled outside of this state, including an
             1993      alien insurer.
             1994          (66) (a) "Form" means one of the following prepared for general use:
             1995          (i) a policy;
             1996          (ii) a certificate;
             1997          (iii) an application;
             1998          (iv) an outline of coverage; or
             1999          (v) an endorsement.
             2000          (b) "Form" does not include a document specially prepared for use in an individual
             2001      case.
             2002          (67) "Franchise insurance" means an individual insurance policy provided through a
             2003      mass marketing arrangement involving a defined class of persons related in some way other
             2004      than through the purchase of insurance.
             2005          (68) "General lines of authority" include:
             2006          (a) the general lines of insurance in Subsection (69);
             2007          (b) title insurance under one of the following sublines of authority:
             2008          (i) search, including authority to act as a title marketing representative;
             2009          (ii) escrow, including authority to act as a title marketing representative; and


             2010          (iii) title marketing representative only;
             2011          (c) surplus lines;
             2012          (d) workers' compensation; and
             2013          (e) any other line of insurance that the commissioner considers necessary to recognize
             2014      in the public interest.
             2015          (69) "General lines of insurance" include:
             2016          (a) accident and health;
             2017          (b) casualty;
             2018          (c) life;
             2019          (d) personal lines;
             2020          (e) property; and
             2021          (f) variable contracts, including variable life and annuity.
             2022          (70) "Group health plan" means an employee welfare benefit plan to the extent that the
             2023      plan provides medical care:
             2024          (a) (i) to an employee; or
             2025          (ii) to a dependent of an employee; and
             2026          (b) (i) directly;
             2027          (ii) through insurance reimbursement; or
             2028          (iii) through another method.
             2029          (71) (a) "Group insurance policy" means a policy covering a group of persons that is
             2030      issued:
             2031          (i) to a policyholder on behalf of the group; and
             2032          (ii) for the benefit of a member of the group who is selected under a procedure defined
             2033      in:
             2034          (A) the policy; or
             2035          (B) an agreement that is collateral to the policy.
             2036          (b) A group insurance policy may include a member of the policyholder's family or a
             2037      dependent.
             2038          (72) "Guaranteed automobile protection insurance" means insurance offered in
             2039      connection with an extension of credit that pays the difference in amount between the
             2040      insurance settlement and the balance of the loan if the insured automobile is a total loss.


             2041          (73) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (73)(b), "health benefit plan" means a policy
             2042      or certificate that:
             2043          (i) provides health care insurance;
             2044          (ii) provides major medical expense insurance; or
             2045          (iii) is offered as a substitute for hospital or medical expense insurance, such as:
             2046          (A) a hospital confinement indemnity; or
             2047          (B) a limited benefit plan.
             2048          (b) "Health benefit plan" does not include a policy or certificate that:
             2049          (i) provides benefits solely for:
             2050          (A) accident;
             2051          (B) dental;
             2052          (C) income replacement;
             2053          (D) long-term care;
             2054          (E) a Medicare supplement;
             2055          (F) a specified disease;
             2056          (G) vision; or
             2057          (H) a short-term limited duration; or
             2058          (ii) is offered and marketed as supplemental health insurance.
             2059          (74) "Health care" means any of the following intended for use in the diagnosis,
             2060      treatment, mitigation, or prevention of a human ailment or impairment:
             2061          (a) a professional service;
             2062          (b) a personal service;
             2063          (c) a facility;
             2064          (d) equipment;
             2065          (e) a device;
             2066          (f) supplies; or
             2067          (g) medicine.
             2068          (75) (a) "Health care insurance" or "health insurance" means insurance providing:
             2069          (i) a health care benefit; or
             2070          (ii) payment of an incurred health care expense.
             2071          (b) "Health care insurance" or "health insurance" does not include accident and health


             2072      insurance providing a benefit for:
             2073          (i) replacement of income;
             2074          (ii) short-term accident;
             2075          (iii) fixed indemnity;
             2076          (iv) credit accident and health;
             2077          (v) supplements to liability;
             2078          (vi) workers' compensation;
             2079          (vii) automobile medical payment;
             2080          (viii) no-fault automobile;
             2081          (ix) equivalent self-insurance; or
             2082          (x) a type of accident and health insurance coverage that is a part of or attached to
             2083      another type of policy.
             2084          (76) "Income replacement insurance" or "disability income insurance" means insurance
             2085      written to provide payments to replace income lost from accident or sickness.
             2086          (77) "Indemnity" means the payment of an amount to offset all or part of an insured
             2087      loss.
             2088          (78) "Independent adjuster" means an insurance adjuster required to be licensed under
             2089      Section 31A-26-201 who engages in insurance adjusting as a representative of an insurer.
             2090          (79) "Independently procured insurance" means insurance procured under Section
             2091      31A-15-104 .
             2092          (80) "Individual" means a natural person.
             2093          (81) "Inland marine insurance" includes insurance covering:
             2094          (a) property in transit on or over land;
             2095          (b) property in transit over water by means other than boat or ship;
             2096          (c) bailee liability;
             2097          (d) fixed transportation property such as bridges, electric transmission systems, radio
             2098      and television transmission towers and tunnels; and
             2099          (e) personal and commercial property floaters.
             2100          (82) "Insolvency" means that:
             2101          (a) an insurer is unable to pay its debts or meet its obligations as the debts and
             2102      obligations mature;


             2103          (b) an insurer's total adjusted capital is less than the insurer's mandatory control level
             2104      RBC under Subsection 31A-17-601 (8)(c); or
             2105          (c) an insurer is determined to be hazardous under this title.
             2106          (83) (a) "Insurance" means:
             2107          (i) an arrangement, contract, or plan for the transfer of a risk or risks from one or more
             2108      persons to one or more other persons; or
             2109          (ii) an arrangement, contract, or plan for the distribution of a risk or risks among a
             2110      group of persons that includes the person seeking to distribute that person's risk.
             2111          (b) "Insurance" includes:
             2112          (i) a risk distributing arrangement providing for compensation or replacement for
             2113      damages or loss through the provision of a service or a benefit in kind;
             2114          (ii) a contract of guaranty or suretyship entered into by the guarantor or surety as a
             2115      business and not as merely incidental to a business transaction; and
             2116          (iii) a plan in which the risk does not rest upon the person who makes an arrangement,
             2117      but with a class of persons who have agreed to share the risk.
             2118          (84) "Insurance adjuster" means a person who directs the investigation, negotiation, or
             2119      settlement of a claim under an insurance policy other than life insurance or an annuity, on
             2120      behalf of an insurer, policyholder, or a claimant under an insurance policy.
             2121          (85) "Insurance business" or "business of insurance" includes:
             2122          (a) providing health care insurance by an organization that is or is required to be
             2123      licensed under this title;
             2124          (b) providing a benefit to an employee in the event of a contingency not within the
             2125      control of the employee, in which the employee is entitled to the benefit as a right, which
             2126      benefit may be provided either:
             2127          (i) by a single employer or by multiple employer groups; or
             2128          (ii) through one or more trusts, associations, or other entities;
             2129          (c) providing an annuity:
             2130          (i) including an annuity issued in return for a gift; and
             2131          (ii) except an annuity provided by a person specified in Subsections 31A-22-1305 (2)
             2132      and (3);
             2133          (d) providing the characteristic services of a motor club as outlined in Subsection


             2134      (113);
             2135          (e) providing another person with insurance;
             2136          (f) making as insurer, guarantor, or surety, or proposing to make as insurer, guarantor,
             2137      or surety, a contract or policy of title insurance;
             2138          (g) transacting or proposing to transact any phase of title insurance, including:
             2139          (i) solicitation;
             2140          (ii) negotiation preliminary to execution;
             2141          (iii) execution of a contract of title insurance;
             2142          (iv) insuring;
             2143          (v) transacting matters subsequent to the execution of the contract and arising out of
             2144      the contract, including reinsurance; and
             2145          (vi) transacting or proposing a life settlement; and
             2146          (h) doing, or proposing to do, any business in substance equivalent to Subsections
             2147      (85)(a) through (g) in a manner designed to evade this title.
             2148          (86) "Insurance consultant" or "consultant" means a person who:
             2149          (a) advises another person about insurance needs and coverages;
             2150          (b) is compensated by the person advised on a basis not directly related to the insurance
             2151      placed; and
             2152          (c) except as provided in Section 31A-23a-501 , is not compensated directly or
             2153      indirectly by an insurer or producer for advice given.
             2154          (87) "Insurance holding company system" means a group of two or more affiliated
             2155      persons, at least one of whom is an insurer.
             2156          (88) (a) "Insurance producer" or "producer" means a person licensed or required to be
             2157      licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance.
             2158          (b) With regards to the selling, soliciting, or negotiating of an insurance product to an
             2159      insurance customer or an insured:
             2160          (i) "producer for the insurer" means a producer who is compensated directly or
             2161      indirectly by an insurer for selling, soliciting, or negotiating a product of that insurer; and
             2162          (ii) "producer for the insured" means a producer who:
             2163          (A) is compensated directly and only by an insurance customer or an insured; and
             2164          (B) receives no compensation directly or indirectly from an insurer for selling,


             2165      soliciting, or negotiating a product of that insurer to an insurance customer or insured.
             2166          (89) (a) "Insured" means a person to whom or for whose benefit an insurer makes a
             2167      promise in an insurance policy and includes:
             2168          (i) a policyholder;
             2169          (ii) a subscriber;
             2170          (iii) a member; and
             2171          (iv) a beneficiary.
             2172          (b) The definition in Subsection (89)(a):
             2173          (i) applies only to this title; and
             2174          (ii) does not define the meaning of this word as used in an insurance policy or
             2175      certificate.
             2176          (90) (a) "Insurer" means a person doing an insurance business as a principal including:
             2177          (i) a fraternal benefit society;
             2178          (ii) an issuer of a gift annuity other than an annuity specified in Subsections
             2179      31A-22-1305 (2) and (3);
             2180          (iii) a motor club;
             2181          (iv) an employee welfare plan; and
             2182          (v) a person purporting or intending to do an insurance business as a principal on that
             2183      person's own account.
             2184          (b) "Insurer" does not include a governmental entity to the extent the governmental
             2185      entity is engaged in an activity described in Section 31A-12-107 .
             2186          (91) "Interinsurance exchange" is defined in Subsection (142).
             2187          (92) "Involuntary unemployment insurance" means insurance:
             2188          (a) offered in connection with an extension of credit; and
             2189          (b) that provides indemnity if the debtor is involuntarily unemployed for payments
             2190      coming due on a:
             2191          (i) specific loan; or
             2192          (ii) credit transaction.
             2193          (93) "Large employer," in connection with a health benefit plan, means an employer
             2194      who, with respect to a calendar year and to a plan year:
             2195          (a) employed an average of at least 51 eligible employees on each business day during


             2196      the preceding calendar year; and
             2197          (b) employs at least two employees on the first day of the plan year.
             2198          (94) "Late enrollee," with respect to an employer health benefit plan, means an
             2199      individual whose enrollment is a late enrollment.
             2200          (95) "Late enrollment," with respect to an employer health benefit plan, means
             2201      enrollment of an individual other than:
             2202          (a) on the earliest date on which coverage can become effective for the individual
             2203      under the terms of the plan; or
             2204          (b) through special enrollment.
             2205          (96) (a) Except for a retainer contract or legal assistance described in Section
             2206      31A-1-103 , "legal expense insurance" means insurance written to indemnify or pay for a
             2207      specified legal expense.
             2208          (b) "Legal expense insurance" includes an arrangement that creates a reasonable
             2209      expectation of an enforceable right.
             2210          (c) "Legal expense insurance" does not include the provision of, or reimbursement for,
             2211      legal services incidental to other insurance coverage.
             2212          (97) (a) "Liability insurance" means insurance against liability:
             2213          (i) for death, injury, or disability of a human being, or for damage to property,
             2214      exclusive of the coverages under:
             2215          (A) Subsection (107) for medical malpractice insurance;
             2216          (B) Subsection (134) for professional liability insurance; and
             2217          (C) Subsection (168) for workers' compensation insurance;
             2218          (ii) for a medical, hospital, surgical, and funeral benefit to a person other than the
             2219      insured who is injured, irrespective of legal liability of the insured, when issued with or
             2220      supplemental to insurance against legal liability for the death, injury, or disability of a human
             2221      being, exclusive of the coverages under:
             2222          (A) Subsection (107) for medical malpractice insurance;
             2223          (B) Subsection (134) for professional liability insurance; and
             2224          (C) Subsection (168) for workers' compensation insurance;
             2225          (iii) for loss or damage to property resulting from an accident to or explosion of a
             2226      boiler, pipe, pressure container, machinery, or apparatus;


             2227          (iv) for loss or damage to property caused by:
             2228          (A) the breakage or leakage of a sprinkler, water pipe, or water container; or
             2229          (B) water entering through a leak or opening in a building; or
             2230          (v) for other loss or damage properly the subject of insurance not within another kind
             2231      of insurance as defined in this chapter, if the insurance is not contrary to law or public policy.
             2232          (b) "Liability insurance" includes:
             2233          (i) vehicle liability insurance;
             2234          (ii) residential dwelling liability insurance; and
             2235          (iii) making inspection of, and issuing a certificate of inspection upon, an elevator,
             2236      boiler, machinery, or apparatus of any kind when done in connection with insurance on the
             2237      elevator, boiler, machinery, or apparatus.
             2238          (98) (a) "License" means authorization issued by the commissioner to engage in an
             2239      activity that is part of or related to the insurance business.
             2240          (b) "License" includes a certificate of authority issued to an insurer.
             2241          (99) (a) "Life insurance" means:
             2242          (i) insurance on a human life; and
             2243          (ii) insurance pertaining to or connected with human life.
             2244          (b) The business of life insurance includes:
             2245          (i) granting a death benefit;
             2246          (ii) granting an annuity benefit;
             2247          (iii) granting an endowment benefit;
             2248          (iv) granting an additional benefit in the event of death by accident;
             2249          (v) granting an additional benefit to safeguard the policy against lapse; and
             2250          (vi) providing an optional method of settlement of proceeds.
             2251          (100) "Limited license" means a license that:
             2252          (a) is issued for a specific product of insurance; and
             2253          (b) limits an individual or agency to transact only for that product or insurance.
             2254          (101) "Limited line credit insurance" includes the following forms of insurance:
             2255          (a) credit life;
             2256          (b) credit accident and health;
             2257          (c) credit property;


             2258          (d) credit unemployment;
             2259          (e) involuntary unemployment;
             2260          (f) mortgage life;
             2261          (g) mortgage guaranty;
             2262          (h) mortgage accident and health;
             2263          (i) guaranteed automobile protection; and
             2264          (j) another form of insurance offered in connection with an extension of credit that:
             2265          (i) is limited to partially or wholly extinguishing the credit obligation; and
             2266          (ii) the commissioner determines by rule should be designated as a form of limited line
             2267      credit insurance.
             2268          (102) "Limited line credit insurance producer" means a person who sells, solicits, or
             2269      negotiates one or more forms of limited line credit insurance coverage to an individual through
             2270      a master, corporate, group, or individual policy.
             2271          (103) "Limited line insurance" includes:
             2272          (a) bail bond;
             2273          (b) limited line credit insurance;
             2274          (c) legal expense insurance;
             2275          (d) motor club insurance;
             2276          (e) rental car-related insurance;
             2277          (f) travel insurance;
             2278          (g) crop insurance;
             2279          (h) self-service storage insurance; and
             2280          (i) another form of limited insurance that the commissioner determines by rule should
             2281      be designated a form of limited line insurance.
             2282          (104) "Limited lines authority" includes:
             2283          (a) the lines of insurance listed in Subsection (103); and
             2284          (b) a customer service representative.
             2285          (105) "Limited lines producer" means a person who sells, solicits, or negotiates limited
             2286      lines insurance.
             2287          (106) (a) "Long-term care insurance" means an insurance policy or rider advertised,
             2288      marketed, offered, or designated to provide coverage:


             2289          (i) in a setting other than an acute care unit of a hospital;
             2290          (ii) for not less than 12 consecutive months for a covered person on the basis of:
             2291          (A) expenses incurred;
             2292          (B) indemnity;
             2293          (C) prepayment; or
             2294          (D) another method;
             2295          (iii) for one or more necessary or medically necessary services that are:
             2296          (A) diagnostic;
             2297          (B) preventative;
             2298          (C) therapeutic;
             2299          (D) rehabilitative;
             2300          (E) maintenance; or
             2301          (F) personal care; and
             2302          (iv) that may be issued by:
             2303          (A) an insurer;
             2304          (B) a fraternal benefit society;
             2305          (C) (I) a nonprofit health hospital; and
             2306          (II) a medical service corporation;
             2307          (D) a prepaid health plan;
             2308          (E) a health maintenance organization; or
             2309          (F) an entity similar to the entities described in Subsections (106)(a)(iv)(A) through (E)
             2310      to the extent that the entity is otherwise authorized to issue life or health care insurance.
             2311          (b) "Long-term care insurance" includes:
             2312          (i) any of the following that provide directly or supplement long-term care insurance:
             2313          (A) a group or individual annuity or rider; or
             2314          (B) a life insurance policy or rider;
             2315          (ii) a policy or rider that provides for payment of benefits on the basis of:
             2316          (A) cognitive impairment; or
             2317          (B) functional capacity; or
             2318          (iii) a qualified long-term care insurance contract.
             2319          (c) "Long-term care insurance" does not include:


             2320          (i) a policy that is offered primarily to provide basic Medicare supplement coverage;
             2321          (ii) basic hospital expense coverage;
             2322          (iii) basic medical/surgical expense coverage;
             2323          (iv) hospital confinement indemnity coverage;
             2324          (v) major medical expense coverage;
             2325          (vi) income replacement or related asset-protection coverage;
             2326          (vii) accident only coverage;
             2327          (viii) coverage for a specified:
             2328          (A) disease; or
             2329          (B) accident;
             2330          (ix) limited benefit health coverage; or
             2331          (x) a life insurance policy that accelerates the death benefit to provide the option of a
             2332      lump sum payment:
             2333          (A) if the following are not conditioned on the receipt of long-term care:
             2334          (I) benefits; or
             2335          (II) eligibility; and
             2336          (B) the coverage is for one or more the following qualifying events:
             2337          (I) terminal illness;
             2338          (II) medical conditions requiring extraordinary medical intervention; or
             2339          (III) permanent institutional confinement.
             2340          (107) "Medical malpractice insurance" means insurance against legal liability incident
             2341      to the practice and provision of a medical service other than the practice and provision of a
             2342      dental service.
             2343          (108) "Member" means a person having membership rights in an insurance
             2344      corporation.
             2345          (109) "Minimum capital" or "minimum required capital" means the capital that must be
             2346      constantly maintained by a stock insurance corporation as required by statute.
             2347          (110) "Mortgage accident and health insurance" means insurance offered in connection
             2348      with an extension of credit that provides indemnity for payments coming due on a mortgage
             2349      while the debtor [is disabled] has a disability.
             2350          (111) "Mortgage guaranty insurance" means surety insurance under which a mortgagee


             2351      or other creditor is indemnified against losses caused by the default of a debtor.
             2352          (112) "Mortgage life insurance" means insurance on the life of a debtor in connection
             2353      with an extension of credit that pays if the debtor dies.
             2354          (113) "Motor club" means a person:
             2355          (a) licensed under:
             2356          (i) Chapter 5, Domestic Stock and Mutual Insurance Corporations;
             2357          (ii) Chapter 11, Motor Clubs; or
             2358          (iii) Chapter 14, Foreign Insurers; and
             2359          (b) that promises for an advance consideration to provide for a stated period of time
             2360      one or more:
             2361          (i) legal services under Subsection 31A-11-102 (1)(b);
             2362          (ii) bail services under Subsection 31A-11-102 (1)(c); or
             2363          (iii) (A) trip reimbursement;
             2364          (B) towing services;
             2365          (C) emergency road services;
             2366          (D) stolen automobile services;
             2367          (E) a combination of the services listed in Subsections (113)(b)(iii)(A) through (D); or
             2368          (F) other services given in Subsections 31A-11-102 (1)(b) through (f).
             2369          (114) "Mutual" means a mutual insurance corporation.
             2370          (115) "Network plan" means health care insurance:
             2371          (a) that is issued by an insurer; and
             2372          (b) under which the financing and delivery of medical care is provided, in whole or in
             2373      part, through a defined set of providers under contract with the insurer, including the financing
             2374      and delivery of an item paid for as medical care.
             2375          (116) "Nonparticipating" means a plan of insurance under which the insured is not
             2376      entitled to receive a dividend representing a share of the surplus of the insurer.
             2377          (117) "Ocean marine insurance" means insurance against loss of or damage to:
             2378          (a) ships or hulls of ships;
             2379          (b) goods, freight, cargoes, merchandise, effects, disbursements, profits, money,
             2380      securities, choses in action, evidences of debt, valuable papers, bottomry, respondentia
             2381      interests, or other cargoes in or awaiting transit over the oceans or inland waterways;


             2382          (c) earnings such as freight, passage money, commissions, or profits derived from
             2383      transporting goods or people upon or across the oceans or inland waterways; or
             2384          (d) a vessel owner or operator as a result of liability to employees, passengers, bailors,
             2385      owners of other vessels, owners of fixed objects, customs or other authorities, or other persons
             2386      in connection with maritime activity.
             2387          (118) "Order" means an order of the commissioner.
             2388          (119) "Outline of coverage" means a summary that explains an accident and health
             2389      insurance policy.
             2390          (120) "Participating" means a plan of insurance under which the insured is entitled to
             2391      receive a dividend representing a share of the surplus of the insurer.
             2392          (121) "Participation," as used in a health benefit plan, means a requirement relating to
             2393      the minimum percentage of eligible employees that must be enrolled in relation to the total
             2394      number of eligible employees of an employer reduced by each eligible employee who
             2395      voluntarily declines coverage under the plan because the employee:
             2396          (a) has other group health care insurance coverage; or
             2397          (b) receives:
             2398          (i) Medicare, under the Health Insurance for the Aged Act, Title XVIII of the Social
             2399      Security Amendments of 1965; or
             2400          (ii) another government health benefit.
             2401          (122) "Person" includes:
             2402          (a) an individual;
             2403          (b) a partnership;
             2404          (c) a corporation;
             2405          (d) an incorporated or unincorporated association;
             2406          (e) a joint stock company;
             2407          (f) a trust;
             2408          (g) a limited liability company;
             2409          (h) a reciprocal;
             2410          (i) a syndicate; or
             2411          (j) another similar entity or combination of entities acting in concert.
             2412          (123) "Personal lines insurance" means property and casualty insurance coverage sold


             2413      for primarily noncommercial purposes to:
             2414          (a) an individual; or
             2415          (b) a family.
             2416          (124) "Plan sponsor" is as defined in 29 U.S.C. Sec. 1002(16)(B).
             2417          (125) "Plan year" means:
             2418          (a) the year that is designated as the plan year in:
             2419          (i) the plan document of a group health plan; or
             2420          (ii) a summary plan description of a group health plan;
             2421          (b) if the plan document or summary plan description does not designate a plan year or
             2422      there is no plan document or summary plan description:
             2423          (i) the year used to determine deductibles or limits;
             2424          (ii) the policy year, if the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis;
             2425      or
             2426          (iii) the employer's taxable year if:
             2427          (A) the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis; and
             2428          (B) (I) the plan is not insured; or
             2429          (II) the insurance policy is not renewed on an annual basis; or
             2430          (c) in a case not described in Subsection (125)(a) or (b), the calendar year.
             2431          (126) (a) "Policy" means a document, including an attached endorsement or application
             2432      that:
             2433          (i) purports to be an enforceable contract; and
             2434          (ii) memorializes in writing some or all of the terms of an insurance contract.
             2435          (b) "Policy" includes a service contract issued by:
             2436          (i) a motor club under Chapter 11, Motor Clubs;
             2437          (ii) a service contract provided under Chapter 6a, Service Contracts; and
             2438          (iii) a corporation licensed under:
             2439          (A) Chapter 7, Nonprofit Health Service Insurance Corporations; or
             2440          (B) Chapter 8, Health Maintenance Organizations and Limited Health Plans.
             2441          (c) "Policy" does not include:
             2442          (i) a certificate under a group insurance contract; or
             2443          (ii) a document that does not purport to have legal effect.


             2444          (127) "Policyholder" means a person who controls a policy, binder, or oral contract by
             2445      ownership, premium payment, or otherwise.
             2446          (128) "Policy illustration" means a presentation or depiction that includes
             2447      nonguaranteed elements of a policy of life insurance over a period of years.
             2448          (129) "Policy summary" means a synopsis describing the elements of a life insurance
             2449      policy.
             2450          (130) "Preexisting condition," with respect to a health benefit plan:
             2451          (a) means a condition that was present before the effective date of coverage, whether or
             2452      not medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received before that day;
             2453      and
             2454          (b) does not include a condition indicated by genetic information unless an actual
             2455      diagnosis of the condition by a physician has been made.
             2456          (131) (a) "Premium" means the monetary consideration for an insurance policy.
             2457          (b) "Premium" includes, however designated:
             2458          (i) an assessment;
             2459          (ii) a membership fee;
             2460          (iii) a required contribution; or
             2461          (iv) monetary consideration.
             2462          (c) (i) "Premium" does not include consideration paid to a third party administrator for
             2463      the third party administrator's services.
             2464          (ii) "Premium" includes an amount paid by a third party administrator to an insurer for
             2465      insurance on the risks administered by the third party administrator.
             2466          (132) "Principal officers" for a corporation means the officers designated under
             2467      Subsection 31A-5-203 (3).
             2468          (133) "Proceeding" includes an action or special statutory proceeding.
             2469          (134) "Professional liability insurance" means insurance against legal liability incident
             2470      to the practice of a profession and provision of a professional service.
             2471          (135) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (135)(b), "property insurance" means
             2472      insurance against loss or damage to real or personal property of every kind and any interest in
             2473      that property:
             2474          (i) from all hazards or causes; and


             2475          (ii) against loss consequential upon the loss or damage including vehicle
             2476      comprehensive and vehicle physical damage coverages.
             2477          (b) "Property insurance" does not include:
             2478          (i) inland marine insurance; and
             2479          (ii) ocean marine insurance.
             2480          (136) "Qualified long-term care insurance contract" or "federally tax qualified
             2481      long-term care insurance contract" means:
             2482          (a) an individual or group insurance contract that meets the requirements of Section
             2483      7702B(b), Internal Revenue Code; or
             2484          (b) the portion of a life insurance contract that provides long-term care insurance:
             2485          (i) (A) by rider; or
             2486          (B) as a part of the contract; and
             2487          (ii) that satisfies the requirements of Sections 7702B(b) and (e), Internal Revenue
             2488      Code.
             2489          (137) "Qualified United States financial institution" means an institution that:
             2490          (a) is:
             2491          (i) organized under the laws of the United States or any state; or
             2492          (ii) in the case of a United States office of a foreign banking organization, licensed
             2493      under the laws of the United States or any state;
             2494          (b) is regulated, supervised, and examined by a United States federal or state authority
             2495      having regulatory authority over a bank or trust company; and
             2496          (c) meets the standards of financial condition and standing that are considered
             2497      necessary and appropriate to regulate the quality of a financial institution whose letters of credit
             2498      will be acceptable to the commissioner as determined by:
             2499          (i) the commissioner by rule; or
             2500          (ii) the Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance
             2501      Commissioners.
             2502          (138) (a) "Rate" means:
             2503          (i) the cost of a given unit of insurance; or
             2504          (ii) for property or casualty insurance, that cost of insurance per exposure unit either
             2505      expressed as:


             2506          (A) a single number; or
             2507          (B) a pure premium rate, adjusted before the application of individual risk variations
             2508      based on loss or expense considerations to account for the treatment of:
             2509          (I) expenses;
             2510          (II) profit; and
             2511          (III) individual insurer variation in loss experience.
             2512          (b) "Rate" does not include a minimum premium.
             2513          (139) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (139)(b), "rate service organization" means
             2514      a person who assists an insurer in rate making or filing by:
             2515          (i) collecting, compiling, and furnishing loss or expense statistics;
             2516          (ii) recommending, making, or filing rates or supplementary rate information; or
             2517          (iii) advising about rate questions, except as an attorney giving legal advice.
             2518          (b) "Rate service organization" does not mean:
             2519          (i) an employee of an insurer;
             2520          (ii) a single insurer or group of insurers under common control;
             2521          (iii) a joint underwriting group; or
             2522          (iv) an individual serving as an actuarial or legal consultant.
             2523          (140) "Rating manual" means any of the following used to determine initial and
             2524      renewal policy premiums:
             2525          (a) a manual of rates;
             2526          (b) a classification;
             2527          (c) a rate-related underwriting rule; and
             2528          (d) a rating formula that describes steps, policies, and procedures for determining
             2529      initial and renewal policy premiums.
             2530          (141) "Received by the department" means:
             2531          (a) the date delivered to and stamped received by the department, if delivered in
             2532      person;
             2533          (b) the post mark date, if delivered by mail;
             2534          (c) the delivery service's post mark or pickup date, if delivered by a delivery service;
             2535          (d) the received date recorded on an item delivered, if delivered by:
             2536          (i) facsimile;


             2537          (ii) email; or
             2538          (iii) another electronic method; or
             2539          (e) a date specified in:
             2540          (i) a statute;
             2541          (ii) a rule; or
             2542          (iii) an order.
             2543          (142) "Reciprocal" or "interinsurance exchange" means an unincorporated association
             2544      of persons:
             2545          (a) operating through an attorney-in-fact common to all of the persons; and
             2546          (b) exchanging insurance contracts with one another that provide insurance coverage
             2547      on each other.
             2548          (143) "Reinsurance" means an insurance transaction where an insurer, for
             2549      consideration, transfers any portion of the risk it has assumed to another insurer. In referring to
             2550      reinsurance transactions, this title sometimes refers to:
             2551          (a) the insurer transferring the risk as the "ceding insurer"; and
             2552          (b) the insurer assuming the risk as the:
             2553          (i) "assuming insurer"; or
             2554          (ii) "assuming reinsurer."
             2555          (144) "Reinsurer" means a person licensed in this state as an insurer with the authority
             2556      to assume reinsurance.
             2557          (145) "Residential dwelling liability insurance" means insurance against liability
             2558      resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance, or use of a residential dwelling that is
             2559      a detached single family residence or multifamily residence up to four units.
             2560          (146) (a) "Retrocession" means reinsurance with another insurer of a liability assumed
             2561      under a reinsurance contract.
             2562          (b) A reinsurer "retrocedes" when the reinsurer reinsures with another insurer part of a
             2563      liability assumed under a reinsurance contract.
             2564          (147) "Rider" means an endorsement to:
             2565          (a) an insurance policy; or
             2566          (b) an insurance certificate.
             2567          (148) (a) "Security" means a:


             2568          (i) note;
             2569          (ii) stock;
             2570          (iii) bond;
             2571          (iv) debenture;
             2572          (v) evidence of indebtedness;
             2573          (vi) certificate of interest or participation in a profit-sharing agreement;
             2574          (vii) collateral-trust certificate;
             2575          (viii) preorganization certificate or subscription;
             2576          (ix) transferable share;
             2577          (x) investment contract;
             2578          (xi) voting trust certificate;
             2579          (xii) certificate of deposit for a security;
             2580          (xiii) certificate of interest of participation in an oil, gas, or mining title or lease or in
             2581      payments out of production under such a title or lease;
             2582          (xiv) commodity contract or commodity option;
             2583          (xv) certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for,
             2584      receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase any of the items listed
             2585      in Subsections (148)(a)(i) through (xiv); or
             2586          (xvi) another interest or instrument commonly known as a security.
             2587          (b) "Security" does not include:
             2588          (i) any of the following under which an insurance company promises to pay money in a
             2589      specific lump sum or periodically for life or some other specified period:
             2590          (A) insurance;
             2591          (B) an endowment policy; or
             2592          (C) an annuity contract; or
             2593          (ii) a burial certificate or burial contract.
             2594          (149) "Secondary medical condition" means a complication related to an exclusion
             2595      from coverage in accident and health insurance.
             2596          (150) "Self-insurance" means an arrangement under which a person provides for
             2597      spreading its own risks by a systematic plan.
             2598          (a) Except as provided in this Subsection (150), "self-insurance" does not include an


             2599      arrangement under which a number of persons spread their risks among themselves.
             2600          (b) "Self-insurance" includes:
             2601          (i) an arrangement by which a governmental entity undertakes to indemnify an
             2602      employee for liability arising out of the employee's employment; and
             2603          (ii) an arrangement by which a person with a managed program of self-insurance and
             2604      risk management undertakes to indemnify its affiliates, subsidiaries, directors, officers, or
             2605      employees for liability or risk that is related to the relationship or employment.
             2606          (c) "Self-insurance" does not include an arrangement with an independent contractor.
             2607          (151) "Sell" means to exchange a contract of insurance:
             2608          (a) by any means;
             2609          (b) for money or its equivalent; and
             2610          (c) on behalf of an insurance company.
             2611          (152) "Short-term care insurance" means an insurance policy or rider advertised,
             2612      marketed, offered, or designed to provide coverage that is similar to long-term care insurance,
             2613      but that provides coverage for less than 12 consecutive months for each covered person.
             2614          (153) "Significant break in coverage" means a period of 63 consecutive days during
             2615      each of which an individual does not have creditable coverage.
             2616          (154) "Small employer," in connection with a health benefit plan, means an employer
             2617      who, with respect to a calendar year and to a plan year:
             2618          (a) employed an average of at least two employees but not more than 50 eligible
             2619      employees on each business day during the preceding calendar year; and
             2620          (b) employs at least two employees on the first day of the plan year.
             2621          (155) "Special enrollment period," in connection with a health benefit plan, has the
             2622      same meaning as provided in federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Health Insurance
             2623      Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1936.
             2624          (156) (a) "Subsidiary" of a person means an affiliate controlled by that person either
             2625      directly or indirectly through one or more affiliates or intermediaries.
             2626          (b) "Wholly owned subsidiary" of a person is a subsidiary of which all of the voting
             2627      shares are owned by that person either alone or with its affiliates, except for the minimum
             2628      number of shares the law of the subsidiary's domicile requires to be owned by directors or
             2629      others.


             2630          (157) Subject to Subsection (83)(b), "surety insurance" includes:
             2631          (a) a guarantee against loss or damage resulting from the failure of a principal to pay or
             2632      perform the principal's obligations to a creditor or other obligee;
             2633          (b) bail bond insurance; and
             2634          (c) fidelity insurance.
             2635          (158) (a) "Surplus" means the excess of assets over the sum of paid-in capital and
             2636      liabilities.
             2637          (b) (i) "Permanent surplus" means the surplus of a mutual insurer that is designated by
             2638      the insurer as permanent.
             2639          (ii) Sections 31A-5-211 , 31A-7-201 , 31A-8-209 , 31A-9-209 , and 31A-14-209 require
             2640      that mutuals doing business in this state maintain specified minimum levels of permanent
             2641      surplus.
             2642          (iii) Except for assessable mutuals, the minimum permanent surplus requirement is the
             2643      same as the minimum required capital requirement that applies to stock insurers.
             2644          (c) "Excess surplus" means:
             2645          (i) for a life insurer, accident and health insurer, health organization, or property and
             2646      casualty insurer as defined in Section 31A-17-601 , the lesser of:
             2647          (A) that amount of an insurer's or health organization's total adjusted capital that
             2648      exceeds the product of:
             2649          (I) 2.5; and
             2650          (II) the sum of the insurer's or health organization's minimum capital or permanent
             2651      surplus required under Section 31A-5-211 , 31A-9-209 , or 31A-14-205 ; or
             2652          (B) that amount of an insurer's or health organization's total adjusted capital that
             2653      exceeds the product of:
             2654          (I) 3.0; and
             2655          (II) the authorized control level RBC as defined in Subsection 31A-17-601 (8)(a); and
             2656          (ii) for a monoline mortgage guaranty insurer, financial guaranty insurer, or title insurer
             2657      that amount of an insurer's paid-in-capital and surplus that exceeds the product of:
             2658          (A) 1.5; and
             2659          (B) the insurer's total adjusted capital required by Subsection 31A-17-609 (1).
             2660          (159) "Third party administrator" or "administrator" means a person who collects


             2661      charges or premiums from, or who, for consideration, adjusts or settles claims of residents of
             2662      the state in connection with insurance coverage, annuities, or service insurance coverage,
             2663      except:
             2664          (a) a union on behalf of its members;
             2665          (b) a person administering a:
             2666          (i) pension plan subject to the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of
             2667      1974;
             2668          (ii) governmental plan as defined in Section 414(d), Internal Revenue Code; or
             2669          (iii) nonelecting church plan as described in Section 410(d), Internal Revenue Code;
             2670          (c) an employer on behalf of the employer's employees or the employees of one or
             2671      more of the subsidiary or affiliated corporations of the employer;
             2672          (d) an insurer licensed under Chapter 5, 7, 8, 9, or 14, but only for a line of insurance
             2673      for which the insurer holds a license in this state; or
             2674          (e) a person:
             2675          (i) licensed or exempt from licensing under:
             2676          (A) Chapter 23a, Insurance Marketing - Licensing Producers, Consultants, and
             2677      Reinsurance Intermediaries; or
             2678          (B) Chapter 26, Insurance Adjusters; and
             2679          (ii) whose activities are limited to those authorized under the license the person holds
             2680      or for which the person is exempt.
             2681          (160) "Title insurance" means the insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying of an owner
             2682      of real or personal property or the holder of liens or encumbrances on that property, or others
             2683      interested in the property against loss or damage suffered by reason of liens or encumbrances
             2684      upon, defects in, or the unmarketability of the title to the property, or invalidity or
             2685      unenforceability of any liens or encumbrances on the property.
             2686          (161) "Total adjusted capital" means the sum of an insurer's or health organization's
             2687      statutory capital and surplus as determined in accordance with:
             2688          (a) the statutory accounting applicable to the annual financial statements required to be
             2689      filed under Section 31A-4-113 ; and
             2690          (b) another item provided by the RBC instructions, as RBC instructions is defined in
             2691      Section 31A-17-601 .


             2692          (162) (a) "Trustee" means "director" when referring to the board of directors of a
             2693      corporation.
             2694          (b) "Trustee," when used in reference to an employee welfare fund, means an
             2695      individual, firm, association, organization, joint stock company, or corporation, whether acting
             2696      individually or jointly and whether designated by that name or any other, that is charged with
             2697      or has the overall management of an employee welfare fund.
             2698          (163) (a) "Unauthorized insurer," "unadmitted insurer," or "nonadmitted insurer"
             2699      means an insurer:
             2700          (i) not holding a valid certificate of authority to do an insurance business in this state;
             2701      or
             2702          (ii) transacting business not authorized by a valid certificate.
             2703          (b) "Admitted insurer" or "authorized insurer" means an insurer:
             2704          (i) holding a valid certificate of authority to do an insurance business in this state; and
             2705          (ii) transacting business as authorized by a valid certificate.
             2706          (164) "Underwrite" means the authority to accept or reject risk on behalf of the insurer.
             2707          (165) "Vehicle liability insurance" means insurance against liability resulting from or
             2708      incident to ownership, maintenance, or use of a land vehicle or aircraft, exclusive of a vehicle
             2709      comprehensive or vehicle physical damage coverage under Subsection (135).
             2710          (166) "Voting security" means a security with voting rights, and includes a security
             2711      convertible into a security with a voting right associated with the security.
             2712          (167) "Waiting period" for a health benefit plan means the period that must pass before
             2713      coverage for an individual, who is otherwise eligible to enroll under the terms of the health
             2714      benefit plan, can become effective.
             2715          (168) "Workers' compensation insurance" means:
             2716          (a) insurance for indemnification of an employer against liability for compensation
             2717      based on:
             2718          (i) a compensable accidental injury; and
             2719          (ii) occupational disease disability;
             2720          (b) employer's liability insurance incidental to workers' compensation insurance and
             2721      written in connection with workers' compensation insurance; and
             2722          (c) insurance assuring to a person entitled to workers' compensation benefits the


             2723      compensation provided by law.
             2724          Section 36. Section 31A-22-611 is amended to read:
             2725           31A-22-611. Coverage for children with a disability.
             2726          (1) For the purposes of this section:
             2727          (a) ["Disabled dependent"] "Dependent with a disability" means a child who is and
             2728      continues to be both:
             2729          (i) unable to engage in substantial gainful employment to the degree that the child can
             2730      achieve economic independence due to a medically determinable physical or mental
             2731      impairment which can be expected to result in death, or which has lasted or can be expected to
             2732      last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months; and
             2733          (ii) chiefly dependent upon an insured for support and maintenance since the child
             2734      reached the age specified in Subsection 31A-22-610.5 (2).
             2735          [(c)] (b) "Mental impairment" means a mental or psychological disorder such as:
             2736          (i) [mental retardation] an intellectual disability;
             2737          (ii) organic brain syndrome;
             2738          (iii) emotional or mental illness; or
             2739          (iv) specific learning disabilities as determined by the insurer.
             2740          [(b)] (c) "Physical impairment" means a physiological disorder, condition, or
             2741      disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems:
             2742          (i) neurological;
             2743          (ii) musculoskeletal;
             2744          (iii) special sense organs;
             2745          (iv) respiratory organs;
             2746          (v) speech organs;
             2747          (vi) cardiovascular;
             2748          (vii) reproductive;
             2749          (viii) digestive;
             2750          (ix) genito-urinary;
             2751          (x) hemic and lymphatic;
             2752          (xi) skin; or
             2753          (xii) endocrine.


             2754          (2) The insurer may require proof of the incapacity and dependency be furnished by the
             2755      person insured under the policy within 30 days of the effective date or the date the child attains
             2756      the age specified in Subsection 31A-22-610.5 (2), and at any time thereafter, except that the
             2757      insurer may not require proof more often than annually after the two-year period immediately
             2758      following attainment of the limiting age by the [disabled] dependent with a disability.
             2759          (3) Any individual or group accident and health insurance policy or health maintenance
             2760      organization contract that provides coverage for a policyholder's or certificate holder's
             2761      dependent shall, upon application, provide coverage for all unmarried [disabled] dependents
             2762      with a disability who have been continuously covered, with no break of more than 63 days,
             2763      under any accident and health insurance since the age specified in Subsection 31A-22-610.5 (2).
             2764          (4) Every accident and health insurance policy or contract that provides coverage of a
             2765      [disabled] dependent with a disability shall not terminate the policy due to an age limitation.
             2766          Section 37. Section 31A-22-614 is amended to read:
             2767           31A-22-614. Claims under accident and health policies.
             2768          (1) Section 31A-21-312 applies generally to claims under accident and health policies.
             2769          (2) (a) Subject to Subsection (1), an accident and health insurance policy may not
             2770      contain a claim notice requirement less favorable to the insured than one which requires written
             2771      notice of the claim within 20 days after the occurrence or commencement of any loss covered
             2772      by the policy. The policy shall specify to whom claim notices may be given.
             2773          (b) If a loss of time benefit under a policy may be paid for a period of at least two
             2774      years, an insurer may require periodic notices that the insured continues to [be disabled] have a
             2775      disability, unless the insured is legally incapacitated. The insured's delay in giving that notice
             2776      does not impair the insured's or beneficiary's right to any indemnity which would otherwise
             2777      have accrued during the six months preceding the date on which that notice is actually given.
             2778          (3) An accident and health insurance policy may not contain a time limit on proof of
             2779      loss which is more restrictive to the insured than a provision requiring written proof of loss,
             2780      delivered to the insurer, within the following time:
             2781          (a) for a claim where periodic payments are contingent upon continuing loss, within 90
             2782      days after the termination of the period for which the insurer is liable; or
             2783          (b) for any other claim, within 90 days after the date of the loss.
             2784          (4) (a) (i) Section 31A-26-301 applies generally to the payment of claims.


             2785          (ii) Indemnity for loss of life is paid in accordance with the beneficiary designation
             2786      effective at the time of payment. If no valid beneficiary designation exists, the indemnity is
             2787      paid to the insured's estate. Any other accrued indemnities unpaid at the insured's death are
             2788      paid to the insured's estate.
             2789          (b) Reasonable facility of payment clauses, specified by the commissioner by rule or in
             2790      approving the policy form, are permitted. Payment made in good faith and in accordance with
             2791      those clauses discharges the insurer's obligation to pay those claims.
             2792          (c) All or a portion of any indemnities provided under an accident and health policy on
             2793      account of hospital, nursing, medical, or surgical services may, at the insurer's option, be paid
             2794      directly to the hospital or person rendering the services.
             2795          Section 38. Section 31A-22-625 is amended to read:
             2796           31A-22-625. Catastrophic coverage of mental health conditions.
             2797          (1) As used in this section:
             2798          (a) (i) "Catastrophic mental health coverage" means coverage in a health benefit plan
             2799      that does not impose a lifetime limit, annual payment limit, episodic limit, inpatient or
             2800      outpatient service limit, or maximum out-of-pocket limit that places a greater financial burden
             2801      on an insured for the evaluation and treatment of a mental health condition than for the
             2802      evaluation and treatment of a physical health condition.
             2803          (ii) "Catastrophic mental health coverage" may include a restriction on cost sharing
             2804      factors, such as deductibles, copayments, or coinsurance, before reaching a maximum
             2805      out-of-pocket limit.
             2806          (iii) "Catastrophic mental health coverage" may include one maximum out-of-pocket
             2807      limit for physical health conditions and another maximum out-of-pocket limit for mental health
             2808      conditions, except that if separate out-of-pocket limits are established, the out-of-pocket limit
             2809      for mental health conditions may not exceed the out-of-pocket limit for physical health
             2810      conditions.
             2811          (b) (i) "50/50 mental health coverage" means coverage in a health benefit plan that
             2812      pays for at least 50% of covered services for the diagnosis and treatment of mental health
             2813      conditions.
             2814          (ii) "50/50 mental health coverage" may include a restriction on:
             2815          (A) episodic limits;


             2816          (B) inpatient or outpatient service limits; or
             2817          (C) maximum out-of-pocket limits.
             2818          (c) "Large employer" is as defined in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 300gg-91.
             2819          (d) (i) "Mental health condition" means a condition or disorder involving mental illness
             2820      that falls under a diagnostic category listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, as
             2821      periodically revised.
             2822          (ii) "Mental health condition" does not include the following when diagnosed as the
             2823      primary or substantial reason or need for treatment:
             2824          (A) a marital or family problem;
             2825          (B) a social, occupational, religious, or other social maladjustment;
             2826          (C) a conduct disorder;
             2827          (D) a chronic adjustment disorder;
             2828          (E) a psychosexual disorder;
             2829          (F) a chronic organic brain syndrome;
             2830          (G) a personality disorder;
             2831          (H) a specific developmental disorder or learning disability; or
             2832          (I) [mental retardation] an intellectual disability.
             2833          (e) "Small employer" is as defined in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 300gg-91.
             2834          (2) (a) At the time of purchase and renewal, an insurer shall offer to a small employer
             2835      that it insures or seeks to insure a choice between catastrophic mental health coverage and
             2836      50/50 mental health coverage.
             2837          (b) In addition to complying with Subsection (2)(a), an insurer may offer to provide:
             2838          (i) catastrophic mental health coverage, 50/50 mental health coverage, or both at levels
             2839      that exceed the minimum requirements of this section; or
             2840          (ii) coverage that excludes benefits for mental health conditions.
             2841          (c) A small employer may, at its option, choose either catastrophic mental health
             2842      coverage, 50/50 mental health coverage, or coverage offered under Subsection (2)(b),
             2843      regardless of the employer's previous coverage for mental health conditions.
             2844          (d) An insurer is exempt from the 30% index rating restriction in Section
             2845      31A-30-106.1 and, for the first year only that catastrophic mental health coverage is chosen, the
             2846      15% annual adjustment restriction in Section 31A-30-106.1 , for any small employer with 20 or


             2847      less enrolled employees who chooses coverage that meets or exceeds catastrophic mental
             2848      health coverage.
             2849          (3) An insurer shall offer a large employer mental health and substance use disorder
             2850      benefit in compliance with Section 2705 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. Sec.
             2851      300gg-5, and federal regulations adopted pursuant to that act.
             2852          (4) (a) An insurer may provide catastrophic mental health coverage to a small employer
             2853      through a managed care organization or system in a manner consistent with Chapter 8, Health
             2854      Maintenance Organizations and Limited Health Plans, regardless of whether the insurance
             2855      policy uses a managed care organization or system for the treatment of physical health
             2856      conditions.
             2857          (b) (i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this title, an insurer may:
             2858          (A) establish a closed panel of providers for catastrophic mental health coverage; and
             2859          (B) refuse to provide a benefit to be paid for services rendered by a nonpanel provider
             2860      unless:
             2861          (I) the insured is referred to a nonpanel provider with the prior authorization of the
             2862      insurer; and
             2863          (II) the nonpanel provider agrees to follow the insurer's protocols and treatment
             2864      guidelines.
             2865          (ii) If an insured receives services from a nonpanel provider in the manner permitted by
             2866      Subsection (4)(b)(i)(B), the insurer shall reimburse the insured for not less than 75% of the
             2867      average amount paid by the insurer for comparable services of panel providers under a
             2868      noncapitated arrangement who are members of the same class of health care providers.
             2869          (iii) This Subsection (4)(b) may not be construed as requiring an insurer to authorize a
             2870      referral to a nonpanel provider.
             2871          (c) To be eligible for catastrophic mental health coverage, a diagnosis or treatment of a
             2872      mental health condition must be rendered:
             2873          (i) by a mental health therapist as defined in Section 58-60-102 ; or
             2874          (ii) in a health care facility:
             2875          (A) licensed or otherwise authorized to provide mental health services pursuant to:
             2876          (I) Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care Facility Licensing and Inspection Act; or
             2877          (II) Title 62A, Chapter 2, Licensure of Programs and Facilities; and


             2878          (B) that provides a program for the treatment of a mental health condition pursuant to a
             2879      written plan.
             2880          (5) The commissioner may prohibit an insurance policy that provides mental health
             2881      coverage in a manner that is inconsistent with this section.
             2882          (6) The commissioner shall:
             2883          (a) adopt rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             2884      Rulemaking Act, as necessary to ensure compliance with this section; and
             2885          (b) provide general figures on the percentage of insurance policies that include:
             2886          (i) no mental health coverage;
             2887          (ii) 50/50 mental health coverage;
             2888          (iii) catastrophic mental health coverage; and
             2889          (iv) coverage that exceeds the minimum requirements of this section.
             2890          (7) This section may not be construed as discouraging or otherwise preventing an
             2891      insurer from providing mental health coverage in connection with an individual insurance
             2892      policy.
             2893          (8) This section shall be repealed in accordance with Section 63I-1-231 .
             2894          Section 39. Section 31A-22-802 is amended to read:
             2895           31A-22-802. Definitions.
             2896          As used in this [Part 8] part:
             2897          (1) "Credit accident and health insurance" means insurance on a debtor to provide
             2898      indemnity for payments coming due on a specific loan or other credit transaction while the
             2899      debtor [is disabled] has a disability.
             2900          (2) "Credit life insurance" means life insurance on the life of a debtor in connection
             2901      with a specific loan or credit transaction.
             2902          (3) "Credit transaction" means any transaction under which the payment for money
             2903      loaned or for goods, services, or properties sold or leased is to be made on future dates.
             2904          (4) "Creditor" means the lender of money or the vendor or lessor of goods, services, or
             2905      property, for which payment is arranged through a credit transaction, or any successor to the
             2906      right, title, or interest of any lender or vendor.
             2907          (5) "Debtor" means a borrower of money or a purchaser, including a lessee under a
             2908      lease intended as security, of goods, services, or property, for which payment is arranged


             2909      through a credit transaction.
             2910          (6) "Indebtedness" means the total amount payable by a debtor to a creditor in
             2911      connection with a credit transaction, including principal finance charges and interest.
             2912          (7) "Net indebtedness" means the total amount required to liquidate the indebtedness,
             2913      exclusive of any unearned interest, any insurance on the monthly outstanding balance coverage,
             2914      or any finance charge.
             2915          (8) "Net written premiums" means gross written premiums minus refunds on
             2916      termination.
             2917          Section 40. Section 31A-23a-114 is amended to read:
             2918           31A-23a-114. Temporary individual or agency license -- Trustee for terminated
             2919      licensee's business.
             2920          (1) (a) The commissioner may issue a temporary individual or agency license:
             2921          (i) to a person listed in Subsection (1)(b):
             2922          (A) if the commissioner considers that the temporary license is necessary:
             2923          (I) for the servicing of an insurance business in the public interest; and
             2924          (II) to provide continued service to the insureds who procured insurance in a
             2925      circumstance described in Subsection (1)(b);
             2926          (B) for a period not to exceed 180 days; and
             2927          (C) without requiring an examination; or
             2928          (ii) in any other circumstance:
             2929          (A) if the commissioner considers the public interest will best be served by issuing the
             2930      temporary license;
             2931          (B) for a period not to exceed 180 days; and
             2932          (C) without requiring an examination.
             2933          (b) The commissioner may issue a temporary individual or agency license in
             2934      accordance with Subsection (1)(a) to:
             2935          (i) the surviving spouse or court-appointed personal representative of a licensee who
             2936      dies or [becomes mentally or physically disabled] acquires a mental or physical disability to
             2937      allow adequate time for:
             2938          (A) the sale of the insurance business owned by the licensee;
             2939          (B) recovery or return of the licensee to the business; or


             2940          (C) the training and licensing of new personnel to operate the licensee's business;
             2941          (ii) to a member or employee of a business entity licensed as an agency upon the death
             2942      or disability of an individual designated in:
             2943          (A) the business entity application; or
             2944          (B) the license; or
             2945          (iii) the designee of a licensed agency entering active service in the armed forces of the
             2946      United States of America.
             2947          (2) If a person's license is terminated under Section 31A-23a-111 or 31A-23a-113 , the
             2948      commissioner may appoint a trustee to provide in the public interest continuing service to the
             2949      insureds who procured insurance through the person whose license is terminated:
             2950          (a) at the request of the person whose license is terminated; or
             2951          (b) upon the commissioner's own initiative.
             2952          (3) This section does not apply if the deceased [or disabled] licensee or licensee with a
             2953      disability does not or did not own any ownership interest in the accounts and associated
             2954      expiration lists that were previously serviced by the licensee.
             2955          (4) (a) A person issued a temporary license under Subsection (1) receives the license
             2956      and shall perform the duties under the license subject to the commissioner's authority to:
             2957          (i) require a temporary licensee to have a suitable sponsor who:
             2958          (A) is a licensee; and
             2959          (B) assumes responsibility for all acts of the temporary licensee; or
             2960          (ii) impose other requirements that are:
             2961          (A) designed to protect the insureds and the public; and
             2962          (B) similar to the condition described in Subsection (4)(a)(i).
             2963          (b) A trustee appointed under Subsection (2) shall be appointed and perform the
             2964      trustee's duties subject to the terms and conditions described in Subsections (4)(b)(i) through
             2965      (vi).
             2966          (i) (A) A trustee appointed under Subsection (2) shall be licensed under this chapter to
             2967      perform the services required by the trustor's clients.
             2968          (B) When possible, the commissioner shall appoint a trustee who is no longer actively
             2969      engaged on the trustee's own behalf in business as a licensee.
             2970          (C) The commissioner shall only select a person to act as trustee who is trustworthy


             2971      and competent to perform the necessary services.
             2972          (ii) (A) If the deceased[, disabled] person, person with a disability, or unlicensed
             2973      person for whom the trustee is acting was a producer, the insurers through which the former
             2974      producer's business was written shall cooperate with the trustee in allowing the trustee to
             2975      service the policies written through the insurer.
             2976          (B) The trustee shall abide by the terms of the agency agreement between the former
             2977      producer and the issuing insurer, except that terms in those agreements terminating the
             2978      agreement upon the death, disability, or license termination of the former producer do not bar
             2979      the trustee from continuing to act under the agreement.
             2980          (iii) (A) The commissioner shall set the trustee's compensation, which:
             2981          (I) may be stated in terms of a percentage of commissions; and
             2982          (II) shall be equitable.
             2983          (B) The compensation shall be paid exclusively from:
             2984          (I) the commissions generated by the former licensee's insurance accounts serviced by
             2985      the trustee; and
             2986          (II) other funds the former licensee or the licensee's successor in interest agree to pay.
             2987          (C) The trustee has no special priority to commissions over the former licensee's
             2988      creditors.
             2989          (iv) (A) The commissioner or the state may not be held liable for errors or omissions
             2990      of:
             2991          (I) the former licensee; or
             2992          (II) the trustee.
             2993          (B) The trustee may not be held liable for errors and omissions that were caused in any
             2994      material way by the negligence of the former licensee.
             2995          (C) The trustee may be held liable for errors and omissions which arise solely from the
             2996      trustee's negligence.
             2997          (D) The trustee's compensation level shall be sufficient to allow the trustee to purchase
             2998      errors and omissions coverage, if that coverage is not provided the trustee by:
             2999          (I) the former licensee; or
             3000          (II) the licensee's successor in interest.
             3001          (v) (A) It is a breach of the trustee's fiduciary duty to capture the accounts of trustor's


             3002      clients, either directly or indirectly.
             3003          (B) The trustee may not purchase the accounts or expiration lists of the former
             3004      licensee, unless the commissioner expressly ratifies the terms of the sale.
             3005          (C) The commissioner may adopt rules that:
             3006          (I) further define the trustee's fiduciary duties; and
             3007          (II) explain how the trustee is to carry out the trustee's responsibilities.
             3008          (vi) (A) The trust may be terminated by:
             3009          (I) the commissioner; or
             3010          (II) the person that requested the trust be established.
             3011          (B) The trust is terminated by written notice being delivered to:
             3012          (I) the trustee; and
             3013          (II) the commissioner.
             3014          (5) (a) The commissioner may by order:
             3015          (i) limit the authority of any temporary licensee or trustee in any way the commissioner
             3016      considers necessary to protect insureds and the public; and
             3017          (ii) revoke a temporary license or trustee's appointment if the commissioner finds that
             3018      the insureds or the public are endangered.
             3019          (b) A temporary license or trustee's appointment may not continue after the owner or
             3020      personal representative disposes of the business.
             3021          Section 41. Section 31A-26-215 is amended to read:
             3022           31A-26-215. Temporary license -- Appointment of trustee for terminated
             3023      licensee's business.
             3024          (1) (a) The commissioner may issue a temporary insurance adjuster license:
             3025          (i) to a person listed in Subsection (1)(b):
             3026          (A) if the commissioner considers that the temporary license is necessary:
             3027          (I) for the servicing of an insurance business in the public interest; and
             3028          (II) to provide continued service to the insureds who are being serviced in a
             3029      circumstance described in Subsection (1)(b);
             3030          (B) for a period not to exceed 180 days; and
             3031          (C) without requiring an examination; or
             3032          (ii) in any other circumstance:


             3033          (A) if the commissioner considers the public interest will best be served by issuing the
             3034      temporary license;
             3035          (B) for a period not to exceed 180 days; and
             3036          (C) without requiring an examination.
             3037          (b) The commissioner may issue a temporary insurance producer license in accordance
             3038      with Subsection (1)(a) to:
             3039          (i) the surviving spouse or court-appointed personal representative of a licensed
             3040      insurance adjuster who dies or [becomes mentally or physically disabled] acquires a mental or
             3041      physical disability to allow adequate time for:
             3042          (A) the sale of the insurance business owned by the adjuster;
             3043          (B) recovery or return of the adjuster to the business; or
             3044          (C) the training and licensing of new personnel to operate the adjuster's business;
             3045          (ii) to a member or employee of a business entity licensed as an insurance adjuster
             3046      upon the death or disability of an individual designated in:
             3047          (A) the business entity application; or
             3048          (B) the license; or
             3049          (iii) the designee of a licensed insurance adjuster entering active service in the armed
             3050      forces of the United States of America.
             3051          (2) If a person's license is terminated under Section 31A-26-213 , the commissioner
             3052      may appoint a trustee to provide in the public interest continuing service to the insureds who
             3053      procured insurance through the person whose license is terminated:
             3054          (a) at the request of the person whose license is terminated; or
             3055          (b) upon the commissioner's own initiative.
             3056          (3) This section does not apply if the deceased or disabled adjuster has not owned or
             3057      does not own an ownership interest in the accounts and associated expiration lists that were
             3058      previously serviced by the adjuster.
             3059          (4) (a) A person issued a temporary license under Subsection (1) receives the license
             3060      and shall perform the duties under the license subject to the commissioner's authority to:
             3061          (i) require a temporary licensee to have a suitable sponsor who:
             3062          (A) is a licensed producer; and
             3063          (B) assumes responsibility for all acts of the temporary licensee; or


             3064          (ii) impose other requirements that are:
             3065          (A) designed to protect the insureds and the public; and
             3066          (B) similar to the condition described in Subsection (4)(a)(i).
             3067          (b) A trustee appointed under Subsection (2) shall receive the trustee's appointment and
             3068      perform the trustee's duties subject to the conditions listed in Subsections (4)(b)(i) through
             3069      (xv).
             3070          (i) A trustee appointed under this section shall be licensed under this chapter to
             3071      perform the services required by the trustor's clients.
             3072          (ii) When possible, the commissioner shall appoint a trustee who is no longer actively
             3073      engaged on the trustee's own behalf in business as an adjuster.
             3074          (iii) The commissioner shall only select a person to act as trustee who is trustworthy
             3075      and competent to perform the necessary services.
             3076          (iv) If the deceased, disabled, or unlicensed person for whom the trustee is acting is an
             3077      associated adjuster, the insurers through or with which the former adjuster's business was
             3078      associated shall cooperate with the trustee in allowing the trustee to service the claims
             3079      associated with or through the insurer.
             3080          (v) The trustee shall abide by the terms of any agreement between the former adjuster
             3081      and the associated insurer, except that terms in those agreements terminating the agreement
             3082      upon the death, disability, or license termination of the former agent do not bar the trustee from
             3083      continuing to act under the agreement.
             3084          (vi) The commissioner shall set the trustee's compensation which:
             3085          (A) may be stated in terms of a percentage of commissions;
             3086          (B) shall be equitable; and
             3087          (C) paid exclusively from:
             3088          (I) the commissions generated by the former adjuster's accounts serviced by the trustee;
             3089      and
             3090          (II) other funds the former adjuster or the former adjuster's successor in interest agree
             3091      to pay.
             3092          (vii) The trustee has no special priority to commissions over the former adjuster's
             3093      creditors.
             3094          (viii) The following may not be held liable for errors or omissions of the former


             3095      adjuster or the trustee:
             3096          (A) the commissioner; or
             3097          (B) the state.
             3098          (ix) The trustee may not be held liable for errors and omissions that were caused in any
             3099      material way by the negligence of the former adjuster.
             3100          (x) The trustee may be held liable for errors and omissions that arise solely from the
             3101      trustee's negligence.
             3102          (xi) The trustee's compensation level shall be sufficient to allow the trustee to purchase
             3103      errors and omissions coverage, if that coverage is not provided to the trustee by:
             3104          (A) the former adjuster; or
             3105          (B) the former adjuster's successor in interest.
             3106          (xii) It is a breach of the trustee's fiduciary duty to capture the accounts of trustor's
             3107      clients, either directly or indirectly.
             3108          (xiii) The trustee may not purchase the accounts or expiration lists of the former
             3109      adjuster, unless the commissioner expressly ratifies the terms of the sale.
             3110          (xiv) The commissioner may adopt rules that:
             3111          (A) further define the trustee's fiduciary duties; and
             3112          (B) explain how the trustee is to carry out the trustee's responsibilities.
             3113          (xv) The trust may be terminated by:
             3114          (A) the commissioner; or
             3115          (B) the person that requested the trust be established.
             3116          (c) A person described in Subsection (4)(b)(xv)(B) shall terminate the trust by sending
             3117      written notice to:
             3118          (i) the trustee; and
             3119          (ii) the commissioner.
             3120          (5) (a) The commissioner may by order limit the authority of any temporary licensee or
             3121      trustee in any way considered necessary to protect:
             3122          (i) persons being serviced; and
             3123          (ii) the public.
             3124          (b) The commissioner may by order revoke a temporary license or trustee's
             3125      appointment if the interest of persons being serviced or the public are endangered.


             3126          (c) A temporary license or trustee's appointment may not continue after the owner or
             3127      personal representative disposes of the business.
             3128          Section 42. Section 31A-36-111 is amended to read:
             3129           31A-36-111. Prohibited acts.
             3130          (1) An owner may not enter into a life settlement at any time before the application or
             3131      issuance of a policy.
             3132          (2) An owner may not enter into a life settlement within two years after the date of
             3133      issuance of the policy to which the life settlement relates unless the owner certifies to the life
             3134      settlement provider that one of the following is satisfied:
             3135          (a) the policy was issued upon the owner's exercise of conversion rights arising out of a
             3136      group or individual policy if:
             3137          (i) the total time covered under the conversion policy plus the time covered under the
             3138      prior policy is at least 24 months; and
             3139          (ii) the time covered under a group policy, calculated without regard to any change in
             3140      insurance carriers, is continuous and under the same group sponsorship; or
             3141          (b) the owner submits to the life settlement provider independent evidence that within
             3142      the two-year period:
             3143          (i) the owner or insured is terminally ill;
             3144          (ii) the owner or insured is chronically ill;
             3145          (iii) the spouse of the owner dies;
             3146          (iv) the owner divorces the owner's spouse;
             3147          (v) the owner retires from full-time employment;
             3148          (vi) the owner [becomes physically or mentally disabled] acquires a physical or mental
             3149      disability and a physician determines that the disability precludes the owner from maintaining
             3150      full-time employment;
             3151          (vii) a final judgment or order is entered or issued by a court of competent jurisdiction,
             3152      on the application of a creditor of the owner:
             3153          (A) adjudging the owner bankrupt or insolvent;
             3154          (B) approving a petition for reorganization of the owner; or
             3155          (C) appointing a receiver, trustee, or liquidator for all or a substantial part of the
             3156      owner's assets;


             3157          (viii) the owner experiences a significant decrease in income that is unexpected and
             3158      impairs the owner's reasonable ability to pay the policy premium; or
             3159          (ix) the owner or insured disposes of ownership interests in a closely held corporation,
             3160      pursuant to the terms of a buyout or other similar agreement in effect at the time the policy is
             3161      initially issued.
             3162          (3) An insurer may not, as a condition of responding to a request for verification of
             3163      coverage or effecting the transfer of a policy pursuant to a life settlement, require any of the
             3164      following to sign a form, disclosure, consent, or waiver that is not filed with the commissioner
             3165      for use in connection with a life settlement in this state:
             3166          (a) an owner;
             3167          (b) an insured;
             3168          (c) a life settlement provider; or
             3169          (d) a life settlement producer.
             3170          (4) (a) Upon receipt of a properly completed request for change of ownership or
             3171      beneficiary of a policy, an insurer shall respond in writing within 30 calendar days of the day of
             3172      receipt with written acknowledgment:
             3173          (i) confirming that the change is effective; or
             3174          (ii) specifying the reasons why the requested change cannot be processed.
             3175          (b) An insurer may not:
             3176          (i) unreasonably delay effecting a change of ownership or beneficiary; and
             3177          (ii) otherwise seek to interfere with a life settlement lawfully entered into in this state.
             3178          (5) A person may not issue, solicit, or market the purchase of a policy for the primary
             3179      purpose of or with a primary emphasis on settling the policy.
             3180          (6) (a) Unless disclosed to an owner before the execution of a life settlement by the
             3181      owner, a life settlement producer may not knowingly with respect to the life settlement solicit
             3182      an offer from, effectuate the life settlement with, or make a sale to any of the following that is
             3183      controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the life settlement producer:
             3184          (i) a life settlement provider;
             3185          (ii) a life settlement purchaser;
             3186          (iii) a financing entity; or
             3187          (iv) a related provider trust.


             3188          (b) Unless disclosed to an owner before the execution of a life settlement by the owner,
             3189      with respect to the life settlement, a life settlement provider may not knowingly enter into the
             3190      life settlement with the owner, if, in connection with the life settlement, anything of value will
             3191      be paid to a life settlement producer that is controlling, controlled by, or under common control
             3192      with:
             3193          (i) the life settlement provider;
             3194          (ii) the life settlement purchaser;
             3195          (iii) a financing entity; or
             3196          (iv) a related provider trust.
             3197          Section 43. Section 34-38-14 is amended to read:
             3198           34-38-14. Employee not a person with a disability.
             3199          An employee or prospective employee whose drug or alcohol test result is confirmed as
             3200      positive in accordance with this chapter may not, because of those results alone, be defined as a
             3201      person with a ["disability"] disability for purposes of Title 34A, Chapter 5, Utah
             3202      Antidiscrimination Act.
             3203          Section 44. Section 34-41-106 is amended to read:
             3204           34-41-106. Employee not a person with a disability.
             3205          An employee, volunteer, prospective employee, or prospective volunteer whose drug
             3206      test results are verified or confirmed as positive in accordance with the provisions of this
             3207      chapter shall not, by virtue of those results alone, be defined as [disabled] a person with a
             3208      disability for purposes of:
             3209          (1) Title 34A, Chapter 5, Utah Antidiscrimination Act; or
             3210          (2) the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 through 12213.
             3211          Section 45. Section 34A-2-107 is amended to read:
             3212           34A-2-107. Appointment of workers' compensation advisory council --
             3213      Composition -- Terms of members -- Duties -- Compensation.
             3214          (1) The commissioner shall appoint a workers' compensation advisory council
             3215      composed of:
             3216          (a) the following voting members:
             3217          (i) five employer representatives; and
             3218          (ii) five employee representatives; and


             3219          (b) the following nonvoting members:
             3220          (i) a representative of the Workers' Compensation Fund;
             3221          (ii) a representative of a private insurance carrier;
             3222          (iii) a representative of health care providers;
             3223          (iv) the Utah insurance commissioner or the insurance commissioner's designee; and
             3224          (v) the commissioner or the commissioner's designee.
             3225          (2) Employers and employees shall consider nominating members of groups who
             3226      historically may have been excluded from the council, such as women, minorities, and
             3227      individuals with disabilities.
             3228          (3) (a) Except as required by Subsection (3)(b), as terms of current council members
             3229      expire, the commissioner shall appoint each new member or reappointed member to a two-year
             3230      term beginning July 1 and ending June 30.
             3231          (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (3)(a), the commissioner shall, at
             3232      the time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
             3233      council members are staggered so that approximately half of the council is appointed every two
             3234      years.
             3235          (4) (a) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall
             3236      be appointed for the unexpired term.
             3237          (b) The commissioner shall terminate the term of a council member who ceases to be
             3238      representative as designated by the member's original appointment.
             3239          (5) (a) The council shall confer at least quarterly for the purpose of advising the
             3240      commission, the division, and the Legislature on:
             3241          (i) the Utah workers' compensation and occupational disease laws;
             3242          (ii) the administration of the laws described in Subsection (5)(a)(i);
             3243          (iii) rules related to the laws described in Subsection (5)(a)(i); and
             3244          (iv) advising the Legislature in accordance with Subsection (5)(b).
             3245          (b) (i) The council and the commission shall jointly study during 2009 the premium
             3246      assessment under Section 59-9-101 on an admitted insurer writing workers' compensation
             3247      insurance in this state and on a self-insured employer under Section 34A-2-202 as to:
             3248          (A) whether or not the premium assessment should be changed; or
             3249          (B) whether or not changes should be made to how the premium assessment is used.


             3250          (ii) The council and commission shall jointly report the results of the study described in
             3251      this Subsection (5)(b) to the Business and Labor Interim Committee by no later than the 2009
             3252      November interim meeting.
             3253          (6) Regarding workers' compensation, rehabilitation, and reemployment of employees
             3254      who [are disabled] acquire a disability because of an industrial injury or occupational disease
             3255      the council shall:
             3256          (a) offer advice on issues requested by:
             3257          (i) the commission;
             3258          (ii) the division; and
             3259          (iii) the Legislature; and
             3260          (b) make recommendations to:
             3261          (i) the commission; and
             3262          (ii) the division.
             3263          (7) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall serve as the chair of the
             3264      council and call the necessary meetings.
             3265          (8) The commission shall provide staff support to the council.
             3266          (9) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
             3267      may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
             3268          (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
             3269          (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
             3270          (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
             3271      63A-3-107 .
             3272          Section 46. Section 34A-2-413 is amended to read:
             3273           34A-2-413. Permanent total disability -- Amount of payments -- Rehabilitation.
             3274          (1) (a) In the case of a permanent total disability resulting from an industrial accident
             3275      or occupational disease, the employee shall receive compensation as outlined in this section.
             3276          (b) To establish entitlement to permanent total disability compensation, the employee
             3277      must prove by a preponderance of evidence that:
             3278          (i) the employee sustained a significant impairment or combination of impairments as a
             3279      result of the industrial accident or occupational disease that gives rise to the permanent total
             3280      disability entitlement;


             3281          (ii) the employee [is permanently totally disabled] has a permanent, total disability; and
             3282          (iii) the industrial accident or occupational disease is the direct cause of the employee's
             3283      permanent total disability.
             3284          (c) To establish that an employee [is permanently totally disabled] has a permanent,
             3285      total disability the employee must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that:
             3286          (i) the employee is not gainfully employed;
             3287          (ii) the employee has an impairment or combination of impairments that limit the
             3288      employee's ability to do basic work activities;
             3289          (iii) the industrial or occupationally caused impairment or combination of impairments
             3290      prevent the employee from performing the essential functions of the work activities for which
             3291      the employee has been qualified until the time of the industrial accident or occupational disease
             3292      that is the basis for the employee's permanent total disability claim; and
             3293          (iv) the employee cannot perform other work reasonably available, taking into
             3294      consideration the employee's:
             3295          (A) age;
             3296          (B) education;
             3297          (C) past work experience;
             3298          (D) medical capacity; and
             3299          (E) residual functional capacity.
             3300          (d) Evidence of an employee's entitlement to disability benefits other than those
             3301      provided under this chapter and Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act, if relevant:
             3302          (i) may be presented to the commission;
             3303          (ii) is not binding; and
             3304          (iii) creates no presumption of an entitlement under this chapter and Chapter 3, Utah
             3305      Occupational Disease Act.
             3306          (e) In determining under Subsections (1)(b) and (c) whether an employee cannot
             3307      perform other work reasonably available, the following may not be considered:
             3308          (i) whether the employee is incarcerated in a facility operated by or contracting with a
             3309      federal, state, county, or municipal government to house a criminal offender in either a secure
             3310      or nonsecure setting; or
             3311          (ii) whether the employee is not legally eligible to be employed because of a reason


             3312      unrelated to the impairment or combination of impairments.
             3313          (2) For permanent total disability compensation during the initial 312-week
             3314      entitlement, compensation is 66-2/3% of the employee's average weekly wage at the time of the
             3315      injury, limited as follows:
             3316          (a) compensation per week may not be more than 85% of the state average weekly
             3317      wage at the time of the injury;
             3318          (b) (i) subject to Subsection (2)(b)(ii), compensation per week may not be less than the
             3319      sum of $45 per week and:
             3320          (A) $5 for a dependent spouse; and
             3321          (B) $5 for each dependent child under the age of 18 years, up to a maximum of four
             3322      dependent minor children; and
             3323          (ii) the amount calculated under Subsection (2)(b)(i) may not exceed:
             3324          (A) the maximum established in Subsection (2)(a); or
             3325          (B) the average weekly wage of the employee at the time of the injury; and
             3326          (c) after the initial 312 weeks, the minimum weekly compensation rate under
             3327      Subsection (2)(b) is 36% of the current state average weekly wage, rounded to the nearest
             3328      dollar.
             3329          (3) This Subsection (3) applies to claims resulting from an accident or disease arising
             3330      out of and in the course of the employee's employment on or before June 30, 1994.
             3331          (a) The employer or its insurance carrier is liable for the initial 312 weeks of permanent
             3332      total disability compensation except as outlined in Section 34A-2-703 as in effect on the date
             3333      of injury.
             3334          (b) The employer or its insurance carrier may not be required to pay compensation for
             3335      any combination of disabilities of any kind, as provided in this section and Sections 34A-2-410
             3336      through 34A-2-412 and Part 5, Industrial Noise, in excess of the amount of compensation
             3337      payable over the initial 312 weeks at the applicable permanent total disability compensation
             3338      rate under Subsection (2).
             3339          (c) The Employers' Reinsurance Fund shall for an overpayment of compensation
             3340      described in Subsection (3)(b), reimburse the overpayment:
             3341          (i) to the employer or its insurance carrier; and
             3342          (ii) out of the Employers' Reinsurance Fund's liability to the employee.


             3343          (d) After an employee receives compensation from the employee's employer, its
             3344      insurance carrier, or the Employers' Reinsurance Fund for any combination of disabilities
             3345      amounting to 312 weeks of compensation at the applicable permanent total disability
             3346      compensation rate, the Employers' Reinsurance Fund shall pay all remaining permanent total
             3347      disability compensation.
             3348          (e) Employers' Reinsurance Fund payments shall commence immediately after the
             3349      employer or its insurance carrier satisfies its liability under this Subsection (3) or Section
             3350      34A-2-703 .
             3351          (4) This Subsection (4) applies to claims resulting from an accident or disease arising
             3352      out of and in the course of the employee's employment on or after July 1, 1994.
             3353          (a) The employer or its insurance carrier is liable for permanent total disability
             3354      compensation.
             3355          (b) The employer or its insurance carrier may not be required to pay compensation for
             3356      any combination of disabilities of any kind, as provided in this section and Sections 34A-2-410
             3357      through 34A-2-412 and Part 5, Industrial Noise, in excess of the amount of compensation
             3358      payable over the initial 312 weeks at the applicable permanent total disability compensation
             3359      rate under Subsection (2).
             3360          (c) The employer or its insurance carrier may recoup the overpayment of compensation
             3361      described in Subsection (4) by reasonably offsetting the overpayment against future liability
             3362      paid before or after the initial 312 weeks.
             3363          (5) (a) A finding by the commission of permanent total disability is not final, unless
             3364      otherwise agreed to by the parties, until:
             3365          (i) an administrative law judge reviews a summary of reemployment activities
             3366      undertaken pursuant to Chapter 8a, Utah Injured Worker Reemployment Act;
             3367          (ii) the employer or its insurance carrier submits to the administrative law judge:
             3368          (A) a reemployment plan as prepared by a qualified rehabilitation provider reasonably
             3369      designed to return the employee to gainful employment; or
             3370          (B) notice that the employer or its insurance carrier will not submit a plan; and
             3371          (iii) the administrative law judge, after notice to the parties, holds a hearing, unless
             3372      otherwise stipulated, to:
             3373          (A) consider evidence regarding rehabilitation; and


             3374          (B) review any reemployment plan submitted by the employer or its insurance carrier
             3375      under Subsection (5)(a)(ii).
             3376          (b) Before commencing the procedure required by Subsection (5)(a), the administrative
             3377      law judge shall order:
             3378          (i) the initiation of permanent total disability compensation payments to provide for the
             3379      employee's subsistence; and
             3380          (ii) the payment of any undisputed disability or medical benefits due the employee.
             3381          (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), an order for payment of benefits described in
             3382      Subsection (5)(b) is considered a final order for purposes of Section 34A-2-212 .
             3383          (d) The employer or its insurance carrier shall be given credit for any disability
             3384      payments made under Subsection (5)(b) against its ultimate disability compensation liability
             3385      under this chapter or Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act.
             3386          (e) An employer or its insurance carrier may not be ordered to submit a reemployment
             3387      plan. If the employer or its insurance carrier voluntarily submits a plan, the plan is subject to
             3388      Subsections (5)(e)(i) through (iii).
             3389          (i) The plan may include, but not require an employee to pay for:
             3390          (A) retraining;
             3391          (B) education;
             3392          (C) medical and disability compensation benefits;
             3393          (D) job placement services; or
             3394          (E) incentives calculated to facilitate reemployment.
             3395          (ii) The plan shall include payment of reasonable disability compensation to provide
             3396      for the employee's subsistence during the rehabilitation process.
             3397          (iii) The employer or its insurance carrier shall diligently pursue the reemployment
             3398      plan. The employer's or insurance carrier's failure to diligently pursue the reemployment plan
             3399      is cause for the administrative law judge on the administrative law judge's own motion to make
             3400      a final decision of permanent total disability.
             3401          (f) If a preponderance of the evidence shows that successful rehabilitation is not
             3402      possible, the administrative law judge shall order that the employee be paid weekly permanent
             3403      total disability compensation benefits.
             3404          (g) If a preponderance of the evidence shows that pursuant to a reemployment plan, as


             3405      prepared by a qualified rehabilitation provider and presented under Subsection (5)(e), an
             3406      employee could immediately or without unreasonable delay return to work but for the
             3407      following, an administrative law judge shall order that the employee be denied the payment of
             3408      weekly permanent total disability compensation benefits:
             3409          (i) incarceration in a facility operated by or contracting with a federal, state, county, or
             3410      municipal government to house a criminal offender in either a secure or nonsecure setting; or
             3411          (ii) not being legally eligible to be employed because of a reason unrelated to the
             3412      impairment or combination of impairments.
             3413          (6) (a) The period of benefits commences on the date the employee [became
             3414      permanently totally disabled] acquired the permanent, total disability, as determined by a final
             3415      order of the commission based on the facts and evidence, and ends:
             3416          (i) with the death of the employee; or
             3417          (ii) when the employee is capable of returning to regular, steady work.
             3418          (b) An employer or its insurance carrier may provide or locate for a permanently totally
             3419      disabled employee reasonable, medically appropriate, part-time work in a job earning at least
             3420      minimum wage, except that the employee may not be required to accept the work to the extent
             3421      that it would disqualify the employee from Social Security disability benefits.
             3422          (c) An employee shall:
             3423          (i) fully cooperate in the placement and employment process; and
             3424          (ii) accept the reasonable, medically appropriate, part-time work.
             3425          (d) In a consecutive four-week period when an employee's gross income from the work
             3426      provided under Subsection (6)(b) exceeds $500, the employer or insurance carrier may reduce
             3427      the employee's permanent total disability compensation by 50% of the employee's income in
             3428      excess of $500.
             3429          (e) If a work opportunity is not provided by the employer or its insurance carrier, [a
             3430      permanently totally disabled employee] an employee with a permanent, total disability may
             3431      obtain medically appropriate, part-time work subject to the offset provisions of Subsection
             3432      (6)(d).
             3433          (f) (i) The commission shall establish rules regarding the part-time work and offset.
             3434          (ii) The adjudication of disputes arising under this Subsection (6) is governed by Part
             3435      8, Adjudication.


             3436          (g) The employer or its insurance carrier has the burden of proof to show that
             3437      medically appropriate part-time work is available.
             3438          (h) The administrative law judge may:
             3439          (i) excuse an employee from participation in any work:
             3440          (A) that would require the employee to undertake work exceeding the employee's:
             3441          (I) medical capacity; or
             3442          (II) residual functional capacity; or
             3443          (B) for good cause; or
             3444          (ii) allow the employer or its insurance carrier to reduce permanent total disability
             3445      benefits as provided in Subsection (6)(d) when reasonable, medically appropriate, part-time
             3446      work is offered, but the employee fails to fully cooperate.
             3447          (7) When an employee is rehabilitated or the employee's rehabilitation is possible but
             3448      the employee has some loss of bodily function, the award shall be for permanent partial
             3449      disability.
             3450          (8) As determined by an administrative law judge, an employee is not entitled to
             3451      disability compensation, unless the employee fully cooperates with any evaluation or
             3452      reemployment plan under this chapter or Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act. The
             3453      administrative law judge shall dismiss without prejudice the claim for benefits of an employee
             3454      if the administrative law judge finds that the employee fails to fully cooperate, unless the
             3455      administrative law judge states specific findings on the record justifying dismissal with
             3456      prejudice.
             3457          (9) (a) The loss or permanent and complete loss of the use of the following constitutes
             3458      total and permanent disability that is compensated according to this section:
             3459          (i) both hands;
             3460          (ii) both arms;
             3461          (iii) both feet;
             3462          (iv) both legs;
             3463          (v) both eyes; or
             3464          (vi) any combination of two body members described in this Subsection (9)(a).
             3465          (b) A finding of permanent total disability pursuant to Subsection (9)(a) is final.
             3466          (10) (a) An insurer or self-insured employer may periodically reexamine a permanent


             3467      total disability claim, except those based on Subsection (9), for which the insurer or
             3468      self-insured employer had or has payment responsibility to determine whether the employee
             3469      [remains permanently totally disabled] continues to have a permanent, total disability.
             3470          (b) Reexamination may be conducted no more than once every three years after an
             3471      award is final, unless good cause is shown by the employer or its insurance carrier to allow
             3472      more frequent reexaminations.
             3473          (c) The reexamination may include:
             3474          (i) the review of medical records;
             3475          (ii) employee submission to one or more reasonable medical evaluations;
             3476          (iii) employee submission to one or more reasonable rehabilitation evaluations and
             3477      retraining efforts;
             3478          (iv) employee disclosure of Federal Income Tax Returns;
             3479          (v) employee certification of compliance with Section 34A-2-110 ; and
             3480          (vi) employee completion of one or more sworn affidavits or questionnaires approved
             3481      by the division.
             3482          (d) The insurer or self-insured employer shall pay for the cost of a reexamination with
             3483      appropriate employee reimbursement pursuant to rule for reasonable travel allowance and per
             3484      diem as well as reasonable expert witness fees incurred by the employee in supporting the
             3485      employee's claim for permanent total disability benefits at the time of reexamination.
             3486          (e) If an employee fails to fully cooperate in the reasonable reexamination of a
             3487      permanent total disability finding, an administrative law judge may order the suspension of the
             3488      employee's permanent total disability benefits until the employee cooperates with the
             3489      reexamination.
             3490          (f) (i) If the reexamination of a permanent total disability finding reveals evidence that
             3491      reasonably raises the issue of an employee's continued entitlement to permanent total disability
             3492      compensation benefits, an insurer or self-insured employer may petition the Division of
             3493      Adjudication for a rehearing on that issue. The insurer or self-insured employer shall include
             3494      with the petition, documentation supporting the insurer's or self-insured employer's belief that
             3495      the employee [is] no longer [permanently totally disabled] has a permanent, total disability.
             3496          (ii) If the petition under Subsection (10)(f)(i) demonstrates good cause, as determined
             3497      by the Division of Adjudication, an administrative law judge shall adjudicate the issue at a


             3498      hearing.
             3499          (iii) Evidence of an employee's participation in medically appropriate, part-time work
             3500      may not be the sole basis for termination of an employee's permanent total disability
             3501      entitlement, but the evidence of the employee's participation in medically appropriate, part-time
             3502      work under Subsection (6) may be considered in the reexamination or hearing with other
             3503      evidence relating to the employee's status and condition.
             3504          (g) In accordance with Section 34A-1-309 , the administrative law judge may award
             3505      reasonable attorney fees to an attorney retained by an employee to represent the employee's
             3506      interests with respect to reexamination of the permanent total disability finding, except if the
             3507      employee does not prevail, the attorney fees shall be set at $1,000. The attorney fees awarded
             3508      shall be paid by the employer or its insurance carrier in addition to the permanent total
             3509      disability compensation benefits due.
             3510          (h) During the period of reexamination or adjudication, if the employee fully
             3511      cooperates, each insurer, self-insured employer, or the Employers' Reinsurance Fund shall
             3512      continue to pay the permanent total disability compensation benefits due the employee.
             3513          (11) If any provision of this section, or the application of any provision to any person
             3514      or circumstance, is held invalid, the remainder of this section is given effect without the invalid
             3515      provision or application.
             3516          Section 47. Section 34A-2-703 is amended to read:
             3517           34A-2-703. Payments from Employers' Reinsurance Fund.
             3518          If an employee, who has at least a 10% whole person permanent impairment from any
             3519      cause or origin, subsequently incurs an additional impairment by an accident arising out of and
             3520      in the course of the employee's employment during the period of July 1, 1988, to June 30,
             3521      1994, inclusive, and if the additional impairment results in permanent total disability, the
             3522      employer or its insurance carrier and the Employers' Reinsurance Fund are liable for the
             3523      payment of benefits as follows:
             3524          (1) The employer or its insurance carrier is liable for the first $20,000 of medical
             3525      benefits and the initial 156 weeks of permanent total disability compensation as provided in
             3526      this chapter or Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act.
             3527          (2) Reasonable medical benefits in excess of the first $20,000 shall be paid in the first
             3528      instance by the employer or its insurance carrier. Then, as provided in Subsection (5), the


             3529      Employers' Reinsurance Fund shall reimburse the employer or its insurance carrier for 50% of
             3530      those expenses.
             3531          (3) After the initial 156-week period under Subsection (1), permanent total disability
             3532      compensation payable to an employee under this chapter or Chapter 3, Utah Occupational
             3533      Disease Act, becomes the liability of and shall be paid by the Employers' Reinsurance Fund.
             3534          (4) If it is determined that the employee is permanently and totally disabled, the
             3535      employer or its insurance carrier shall be given credit for all prior payments of temporary total,
             3536      temporary partial, and permanent partial disability compensation made as a result of the
             3537      industrial accident. Any overpayment by the employer or its insurance carrier shall be
             3538      reimbursed by the Employers' Reinsurance Fund under Subsection (5).
             3539          (5) (a) Upon receipt of a duly verified petition, the Employers' Reinsurance Fund shall
             3540      reimburse the employer or its insurance carrier for the Employers' Reinsurance Fund's share of
             3541      medical benefits and compensation paid to or on behalf of an employee. A request for
             3542      Employers' Reinsurance Fund reimbursements shall be accompanied by satisfactory evidence
             3543      of payment of the medical or disability compensation for which the reimbursement is
             3544      requested. Each request is subject to review as to reasonableness by the administrator. The
             3545      administrator may determine the manner of reimbursement.
             3546          (b) A decision of the administrator under Subsection (5)(a) may be appealed in
             3547      accordance with Part 8, Adjudication.
             3548          (6) If, at the time an employee is determined to [be permanently and totally disabled]
             3549      have a permanent, total disability, the employee has other actionable workers' compensation
             3550      claims, the employer or insurance carrier that is liable for the last industrial accident resulting
             3551      in permanent total disability shall be liable for the benefits payable by the employer as provided
             3552      in this section and Section 34A-2-413 . The employee's entitlement to benefits for prior
             3553      actionable claims shall then be determined separately on the facts of those claims. Any
             3554      previous permanent partial disability arising out of those claims shall then be considered to be
             3555      impairments that may give rise to Employers' Reinsurance Fund liability under this section.
             3556          Section 48. Section 34A-2-902 is amended to read:
             3557           34A-2-902. Workers' compensation claims by emergency medical services
             3558      providers -- Time limits.
             3559          (1) For all purposes of establishing a workers' compensation claim, the "date of


             3560      accident" is presumed to be the date on which an emergency medical services provider first
             3561      tests positive for a disease, as defined in Section 78B-8-401 . However, for purposes of
             3562      establishing the rate of workers' compensation benefits under Subsection 34A-2-702 (5), if a
             3563      positive test for a disease occurs within three months after termination of employment, the last
             3564      date of employment is presumed to be the "date of accident."
             3565          (2) The time limits prescribed by Section 34A-2-417 do not apply to an employee
             3566      whose disability is due to a disease, so long as the employee who claims to have suffered a
             3567      significant exposure in the service of his employer gives notice, as required by Section
             3568      34A-3-108 , of the "date of accident."
             3569          (3) Any claim for workers' compensation benefits or medical expenses shall be filed
             3570      with the Division of Adjudication of the Labor Commission within one year after the date on
             3571      which the employee first [becomes disabled] acquires a disability or requires medical treatment
             3572      for a disease, or within one year after the termination of employment as an emergency medical
             3573      services provider, whichever occurs later.
             3574          Section 49. Section 34A-2-903 is amended to read:
             3575           34A-2-903. Failure to be tested -- Time limit for death benefits.
             3576          (1) An emergency medical services provider who refuses or fails to be tested in
             3577      accordance with Section 34A-2-901 is not entitled to any of the presumptions provided by this
             3578      part.
             3579          (2) Death benefits payable under Section 34A-2-702 are payable only if it can be
             3580      established by competent evidence that death was a consequence of or result of the disease and,
             3581      notwithstanding Subsection 34A-2-702 (5), that death occurred within six years from the date
             3582      the employee first [became disabled] acquired a disability or required medical treatment for the
             3583      disease that caused [his] the employee's death.
             3584          Section 50. Section 34A-3-104 is amended to read:
             3585           34A-3-104. Employer liability for compensation.
             3586          (1) Every employer is liable for the payment of disability and medical benefits to every
             3587      employee who [becomes disabled] acquires a disability, or death benefits to the dependents of
             3588      any employee who dies, by reason of an occupational disease under the terms of this chapter.
             3589          (2) Compensation shall not be paid when the last day of injurious exposure of the
             3590      employee to the hazards of the occupational disease occurred [prior to] before 1941.


             3591          Section 51. Section 34A-3-107 is amended to read:
             3592           34A-3-107. Benefits -- Disability compensation, death, medical, hospital, and
             3593      burial expenses -- Procedure and payments.
             3594          (1) The benefits to which [a disabled] an employee with a disability or the employee's
             3595      dependents are entitled under this chapter shall be based upon the employee's average weekly
             3596      wage at the time the cause of action arises and shall be computed in accordance with and in all
             3597      ways shall be equivalent to the benefits for disability and death provided in Chapter 2,
             3598      Workers' Compensation Act.
             3599          (2) The [disabled] employee with a disability is entitled to medical, hospital, and burial
             3600      expenses equivalent to those provided in Chapter 2.
             3601          (3) The procedure and payment of benefits under this chapter shall be equivalent to and
             3602      consistent with Chapter 2, including Section 34A-2-703 .
             3603          Section 52. Section 34A-4-101 is amended to read:
             3604     
CHAPTER 4. HOSPITAL AND MEDICAL SERVICE FOR MINERS WITH A

             3605     
DISABILITY

             3606           34A-4-101. Who entitled.
             3607          (1) Certain [disabled] miners with a disability meeting the requirements of Section
             3608      34A-4-102 shall be entitled to, and shall receive, the free hospital and medical service provided
             3609      for in this chapter.
             3610          (2) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), in the event occupational diseases are made
             3611      compensable under Chapter 2, Workers' Compensation Act, or 3, Utah Occupational Disease
             3612      Act, no employer or insurance carrier shall be permitted to evade payment under Chapter 2 or 3
             3613      by compelling a [disabled] miner with a disability to avail [himself] the miner of the benefits
             3614      provided for in this chapter.
             3615          Section 53. Section 34A-4-102 is amended to read:
             3616           34A-4-102. Application for benefits.
             3617          To be entitled to the free hospital and medical service provided for in Section
             3618      34A-4-101 , a [disabled] miner with a disability applying for benefits shall be required to
             3619      establish under oath the following facts, which shall be conditions precedent to the granting of
             3620      the free service provided for in this chapter:
             3621          (1) that [he] the miner is and has been a resident of this state for a period of two years


             3622      immediately preceding the filing of [his] the miner's application;
             3623          (2) that [he] the miner has been employed in the mines of this state for a period of at
             3624      least five years and that the disability from which [he] the miner is suffering and for which [he]
             3625      the miner is in need of hospital and medical treatment is due to such employment;
             3626          (3) that [he] the miner is physically incapable of entering remunerative employment
             3627      and holding a job;
             3628          (4) that [his] the miner's disability is such that hospital and medical attention is
             3629      necessary; and
             3630          (5) that [he] the miner is financially unable to secure and pay for hospital and medical
             3631      service.
             3632          Section 54. Section 34A-8a-102 is amended to read:
             3633           34A-8a-102. Definitions.
             3634          [(2)] (1) "Division" means the Division of Industrial Accidents.
             3635          [(3)] (2) (a) "Gainful employment" means employment that:
             3636          (i) is reasonably attainable in view of an industrial injury or occupational disease; and
             3637          (ii) offers to an injured worker, as reasonably feasible, an opportunity for earnings.
             3638          (b) Factors considered in determining gainful employment include an injured worker's:
             3639          (i) education;
             3640          (ii) experience; and
             3641          (iii) physical and mental impairment and condition.
             3642          [(4)] (3) "Initial written report" means a report required under Section 34A-8a-301 .
             3643          [(5)] (4) "Injured worker" means an employee who sustains an industrial injury or
             3644      occupational disease for which benefits are provided under Chapter 2, Workers' Compensation
             3645      Act, or Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act.
             3646          [(1) "Disabled injured worker"] (5) "Injured worker with a disability" means an injured
             3647      worker who:
             3648          (a) because of the injury or disease that is the basis of the employee being an injured
             3649      worker:
             3650          (i) is or will be unable to return to work in the injured worker's usual and customary
             3651      occupation; or
             3652          (ii) is unable to perform work for which the injured worker has previous training and


             3653      experience; and
             3654          (b) reasonably can be expected to attain gainful employment after an evaluation
             3655      provided for in accordance with this chapter.
             3656          (6) "Parties" means:
             3657          (a) [a disabled injured worker] an injured worker with a disability;
             3658          (b) the employer of the [disabled injured worker] injured worker with a disability;
             3659          (c) the employer's workers' compensation insurance carrier; and
             3660          (d) a rehabilitation or reemployment professional for the employer or the employer's
             3661      workers' compensation insurance carrier.
             3662          (7) "Reemployment plan" means a written:
             3663          (a) description or rationale for the manner and means by which it is proposed [a
             3664      disabled injured worker] an injured worker with a disability may return to gainful employment;
             3665      and
             3666          (b) definition of the voluntary responsibilities of:
             3667          (i) the [disabled injured worker] injured worker with a disability;
             3668          (ii) the employer; and
             3669          (iii) one or more other parties involved with the implementation of the reemployment
             3670      plan.
             3671          Section 55. Section 34A-8a-301 is amended to read:
             3672           34A-8a-301. Initial report on injured worker.
             3673          (1) An employer or the employer's workers' compensation insurance carrier shall
             3674      prepare an initial written report assessing an injured worker's need or lack of need for
             3675      vocational assistance in reemployment if:
             3676          (a) it appears that the injured worker is or will be [a disabled injured worker] an injured
             3677      worker with a disability; or
             3678          (b) the period of the injured worker's temporary total disability compensation period
             3679      exceeds 90 days.
             3680          (2) (a) Subject to Subsection (2)(b), an employer or the employer's workers'
             3681      compensation insurance carrier shall:
             3682          (i) serve the initial written report required by Subsection (1) on the injured worker; and
             3683          (ii) file the initial written report required by Subsection (1) with the division.


             3684          (b) An employer or the employer's workers' compensation insurance carrier shall
             3685      comply with Subsection (2)(a) by no later than 30 days after the earlier of the day on which:
             3686          (i) it appears that the injured worker is or will be [a disabled injured worker] an injured
             3687      worker with a disability; or
             3688          (ii) the 90-day period described in Subsection (1)(b) ends.
             3689          (3) With the initial written report required by Subsection (1), an employer or the
             3690      employer's workers' compensation insurance carrier shall provide an injured worker
             3691      information regarding reemployment.
             3692          Section 56. Section 34A-8a-302 is amended to read:
             3693           34A-8a-302. Evaluation of injured worker -- Reemployment plan.
             3694          (1) Subject to the other provisions of this section, if an injured worker is [a disabled
             3695      injured worker] an injured worker with a disability, the employer or the employer's workers'
             3696      compensation insurance carrier shall, within 10 days after the day on which the employer or
             3697      workers' compensation insurance carrier serves the initial written report on the injured worker,
             3698      refer the [disabled injured worker] injured worker with a disability to:
             3699          (a) the Utah State Office of Rehabilitation; or
             3700          (b) at the employer's or workers' compensation insurance carrier's option, a private
             3701      rehabilitation or reemployment service.
             3702          (2) An employer or the employer's workers' compensation insurance carrier shall make
             3703      the referral required by Subsection (1) for the purpose of:
             3704          (a) providing an evaluation; and
             3705          (b) developing a reemployment plan.
             3706          (3) The commission may authorize an employer or the employer's workers'
             3707      compensation insurance carrier to:
             3708          (a) not make a referral required by Subsection (1); or
             3709          (b) make a referral during a different time period than required by Subsection (1).
             3710          Section 57. Section 34A-8a-303 is amended to read:
             3711           34A-8a-303. Reemployment objectives.
             3712          (1) The commission through the division shall administer this chapter with the
             3713      objective of assisting in returning [a disabled injured worker] an injured worker with a
             3714      disability to gainful employment in the following order of employment priority:


             3715          (a) same job, same employer;
             3716          (b) modified job, same employer;
             3717          (c) same job, new employer;
             3718          (d) modified job, new employer;
             3719          (e) new job, new employer; or
             3720          (f) retraining in a new occupation.
             3721          (2) Nothing in this chapter or its application is intended to:
             3722          (a) modify or in any way affect an existing employee-employer relationship; or
             3723          (b) provide an employee with a guarantee or right to employment or continued
             3724      employment with an employer.
             3725          Section 58. Section 39-1-59 is amended to read:
             3726           39-1-59. Compensation for injury or death.
             3727          If any officer or enlisted person of the National Guard is wounded, injured, or otherwise
             3728      [disabled] acquires a disability, or is killed or dies of wounds or injuries received while serving
             3729      on state active duty, under orders of competent authority and not as a result of [his] the person's
             3730      own misconduct, the person, the surviving spouse, children, or any dependent relatives, shall
             3731      receive from the state relief as the Legislature determines. However, in these cases the
             3732      member, surviving spouse, children, or any dependent relatives, upon investigation by a board
             3733      of inquiry appointed by the commander in chief, the findings and recommendations of which
             3734      shall be filed with the state auditor for the action of the Board of Examiners, shall receive
             3735      temporary compensation from the state, out of funds appropriated for the maintenance of the
             3736      National Guard, as determined by the Board of Examiners until the next regular session of the
             3737      Legislature. This compensation may not exceed the rates of pay provided for officers and
             3738      enlisted persons in this chapter.
             3739          Section 59. Section 41-6a-1011 is amended to read:
             3740           41-6a-1011. Pedestrian vehicles.
             3741          (1) As used in this section:
             3742          (a) (i) "Pedestrian vehicle" means a self-propelled conveyance designed, manufactured,
             3743      and intended for the exclusive use of a person with a physical disability.
             3744          (ii) A "pedestrian vehicle" may not:
             3745          (A) exceed 48 inches in width;


             3746          (B) have an engine or motor with more than 300 cubic centimeters displacement or
             3747      with more than 12 brake horsepower; and
             3748          (C) be capable of developing a speed in excess of 30 miles per hour.
             3749          (b) "Physical disability" means any bodily impairment which precludes a person from
             3750      walking or otherwise moving about as a pedestrian.
             3751          (2) (a) A pedestrian vehicle operated by a [physically disabled] person with a physical
             3752      disability is exempt from vehicle registration, inspection, and operator license requirements.
             3753          (b) Authority to operate a pedestrian vehicle on public highways or sidewalks shall be
             3754      granted according to rules promulgated by the commissioner of public safety.
             3755          (3) (a) A [physically disabled] person with a physical disability may operate a
             3756      pedestrian vehicle with a motor of not more than .5 brake horsepower capable of developing a
             3757      speed of not more than eight miles per hour:
             3758          (i) on the sidewalk; and
             3759          (ii) in all places where pedestrians are allowed.
             3760          (b) A permit, license, registration, authority, application, or restriction may not be
             3761      required or imposed on a [physically disabled person operating] person with a physical
             3762      disability who operates a pedestrian vehicle under this Subsection (3).
             3763          (c) The provisions of this Subsection (3) supercede the provision of Subsection (2)(b).
             3764          Section 60. Section 41-22-2 is amended to read:
             3765           41-22-2. Definitions.
             3766          As used in this chapter:
             3767          (1) "Advisory council" means the Off-highway Vehicle Advisory Council appointed by
             3768      the Board of Parks and Recreation.
             3769          (2) "All-terrain type I vehicle" means any motor vehicle 52 inches or less in width,
             3770      having an unladen dry weight of 1,500 pounds or less, traveling on three or more low pressure
             3771      tires, having a seat designed to be straddled by the operator, and designed for or capable of
             3772      travel over unimproved terrain.
             3773          (3) (a) "All-terrain type II vehicle" means any other motor vehicle, not defined in
             3774      Subsection (2), (10), or (21), designed for or capable of travel over unimproved terrain.
             3775          (b) "All-terrain type II vehicle" does not include golf carts, any vehicle designed to
             3776      carry a [disabled] person with a disability, any vehicle not specifically designed for recreational


             3777      use, or farm tractors as defined under Section 41-1a-102 .
             3778          (4) "Board" means the Board of Parks and Recreation.
             3779          (5) "Cross-country" means across natural terrain and off an existing highway, road,
             3780      route, or trail.
             3781          (6) "Dealer" means a person engaged in the business of selling off-highway vehicles at
             3782      wholesale or retail.
             3783          (7) "Division" means the Division of Parks and Recreation.
             3784          (8) "Low pressure tire" means any pneumatic tire six inches or more in width designed
             3785      for use on wheels with rim diameter of 14 inches or less and utilizing an operating pressure of
             3786      10 pounds per square inch or less as recommended by the vehicle manufacturer.
             3787          (9) "Manufacturer" means a person engaged in the business of manufacturing
             3788      off-highway vehicles.
             3789          (10) "Motorcycle" means every motor vehicle having a saddle for the use of the
             3790      operator and designed to travel on not more than two tires.
             3791          (11) (a) "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled.
             3792          (b) "Motor vehicle" includes an off-highway vehicle.
             3793          [(13)] (12) "Off-highway implement of husbandry" means every all-terrain type I
             3794      vehicle, motorcycle, or snowmobile that is used by the owner or [his] the owner's agent for
             3795      agricultural operations.
             3796          [(12)] (13) "Off-highway vehicle" means any snowmobile, all-terrain type I vehicle,
             3797      all-terrain type II vehicle, or motorcycle.
             3798          (14) "Operate" means to control the movement of or otherwise use an off-highway
             3799      vehicle.
             3800          (15) "Operator" means the person who is in actual physical control of an off-highway
             3801      vehicle.
             3802          (16) "Organized user group" means an off-highway vehicle organization incorporated
             3803      as a nonprofit corporation in the state under Title 16, Chapter 6a, Utah Revised Nonprofit
             3804      Corporation Act, for the purpose of promoting the interests of off-highway vehicle recreation.
             3805          (17) "Owner" means a person, other than a person with a security interest, having a
             3806      property interest or title to an off-highway vehicle and entitled to the use and possession of that
             3807      vehicle.


             3808          (18) "Public land" means land owned or administered by any federal or state agency or
             3809      any political subdivision of the state.
             3810          (19) "Register" means the act of assigning a registration number to an off-highway
             3811      vehicle.
             3812          (20) "Roadway" is used as defined in Section 41-6a-102 .
             3813          (21) "Snowmobile" means any motor vehicle designed for travel on snow or ice and
             3814      steered and supported in whole or in part by skis, belts, cleats, runners, or low pressure tires.
             3815          (22) "Street or highway" means the entire width between boundary lines of every way
             3816      or place of whatever nature, when any part of it is open to the use of the public for vehicular
             3817      travel.
             3818          (23) "Street-legal all-terrain vehicle" or "street-legal ATV" has the same meaning as
             3819      defined in Section 41-6a-102 .
             3820          Section 61. Section 49-11-403 is amended to read:
             3821           49-11-403. Purchase of public service credit not otherwise qualifying for benefit.
             3822          (1) A member, a participating employer, or a member and a participating employer
             3823      jointly may purchase service credit equal to the period of the member's employment in the
             3824      following:
             3825          (a) United States federal employment;
             3826          (b) employment in a private school based in the United States, if the member received
             3827      an employer paid retirement benefit for the employment;
             3828          (c) public employment in another state or territory of the United States which qualifies
             3829      the member for membership in the public plan or system covering the employment, but only if
             3830      the member does not qualify for any retirement benefits based on the employment;
             3831          (d) forfeited service credit in this state if the member does not qualify for an allowance
             3832      based on the service credit;
             3833          (e) full-time public service while on an approved leave of absence;
             3834          (f) the period of time for which disability benefits were paid if:
             3835          (i) the member was receiving:
             3836          (A) long-term disability benefits;
             3837          (B) short-term disability benefits; or
             3838          (C) worker's compensation disability benefits; and


             3839          (ii) the member's employer had not entered into a benefit protection contract under
             3840      Section 49-11-404 during the period the member [was disabled] had a disability due to sickness
             3841      or accident;
             3842          (g) employment covered by a Teachers Insurance and Annuity Association of America
             3843      retirement plan if the member forfeits any retirement benefit from that retirement plan for the
             3844      period of employment to be purchased under this Subsection (1)(g); or
             3845          (h) employment in a charter school located within the state if the member forfeits any
             3846      retirement benefit under any other retirement system or plan for the period of employment to be
             3847      purchased under this Subsection (1)(h).
             3848          (2) A member shall:
             3849          (a) have at least four years of service credit before a purchase can be made under this
             3850      section; and
             3851          (b) forfeit service credit and any defined contribution balance based on employer
             3852      contributions under any other retirement system or plan based on the period of employment for
             3853      which service credit is being purchased.
             3854          (3) (a) To purchase credit under this section, the member, a participating employer, or a
             3855      member and a participating employer jointly shall make payment to the system under which the
             3856      member is currently covered.
             3857          (b) The amount of the payment shall be determined by the office based on a formula
             3858      that is:
             3859          (i) recommended by the actuary; and
             3860          (ii) adopted by the board.
             3861          (4) The purchase may be made through payroll deductions or through a lump sum
             3862      deposit based upon the present value of future payments.
             3863          (5) Total payment must be completed prior to the member's effective date of retirement
             3864      or service credit will be prorated in accordance with the amount paid.
             3865          (6) (a) For a purchase made before July 1, 2010, if any of the factors used to determine
             3866      the cost of a service credit purchase change at or before the member's retirement date, the cost
             3867      of the purchase shall be recalculated at the time of retirement.
             3868          (b) For a purchase made before July 1, 2010, if the recalculated cost exceeds the
             3869      amount paid for the purchase, the member, a participating employer, or a member and a


             3870      participating employer jointly may:
             3871          (i) pay the increased cost, plus interest, to receive the full amount of service credit; or
             3872          (ii) not pay the increased cost and have the purchased service credit prorated.
             3873          (c) For a purchase made on or after July 1, 2010:
             3874          (i) the purchase shall be made in accordance with rules:
             3875          (A) adopted by the board based on recommendations by the board's actuary; and
             3876          (B) in effect at the time the purchase is completed; and
             3877          (ii) the cost of the service credit purchase shall not be recalculated at the time of
             3878      retirement.
             3879          (7) If the recalculated cost under Subsection (6)(a) is less than the amount paid for the
             3880      purchase, the office shall refund the excess payment to the member or participating employer
             3881      who paid for the purchase.
             3882          (8) (a) The board may adopt rules under which a member may make the necessary
             3883      payments to the office for purchases under this title as permitted by federal law.
             3884          (b) The office may reject any payments if the office determines the tax status of the
             3885      system, plans, or programs would be jeopardized by allowing the payment.
             3886          (9) Account balances created under Section 49-22-303 , 49-22-401 , 49-23-302 , or
             3887      49-23-401 may not be used to purchase service credit for a benefit under Sections 49-22-304 ,
             3888      49-22-305 , 49-23-303 , and 49-23-304 .
             3889          Section 62. Section 49-11-404 is amended to read:
             3890           49-11-404. Benefit protection contract authorized -- Annual report required.
             3891          (1) (a) A participating employer may establish a salary protection program under which
             3892      its employees are paid during periods of disability.
             3893          (b) If a salary protection program is established, a participating employer may enter
             3894      into benefit protection contracts with the office.
             3895          (c) A salary protection program shall:
             3896          (i) pay benefits based on the [disabled member's] rate of compensation of the member
             3897      with a disability at the time of disability;
             3898          (ii) pay benefits over the period of the disability;
             3899          (iii) not include settlement or lump sum payments of any type;
             3900          (iv) be substantially equivalent to the long-term disability programs offered under


             3901      Chapter 21, Public Employees' Long-Term Disability Act; and
             3902          (v) comply with requirements adopted by the board.
             3903          (2) A benefit protection contract shall allow:
             3904          (a) the [disabled] member with a disability to be considered an active member in a
             3905      system and continue to accrue service credit and salary credit based on the member's rate of pay
             3906      in effect at the time disability commences;
             3907          (b) the office to require participating employer contributions to be paid before granting
             3908      service credit and salary credit to the member;
             3909          (c) the [disabled] member with a disability to remain eligible during the contract period
             3910      for any benefits provided by the system that covers the member; and
             3911          (d) the benefit for the [disabled] member with a disability to be improved by the annual
             3912      cost-of-living increase factor applied to retired members of the system that covered the member
             3913      on the date the member is eligible to receive benefits under a benefit protection contract.
             3914          (3) (a) The office shall establish the manner and times when employer contributions
             3915      are paid.
             3916          (b) A failure to make the required payments is cause for the office to cancel a contract.
             3917          (c) Service credit and salary credit granted and accrued up to the time of cancellation
             3918      may not be forfeited.
             3919          (4) For an employee covered under Chapter 22, New Public Employees' Tier II
             3920      Contributory Retirement Act, or Chapter 23, New Public Safety and Firefighter Tier II
             3921      Contributory Retirement Act, a benefit protection contract shall allow:
             3922          (a) for the defined benefit portion for a member covered under Chapter 22, Part 3, Tier
             3923      II Hybrid Retirement System, or Chapter 23, Part 3, Tier II Hybrid Retirement System:
             3924          (i) the [disabled] member with a disability to be considered an active member in a
             3925      system and continue to accrue service credit and salary credit based on the member's rate of pay
             3926      in effect at the time disability commences;
             3927          (ii) the office to require participating employer contributions to be paid before granting
             3928      service credit and salary credit to the member;
             3929          (iii) the [disabled] member with a disability to remain eligible during the contract
             3930      period for any benefits provided by the system that covers the member; and
             3931          (iv) the benefit for the [disabled] member with a disability to be improved by the


             3932      annual cost-of-living increase factor applied to retired members of the system that covered the
             3933      member on the date the member is eligible to receive benefits under a benefit protection
             3934      contract; and
             3935          (b) for the defined contribution portion for a member covered under Chapter 22, Part 3,
             3936      Tier II Hybrid Retirement System or Chapter 23, Part 3, Tier II Hybrid Retirement System or
             3937      for a participant covered under Chapter 22, Part 4, Tier II Defined Contribution Plan or Chapter
             3938      23, Part 4, Tier II Defined Contribution Plan, the office to require participating employers to
             3939      continue making the nonelective contributions on behalf of the [disabled] member with a
             3940      disability or participant in the amounts specified in Subsection 49-22-303 (1)(a), 49-22-401 (1),
             3941      49-23-302 (1)(a), or 49-23-401 (1).
             3942          (5) A participating employer that has entered into a benefit protection contract under
             3943      this section shall submit an annual report to the office which identifies:
             3944          (a) the employees receiving long-term disability benefits under policies initiated by the
             3945      participating employer and approved under the benefit protection contract;
             3946          (b) the employees that have applied for long-term disability benefits and who are
             3947      waiting approval; and
             3948          (c) the insurance carriers that are actively providing long-term disability benefits.
             3949          (6) If an employer fails to provide the annual report required under Subsection (5), the
             3950      benefits that would have accrued under the benefit protection contract shall be forfeited.
             3951          (7) The board may adopt rules to implement and administer this section.
             3952          Section 63. Section 49-12-601 is amended to read:
             3953           49-12-601. Disability retirement -- Medical examinations -- Reemployment of
             3954      retirant with a disability -- Cancellation of benefit -- Service credit -- Retirant with a
             3955      disability engaging in gainful employment -- Reduction of allowance -- Refusal to submit
             3956      to medical examination.
             3957          (1) Only members of this system who became eligible for a disability retirement
             3958      allowance before January 1, 1983, are covered under this section.
             3959          (2) (a) The board may, upon the recommendation of the administrator, require any
             3960      retirant who has been retired for disability and who has not attained the age of 60 years, to
             3961      undergo a medical examination by a physician or surgeon, appointed by the board, at the place
             3962      of residence of the retirant or other place mutually agreed upon.


             3963          (b) Upon the basis of the examination, the board shall determine whether the [disabled]
             3964      retirant with a disability is still incapacitated, physically or mentally, for service under this
             3965      chapter.
             3966          (c) If the board determines that the retirant is not incapacitated, the retirement
             3967      allowance shall be cancelled and the retirant shall be reinstated immediately to a position of the
             3968      same class as that held by the retirant when retired for disability.
             3969          (d) If any employing unit is unable to reinstate the retirant, the board shall continue the
             3970      disability retirement allowance of the retirant until employment is available.
             3971          (3) (a) If a [disabled] retirant with a disability under this system reenters covered
             3972      service and is eligible for membership in the retirement system, the retirement allowance shall
             3973      be cancelled and the retirant shall immediately become a member of the retirement system.
             3974          (b) (i) The member's individual account shall be credited with an amount which is the
             3975      actuarial equivalent, at the time of reentry, based on a disabled life, of that portion of the
             3976      member's retirement allowance which was derived from the member's accumulated
             3977      contributions.
             3978          (ii) The amount credited may not exceed the amount of accumulated contributions
             3979      standing at the time of retirement.
             3980          (c) Each member shall receive credit for the service in the member's account at the
             3981      time of retirement.
             3982          (4) If the retirement allowance of any [disabled] retirant with a disability is cancelled
             3983      for any cause other than reentry into service, the retirant shall be paid the accumulated
             3984      contributions less the amounts prescribed by Subsection (6).
             3985          (5) (a) If any member retired for disability engages in a gainful occupation prior to
             3986      attaining age 60, the administrator shall reduce the amount of the retirement allowance to an
             3987      amount which, when added to the compensation earned monthly by the retirant in that
             3988      occupation, may not exceed the amount of the final average monthly salary on the basis of
             3989      which the current service retirement allowance was determined.
             3990          (b) If the earning capacity of the retirant is further altered, the administrator may
             3991      further alter the retirement allowance as provided in this Subsection (5).
             3992          (c) In no event, however, may the retirement benefit be reduced below that portion of
             3993      the retirant's allowance derived from the retirant's own accumulated contributions.


             3994          (d) When the retirant reaches age 60, the retirement allowance shall be made equal to
             3995      the amount upon which the retirant was originally retired and may not again be modified for
             3996      any cause.
             3997          (6) (a) If any member who retired for disability under age 60, refuses to submit to a
             3998      medical examination, the retirement allowance may be discontinued until the retirant
             3999      withdraws that refusal.
             4000          (b) If the refusal continues for one year the disability status may be cancelled and
             4001      membership terminated.
             4002          (c) (i) The retirant's accumulated contribution account shall be the actuarial equivalent
             4003      on the date of the retirant's change of status, based on a disabled life, of that portion of the
             4004      disability retirement allowance which was derived from the retirant's accumulated
             4005      contributions.
             4006          (ii) The amount credited may not exceed the amount of the retirant's accumulated
             4007      contributions at the time of disability retirement.
             4008          Section 64. Section 49-14-502 is amended to read:
             4009           49-14-502. Death of active member in Division B -- Payment of benefits.
             4010          (1) If an active member of this system enrolled in Division B under Section 49-14-301
             4011      dies, benefits are payable as follows:
             4012          (a) If the death is classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, the spouse at the time
             4013      of death shall receive a lump sum of $1,500 and an allowance equal to 37.5% of the member's
             4014      final average monthly salary.
             4015          (b) If the death is not classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, benefits are
             4016      payable as follows:
             4017          (i) If the member has accrued two or more years of public safety service credit at the
             4018      time of death, the death is considered a line-of-duty death and the benefit shall be paid as
             4019      provided under Subsection (1)(a).
             4020          (ii) If the member has accrued less than two years of public safety service credit at the
             4021      time of death, the spouse at the time of death shall receive a refund of the member's member
             4022      contributions, plus 50% of the member's most recent 12 months' compensation.
             4023          (c) (i) If the member has accrued two or more years of public safety service credit at
             4024      the time of death, each of the member's unmarried children to age 18 or dependent unmarried


             4025      [mentally or physically disabled] children with a mental or physical disability shall receive a
             4026      monthly allowance of $50.
             4027          (ii) Payments shall be made to the surviving parent or to a duly appointed guardian, or
             4028      as otherwise provided under Sections 49-11-609 and 49-11-610 .
             4029          (2) In the event of the death of both parents, the spouse's benefit shall be prorated and
             4030      paid to each of the member's unmarried children to age 18.
             4031          (3) If a benefit is not distributed under the previous subsections, and the member has
             4032      designated a beneficiary, the member's member contributions shall be paid to the beneficiary.
             4033          (4) The combined annual payments made to the beneficiaries of any member under this
             4034      section may not exceed 75% of the member's final average monthly salary.
             4035          Section 65. Section 49-14-504 is amended to read:
             4036           49-14-504. Benefits payable upon death of retired member -- Enhanced benefit
             4037      election -- Rulemaking.
             4038          (1) If a retiree who retired under either Division A or Division B dies, the retiree's
             4039      spouse at the time of death of the retiree shall receive an allowance equal to 65% of the
             4040      allowance that was being paid to the retiree at the time of death.
             4041          (2) (a) Notwithstanding the amount of the allowance under Subsection (1), at the time
             4042      of retirement, a retiree may elect to increase the spousal death benefit to 75% of an allowance
             4043      computed in accordance with Section 49-14-402 .
             4044          (b) If an election is made under Subsection (2)(a), the member's allowance shall be
             4045      reduced to an amount payable monthly for life to reflect the actuarial equivalent necessary to
             4046      pay for the increased spousal death benefit above 65%.
             4047          (3) (a) For a retiree whose retirement date is before July 1, 2009, the office shall
             4048      provide an optional spousal death benefit to bring the total spousal death benefit up to 75% of
             4049      an allowance computed in accordance with Section 49-14-402 .
             4050          (b) A retiree may elect to purchase the optional spousal death benefit until July 1,
             4051      2010.
             4052          (c) If an election is made under Subsection (3)(b), the retiree's allowance shall be
             4053      reduced to an amount payable monthly for life to reflect the actuarial equivalent necessary to
             4054      pay for the increased spousal death benefit above 65%.
             4055          (d) The board shall make rules to administer the death benefit under this Subsection


             4056      (3).
             4057          (4) If the retiree retired solely under Division B and dies leaving unmarried children
             4058      under the age of 18 or dependent unmarried [mentally or physically disabled] children with a
             4059      mental or physical disability, the children shall qualify for a benefit as prescribed for children
             4060      under Subsection 49-14-502 (1)(c) which is payable on the first day of the month following the
             4061      month in which the retiree died.
             4062          Section 66. Section 49-15-502 is amended to read:
             4063           49-15-502. Death of active member in Division B -- Payment of benefits.
             4064          (1) If an active member of this system enrolled in Division B under Section 49-15-301
             4065      dies, benefits are payable as follows:
             4066          (a) If the death is classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, the spouse at the time
             4067      of death shall receive a lump sum of $1,500 and an allowance equal to 37.5% of the member's
             4068      final average monthly salary.
             4069          (b) If the death is not classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, and the member
             4070      has accrued two or more years of public safety service credit at the time of death, the death is
             4071      considered line-of-duty and the benefit shall be paid as provided under Subsection (1)(a).
             4072          (c) If the death is not classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, and the member
             4073      has accrued less than two years of public safety service credit at the time of death, the spouse at
             4074      the time of death shall receive a refund of the member's member contributions, plus 50% of the
             4075      member's most recent 12 months' compensation.
             4076          (d) (i) If the member has accrued two or more years of public safety service credit at
             4077      the time of death, each of the member's unmarried children to age 18 or dependent unmarried
             4078      [mentally or physically disabled] children with a mental or physical disability shall receive an
             4079      allowance of $50.
             4080          (ii) Payments shall be made to the surviving parent or to a duly appointed guardian, or
             4081      as otherwise provided under Section 49-11-609 or 49-11-610 .
             4082          (2) In the event of the death of both parents, the spouse's benefit shall be prorated and
             4083      paid to each of the member's unmarried children to age 18.
             4084          (3) If a benefit is not distributed under the previous subsections, and the member has
             4085      designated a beneficiary, the member's member contributions shall be paid to the beneficiary.
             4086          (4) The combined payments to beneficiaries of any member under this section may not


             4087      exceed 75% of the member's final average monthly salary.
             4088          Section 67. Section 49-15-504 is amended to read:
             4089           49-15-504. Benefits payable upon death of retired member -- Enhanced benefit
             4090      election -- Rulemaking.
             4091          (1) If a retiree who retired under either Division A or Division B dies, the retiree's
             4092      spouse at the time of death of the retiree shall receive an allowance equal to 65% of the
             4093      allowance that was being paid to the retiree at the time of death.
             4094          (2) (a) Notwithstanding the amount of the allowance under Subsection (1), at the time
             4095      of retirement, a retiree may elect to increase the spousal death benefit to 75% of an allowance
             4096      computed in accordance with Section 49-15-402 .
             4097          (b) If an election is made under Subsection (2)(a), the member's allowance shall be
             4098      reduced to an amount payable monthly for life to reflect the actuarial equivalent necessary to
             4099      pay for the increased spousal death benefit above 65%.
             4100          (3) (a) For a retiree whose retirement date is before July 1, 2009, the office shall
             4101      provide an optional spousal death benefit to bring the total spousal death benefit up to 75% of
             4102      an allowance computed in accordance with Section 49-15-402 .
             4103          (b) A retiree may elect to purchase the optional spousal death benefit until July 1,
             4104      2010.
             4105          (c) If an election is made under Subsection (3)(b), the retiree's allowance shall be
             4106      reduced to an amount payable monthly for life to reflect the actuarial equivalent necessary to
             4107      pay for the increased spousal death benefit above 65%.
             4108          (d) The board shall make rules to administer the death benefit under this Subsection
             4109      (3).
             4110          (4) If the retiree retired solely under Division B and dies leaving unmarried children
             4111      under the age of 18 or dependent unmarried [mentally or physically disabled] children with a
             4112      mental or physical disability, the children shall qualify for a benefit as prescribed under
             4113      Subsection 49-15-502 (1)(d) which is payable on the first day of the month following the month
             4114      in which the retiree died.
             4115          Section 68. Section 49-16-201 is amended to read:
             4116           49-16-201. System membership -- Eligibility.
             4117          (1) A firefighter service employee who performs firefighter service for an employer


             4118      participating in this system is eligible for service credit in this system upon the earliest of:
             4119          (a) July 1, 1971, if the firefighter service employee was employed by the participating
             4120      employer on July 1, 1971, and the participating employer was participating in this system on
             4121      that date;
             4122          (b) the date the participating employer begins participating in this system if the
             4123      firefighter service employee was employed by the participating employer on that date; or
             4124          (c) the date the firefighter service employee is hired to perform firefighter services for a
             4125      participating employer, if the firefighter initially enters employment before July 1, 2011.
             4126          (2) (a) (i) A participating employer that has public safety service and firefighter service
             4127      employees that require cross-training and duty shall enroll the dual purpose employees in the
             4128      system in which the greatest amount of time is actually worked.
             4129          (ii) The employees shall either be full-time public safety service or full-time firefighter
             4130      service employees of the participating employer.
             4131          (b) (i) [Prior to] Before transferring a dual purpose employee from one system to
             4132      another, the participating employer shall receive written permission from the office.
             4133          (ii) The office may request documentation to verify the appropriateness of the transfer.
             4134          (3) (a) A person hired by a regularly constituted fire department on or after July 1,
             4135      1971, who does not perform firefighter service is not eligible for service credit in this system.
             4136          (b) The nonfirefighter service employee shall become a member of the system for
             4137      which the nonfirefighter service employee qualifies for service credit.
             4138          (c) The service credit exclusion under this Subsection (3) may not be interpreted to
             4139      prohibit the assignment of a [disabled or partially disabled] firefighter with a disability or
             4140      partial disability to a nonfirefighter service position.
             4141          (d) If Subsection (3)(c) applies, the firefighter service employee remains eligible for
             4142      service credit in this system.
             4143          (4) An allowance or other benefit may not be granted under this system that is based
             4144      upon the same service for benefits received under some other system.
             4145          (5) Service as a volunteer firefighter is not eligible for service credit in this system.
             4146          (6) An employer that maintains a regularly constituted fire department is eligible to
             4147      participate in this system.
             4148          (7) Beginning July 1, 2011, a person initially entering employment with a participating


             4149      employer may not participate in this system.
             4150          Section 69. Section 49-16-502 is amended to read:
             4151           49-16-502. Death of active member in Division B -- Payment of benefits.
             4152          (1) If an active member of this system enrolled in Division B under Section 49-16-301
             4153      dies, benefits are payable as follows:
             4154          (a) If the death is classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, benefits are payable as
             4155      follows:
             4156          (i) If the member has accrued less than 20 years of firefighter service credit, the spouse
             4157      at the time of death shall receive a lump sum of $1,500 and an allowance equal to 37.5% of the
             4158      member's final average monthly salary.
             4159          (ii) If the member has accrued 20 or more years of firefighter service credit, the
             4160      member shall be considered to have retired with an allowance calculated under Subsection
             4161      49-16-402 and the spouse at the time of death shall receive the death benefit payable to a
             4162      spouse under Section 49-16-504 .
             4163          (b) If the death is not classified by the office as a line-of-duty death, the benefits are
             4164      payable as follows:
             4165          (i) If the member has accrued five or more years of firefighter service credit, the death
             4166      is considered line-of-duty and the same benefits are payable as established under Subsection
             4167      (1)(a).
             4168          (ii) If the member has accrued less than five years of firefighter service credit, the
             4169      spouse at the time of death shall receive a refund of the member's contributions, plus 50% of
             4170      the member's most recent 12 months compensation.
             4171          (c) If the member has accrued five or more years of firefighter service credit, the
             4172      member's unmarried children until they reach age 21 or dependent unmarried [mentally or
             4173      physically disabled] children with a mental or physical disability, shall receive a monthly
             4174      allowance of $75.
             4175          (2) (a) In the event of the death of the member and spouse, the spouse's benefits are
             4176      equally divided and paid to each unmarried child until the child reaches age 21.
             4177          (b) The payments shall be made to the surviving parent or duly appointed guardian or
             4178      as provided under Sections 49-11-609 and 49-11-610 .
             4179          (3) If a benefit is not distributed under the previous subsections, and the member has


             4180      designated a beneficiary, the member's member contributions shall be paid to the beneficiary.
             4181          (4) The combined monthly payments made to the beneficiaries of any member under
             4182      this section may not exceed 75% of the member's final average monthly salary.
             4183          Section 70. Section 49-16-504 is amended to read:
             4184           49-16-504. Benefits payable upon death of retired member.
             4185          (1) If a retiree who retired under either Division A or Division B dies, the retiree's
             4186      spouse at the time of death shall receive an allowance equal to 75% of the allowance that was
             4187      being paid to the retiree at the time of death.
             4188          (2) If the retiree retired solely under Division B and dies leaving unmarried children
             4189      under the age of 21 or dependent unmarried [mentally or physically disabled] children with a
             4190      mental or physical disability, the children shall qualify for a benefit as prescribed under
             4191      Subsection 49-16-502 (1)(c) which is payable on the first day of the month following the month
             4192      in which the retiree died.
             4193          Section 71. Section 49-16-602 is amended to read:
             4194           49-16-602. Disability retirement -- Disability allowance eligibility -- Conversion to
             4195      service retirement -- Examinations -- Reemployment.
             4196          (1) A member of this system who applies and is qualified for disability retirement shall
             4197      receive a disability retirement benefit until the earlier of:
             4198          (a) the date the member of this system [is no longer disabled] no longer has a
             4199      disability;
             4200          (b) the date the member of this system has accumulated 20 years of firefighter service
             4201      credit, including years earned while [disabled] the member of this system had a disability; or
             4202          (c) the date the member of this system has received disability retirement benefits for
             4203      the following time periods:
             4204          (i) if the member is under age 60 on the date of disability, the disability retirement
             4205      benefit is payable until age 65;
             4206          (ii) if the member is 60 or 61 years of age on the date of disability, the disability
             4207      retirement benefit is payable for five years;
             4208          (iii) if the member is 62 or 63 years of age on the date of disability, the disability
             4209      retirement benefit is payable for four years;
             4210          (iv) if the member is 64 or 65 years of age on the date of disability, the disability


             4211      retirement benefit is payable for three years;
             4212          (v) if the member is 66, 67, or 68 years of age on the date of disability, the disability
             4213      retirement benefit is payable for two years; and
             4214          (vi) if the member is 69 years of age or older on the date of disability, the disability
             4215      retirement benefit is payable for one year.
             4216          (2) (a) (i) The [disability] retiree with a disability shall receive service credit in this
             4217      system during the period of disability.
             4218          (ii) If the [disability] retiree with a disability is employed by a participating employer
             4219      during the period of disability, the [disability] retiree with a disability may not receive service
             4220      credit for that employment.
             4221          (b) The disability retirement shall be converted to a service retirement at the time the
             4222      disability retirement benefits terminate.
             4223          (3) The office shall approve or disapprove applications for disability retirement
             4224      benefits based upon:
             4225          (a) the evaluation and recommendations of one or more treating physicians along with
             4226      medical records relating to the condition;
             4227          (b) the evaluation and recommendations of one or more independent physicians
             4228      selected by the office; and
             4229          (c) receipt of documentation by the office from the participating employer that the
             4230      member is mentally or physically unable to perform firefighter service.
             4231          (4) (a) A [disability] retiree with a disability who receives benefits under this section
             4232      shall, upon request of the executive director, submit to a medical examination by one or more
             4233      physicians as directed by the office.
             4234          (b) If, after an examination, the examiners report that the [disability] retiree with a
             4235      disability is physically and mentally able and capable of resuming firefighter service
             4236      employment, the [disability] retiree with a disability shall be reinstated by the participating
             4237      employer for which the [disability] retiree with a disability last worked at the [disability
             4238      retiree's] former classification and rank of the retiree with a disability, and the disability
             4239      retirement benefit shall terminate.
             4240          (c) A [disability] retiree with a disability may not be required to submit to an
             4241      examination under this Subsection (4) more than once every year.


             4242          (d) A [disability] retiree with a disability who returns to firefighter service employment
             4243      with a participating employer in this system shall immediately begin accruing service credit
             4244      that shall be added to that service credit that has been previously accrued, including service
             4245      credit while disabled.
             4246          (5) A [disability] retiree with a disability is not subject to medical examinations after
             4247      reaching age 55.
             4248          (6) Refusal or neglect of a member to submit to an examination as requested by the
             4249      office either before or after a decision regarding disability benefits has been made is sufficient
             4250      cause for denial, suspension, or discontinuance of benefits and if the refusal or neglect
             4251      continues for one year, the [member's or disability retiree's] rights of the member or retiree with
             4252      a disability to disability retirement benefits may be revoked by the office.
             4253          (7) (a) A [disability] retiree with a disability who receives benefits under this part shall
             4254      file a sworn statement with the office on or before March 15 of each year for the first five years
             4255      a [disability] retiree with a disability receives benefits.
             4256          (b) The sworn statement shall indicate whether or not the [disability] retiree with a
             4257      disability engaged in any employment during the preceding year and, if so, the amount of
             4258      earnings received during the calendar year.
             4259          (c) If the total amount received in one year by a [disability] retiree with a disability for
             4260      disability retirement benefits and gross earnings from other employment exceeds 125% of the
             4261      [disability retiree's] final average salary of the retiree with a disability, the office shall offset the
             4262      disability retirement benefit paid the following year by the amount in excess of 125% of the
             4263      [disability retiree's] final average salary of the retiree with a disability.
             4264          (d) (i) If a [disability] retiree with a disability refuses or neglects to file a sworn
             4265      statement as required under this Subsection (7), the executive director may suspend payment of
             4266      any and all benefits pending receipt of the statement.
             4267          (ii) Upon filing the statement, the [disability retiree's] payments of the retiree with a
             4268      disability shall be resumed.
             4269          (8) The disability retirement benefit shall be improved by the annual cost-of-living
             4270      increase factor applied to retirees of the system that covered the firefighter service employee at
             4271      the time of disability.
             4272          (9) A line of duty disability allowance paid on or after January 1, 2002, under Section


             4273      49-16-601 is exempt from taxation to the extent permitted under federal law.
             4274          (10) (a) An active member of this system with five or more years of firefighter service
             4275      credit shall be eligible for a line-of-duty death or disability benefit resulting from heart disease,
             4276      lung disease, or respiratory tract disease.
             4277          (b) An active member of this system who receives a line-of-duty disability benefit for
             4278      more than six months due to violence or illness other than heart disease, lung disease, or
             4279      respiratory tract disease, and then returns to paid firefighter service, is not eligible for a
             4280      line-of-duty death or disability benefit due to those diseases for two years after the member
             4281      returned to paid firefighter service unless clear and convincing evidence is presented that the
             4282      heart, lung, or respiratory tract disease was directly a result of firefighter service.
             4283          (11) Disability retirement benefits shall be considered an allowance for purposes of
             4284      Section 49-11-701 .
             4285          Section 72. Section 49-21-102 is amended to read:
             4286           49-21-102. Definitions.
             4287          As used in this chapter:
             4288          (1) "Date of disability" means the date on which a period of continuous disability
             4289      commences, and may not commence on or before the last day of actual work.
             4290          [(3)] (2) (a) "Eligible employee" means:
             4291          (i) any regular full-time employee as defined under Section 49-12-102 or 49-13-102 ,
             4292      public safety service employee as defined under Section 49-14-102 or 49-15-102 , or judge as
             4293      defined under Section 49-17-102 or 49-18-102 , whose employer provides coverage under this
             4294      chapter, or the governor of the state; and
             4295          (ii) an employee who is covered by a retirement program offered by the Teachers'
             4296      Insurance and Annuity Association of America, if the employee's employer provides coverage
             4297      under this chapter; and
             4298          (b) "Eligible employee" does not include any employee that is exempt from coverage
             4299      under Section 49-21-201 .
             4300          [(2)] (3) "Elimination period" means the three months at the beginning of each
             4301      continuous period of total disability for which no benefit will be paid. The elimination period
             4302      begins on the nearest first day of the month from the date of disability. The elimination period
             4303      may include a one-time trial return to work period of less than 15 consecutive calendar days.


             4304          (4) "Maximum benefit period" means the maximum period of time the monthly
             4305      disability income benefit will be paid under Section 49-21-403 for any continuous period of
             4306      total disability.
             4307          (5) "Monthly disability benefit" means the monthly payments and accrual of service
             4308      credit under Section 49-21-401 .
             4309          (6) "Objective medical impairment" means an impairment resulting from an injury or
             4310      illness which is diagnosed by a physician and which is based on accepted objective medical
             4311      tests or findings rather than subjective complaints.
             4312          (7) "Physician" means a licensed physician.
             4313          (8) "Regular monthly salary" means the amount certified by the participating employer
             4314      as the monthly salary of the eligible employee, unless there is a discrepancy between the
             4315      certified amount and the amount actually paid, in which case the office shall determine the
             4316      regular monthly salary.
             4317          (9) "Regular occupation" means either the primary duties performed by the eligible
             4318      employee for the 12 months preceding the date of disability, or a permanent assignment of duty
             4319      to the eligible employee.
             4320          (10) "Rehabilitative employment" means any occupation or employment for wage or
             4321      profit, for which the eligible employee is reasonably qualified to perform based on education,
             4322      training, or experience.
             4323          (11) (a) "Total disability" [or "totally disabled"] means the complete inability, due to
             4324      objective medical impairment, whether physical or mental, to engage in the eligible employee's
             4325      regular occupation during the elimination period and the first 24 months of disability benefits.
             4326          (b) "Total disability" means, after the elimination period and the first 24 months of
             4327      disability benefits, the complete inability, based solely on physical objective medical
             4328      impairment, to engage in any gainful occupation which is reasonable, considering the eligible
             4329      employee's education, training, and experience.
             4330          Section 73. Section 49-21-401 is amended to read:
             4331           49-21-401. Disability benefits -- Application -- Eligibility.
             4332          (1) An eligible employee shall apply for long-term disability benefits under this chapter
             4333      by:
             4334          (a) completing an application form prepared by the office;


             4335          (b) signing a consent form allowing the office access to the eligible employee's medical
             4336      records; and
             4337          (c) providing any documentation or information reasonably requested by the office.
             4338          (2) (a) If an eligible employee is unable to apply on the employee's own behalf, the
             4339      application may be made by a person who is:
             4340          (i) the attorney for an eligible employee; or
             4341          (ii) appointed as a conservator or guardian of the eligible employee.
             4342          (b) A person described in Subsection (2)(a), may not make an application for a
             4343      deceased employee.
             4344          (3) Upon request by the office, the participating employer of the eligible employee
             4345      shall provide to the office documentation and information concerning the eligible employee.
             4346          (4) The office shall review all relevant information and determine whether or not the
             4347      eligible employee [is totally disabled] has a total disability.
             4348          (5) If the office determines that the eligible employee [is totally disabled] has a total
             4349      disability due to accidental bodily injury or physical illness which is not the result of the
             4350      performance of an employment duty, the eligible employee shall receive a monthly disability
             4351      benefit equal to two-thirds of the eligible employee's regular monthly salary, for each month
             4352      the total disability continues beyond the elimination period, not to exceed the maximum benefit
             4353      period.
             4354          (6) If the office determines that the eligible employee [is totally disabled] has a total
             4355      disability due to psychiatric illness, the eligible employee shall receive:
             4356          (a) a maximum of two years of monthly disability benefits equal to two-thirds of the
             4357      eligible employee's regular monthly salary for each month the total disability continues beyond
             4358      the elimination period;
             4359          (b) a maximum of $10,000 for psychiatric expenses, including rehabilitation expenses
             4360      preauthorized by the office's consultants, paid during the period of monthly disability benefits;
             4361      and
             4362          (c) payment of monthly disability benefits according to contractual provisions for a
             4363      period not to exceed five years if the eligible employee is institutionalized due to psychiatric
             4364      illness.
             4365          (7) If the office determines that the eligible employee [is totally disabled] has a total


             4366      disability due to a physical injury resulting from external force or violence as a result of the
             4367      performance of an employment duty, the eligible employee shall receive a monthly disability
             4368      benefit equal to 100% of the eligible employee's regular monthly salary, for each month the
             4369      total disability continues beyond the elimination period, not to exceed the maximum benefit
             4370      period.
             4371          (8) (a) Successive periods of disability are considered as a continuous period of
             4372      disability if the period of disability:
             4373          (i) results from the same or related causes;
             4374          (ii) is separated by less than six months of continuous full-time work at the individual's
             4375      usual place of employment; and
             4376          (iii) commences while the individual is an eligible employee covered by this chapter.
             4377          (b) The inability to work for a period of less than 15 consecutive calendar days is not
             4378      considered as a period of disability.
             4379          (c) If Subsection (8)(a) or (b) does not apply, successive periods of disability are
             4380      considered as separate periods of disability.
             4381          (9) The office may, at any time, have any eligible employee claiming to have a
             4382      disability examined by a physician chosen by the office to determine if the eligible employee
             4383      [is totally disabled] has a total disability.
             4384          (10) A claim brought by an eligible employee for long-term disability benefits under
             4385      the Public Employee's Long-Term Disability Program is barred if it is not commenced within
             4386      one year from the eligible employee's date of disability, unless the office determines that under
             4387      the surrounding facts and circumstances, the eligible employee's failure to comply with the
             4388      time limitations was reasonable.
             4389          (11) Medical or psychiatric conditions which existed prior to eligibility may not be a
             4390      basis for disability benefits until the eligible employee has had one year of continuous
             4391      eligibility in the Public Employees Long-Term Disability Program.
             4392          (12) If there is a valid benefit protection contract, service credit shall accrue during the
             4393      period of total disability, unless the disabled eligible employee is exempted from a system, or is
             4394      otherwise ineligible for service credit.
             4395          (13) Regardless of any medical evidence provided by the employee to support the
             4396      application for disability, an employee is not eligible for long-term disability benefits during


             4397      any period in which the employee:
             4398          (a) makes a claim that the employee is able to work; or
             4399          (b) has a pending action in a court or before any state or local administrative body in
             4400      which the employee has made a claim that the employee is able to work.
             4401          (14) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 49-11-618 , upon written request by an
             4402      employer, information obtained under this part may, upon an order of a court or an
             4403      administrative law judge, be released to an employer who is a party in an action under
             4404      Subsection (13).
             4405          Section 74. Section 49-21-403 is amended to read:
             4406           49-21-403. Termination of disability benefits -- Calculation of retirement benefit.
             4407          (1) An eligible employee covered by this chapter and eligible for service credit under a
             4408      system, or a participant in the Tier II Defined Contribution Plan, created in Chapter 22, Part 4,
             4409      Tier II Defined Contribution Plan, or Chapter 23, Part 4, Tier II Defined Contribution Plan,
             4410      including an eligible employee who relinquishes rights to retirement benefits under Section
             4411      49-11-619 , who applies and is qualified for a monthly disability benefit shall receive a monthly
             4412      disability benefit until the earlier of:
             4413          (a) the date of the eligible employee's death;
             4414          (b) the date the eligible employee [is] no longer [disabled] has a disability;
             4415          (c) the date the eligible employee has accumulated:
             4416          (i) 20 years of service credit if the eligible employee is covered by Chapter 14, Public
             4417      Safety Contributory Retirement Act, or Chapter 15, Public Safety Noncontributory Retirement
             4418      Act;
             4419          (ii) 25 years of service credit if the eligible employee is covered by Chapter 17, Judges'
             4420      Contributory Retirement Act, or Chapter 18, Judges' Noncontributory Retirement Act;
             4421          (iii) 30 years of service credit if the eligible employee is covered by Chapter 12, Public
             4422      Employees' Contributory Retirement Act, or Chapter 13, Public Employees' Noncontributory
             4423      Retirement Act;
             4424          (iv) 35 years of service credit if the eligible employee is covered by the defined benefit
             4425      portion under Chapter 22, Part 3, Tier II Hybrid Retirement System, or is covered by the
             4426      defined contribution plan under Chapter 22, Part 4, Tier II Defined Contribution Plan; or
             4427          (v) 25 years of service credit if the eligible employee is covered by the defined benefit


             4428      portion under Chapter 23, Part 3, Tier II Hybrid Retirement System, or is covered by the
             4429      defined contribution plan under Chapter 23, Part 4, Tier II Defined Contribution Plan; or
             4430          (d) the date the eligible employee has received a monthly disability benefit for the
             4431      following applicable time periods:
             4432          (i) if the eligible employee is under age 60, the monthly disability benefit is payable
             4433      until age 65;
             4434          (ii) if the eligible employee is 60 or 61 years of age on the date of disability, the
             4435      monthly disability benefit is payable for five years;
             4436          (iii) if the eligible employee is 62 or 63 years of age on the date of disability, the
             4437      monthly disability benefit is payable for four years;
             4438          (iv) if the eligible employee is 64 or 65 years of age on the date of disability, the
             4439      monthly disability benefit is payable for three years;
             4440          (v) if the eligible employee is 66, 67, or 68 years of age on the date of disability, the
             4441      monthly disability benefit is payable for two years; and
             4442          (vi) if the eligible employee is 69 years of age or older on the date of disability, the
             4443      monthly disability benefit is payable for one year.
             4444          (2) (a) Upon termination of a monthly disability benefit, an eligible employee eligible
             4445      for service credit under a system may retire under the requirements of the system which
             4446      covered the eligible employee on the date of disability.
             4447          (b) The final average salary used in the calculation of the allowance shall be based on
             4448      the annual rate of pay on the date of disability, improved by the annual cost-of-living increase
             4449      factor applied to retirees of the system which covered the eligible employee on the date of
             4450      disability.
             4451          (3) An eligible employee who is eligible for service credit in a system, but has
             4452      relinquished rights to an allowance under Section 49-11-619 , may receive the benefits the
             4453      eligible employee would have received by being eligible for service credit in the system
             4454      covering the eligible employee on the date of disability, except for the accrual of service credit,
             4455      in accordance with this title.
             4456          (4) An eligible employee receiving a monthly disability benefit who has service credit
             4457      from two or more systems may not combine service credits under Section 49-11-405 in
             4458      qualifying for retirement, unless the eligible employee would receive a greater allowance by


             4459      combining the service credits.
             4460          (5) A monthly disability benefit payable to an eligible employee who is not eligible for
             4461      service credit under a system shall terminate at the earliest of:
             4462          (a) the date the eligible employee would be eligible for an unreduced allowance;
             4463          (b) the date the eligible employee has received a monthly disability benefit for the
             4464      applicable time period as set forth in Subsection (1)(c); or
             4465          (c) the date the eligible employee receives a reduced allowance.
             4466          Section 75. Section 49-22-402 is amended to read:
             4467           49-22-402. Defined contribution distributions for members with a disability.
             4468          For a person [who is disabled and] with a disability who receives contributions under
             4469      Subsection 49-11-404 (4)(b), the [disabled] member with a disability may begin receiving
             4470      distributions from the defined contributions made by the participating employer on behalf of
             4471      the [disabled] member with a disability when the person would have been eligible to retire if
             4472      the person was covered by the defined benefit portion of the Tier II hybrid retirement system
             4473      under Part 3, Tier II Hybrid Retirement System.
             4474          Section 76. Section 53-3-807 is amended to read:
             4475           53-3-807. Expiration -- Address and name change -- Extension for a person with
             4476      a disability.
             4477          (1) (a) An identification card issued on or after July 1, 2006, expires on the birth date
             4478      of the applicant in the fifth year following the issuance of the identification card.
             4479          (b) A limited-term identification card expires on:
             4480          (i) the expiration date of the period of time of the individual's authorized stay in the
             4481      United States or on the birth date of the applicant in the fifth year following the issuance of the
             4482      limited-term identification card, whichever is sooner; or
             4483          (ii) on the birth date of the applicant in the first year following the year that the
             4484      limited-term identification card was issued if there is no definite end to the individual's period
             4485      of authorized stay.
             4486          (2) If a person has applied for and received an identification card and subsequently
             4487      moves from the address shown on the application or on the card, the person shall within 10
             4488      days notify the division in a manner specified by the division of the person's new address.
             4489          (3) If a person has applied for and received an identification card and subsequently


             4490      changes the person's name under Title 42, Chapter 1, Change of Name, the person:
             4491          (a) shall surrender the card to the division; and
             4492          (b) may apply for a new card in the person's new name by:
             4493          (i) furnishing proper documentation to the division as provided in Section 53-3-804 ;
             4494      and
             4495          (ii) paying the fee required under Section 53-3-105 .
             4496          (4) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (4)(c), if a person has applied for and received
             4497      an identification card and is currently required to register as a sex offender under Section
             4498      77-27-21.5 :
             4499          (i) the person's identification card expires annually on the next birth date of the
             4500      cardholder, on and after July 1, 2006;
             4501          (ii) the person shall surrender the person's identification card to the division on or
             4502      before the cardholder's next birth date beginning on July 1, 2006; and
             4503          (iii) the person may apply for an identification card with an expiration date identified in
             4504      Subsection (8)[(b)] by:
             4505          (A) furnishing proper documentation to the division as provided in Section 53-3-804 ;
             4506      and
             4507          (B) paying the fee for an identification card required under Section 53-3-105 .
             4508          (b) Except as provided in Subsection (4)(c), if a person has applied for and received an
             4509      identification card and is subsequently convicted of any offense listed in Subsection
             4510      77-27-21.5 (1)(n), the person shall surrender the card to the division on the person's next birth
             4511      date following the conviction and may apply for a new card with an expiration date identified
             4512      in Subsection (8)[(b)] by:
             4513          (i) furnishing proper documentation to the division as provided in Section 53-3-804 ;
             4514      and
             4515          (ii) paying the fee required under Section 53-3-105 .
             4516          (c) A person who is unable to comply with the provisions of Subsection (4)(a) or (4)(b)
             4517      because the person is in the custody of the Department of Corrections or Division of Juvenile
             4518      Justice Services, confined in a correctional facility not operated by or under contract with the
             4519      Department of Corrections, or committed to a state mental facility, shall comply with the
             4520      provisions of Subsection (4)(a) or (b) within 10 days of being released from confinement.


             4521          (5) A person older than 21 years of age with a disability, as defined under the
             4522      Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-336, may extend the expiration date on
             4523      an identification card for five years if the person with a disability or an agent of the person with
             4524      a disability:
             4525          (a) requests that the division send the application form to obtain the extension or
             4526      requests an application form in person at the division's offices;
             4527          (b) completes the application;
             4528          (c) certifies that the extension is for a person 21 years of age or older with a disability;
             4529      and
             4530          (d) returns the application to the division together with the identification card fee
             4531      required under Section 53-3-105 .
             4532          (6) (a) (i) An identification card may only be extended once, except as prohibited under
             4533      Subsection (6)(b).
             4534          (ii) After an extension an application for an identification card must be applied for in
             4535      person at the division's offices.
             4536          (b) An identification card issued to a person required to register as a sex offender under
             4537      Section 77-27-21.5 may not be extended.
             4538          (7) An identification card issued prior to July 1, 2006 to a person 65 years of age or
             4539      older does not expire, but continues in effect until the death of that person.
             4540          (8) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, an identification card expires on the
             4541      birth date of the applicant in the first year following the year that the identification card was
             4542      issued if the applicant is required to register as a sex offender under Section 77-27-21.5 .
             4543          (9) A person who knowingly fails to surrender an identification card under Subsection
             4544      (4) is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
             4545          Section 77. Section 53-10-208.1 is amended to read:
             4546           53-10-208.1. Magistrates and court clerks to supply information.
             4547          Every magistrate or clerk of a court responsible for court records in this state shall,
             4548      within 30 days of the disposition and on forms and in the manner provided by the division,
             4549      furnish the division with information pertaining to:
             4550          (1) all dispositions of criminal matters, including:
             4551          (a) guilty pleas;


             4552          (b) convictions;
             4553          (c) dismissals;
             4554          (d) acquittals;
             4555          (e) pleas held in abeyance;
             4556          (f) judgments of not guilty by reason of insanity for a violation of:
             4557          (i) a felony offense;
             4558          (ii) Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person; or
             4559          (iii) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons;
             4560          (g) judgments of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness;
             4561          (h) finding of mental incompetence to stand trial for a violation of:
             4562          (i) a felony offense;
             4563          (ii) Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person; or
             4564          (iii) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons; or
             4565          (i) probations granted; and
             4566          (2) orders of civil commitment under the terms of Section 62A-15-631 ;
             4567          (3) the issuance, recall, cancellation, or modification of all warrants of arrest or
             4568      commitment as described in Rule 6, Utah Rules of Criminal Procedure and Section 78B-6-303 ,
             4569      within one day of the action and in a manner provided by the division; and
             4570          (4) protective orders issued after notice and hearing, pursuant to:
             4571          (a) Title 77, Chapter 36, Cohabitant Abuse Procedures Act; or
             4572          (b) Title 78B, Chapter 7, Part 1, Cohabitant Abuse Act.
             4573          Section 78. Section 53A-1a-704 is amended to read:
             4574           53A-1a-704. Scholarship program created -- Qualifications.
             4575          (1) The Carson Smith Scholarship Program is created to award scholarships to students
             4576      with disabilities to attend a private school.
             4577          (2) To qualify for a scholarship:
             4578          (a) the student's custodial parent or legal guardian shall reside within Utah;
             4579          (b) the student shall have one or more of the following disabilities:
             4580          (i) [mental retardation] an intellectual disability;
             4581          (ii) a hearing impairment;
             4582          (iii) a speech or language impairment;


             4583          (iv) a visual impairment;
             4584          (v) a serious emotional disturbance;
             4585          (vi) an orthopedic impairment;
             4586          (vii) autism;
             4587          (viii) traumatic brain injury;
             4588          (ix) other health impairment;
             4589          (x) specific learning disabilities; or
             4590          (xi) a developmental delay, provided the student is at least five years of age, pursuant
             4591      to Subsection (2)(c), and is younger than eight years of age;
             4592          (c) the student shall be at least five years of age before September 2 of the year in
             4593      which admission to a private school is sought and under 19 years of age on the last day of the
             4594      school year as determined by the private school, or, if the individual has not graduated from
             4595      high school, will be under 22 years of age on the last day of the school year as determined by
             4596      the private school; and
             4597          (d) except as provided in Subsection (3), the student shall:
             4598          (i) be enrolled in a Utah public school in the school year prior to the school year the
             4599      student will be enrolled in a private school;
             4600          (ii) have an IEP; and
             4601          (iii) have obtained acceptance for admission to an eligible private school.
             4602          (3) The requirements of Subsection (2)(d) do not apply in the following circumstances:
             4603          (a) the student is enrolled or has obtained acceptance for admission to an eligible
             4604      private school that has previously served students with disabilities; and
             4605          (b) an assessment team is able to readily determine with reasonable certainty:
             4606          (i) that the student has a disability listed in Subsection (2)(b) and would qualify for
             4607      special education services, if enrolled in a public school; and
             4608          (ii) for the purpose of establishing the scholarship amount, the appropriate level of
             4609      special education services which should be provided to the student.
             4610          (4) (a) To receive a scholarship, the parent of a student shall submit an application for
             4611      the scholarship to the school district within which the student is enrolled:
             4612          (i) at least 60 days before the date of the first scholarship payment; and
             4613          (ii) that contains an acknowledgment by the parent that the selected school is qualified


             4614      and capable of providing the level of special education services required for the student.
             4615          (b) The board may waive the 60-day application deadline.
             4616          (5) (a) The scholarship application form shall contain the following statement:
             4617          "I acknowledge that:
             4618          (1) A private school may not provide the same level of special education services that
             4619      are provided in a public school;
             4620          (2) I will assume full financial responsibility for the education of my scholarship
             4621      student if I accept this scholarship;
             4622          (3) Acceptance of this scholarship has the same effect as a parental refusal to consent
             4623      to services pursuant to Section 614(a)(1) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20
             4624      U.S.C. Sec. 1400 et seq.; and
             4625          (4) My child may return to a public school at any time."
             4626          (b) Upon acceptance of the scholarship, the parent assumes full financial responsibility
             4627      for the education of the scholarship student.
             4628          (c) Acceptance of a scholarship has the same effect as a parental refusal to consent to
             4629      services pursuant to Section 614(a)(1) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20
             4630      U.S.C. Sec. 1400 et seq.
             4631          (d) The creation of the scholarship program or granting of a scholarship does not:
             4632          (i) imply that a public school did not provide a free and appropriate public education
             4633      for a student; or
             4634          (ii) constitute a waiver or admission by the state.
             4635          (6) (a) A scholarship shall remain in force for three years.
             4636          (b) A scholarship shall be extended for an additional three years, if:
             4637          (i) the student is evaluated by an assessment team; and
             4638          (ii) the assessment team determines that the student would qualify for special education
             4639      services, if enrolled in a public school.
             4640          (c) The assessment team shall determine the appropriate level of special education
             4641      services which should be provided to the student for the purpose of setting the scholarship
             4642      amount.
             4643          (d) A scholarship shall be extended for successive three-year periods as provided in
             4644      Subsections (6)(a) and (b):


             4645          (i) until the student graduates from high school; or
             4646          (ii) if the student does not graduate from high school, until the student is age 22.
             4647          (7) A student's parent, at any time, may remove the student from a private school and
             4648      place the student in another eligible private school and retain the scholarship.
             4649          (8) A scholarship student may not participate in a dual enrollment program pursuant to
             4650      Section 53A-11-102.5 .
             4651          (9) The parents or guardians of a scholarship student have the authority to choose the
             4652      private school that will best serve the interests and educational needs of that student, which
             4653      may be a sectarian or nonsectarian school, and to direct the scholarship resources available for
             4654      that student solely as a result of their genuine and independent private choices.
             4655          (10) (a) A school district or charter school shall notify in writing the parents or
             4656      guardians of students enrolled in the school district or charter school who have an IEP of the
             4657      availability of a scholarship to attend a private school through the Carson Smith Scholarship
             4658      Program.
             4659          (b) The notice described under Subsection (10)(a) shall:
             4660          (i) be provided no later than 30 days after the student initially qualifies for an IEP;
             4661          (ii) be provided annually no later than February 1 to all students who have an IEP; and
             4662          (iii) include the address of the Internet website maintained by the board that provides
             4663      prospective applicants with detailed program information and application forms for the Carson
             4664      Smith Scholarship Program.
             4665          (c) A school district, school within a school district, or charter school that has an
             4666      enrolled student who has an IEP shall post the address of the Internet website maintained by the
             4667      board that provides prospective applicants with detailed program information and application
             4668      forms for the Carson Smith Scholarship Program on the school district's or school's website, if
             4669      the school district or school has one.
             4670          Section 79. Section 53A-3-204 is amended to read:
             4671           53A-3-204. Duties of president.
             4672          (1) The president of each local school board shall preside at all meetings of the board,
             4673      appoint all committees, and sign all warrants ordered by the board to be drawn upon the
             4674      business administrator for school money.
             4675          (2) If the president is absent or [disabled] acquires a disability, these duties are


             4676      performed by the vice president.
             4677          Section 80. Section 53A-9-103 is amended to read:
             4678           53A-9-103. Authorized components.
             4679          Career ladders may include the following components:
             4680          (1) (a) An extended contract year for teachers, providing for additional paid
             4681      nonteaching days beyond the regular school year for curriculum development and other
             4682      professional development activities.
             4683          (b) School boards may approve individual exceptions to the extended year contract.
             4684          (2) At the option of the local school board, an extended contract year for teachers,
             4685      providing for additional paid workdays beyond the regular school year for teaching
             4686      assignments in programs for:
             4687          (a) summer school[,];
             4688          (b) remedial[, disabled,] education;
             4689          (c) students with a disability;
             4690          (d) specialized[,] education;
             4691          (e) applied technology[,];
             4692          (f) gifted and talented[,]; and
             4693          (g) adult education [programs].
             4694          (3) A fair and consistent procedure:
             4695          (a) for selecting teachers who will be given additional responsibilities; and
             4696          (b) which incorporates clearly stated job descriptions and qualifications for each level
             4697      on the career ladder.
             4698          (4) (a) A program of differentiated staffing that provides additional compensation and,
             4699      as appropriate, additional extensions of the contract year, for those who assume additional
             4700      instruction-related responsibilities such as:
             4701          (i) assisting students and mentoring beginning teachers;
             4702          (ii) curriculum and lesson plan development;
             4703          (iii) helping established teachers improve their teaching skills;
             4704          (iv) volunteer training;
             4705          (v) planning;
             4706          (vi) facilities and productivity improvements; and


             4707          (vii) educational assignments directed at establishing positive relationships with the
             4708      community, businesses, and parents.
             4709          (b) Administrative and extracurricular activities are not considered additional
             4710      instruction-related activities under this Subsection (4).
             4711          (5) (a) A well defined program of evaluation and mentoring for beginning teachers,
             4712      consistent with Subsections 53A-1a-104 (7) and 53A-6-102 (2)(a) and (b), designed to assist
             4713      those teachers during provisional years of teaching to acquire and demonstrate the skills
             4714      required of capable, successful teachers.
             4715          (b) Continuation in teaching from year to year shall be contingent upon satisfactory
             4716      teaching performance.
             4717          (6) A clear and concise explanation of the evaluation system components, including the
             4718      respective roles of parents, teachers, administrators, and the school board in the development of
             4719      the evaluation system and provisions for frequent, comprehensive evaluations of teachers with
             4720      less than three years' teaching experience and periodic evaluations of other teachers consistent
             4721      with Subsections 53A-1a-104 (7) and 53A-6-102 (2)(a) and (b).
             4722          (7) (a) A program of advancement on the career ladder contingent upon effective
             4723      teaching performance, evidence of which may include formal evaluation and assessment of
             4724      student progress.
             4725          (b) Student progress shall play a significant role in teacher evaluation.
             4726          (c) Other criteria may include formal preparation and successful teaching experience.
             4727          (8) An assessment of implementation costs.
             4728          (9) A plan for periodic review of the career ladder, including the makeup of the
             4729      reviewing entity, procedures to be followed during review, and the time schedule for the
             4730      review.
             4731          Section 81. Section 53A-15-205 is amended to read:
             4732           53A-15-205. Disability Determination Services Advisory Council -- Membership
             4733      -- Duties -- Requirements for DDDS.
             4734          (1) As used in this section, "council" means the Disability Determination Services
             4735      Advisory Council created in Subsection (2).
             4736          (2) There is created the Disability Determination Services Advisory Council to act as
             4737      an advisory council to the State Board of Education regarding the Division of Disability


             4738      Determination Services (DDDS) established under Chapter 24, Part 5, Division of Disability
             4739      Determination Services.
             4740          (3) The council is composed of the following members:
             4741          (a) the administrator of DDDS;
             4742          (b) a representative of the United States Department of Health and Human Services,
             4743      Social Security Administration, appointed by the board; and
             4744          (c) nine persons, appointed by the board in accordance with Subsections (5) and (6),
             4745      who represent a cross section of:
             4746          (i) persons with disabilities;
             4747          (ii) advocates for persons with disabilities;
             4748          (iii) health care providers;
             4749          (iv) representatives of allied state and local agencies; and
             4750          (v) representatives of the general public.
             4751          (4) The members appointed under Subsections (3)(a) and (3)(b) serve as nonvoting
             4752      members of the council.
             4753          (5) In appointing the members described in Subsection (3)(c), the board shall:
             4754          (a) solicit nominations from organizations and agencies that represent the interests of
             4755      members described in that subsection; and
             4756          (b) make every effort to create a balance in terms of geography, sex, race, ethnicity,
             4757      and type of both mental and physical disabilities.
             4758          (6) (a) In making initial appointments of members described in Subsection (3)(c), the
             4759      board shall appoint three members for two-year terms, three members for four-year terms, and
             4760      three members for six-year terms. All subsequent appointments are for four years.
             4761          (b) The board shall fill any vacancy that occurs on the council for any reason by
             4762      appointing a person for the unexpired term of the vacated member.
             4763          (c) Council members are eligible for one reappointment and serve until their successors
             4764      are appointed.
             4765          (7) Five voting members of the council constitute a quorum. The action of a majority
             4766      of a quorum represents the action of the council.
             4767          (8) Members of the council serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for
             4768      expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties.


             4769          (9) (a) The council shall annually elect a chairperson from among the membership
             4770      described, and shall adopt bylaws governing its activities.
             4771          (b) The chairperson shall set the meeting agenda.
             4772          (10) The council shall:
             4773          (a) advise DDDS and the Social Security Administration regarding its practices and
             4774      policies on the determination of claims for Social Security disability benefits;
             4775          (b) participate in the development of new internal practices and procedures of DDDS
             4776      and policies of the Social Security Administration regarding the evaluation of disability claims;
             4777          (c) recommend changes to practices and policies to ensure that DDDS is responsive to
             4778      [disabled] individuals with a disability;
             4779          (d) review the DDDS budget to ensure that it is adequate to effectively evaluate
             4780      disability claims and to meet the needs of persons with disabilities who have claims pending
             4781      with DDDS; and
             4782          (e) review and recommend changes to policies and practices of allied state and federal
             4783      agencies, health care providers, and private community organizations.
             4784          (11) The council shall annually report to the board, the governor, and the Legislative
             4785      Health and Human Services Interim Committee regarding its activities.
             4786          (12) (a) To assist the council in its duties, DDDS shall provide the necessary staff
             4787      assistance to enable the council to make timely and effective recommendations.
             4788          (b) Staff assistance may include:
             4789          (i) distributing meeting agendas;
             4790          (ii) advising the chairpersons of the council regarding relevant items for council
             4791      discussion; and
             4792          (iii) providing reports, documents, budgets, memorandums, statutes, and regulations
             4793      regarding the management of DDDS.
             4794          (c) Staff assistance shall include maintaining minutes.
             4795          Section 82. Section 53A-17a-112 is amended to read:
             4796           53A-17a-112. Preschool special education appropriation -- Extended year
             4797      program appropriation -- Appropriation for special education programs in state
             4798      institutions.
             4799          (1) (a) Money appropriated to the State Board of Education for the preschool special


             4800      education program shall be allocated to school districts to provide a free, appropriate public
             4801      education to preschool students with a disability, ages three through five.
             4802          (b) The money shall be distributed on the basis of [a school district's previous year
             4803      December 1 disabled preschool child count] the school district's count of preschool children
             4804      with a disability for December 1 of the previous year, as mandated by federal law.
             4805          (2) Money appropriated for the extended school year program for [the severely
             4806      disabled] children with a severe disability shall be limited to students with severe disabilities
             4807      with education program goals identifying significant regression and recoupment disability as
             4808      approved by the State Board of Education.
             4809          (3) (a) Money appropriated for self-contained regular special education programs may
             4810      not be used to supplement other school programs.
             4811          (b) Money in any of the other restricted line item appropriations may not be reduced
             4812      more than 2% to be used for purposes other than those specified by the appropriation, unless
             4813      otherwise provided by law.
             4814          (4) (a) The State Board of Education shall compute preschool funding by a factor of
             4815      1.47 times the current December 1 child count of eligible preschool aged three, four, and
             4816      five-year-olds times the WPU value, limited to 8% growth over the prior year December 1
             4817      count.
             4818          (b) The board shall develop guidelines to implement the funding formula for preschool
             4819      special education, and establish prevalence limits for distribution of the money.
             4820          Section 83. Section 53A-17a-127 is amended to read:
             4821           53A-17a-127. Eligibility for state-supported transportation -- Approved bus
             4822      routes -- Additional local tax.
             4823          (1) A student eligible for state-supported transportation means:
             4824          (a) a student enrolled in kindergarten through grade six who lives at least 1-1/2 miles
             4825      from school;
             4826          (b) a student enrolled in grades seven through 12 who lives at least two miles from
             4827      school; and
             4828          (c) a student enrolled in a special program offered by a school district and approved by
             4829      the State Board of Education for trainable, motor, [multiple-disabled] multiple-disability, or
             4830      other students with severe disabilities who are incapable of walking to school or where it is


             4831      unsafe for students to walk because of their disabling condition, without reference to distance
             4832      from school.
             4833          (2) If a school district implements double sessions as an alternative to new building
             4834      construction, with the approval of the State Board of Education, those affected elementary
             4835      school students residing less than 1-1/2 miles from school may be transported one way to or
             4836      from school because of safety factors relating to darkness or other hazardous conditions as
             4837      determined by the local school board.
             4838          (3) (a) The State Board of Education shall distribute transportation money to school
             4839      districts based on:
             4840          (i) an allowance per mile for approved bus routes;
             4841          (ii) an allowance per hour for approved bus routes; and
             4842          (iii) a minimum allocation for each school district eligible for transportation funding.
             4843          (b) The State Board of Education shall distribute appropriated transportation funds
             4844      based on the prior year's eligible transportation costs as legally reported under Subsection
             4845      53A-17a-126 (3).
             4846          (c) The State Board of Education shall annually review the allowance per mile and the
             4847      allowance per hour and adjust the allowances to reflect current economic conditions.
             4848          (4) (a) Approved bus routes for funding purposes shall be determined on fall data
             4849      collected by October 1.
             4850          (b) Approved route funding shall be determined on the basis of the most efficient and
             4851      economic routes.
             4852          (5) A Transportation Advisory Committee with representation from local school
             4853      superintendents, business officials, school district transportation supervisors, and the state
             4854      superintendent's staff shall serve as a review committee for addressing school transportation
             4855      needs, including recommended approved bus routes.
             4856          (6) (a) A local school board may provide for the transportation of students regardless of
             4857      the distance from school, from:
             4858          (i) general funds of the district; and
             4859          (ii) a tax rate not to exceed .0003 per dollar of taxable value imposed on the district.
             4860          (b) A local school board may use revenue from the tax described in Subsection
             4861      (6)(a)(ii) to pay for transporting students and for the replacement of school buses.


             4862          (c) (i) If a local school board levies a tax under Subsection (6)(a)(ii) of at least .0002,
             4863      the state may contribute an amount not to exceed 85% of the state average cost per mile,
             4864      contingent upon the Legislature appropriating funds for a state contribution.
             4865          (ii) The state superintendent's staff shall distribute the state contribution according to
             4866      rules enacted by the State Board of Education.
             4867          (d) (i) The amount of state guarantee money which a school district would otherwise be
             4868      entitled to receive under Subsection (6)(c) may not be reduced for the sole reason that the
             4869      district's levy is reduced as a consequence of changes in the certified tax rate under Section
             4870      59-2-924 due to changes in property valuation.
             4871          (ii) Subsection (6)(d)(i) applies for a period of two years following the change in the
             4872      certified tax rate.
             4873          Section 84. Section 53B-23-101 is amended to read:
             4874     
CHAPTER 23. INSTRUCTIONAL MATERIALS FOR STUDENTS WITH A

             4875     
DISABILITY ACT

             4876           53B-23-101. Title.
             4877          This chapter is known as the "Instructional Materials for [Disabled] Students with a
             4878      Disability Act."
             4879          Section 85. Section 54-1-1.6 is amended to read:
             4880           54-1-1.6. Pro tempore commissioner -- Appointment -- Qualifications.
             4881          (1) If a commissioner [is temporarily disabled] has a temporary disability or is
             4882      disqualified from sitting as a commissioner, the governor may appoint a commissioner pro
             4883      tempore according to the procedures and requirements of Section 67-1-1.5 .
             4884          (2) Any person appointed as a commissioner pro tempore shall possess the
             4885      qualifications required for public service commissioners in Section 54-1-1.5 and have previous
             4886      utility regulatory experience or other comparable professional experience.
             4887          (3) The governor may appoint a retired or resigned public service commissioner as a
             4888      commissioner pro tempore in order to render findings, orders, or decisions on matters which
             4889      the retired or resigned commissioner had fully heard before the commissioner's retirement or
             4890      resignation.
             4891          Section 86. Section 57-21-5 is amended to read:
             4892           57-21-5. Discriminatory practices enumerated -- Protected persons, classes


             4893      enumerated.
             4894          (1) It is a discriminatory housing practice to do any of the following because of a
             4895      person's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, source of income, or
             4896      disability:
             4897          (a) refuse to sell or rent after the making of a bona fide offer, refuse to negotiate for the
             4898      sale or rental, or otherwise deny or make unavailable any dwelling from any person;
             4899          (b) discriminate against any person in the terms, conditions, or privileges of the sale or
             4900      rental of any dwelling or in providing facilities or services in connection with the dwelling; or
             4901          (c) represent to any person that any dwelling is not available for inspection, sale, or
             4902      rental when in fact the dwelling is available.
             4903          (2) It is a discriminatory housing practice to make a representation orally or in writing
             4904      or make, print, circulate, publish, post, or cause to be made, printed, circulated, published, or
             4905      posted any notice, statement, or advertisement, or to use any application form for the sale or
             4906      rental of a dwelling, that directly or indirectly expresses any preference, limitation, or
             4907      discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, source of
             4908      income, or disability, or expresses any intent to make any such preference, limitation, or
             4909      discrimination.
             4910          (3) It is a discriminatory housing practice to induce or attempt to induce, for profit, any
             4911      person to buy, sell, or rent any dwelling by making representations about the entry or
             4912      prospective entry into the neighborhood of persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex,
             4913      national origin, familial status, source of income, or disability.
             4914          (4) A discriminatory housing practice includes:
             4915          (a) a refusal to permit, at the expense of the [disabled] person with a disability,
             4916      reasonable modifications of existing premises occupied or to be occupied by the person if the
             4917      modifications are necessary to afford that person full enjoyment of the premises, except that in
             4918      the case of a rental, the landlord, where it is reasonable to do so, may condition permission for
             4919      a modification on the renter agreeing to restore the interior of the premises, when reasonable, to
             4920      the condition that existed before the modification, reasonable wear and tear excepted;
             4921          (b) a refusal to make reasonable accommodations in rules, policies, practices, or
             4922      services when the accommodations may be necessary to afford the person equal opportunity to
             4923      use and enjoy a dwelling; and


             4924          (c) in connection with the design and construction of covered multifamily dwellings for
             4925      first occupancy after March 13, 1991, a failure to design and construct those dwellings in a
             4926      manner that:
             4927          (i) the dwellings have at least one building entrance on an accessible route, unless it is
             4928      impracticable to have one because of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site; and
             4929          (ii) with respect to dwellings with a building entrance on an accessible route:
             4930          (A) the public use and common use portions of the dwelling are readily accessible to
             4931      and usable by [disabled persons] a person with a disability;
             4932          (B) all the doors designed to allow passage into and within the dwellings are
             4933      sufficiently wide to allow passage by [disabled persons in wheelchairs] a person with a
             4934      disability who is in a wheelchair; and
             4935          (C) all premises within these dwellings contain the following features of adaptive
             4936      design:
             4937          (I) an accessible route into and through the dwelling;
             4938          (II) light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other environmental controls in
             4939      accessible locations;
             4940          (III) reinforcements in the bathroom walls to allow later installation of grab bars; and
             4941          (IV) kitchens and bathrooms such that an individual in a wheelchair can maneuver
             4942      about and use the space.
             4943          (5) This section also applies to discriminatory housing practices because of race, color,
             4944      religion, sex, national origin, familial status, source of income, or disability based upon a
             4945      person's association with another person.
             4946          Section 87. Section 58-15-2 is amended to read:
             4947           58-15-2. Definitions.
             4948          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             4949          (1) "Administrator" means a person who is charged with the general administration of a
             4950      health facility, regardless of whether that person has an ownership interest in the facility and
             4951      whether his functions and duties are shared with one or more persons.
             4952          (2) "Board" means the Health Facility Administrators Licensing Board created in
             4953      Section 58-15-3 .
             4954          (3) "Health facility" means a skilled nursing facility, an intermediate care facility, or an


             4955      intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual disability.
             4956          (4) "Intermediate care facility" means an institution which provides, on a regular basis,
             4957      health care and services to persons who do not require the degree of care and treatment a
             4958      hospital or skilled nursing facility provide, but who require health care and services in addition
             4959      to room and board.
             4960          (5) "Intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded"] people with an intellectual
             4961      disability" means an institution which provides, on a regular basis, health-related care and
             4962      service to mentally retarded individuals or persons with related conditions, who do not require
             4963      the degree of care and treatment a hospital or skilled nursing facility provide, but who require
             4964      health-related care and services above the need for room and board.
             4965          (6) "Skilled nursing facility" means an institution primarily providing inpatients with
             4966      skilled nursing care and related services on a continuing basis for patients who require mental,
             4967      medical, or nursing care, or service for the rehabilitation of [injured, disabled, or sick persons]
             4968      an injured person, a sick person, or a person with a disability.
             4969          (7) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 and as may be further
             4970      defined by rule includes:
             4971          (a) intentionally filing a false report or record, intentionally failing to file a report or
             4972      record required by state or federal law, or wilfully impeding or obstructing the filing of a
             4973      required report. These reports or records only include those which are signed in the capacity of
             4974      a licensed health facility administrator; and
             4975          (b) acting in a manner inconsistent with the health and safety of the patients of the
             4976      health facility in which he is the administrator.
             4977          Section 88. Section 58-15-3 is amended to read:
             4978           58-15-3. Health Facility Administrators Licensing Board.
             4979          (1) There is created a Health Facility Administrators Licensing Board consisting of one
             4980      administrator from a skilled nursing facility, two administrators from intermediate care
             4981      facilities, one administrator from an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded]
             4982      people with an intellectual disability, and one member from the general public.
             4983          (2) The board shall be appointed and serve in accordance with Section 58-1-201 .
             4984          (3) The duties and responsibilities of the board shall be in accordance with Sections
             4985      58-1-202 and 58-1-203 . The board, in collaboration with the division, may establish


             4986      continuing education requirements by rule. Board members may not receive compensation for
             4987      their involvement in continuing education programs.
             4988          Section 89. Section 58-17b-503 is amended to read:
             4989           58-17b-503. Exception to unprofessional conduct.
             4990          (1) For purposes of this section:
             4991          (a) ["ICFMR"] "Licensed intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
             4992      disability" means an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an
             4993      intellectual disability that is licensed as a nursing care facility or a small health care facility
             4994      under Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care Facility Licensing and Inspection Act.
             4995          (b) "Nursing care facility" has the same definition as in Section 26-21-2 .
             4996          (c) "Unit pack" means a tamper-resistant nonreusable single-dose single-drug package
             4997      with identification that indicates the lot number and expiration date for the drug.
             4998          (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of Subsection 58-17b-502 (5), a pharmacist may
             4999      accept back and redistribute any unused drug, or a part of it, after it has left the premises of the
             5000      pharmacy if:
             5001          (a) the drug was prescribed to a patient in a nursing care facility, [an ICFMR] a
             5002      licensed intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability, or state prison
             5003      facility, county jail, or state hospital;
             5004          (b) the drug was stored under the supervision of a licensed health care provider
             5005      according to manufacturer recommendations;
             5006          (c) the drug is in a unit pack or in the manufacturer's sealed container;
             5007          (d) the drug was returned to the original dispensing pharmacy;
             5008          (e) the drug was initially dispensed by a licensed pharmacist or licensed pharmacy
             5009      intern; and
             5010          (f) accepting back and redistribution of the drug complies with Federal Food and Drug
             5011      Administration and Drug Enforcement Administration regulations.
             5012          Section 90. Section 58-17b-701 is amended to read:
             5013           58-17b-701. Mentally incompetent or incapacitated pharmacist -- Division action
             5014      and procedures.
             5015          (1) As used in this section:
             5016          (a) "Incapacitated person" [has the same definition as] is as defined in Section


             5017      75-1-201 .
             5018          (b) ["Mentally ill" has the same definition as] "Mental illness" is as defined in Section
             5019      62A-15-602 .
             5020          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a pharmacist is an incapacitated
             5021      person, or that the pharmacist [is mentally ill] has a mental illness and is unable to safely
             5022      engage in the practice of pharmacy, the director shall immediately suspend the license of the
             5023      pharmacist upon the entry of the judgment of the court, without further proceedings under Title
             5024      63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, regardless of whether an appeal from the
             5025      court's ruling is pending. The director shall promptly notify the pharmacist, in writing, of the
             5026      suspension.
             5027          (3) (a) If the division and a majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe a
             5028      pharmacist, who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated person or to [be mentally
             5029      ill] have a mental illness, is incapable of practicing pharmacy with reasonable skill regarding
             5030      the safety of patients, because of illness, excessive use of drugs or alcohol, or as a result of any
             5031      mental or physical condition, the board shall recommend that the director file a petition with
             5032      the division, and cause the petition to be served upon the pharmacist with a notice of hearing
             5033      on the sole issue of the capacity of the pharmacist to competently and safely engage in the
             5034      practice of pharmacy.
             5035          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5036      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5037          (4) (a) Every pharmacist who accepts the privilege of being licensed under this chapter
             5038      gives consent to:
             5039          (i) submitting at the pharmacist's own expense to an immediate mental or physical
             5040      examination when directed in writing by the division, with the consent of a majority of the
             5041      board, to do so; and
             5042          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining practitioner's testimony or
             5043      examination in any proceeding regarding the license of the pharmacist, and waives all
             5044      objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged communication.
             5045          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5046      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5047          (i) the pharmacist [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is incapacitated or otherwise


             5048      unable to practice pharmacy with reasonable skill and safety; and
             5049          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5050      pharmacist's patients or the general public.
             5051          (c) (i) Failure of a pharmacist to submit to the examination ordered under this section
             5052      is a ground for the division's immediate suspension of the pharmacist's license by written order
             5053      of the director.
             5054          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5055      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5056      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5057      control of the pharmacist and was not related directly to the illness or incapacity of the
             5058      pharmacist.
             5059          (5) (a) A pharmacist whose license is suspended under Subsection (2) or (4) has the
             5060      right to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the license is suspended.
             5061          (b) The hearing held under this Subsection (5) shall be conducted in accordance with
             5062      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5063      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the pharmacist's
             5064      patients or the general public.
             5065          (6) A pharmacist whose license is revoked, suspended, or in any way restricted under
             5066      this section may request the division and the board to consider, at reasonable intervals,
             5067      evidence presented by the pharmacist, under procedures established by division rule, regarding
             5068      any change in the pharmacist's condition, to determine whether:
             5069          (a) the pharmacist is or is not able to safely and competently engage in the practice of
             5070      pharmacy; and
             5071          (b) the pharmacist is qualified to have the pharmacist's licensure to practice under this
             5072      chapter restored completely or in part.
             5073          Section 91. Section 58-26a-307 is amended to read:
             5074           58-26a-307. CPA emeritus status -- Renewal of license.
             5075          (1) A person currently licensed as a certified public accountant may, on any renewal
             5076      date of that license, apply for and obtain a transfer of that license to a status of CPA emeritus
             5077      registration if:
             5078          (a) (i) the licensee is at least 60 years of age as of the date of renewal;


             5079          (ii) the licensee [is disabled] has a disability; or
             5080          (iii) the board finds other good cause for believing that the licensee will not return to
             5081      the practice of public accountancy;
             5082          (b) the licensee makes an application for transfer of status and registration and pays a
             5083      registration fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             5084          (c) the licensee, on application for transfer, certifies that the licensee will not engage in
             5085      the practice of public accountancy while in the status of CPA emeritus registration; and
             5086          (d) the licensee is in good standing as a CPA and not subject to any order of
             5087      revocation, suspension, or probation.
             5088          (2) Each CPA emeritus registration shall be issued in accordance with a two-year
             5089      renewal cycle established by rule.
             5090          (3) CPA emeritus registrants may not engage in the practice of public accountancy.
             5091          (4) CPA emeritus registrants are not required to fulfill the continuing professional
             5092      education or peer review provisions of this chapter.
             5093          (5) Each CPA emeritus registrant is responsible for renewing the registration,
             5094      according to procedures that the division establishes by rule in collaboration with the board in
             5095      accordance with Section 58-1-308 .
             5096          (6) A CPA emeritus registrant may reinstate the CPA license by:
             5097          (a) submitting an application in a form prescribed by the division;
             5098          (b) paying a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ; and
             5099          (c) showing evidence of having completed the continuing professional education
             5100      requirement established by rule.
             5101          Section 92. Section 58-31b-102 is amended to read:
             5102           58-31b-102. Definitions.
             5103          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             5104          (1) "Administrative penalty" means a monetary fine or citation imposed by the division
             5105      for acts or omissions determined to constitute unprofessional or unlawful conduct in
             5106      accordance with a fine schedule established by rule and as a result of an adjudicative
             5107      proceeding conducted in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             5108          (2) "Applicant" means a person who applies for licensure or certification under this
             5109      chapter by submitting a completed application for licensure or certification and the required


             5110      fees to the department.
             5111          (3) "Approved education program" means a nursing education program that meets the
             5112      minimum standards for educational programs established under this chapter and by division
             5113      rule in collaboration with the board.
             5114          (4) "Board" means the Board of Nursing created in Section 58-31b-201 .
             5115          (5) "Consultation and referral plan" means a written plan jointly developed by an
             5116      advanced practice registered nurse and a consulting physician that permits the advanced
             5117      practice registered nurse to prescribe schedule II-III controlled substances in consultation with
             5118      the consulting physician.
             5119          (6) "Consulting physician" means a physician and surgeon or osteopathic physician and
             5120      surgeon licensed in accordance with this title who has agreed to consult with an advanced
             5121      practice registered nurse with a controlled substance license, a DEA registration number, and
             5122      who will be prescribing schedule II-III controlled substances.
             5123          (7) "Diagnosis" means the identification of and discrimination between physical and
             5124      psychosocial signs and symptoms essential to the effective execution and management of
             5125      health care.
             5126          (8) "Examinee" means a person who applies to take or does take any examination
             5127      required under this chapter for licensure.
             5128          (9) "Licensee" means a person who is licensed or certified under this chapter.
             5129          (10) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following facilities licensed by the
             5130      Department of Health pursuant to Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care Facility Licensing and
             5131      Inspection Act:
             5132          (a) a nursing care facility;
             5133          (b) a small health care facility;
             5134          (c) an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual
             5135      disability;
             5136          (d) an assisted living facility Type I or II; or
             5137          (e) a designated swing bed unit in a general hospital.
             5138          (11) "Medication aide certified" means a certified nurse aide who:
             5139          (a) has a minimum of 2,000 hours experience working as a certified nurse aide;
             5140          (b) has received a minimum of 60 hours of classroom and 40 hours of practical training


             5141      that is approved by the division in collaboration with the board, in administering routine
             5142      medications to patients or residents of long-term care facilities; and
             5143          (c) is certified by the division as a medication aide certified.
             5144          (12) (a) "Practice as a medication aide certified" means the limited practice of nursing
             5145      under the supervision, as defined by the division by administrative rule, of a licensed nurse,
             5146      involving routine patient care that requires minimal or limited specialized or general
             5147      knowledge, judgment, and skill, to an individual who:
             5148          (i) is ill, injured, infirm, [developmentally or physically disabled, mentally disabled, or
             5149      mentally retarded, and who] has a physical, mental, developmental, or intellectual disability;
             5150      and
             5151          (ii) is in a regulated long-term care facility.
             5152          (b) "Practice as a medication aide certified":
             5153          (i) includes:
             5154          (A) providing direct personal assistance or care; and
             5155          (B) administering routine medications to patients in accordance with a formulary and
             5156      protocols to be defined by the division by rule; and
             5157          (ii) does not include assisting a resident of an assisted living facility, a long term care
             5158      facility, or an intermediate care facility for [the mentally retarded] people with an intellectual
             5159      disability to self administer a medication, as regulated by the Department of Health by
             5160      administrative rule.
             5161          (13) "Practice of advanced practice registered nursing" means the practice of nursing
             5162      within the generally recognized scope and standards of advanced practice registered nursing as
             5163      defined by rule and consistent with professionally recognized preparation and education
             5164      standards of an advanced practice registered nurse by a person licensed under this chapter as an
             5165      advanced practice registered nurse. Advanced practice registered nursing includes:
             5166          (a) maintenance and promotion of health and prevention of disease;
             5167          (b) diagnosis, treatment, correction, consultation, and referral for common health
             5168      problems;
             5169          (c) prescription or administration of prescription drugs or devices including:
             5170          (i) local anesthesia;
             5171          (ii) schedule IV-V controlled substances; and


             5172          (iii) schedule II-III controlled substances in accordance with a consultation and referral
             5173      plan; or
             5174          (d) the provision of preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative anesthesia care and
             5175      related services upon the request of a licensed health care professional by an advanced practice
             5176      registered nurse specializing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, including:
             5177          (i) preanesthesia preparation and evaluation including:
             5178          (A) performing a preanesthetic assessment of the patient;
             5179          (B) ordering and evaluating appropriate lab and other studies to determine the health of
             5180      the patient; and
             5181          (C) selecting, ordering, or administering appropriate medications;
             5182          (ii) anesthesia induction, maintenance, and emergence, including:
             5183          (A) selecting and initiating the planned anesthetic technique;
             5184          (B) selecting and administering anesthetics and adjunct drugs and fluids; and
             5185          (C) administering general, regional, and local anesthesia;
             5186          (iii) postanesthesia follow-up care, including:
             5187          (A) evaluating the patient's response to anesthesia and implementing corrective
             5188      actions; and
             5189          (B) selecting, ordering, or administering the medications and studies listed in
             5190      Subsection (13)(d); and
             5191          (iv) other related services within the scope of practice of a certified registered nurse
             5192      anesthetist, including:
             5193          (A) emergency airway management;
             5194          (B) advanced cardiac life support; and
             5195          (C) the establishment of peripheral, central, and arterial invasive lines; and
             5196          (v) for purposes of Subsection (13)(d), "upon the request of a licensed health care
             5197      professional":
             5198          (A) means a health care professional practicing within the scope of the health care
             5199      professional's license, requests anesthesia services for a specific patient; and
             5200          (B) does not require an advanced practice registered nurse specializing as a certified
             5201      registered nurse anesthetist to enter into a consultation and referral plan or obtain additional
             5202      authority to select, administer, or provide preoperative, intraoperative, or postoperative


             5203      anesthesia care and services.
             5204          (14) "Practice of nursing" means assisting individuals or groups to maintain or attain
             5205      optimal health, implementing a strategy of care to accomplish defined goals and evaluating
             5206      responses to care and treatment. The practice of nursing requires substantial specialized or
             5207      general knowledge, judgment, and skill based upon principles of the biological, physical,
             5208      behavioral, and social sciences, and includes:
             5209          (a) initiating and maintaining comfort measures;
             5210          (b) promoting and supporting human functions and responses;
             5211          (c) establishing an environment conducive to well-being;
             5212          (d) providing health counseling and teaching;
             5213          (e) collaborating with health care professionals on aspects of the health care regimen;
             5214          (f) performing delegated procedures only within the education, knowledge, judgment,
             5215      and skill of the licensee; and
             5216          (g) delegating nurse interventions that may be performed by others and are not in
             5217      conflict with this chapter.
             5218          (15) "Practice of practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts in the
             5219      generally recognized scope of practice of licensed practical nurses as defined by rule and as
             5220      provided in this Subsection (15) by a person licensed under this chapter as a licensed practical
             5221      nurse and under the direction of a registered nurse, licensed physician, or other specified health
             5222      care professional as defined by rule. Practical nursing acts include:
             5223          (a) contributing to the assessment of the health status of individuals and groups;
             5224          (b) participating in the development and modification of the strategy of care;
             5225          (c) implementing appropriate aspects of the strategy of care;
             5226          (d) maintaining safe and effective nursing care rendered to a patient directly or
             5227      indirectly; and
             5228          (e) participating in the evaluation of responses to interventions.
             5229          (16) "Practice of registered nursing" means performing acts of nursing as provided in
             5230      this Subsection (16) by a person licensed under this chapter as a registered nurse within the
             5231      generally recognized scope of practice of registered nurses as defined by rule. Registered
             5232      nursing acts include:
             5233          (a) assessing the health status of individuals and groups;


             5234          (b) identifying health care needs;
             5235          (c) establishing goals to meet identified health care needs;
             5236          (d) planning a strategy of care;
             5237          (e) prescribing nursing interventions to implement the strategy of care;
             5238          (f) implementing the strategy of care;
             5239          (g) maintaining safe and effective nursing care that is rendered to a patient directly or
             5240      indirectly;
             5241          (h) evaluating responses to interventions;
             5242          (i) teaching the theory and practice of nursing; and
             5243          (j) managing and supervising the practice of nursing.
             5244          (17) "Routine medications":
             5245          (a) means established medications administered to a medically stable individual as
             5246      determined by a licensed health care practitioner or in consultation with a licensed medical
             5247      practitioner; and
             5248          (b) is limited to medications that are administered by the following routes:
             5249          (i) oral;
             5250          (ii) sublingual;
             5251          (iii) buccal;
             5252          (iv) eye;
             5253          (v) ear;
             5254          (vi) nasal;
             5255          (vii) rectal;
             5256          (viii) vaginal;
             5257          (ix) skin ointments, topical including patches and transdermal;
             5258          (x) premeasured medication delivered by aerosol/nebulizer; and
             5259          (xi) medications delivered by metered hand-held inhalers.
             5260          (18) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-31b-501 .
             5261          (19) "Unlicensed assistive personnel" means any unlicensed person, regardless of title,
             5262      to whom tasks are delegated by a licensed nurse as permitted by rule and in accordance with
             5263      the standards of the profession.
             5264          (20) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-31b-502 and


             5265      as may be further defined by rule.
             5266          Section 93. Section 58-31b-401 is amended to read:
             5267           58-31b-401. Grounds for denial of licensure or certification and disciplinary
             5268      proceedings.
             5269          (1) Grounds for refusal to issue a license to an applicant, for refusal to renew the
             5270      license of a licensee, to revoke, suspend, restrict, or place on probation the license of a licensee,
             5271      to issue a public or private reprimand to a licensee, and to issue cease and desist orders shall be
             5272      in accordance with Section 58-1-401 .
             5273          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a nurse is an incapacitated person as
             5274      defined in Section 75-1-201 or that the nurse [is mentally ill] has a mental illness, as defined in
             5275      Section 62A-15-602 , and unable to safely engage in the practice of nursing, the director shall
             5276      immediately suspend the license of the nurse upon the entry of the judgment of the court,
             5277      without further proceedings under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act,
             5278      regardless of whether an appeal from the court's ruling is pending. The director shall promptly
             5279      notify the nurse in writing of the suspension.
             5280          (3) (a) If the division and the majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe a
             5281      nurse who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated person or to [be mentally ill] have
             5282      a mental illness, is incapable of practicing nursing with reasonable skill regarding the safety of
             5283      patients, because of illness, excessive use of drugs or alcohol, or as a result of any mental or
             5284      physical condition, the board shall recommend that the director file a petition with the division,
             5285      and cause the petition to be served upon the nurse with a notice of hearing on the sole issue of
             5286      the capacity of the nurse to competently, safely engage in the practice of nursing.
             5287          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5288      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5289          (4) (a) Every nurse who accepts the privilege of being licensed under this chapter gives
             5290      consent to:
             5291          (i) submitting to an immediate mental or physical examination, at the nurse's expense
             5292      and by a division-approved practitioner selected by the nurse when directed in writing by the
             5293      division and a majority of the board to do so; and
             5294          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining practitioner's testimony or
             5295      examination, and waives all objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged


             5296      communication.
             5297          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5298      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5299          (i) the nurse [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is incapacitated, or otherwise
             5300      unable to practice nursing with reasonable skill and safety; and
             5301          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5302      nurse's patients or the general public.
             5303          (c) (i) Failure of a nurse to submit to the examination ordered under this section is a
             5304      ground for the division's immediate suspension of the nurse's license by written order of the
             5305      director.
             5306          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5307      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5308      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5309      control of the nurse and was not related directly to the illness or incapacity of the nurse.
             5310          (5) (a) A nurse whose license is suspended under Subsection (2), (3), or (4)(c) has the
             5311      right to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the license is suspended.
             5312          (b) The hearing held under this Subsection (5) shall be conducted in accordance with
             5313      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5314      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the nurse's patients or
             5315      the general public.
             5316          (6) A nurse whose license is revoked, suspended, or in any way restricted under this
             5317      section may request the division and the board to consider, at reasonable intervals, evidence
             5318      presented by the nurse, under procedures established by division rule, regarding any change in
             5319      the nurse's condition, to determine whether:
             5320          (a) the nurse is or is not able to safely and competently engage in the practice of
             5321      nursing; and
             5322          (b) the nurse is qualified to have the nurse's license to practice under this chapter
             5323      restored completely or in part.
             5324          (7) Nothing in Section 63G-2-206 may be construed as limiting the authority of the
             5325      division to report current significant investigative information to the coordinated licensure
             5326      information system for transmission to party states as required of the division by Article VII of


             5327      the Nurse Licensure Compact in Section 58-31c-102 .
             5328          (8) For purposes of this section:
             5329          (a) "licensed" or "license" includes "certified" or "certification" under this chapter; and
             5330          (b) any terms or conditions applied to the word "nurse" in this section also apply to a
             5331      medication aide certified.
             5332          Section 94. Section 58-60-114 is amended to read:
             5333           58-60-114. Confidentiality -- Exemptions.
             5334          (1) A mental health therapist under this chapter may not disclose any confidential
             5335      communication with a client or patient without the express consent of:
             5336          (a) the client or patient;
             5337          (b) the parent or legal guardian of a minor client or patient; or
             5338          (c) the authorized agent of a client or patient.
             5339          (2) A mental health therapist under this chapter is not subject to Subsection (1) if:
             5340          (a) [he] the mental health therapist is permitted or required by state or federal law, rule,
             5341      regulation, or order to report or disclose any confidential communication, including:
             5342          (i) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 3, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, or Exploitation of
             5343      [Disabled] a Vulnerable Adult;
             5344          (ii) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Part 4, Child Abuse or Neglect Reporting
             5345      Requirements;
             5346          (iii) reporting under Title 78B, Chapter 3, Part 5, Limitation of Therapist's Duty to
             5347      Warn; or
             5348          (iv) reporting of a communicable disease as required under Section 26-6-6 ;
             5349          (b) the disclosure is part of an administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding and is made
             5350      under an exemption from evidentiary privilege under Rule 506, Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             5351          (c) the disclosure is made under a generally recognized professional or ethical standard
             5352      that authorizes or requires the disclosure.
             5353          Section 95. Section 58-60-509 is amended to read:
             5354           58-60-509. Confidentiality -- Exemptions.
             5355          (1) A licensee under this part may not disclose any confidential communication with a
             5356      client or patient without the express consent of:
             5357          (a) the client or patient;


             5358          (b) the parent or legal guardian of a minor client or patient; or
             5359          (c) the authorized agent of a client or patient.
             5360          (2) A licensee under this part is not subject to Subsection (1) if:
             5361          (a) [he] the licensee is permitted or required by state or federal law, rule, regulation, or
             5362      order to report or disclose any confidential communication, including:
             5363          (i) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 3, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, or Exploitation of a
             5364      Vulnerable [Adults] Adult;
             5365          (ii) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Part 4, Child Abuse or Neglect Reporting
             5366      Requirements;
             5367          (iii) reporting under Title 78B, Chapter 3, Part 5, Limitation of Therapist's Duty to
             5368      Warn; or
             5369          (iv) reporting of a communicable disease as required under Section 26-6-6 ;
             5370          (b) the disclosure is part of an administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding and is made
             5371      under an exemption from evidentiary privilege under Rule 506, Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             5372          (c) the disclosure is made under a generally recognized professional or ethical standard
             5373      that authorizes or requires the disclosure.
             5374          Section 96. Section 58-61-602 is amended to read:
             5375           58-61-602. Confidentiality -- Exemptions.
             5376          (1) A psychologist under this chapter may not disclose any confidential communication
             5377      with a client or patient without the express consent of:
             5378          (a) the client or patient;
             5379          (b) the parent or legal guardian of a minor client or patient; or
             5380          (c) the authorized agent of a client or patient.
             5381          (2) A psychologist under this chapter is not subject to Subsection (1) if:
             5382          (a) [he] the psychologist is permitted or required by state or federal law, rule,
             5383      regulation, or order to report or disclose any confidential communication, including:
             5384          (i) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 3, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, or Exploitation of
             5385      [Disabled] a Vulnerable Adult;
             5386          (ii) reporting under Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Part 4, Child Abuse or Neglect Reporting
             5387      Requirements;
             5388          (iii) reporting under Title 78B, Chapter 3, Part 5, Limitation of Therapist's Duty to


             5389      Warn; or
             5390          (iv) reporting of a communicable disease as required under Section 26-6-6 ;
             5391          (b) the disclosure is part of an administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding and is made
             5392      under an exemption from evidentiary privilege under Rule 506, Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             5393          (c) the disclosure is made under a generally recognized professional or ethical standard
             5394      that authorizes or requires the disclosure.
             5395          Section 97. Section 58-67-601 is amended to read:
             5396           58-67-601. Mentally incompetent or incapacitated physician.
             5397          (1) As used in this section:
             5398          (a) "Incapacitated person" [has the same definition as] is as defined in Section
             5399      75-1-201 .
             5400          (b) ["Mentally ill" has the same definition as] "Mental illness" is as defined in Section
             5401      62A-15-602 .
             5402          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a physician is an incapacitated
             5403      person or that the physician [is mentally ill] has a mental illness and is unable to safely engage
             5404      in the practice of medicine, the director shall immediately suspend the license of the physician
             5405      upon the entry of the judgment of the court, without further proceedings under Title 63G,
             5406      Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, regardless of whether an appeal from the court's
             5407      ruling is pending. The director shall promptly notify the physician, in writing, of the
             5408      suspension.
             5409          (3) (a) If the division and a majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe a
             5410      physician, who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated person or to [be mentally ill]
             5411      have a mental illness, is incapable of practicing medicine with reasonable skill regarding the
             5412      safety of patients, because of illness, excessive use of drugs or alcohol, or as a result of any
             5413      mental or physical condition, the board shall recommend that the director file a petition with
             5414      the division, and cause the petition to be served upon the physician with a notice of hearing on
             5415      the sole issue of the capacity of the physician to competently and safely engage in the practice
             5416      of medicine.
             5417          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 , and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5418      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5419          (4) (a) Every physician who accepts the privilege of being licensed under this chapter


             5420      gives consent to:
             5421          (i) submitting at the physician's own expense to an immediate mental or physical
             5422      examination when directed in writing by the division and a majority of the board to do so; and
             5423          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining physician's testimony or
             5424      examination, and waives all objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged
             5425      communication.
             5426          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5427      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5428          (i) the physician [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is incapacitated, or otherwise
             5429      unable to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety; and
             5430          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5431      physician's patients or the general public.
             5432          (c) (i) Failure of a physician to submit to the examination ordered under this section is
             5433      a ground for the division's immediate suspension of the physician's license by written order of
             5434      the director.
             5435          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5436      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5437      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5438      control of the physician and was not related directly to the illness or incapacity of the
             5439      physician.
             5440          (5) (a) A physician whose license is suspended under Subsection (2) or (3) has the right
             5441      to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the license is suspended.
             5442          (b) The hearing held under this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with
             5443      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5444      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the physician's
             5445      patients or the general public.
             5446          (6) A physician whose license is revoked, suspended, or in any way restricted under
             5447      this section may request the division and the board to consider, at reasonable intervals,
             5448      evidence presented by the physician, under procedures established by division rule, regarding
             5449      any change in the physician's condition, to determine whether:
             5450          (a) the physician is or is not able to safely and competently engage in the practice of


             5451      medicine; and
             5452          (b) the physician is qualified to have the physician's license to practice under this
             5453      chapter restored completely or in part.
             5454          Section 98. Section 58-68-601 is amended to read:
             5455           58-68-601. Mentally incompetent or incapacitated osteopathic physician.
             5456          (1) As used in this section:
             5457          (a) "Incapacitated person" [has the same definition as] is as defined in Section
             5458      75-1-201 .
             5459          (b) ["Mentally ill" has the same definition as] "Mental illness" is as defined in Section
             5460      62A-15-602 .
             5461          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines an osteopathic physician and
             5462      surgeon is an incapacitated person or that the physician or surgeon [is mentally ill] has a mental
             5463      illness and is unable to safely engage in the practice of medicine, the director shall immediately
             5464      suspend the license of the osteopathic physician and surgeon upon the entry of the judgment of
             5465      the court, without further proceedings under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures
             5466      Act, regardless of whether an appeal from the court's ruling is pending. The director shall
             5467      promptly notify the osteopathic physician and surgeon, in writing, of the suspension.
             5468          (3) (a) If the division and a majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe an
             5469      osteopathic physician and surgeon, who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated
             5470      person or to [be mentally ill] have a mental illness, is incapable of practicing osteopathic
             5471      medicine with reasonable skill regarding the safety of patients, because of illness, excessive use
             5472      of drugs or alcohol, or as a result of any mental or physical condition, the board shall
             5473      recommend that the director file a petition with the division, and cause the petition to be served
             5474      upon the osteopathic physician and surgeon with a notice of hearing on the sole issue of the
             5475      capacity of the osteopathic physician and surgeon to competently and safety engage in the
             5476      practice of medicine.
             5477          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 , and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5478      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5479          (4) (a) Every osteopathic physician and surgeon who accepts the privilege of being
             5480      licensed under this chapter gives consent to:
             5481          (i) submitting at the physician's or surgeon's own expense to an immediate mental or


             5482      physical examination when directed in writing by the division and a majority of the board to do
             5483      so; and
             5484          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining physician's testimony or
             5485      examination, and waives all objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged
             5486      communication.
             5487          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5488      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5489          (i) the osteopathic physician and surgeon [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is
             5490      incapacitated, or otherwise unable to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety; and
             5491          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5492      osteopathic physician and surgeon's patients or the general public.
             5493          (c) (i) Failure of an osteopathic physician and surgeon to submit to the examination
             5494      ordered under this section is a ground for the division's immediate suspension of the
             5495      osteopathic physician and surgeon's license by written order of the director.
             5496          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5497      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5498      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5499      control of the osteopathic physician and surgeon and was not related directly to the illness or
             5500      incapacity of the osteopathic physician and surgeon.
             5501          (5) (a) An osteopathic physician and surgeon whose license is suspended under
             5502      Subsection (2) or (3) has the right to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the
             5503      license is suspended.
             5504          (b) The hearing held under this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with
             5505      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5506      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the osteopathic
             5507      physician and surgeon's patients or the general public.
             5508          (6) An osteopathic physician and surgeon whose license is revoked, suspended, or in
             5509      any way restricted under this section may request the division and the board to consider, at
             5510      reasonable intervals, evidence presented by the osteopathic physician and surgeon, under
             5511      procedures established by division rule, regarding any change in the osteopathic physician and
             5512      surgeon's condition, to determine whether:


             5513          (a) the physician or surgeon is or is not able to safely and competently engage in the
             5514      practice of medicine; and
             5515          (b) the physician or surgeon is qualified to have the physician's or surgeon's license to
             5516      practice under this chapter restored completely or in part.
             5517          Section 99. Section 58-69-601 is amended to read:
             5518           58-69-601. Mentally incompetent or incapacitated dentist or dental hygienist.
             5519          (1) As used in this section:
             5520          (a) "Incapacitated person" [has the same definition as] is as defined in Section
             5521      75-1-201 .
             5522          (b) ["Mentally ill" has the same definition as] "Mental illness" is as defined in Section
             5523      62A-15-602 .
             5524          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a dentist or dental hygienist is an
             5525      incapacitated person or that the dentist or hygienist [is mentally ill] has a mental illness and is
             5526      unable to safely engage in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene, the director shall
             5527      immediately suspend the license of the dentist or dental hygienist upon the entry of the
             5528      judgment of the court, without further proceedings under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative
             5529      Procedures Act, regardless of whether an appeal from the court's ruling is pending. The
             5530      director shall promptly notify the dentist or dental hygienist, in writing, of the suspension.
             5531          (3) (a) If the division and a majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe a
             5532      dentist or dental hygienist, who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated person or to
             5533      [be mentally ill] have a mental illness, is incapable of practicing dentistry or dental hygiene
             5534      with reasonable skill regarding the safety of patients, because of illness, excessive use of drugs
             5535      or alcohol, or as a result of any mental or physical condition, the board shall recommend that
             5536      the director file a petition with the division, and cause the petition to be served upon the dentist
             5537      or dental hygienist with a notice of hearing on the sole issue of the capacity of the dentist or
             5538      dental hygienist to competently and safely engage in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene.
             5539          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5540      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5541          (4) (a) Every dentist or dental hygienist who accepts the privilege of being licensed
             5542      under this chapter gives consent to:
             5543          (i) submitting at the dentist or dental hygienist's own expense to an immediate mental


             5544      or physical examination when directed in writing by the division and a majority of the board to
             5545      do so; and
             5546          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining practitioner's testimony or
             5547      examination, and waives all objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged
             5548      communication.
             5549          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5550      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5551          (i) the dentist or dental hygienist [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is
             5552      incapacitated, or otherwise unable to practice dentistry or dental hygiene with reasonable skill
             5553      and safety; and
             5554          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5555      dentist's or dental hygienist's patients or the general public.
             5556          (c) (i) Failure of a dentist or dental hygienist to submit to the examination ordered
             5557      under this section is a ground for the division's immediate suspension of the dentist's or dental
             5558      hygienist's license by written order of the director.
             5559          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5560      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5561      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5562      control of the dentist or dental hygienist and was not related directly to the illness or incapacity
             5563      of the dentist or dental hygienist.
             5564          (5) (a) A dentist or dental hygienist whose license is suspended under Subsection (2) or
             5565      (3) has the right to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the license is
             5566      suspended.
             5567          (b) The hearing held under this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with
             5568      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5569      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the dentist's or dental
             5570      hygienist's patients or the general public.
             5571          (6) A dentist or dental hygienist whose license is revoked, suspended, or in any way
             5572      restricted under this section may request the division and the board to consider, at reasonable
             5573      intervals, evidence presented by the dentist or dental hygienist, under procedures established by
             5574      division rule, regarding any change in the dentist's or dental hygienist's condition, to determine


             5575      whether:
             5576          (a) the dentist or dental hygienist is or is not able to safely and competently engage in
             5577      the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene; and
             5578          (b) the dentist or dental hygienist is qualified to have the dentist or dental hygienist's
             5579      licensure to practice under this chapter restored completely or in part.
             5580          Section 100. Section 58-71-601 is amended to read:
             5581           58-71-601. Mentally incompetent or incapacitated naturopathic physician.
             5582          (1) As used in this section:
             5583          (a) "Incapacitated person" [has the same definition as] is as defined in Section
             5584      75-1-201 .
             5585          (b) ["Mentally ill" has the same definition as] "Mental illness" is as defined in Section
             5586      62A-15-602 .
             5587          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a naturopathic physician is an
             5588      incapacitated person or that the physician [is mentally ill and] has a mental illness and is unable
             5589      to safely engage in the practice of medicine, the director shall immediately suspend the license
             5590      of the naturopathic physician upon the entry of the judgment of the court, without further
             5591      proceedings under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, regardless of whether
             5592      an appeal from the court's ruling is pending. The director shall promptly notify the
             5593      naturopathic physician, in writing, of the suspension.
             5594          (3) (a) If the division and a majority of the board find reasonable cause to believe a
             5595      naturopathic physician, who is not determined judicially to be an incapacitated person or to [be
             5596      mentally ill] have a mental illness, is incapable of practicing medicine with reasonable skill
             5597      regarding the safety of patients, because of illness, excessive use of drugs or alcohol, or as a
             5598      result of any mental or physical condition, the board shall recommend that the director file a
             5599      petition with the division, and cause the petition to be served upon the naturopathic physician
             5600      with a notice of hearing on the sole issue of the capacity of the naturopathic physician to
             5601      competently and safely engage in the practice of medicine.
             5602          (b) The hearing shall be conducted under Section 58-1-109 , and Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             5603      Administrative Procedures Act, except as provided in Subsection (4).
             5604          (4) (a) Every naturopathic physician who accepts the privilege of being licensed under
             5605      this chapter gives consent to:


             5606          (i) submitting at the physician's own expense to an immediate mental or physical
             5607      examination when directed in writing by the division and a majority of the board to do so; and
             5608          (ii) the admissibility of the reports of the examining physician's testimony or
             5609      examination, and waives all objections on the ground the reports constitute a privileged
             5610      communication.
             5611          (b) The examination may be ordered by the division, with the consent of a majority of
             5612      the board, only upon a finding of reasonable cause to believe:
             5613          (i) the naturopathic physician [is mentally ill or] has a mental illness, is incapacitated,
             5614      or otherwise unable to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety; and
             5615          (ii) immediate action by the division and the board is necessary to prevent harm to the
             5616      naturopathic physician's patients or the general public.
             5617          (c) (i) Failure of a naturopathic physician to submit to the examination ordered under
             5618      this section is a ground for the division's immediate suspension of the naturopathic physician's
             5619      license by written order of the director.
             5620          (ii) The division may enter the order of suspension without further compliance with
             5621      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, unless the division finds the failure to
             5622      submit to the examination ordered under this section was due to circumstances beyond the
             5623      control of the naturopathic physician and was not related directly to the illness or incapacity of
             5624      the naturopathic physician.
             5625          (5) (a) A naturopathic physician whose license is suspended under Subsection (2) or
             5626      (3) has the right to a hearing to appeal the suspension within 10 days after the license is
             5627      suspended.
             5628          (b) The hearing held under this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with
             5629      Sections 58-1-108 and 58-1-109 for the sole purpose of determining if sufficient basis exists
             5630      for the continuance of the order of suspension in order to prevent harm to the naturopathic
             5631      physician's patients or the general public.
             5632          (6) A naturopathic physician whose license is revoked, suspended, or in any way
             5633      restricted under this section may request the division and the board to consider, at reasonable
             5634      intervals, evidence presented by the naturopathic physician, under procedures established by
             5635      division rule, regarding any change in the naturopathic physician's condition, to determine
             5636      whether:


             5637          (a) the physician is or is not able to safely and competently engage in the practice of
             5638      medicine; and
             5639          (b) the physician is qualified to have the physician's license to practice under this
             5640      chapter restored completely or in part.
             5641          Section 101. Section 58-73-401 is amended to read:
             5642           58-73-401. Grounds for denial of license -- Disciplinary proceedings -- Limitation
             5643      on division actions.
             5644          (1) Grounds for the following are in accordance with Section 58-1-401 :
             5645          (a) refusing to issue a license to an applicant;
             5646          (b) refusing to renew the license of a licensee;
             5647          (c) revoking, suspending, restricting, or placing on probation the license of a licensee;
             5648          (d) issuing a public or private reprimand to a licensee; and
             5649          (e) issuing a cease and desist order.
             5650          (2) If a court of competent jurisdiction determines a chiropractic physician is
             5651      incompetent, mentally incompetent, incapable, or [mentally ill] has a mental illness, the
             5652      director shall suspend the license of that chiropractic physician, even if an appeal is pending.
             5653          (3) (a) If it appears to the board there is reasonable cause to believe a chiropractic
             5654      physician who has not been judicially determined to be incompetent, mentally incompetent,
             5655      incapable, or [mentally ill] to have a mental illness is unable to practice chiropractic with
             5656      reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness, drunkenness, excessive use of drugs,
             5657      narcotics, chemicals, or any other substance, or as a result of any mental or physical condition,
             5658      a petition shall be served upon that chiropractic physician for a hearing on the sole issue of the
             5659      capacity of the chiropractic physician to conduct properly the practice of the chiropractic
             5660      physician.
             5661          (b) Every chiropractic physician licensed by this state is considered to have:
             5662          (i) agreed to submit to a mental or physical examination upon receipt of a written
             5663      direction given by the division with the approval of the board; and
             5664          (ii) waived all objections to the admissibility of the examining chiropractic physician's
             5665      or other practitioner's testimony or examination reports on the ground they constitute a
             5666      privileged communication.
             5667          (c) Failure of a chiropractic physician to submit to an examination under Subsection


             5668      (3)(b) when directed by the division, unless the failure was due to circumstances beyond his
             5669      control, constitutes grounds for immediate suspension of the chiropractic physician's license
             5670      and an order of suspension of the license may be entered by the division without the taking of
             5671      testimony or the presentation of evidence.
             5672          (d) A chiropractic physician whose license is suspended under this section shall, at
             5673      reasonable intervals, be afforded the opportunity to demonstrate [he] the chiropractic physician
             5674      can resume the competent practice of chiropractic with reasonable skill and safety to patients.
             5675          (e) Neither the proceedings of the board nor the action taken by it under this section
             5676      may be used against a chiropractic physician in any other proceedings.
             5677          (4) The terms of revocation, suspension, or probation under this chapter may include:
             5678          (a) revoking the license to practice either permanently or with a stated date before
             5679      which the individual may not apply for licensure;
             5680          (b) suspending, limiting, or restricting the license to practice chiropractic for up to five
             5681      years, including limiting the practice of the person to, or excluding from the person's practice,
             5682      one or more specific branches of medicine, including any limitation on practice within the
             5683      specified branches;
             5684          (c) requiring the license holder to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
             5685      physicians approved by or designated by the board, as a condition for licensure;
             5686          (d) requiring the license holder to participate in a program of education prescribed by
             5687      the board;
             5688          (e) requiring the license holder to practice under the direction of a physician designated
             5689      by the board for a specified period of time; or
             5690          (f) other appropriate terms and conditions determined by the division in collaboration
             5691      with the board to be necessary to protect the public health, safety, or welfare.
             5692          Section 102. Section 59-2-1101 is amended to read:
             5693           59-2-1101. Exemption of certain property -- Proportional payments for certain
             5694      property -- County legislative body authority to adopt rules or ordinances.
             5695          (1) For purposes of this section:
             5696          (a) "exclusive use exemption" means a property tax exemption under Subsection
             5697      (3)(d), for property owned by a nonprofit entity that is used exclusively for religious,
             5698      charitable, or educational purposes;


             5699          (b) "government exemption" means a property tax exemption provided under
             5700      Subsection (3)(a), (b), or (c); and
             5701          (c) "tax relief" means an exemption, deferral, or abatement that is authorized by this
             5702      part.
             5703          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(b) or (c), tax relief may be allowed only if
             5704      the claimant is the owner of the property as of January 1 of the year the exemption is claimed.
             5705          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(a), a claimant shall collect and pay a proportional
             5706      tax based upon the length of time that the property was not owned by the claimant if:
             5707          (i) the claimant is a federal, state, or political subdivision entity described in
             5708      Subsection (3)(a), (b), or (c); or
             5709          (ii) pursuant to Subsection (3)(d):
             5710          (A) the claimant is a nonprofit entity; and
             5711          (B) the property is used exclusively for religious, charitable, or educational purposes.
             5712          (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(a), a claimant may be allowed a veteran's
             5713      exemption in accordance with Sections 59-2-1104 and 59-2-1105 regardless of whether the
             5714      claimant is the owner of the property as of January 1 of the year the exemption is claimed if the
             5715      claimant is:
             5716          (i) the unmarried surviving spouse of:
             5717          (A) a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability as defined in Section 59-2-1104 ; or
             5718          (B) a veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty as defined in Section
             5719      59-2-1104; or
             5720          (ii) a minor orphan of:
             5721          (A) a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability as defined in Section 59-2-1104 ; or
             5722          (B) a veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty as defined in Section
             5723      59-2-1104 .
             5724          (3) The following property is exempt from taxation:
             5725          (a) property exempt under the laws of the United States;
             5726          (b) property of:
             5727          (i) the state;
             5728          (ii) school districts; and
             5729          (iii) public libraries;


             5730          (c) except as provided in Title 11, Chapter 13, Interlocal Cooperation Act, property of:
             5731          (i) counties;
             5732          (ii) cities;
             5733          (iii) towns;
             5734          (iv) local districts;
             5735          (v) special service districts; and
             5736          (vi) all other political subdivisions of the state;
             5737          (d) property owned by a nonprofit entity which is used exclusively for religious,
             5738      charitable, or educational purposes;
             5739          (e) places of burial not held or used for private or corporate benefit;
             5740          (f) farm equipment and machinery;
             5741          (g) intangible property; and
             5742          (h) the ownership interest of an out-of-state public agency, as defined in Section
             5743      11-13-103 :
             5744          (i) if that ownership interest is in property providing additional project capacity, as
             5745      defined in Section 11-13-103 ; and
             5746          (ii) on which a fee in lieu of ad valorem property tax is payable under Section
             5747      11-13-302 .
             5748          (4) Subject to Subsection (5), if property that is allowed an exclusive use exemption or
             5749      a government exemption ceases to qualify for the exemption because of a change in the
             5750      ownership of the property:
             5751          (a) the new owner of the property shall pay a proportional tax based upon the period of
             5752      time:
             5753          (i) beginning on the day that the new owner acquired the property; and
             5754          (ii) ending on the last day of the calendar year during which the new owner acquired
             5755      the property; and
             5756          (b) the new owner of the property and the person from whom the new owner acquires
             5757      the property shall notify the county assessor, in writing, of the change in ownership of the
             5758      property within 30 days from the day that the new owner acquires the property.
             5759          (5) Notwithstanding Subsection (4)(a), the proportional tax described in Subsection
             5760      (4)(a):


             5761          (a) is subject to any exclusive use exemption or government exemption that the
             5762      property is entitled to under the new ownership of the property; and
             5763          (b) applies only to property that is acquired after December 31, 2005.
             5764          (6) A county legislative body may adopt rules or ordinances to:
             5765          (a) effectuate the exemptions, deferrals, abatements, or other relief from taxation
             5766      provided in this part; and
             5767          (b) designate one or more persons to perform the functions given the county under this
             5768      part.
             5769          Section 103. Section 59-2-1104 is amended to read:
             5770           59-2-1104. Definitions -- Veteran's exemption -- Amount of veteran's exemption.
             5771          (1) As used in this section and Section 59-2-1105 :
             5772          (a) "Adjusted taxable value limit" means:
             5773          (i) for the year 2005, $200,000; and
             5774          (ii) for each year after 2005, the amount of the adjusted taxable value limit for the
             5775      previous year, plus an amount calculated by multiplying the amount of the adjusted taxable
             5776      value limit for the previous year by the actual percent change in the Consumer Price Index
             5777      during the previous calendar year[;].
             5778          (b) "Claimant" means:
             5779          (i) a [disabled] veteran with a disability who files an application under Section
             5780      59-2-1105 for a veteran's exemption;
             5781          (ii) the unmarried surviving spouse:
             5782          (A) of a:
             5783          (I) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5784          (II) veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty; and
             5785          (B) who files an application under Section 59-2-1105 for a veteran's exemption; or
             5786          (iii) a minor orphan:
             5787          (A) of a:
             5788          (I) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5789          (II) veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty; and
             5790          (B) who files an application under Section 59-2-1105 for a veteran's exemption[;].
             5791          (c) "Consumer price index" is as described in Section 1(f)(4), Internal Revenue Code,


             5792      and defined in Section 1(f)(5), Internal Revenue Code[;].
             5793          (d) "Deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability" means a deceased person who was a
             5794      [disabled] veteran with a disability at the time the person died[;].
             5795          [(f)] (e) "Military entity" means:
             5796          (i) the federal Department of Veterans Affairs; or
             5797          (ii) a component of the armed forces of:
             5798          (A) the United States; or
             5799          (B) the state[;].
             5800          [(g)] (f) "Residence" is as defined in Section 59-2-1202 , except that a rented dwelling
             5801      is not considered to be a residence[;].
             5802          [(h)] (g) "Veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty" means a person
             5803      who was killed in action or died in the line of duty in the military service of the United States
             5804      or the state, regardless of whether that person [was disabled] had a disability at the time that
             5805      person was killed in action or died in the line of duty[; and].
             5806          [(e) "disabled veteran"] (h) "Veteran with a disability" means a [disabled] person with
             5807      a disability who, during military training or a military conflict, [was disabled] acquired a
             5808      disability in the line of duty in the military service of the United States or the state[;].
             5809          (i) "Veteran's exemption" means a property tax exemption provided for in Subsection
             5810      (2).
             5811          (2) (a) The amount of taxable value of the property described in Subsection (2)(b) is
             5812      exempt from taxation as calculated under Subsections (2)(c) through (e) if the property
             5813      described in Subsection (2)(b) is owned by:
             5814          (i) a [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5815          (ii) the unmarried surviving spouse or a minor orphan of a:
             5816          (A) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5817          (B) veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty.
             5818          (b) Subsection (2)(a) applies to the following property:
             5819          (i) the claimant's primary residence;
             5820          (ii) tangible personal property that:
             5821          (A) is held exclusively for personal use; and
             5822          (B) is not used in a trade or business; or


             5823          (iii) a combination of Subsections (2)(b)(i) and (ii).
             5824          (c) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(d) or (e), the amount of taxable value of
             5825      property described in Subsection (2)(b) that is exempt under Subsection (2)(a) is:
             5826          (i) as described in Subsection (2)(f), if the property is owned by:
             5827          (A) a [disabled] veteran with a disability;
             5828          (B) the unmarried surviving spouse of a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability;
             5829      or
             5830          (C) a minor orphan of a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5831          (ii) equal to the total taxable value of the claimant's property described in Subsection
             5832      (2)(b) if the property is owned by:
             5833          (A) the unmarried surviving spouse of a veteran who was killed in action or died in the
             5834      line of duty; or
             5835          (B) a minor orphan of a veteran who was killed in action or died in the line of duty.
             5836          (d) (i) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(c)(i) and subject to Subsection (2)(d)(ii), a
             5837      veteran's exemption may not be allowed under this Subsection (2) if the percentage of disability
             5838      listed on the certificate described in Subsection 59-2-1105 (3)(a) is less than 10%.
             5839          (ii) A [disabled] veteran with a disability is considered to [be] have a 100% [disabled]
             5840      disability, regardless of the percentage of disability listed on a certificate described in
             5841      Subsection 59-2-1105 (3)(a), if the United States Department of Veterans' Affairs certifies the
             5842      veteran in the classification of individual unemployability.
             5843          (e) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(c)(i), a claimant who is the unmarried surviving
             5844      spouse or minor orphan of a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability may claim a veteran's
             5845      exemption for the total value of the property described in Subsection (2)(b) if:
             5846          (i) the deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability served in the military service of the
             5847      United States or the state prior to January 1, 1921; and
             5848          (ii) the percentage of disability listed on the certificate described in Subsection
             5849      59-2-1105 (3)(a) for the deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability is 10% or more.
             5850          (f) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(g), the amount of the taxable value of the
             5851      property described in Subsection (2)(b) that is exempt under Subsection (2)(c)(i) is equal to the
             5852      percentage of disability listed on the certificate described in Subsection 59-2-1105 (3)(a)
             5853      multiplied by the adjusted taxable value limit.


             5854          (g) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(f), the amount of the taxable value of the property
             5855      described in Subsection (2)(b) that is exempt under Subsection (2)(c)(i) may not be greater than
             5856      the taxable value of the property described in Subsection (2)(b).
             5857          (h) For purposes of this section and Section 59-2-1105 , a person who is honorably
             5858      discharged from military service of the United States or the state:
             5859          (i) is presumed to be a citizen of the United States; and
             5860          (ii) shall not be required to provide additional proof of citizenship to establish that the
             5861      veteran is a citizen of the United States.
             5862          (3) The Department of Veterans' Affairs created in Section 71-8-2 shall, through an
             5863      informal hearing held in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act,
             5864      resolve each dispute arising under this section concerning a veteran's status as a [disabled]
             5865      veteran with a disability.
             5866          Section 104. Section 59-2-1105 is amended to read:
             5867           59-2-1105. Application for veteran's exemption -- Rulemaking authority --
             5868      Statement -- County authority to make refunds.
             5869          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection 59-2-1101 (2)(c), a veteran's exemption may be
             5870      allowed only if the interest of the claimant is on record on January 1 of the year the exemption
             5871      is claimed.
             5872          (b) If the claimant has an interest in real property under a contract, the veteran's
             5873      exemption may be allowed if it is proved to the satisfaction of the county that the claimant is:
             5874          (i) the purchaser under the contract; and
             5875          (ii) obligated to pay the taxes on the property beginning January 1 of the year the
             5876      exemption is claimed.
             5877          (c) If the claimant is the grantor of a trust holding title to real or tangible personal
             5878      property on which a veteran's exemption is claimed, the claimant may claim the portion of the
             5879      veteran's exemption under Section 59-2-1104 and be treated as the owner of that portion of the
             5880      property held in trust for which the claimant proves to the satisfaction of the county that:
             5881          (i) title to the portion of the trust will revest in the claimant upon the exercise of a
             5882      power:
             5883          (A) by:
             5884          (I) the claimant as grantor of the trust;


             5885          (II) a nonadverse party; or
             5886          (III) both the claimant and a nonadverse party; and
             5887          (B) regardless of whether the power is a power:
             5888          (I) to revoke;
             5889          (II) to terminate;
             5890          (III) to alter;
             5891          (IV) to amend; or
             5892          (V) to appoint;
             5893          (ii) the claimant is obligated to pay the taxes on that portion of the trust property
             5894      beginning January 1 of the year the claimant claims the exemption; and
             5895          (iii) the claimant meets the requirements under this part for the exemption.
             5896          (2) (a) (i) A claimant applying for a veteran's exemption under this section shall file an
             5897      application:
             5898          (A) with the county in which that person resides; and
             5899          (B) except as provided in Subsection (2)(b) or (e), on or before September 1 of the year
             5900      in which that claimant is applying for the veteran's exemption in accordance with this section.
             5901          (ii) A county shall provide a claimant who files an application for a veteran's
             5902      exemption in accordance with this section with a receipt:
             5903          (A) stating that the county received the claimant's application; and
             5904          (B) no later than 30 days after the day on which the claimant filed the application in
             5905      accordance with this section.
             5906          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B) or (2)(e):
             5907          (i) subject to Subsection (2)(b)(iv), for a claimant who applies for a veteran's
             5908      exemption on or after January 1, 2004, a county shall extend the deadline for filing the
             5909      application required by Subsection (2)(a) to September 1 of the year after the year the claimant
             5910      would otherwise be required to file the application under Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B) if:
             5911          (A) on or after January 1, 2004, a military entity issues a written decision that the:
             5912          (I) [disabled veteran is disabled] veteran has a disability; or
             5913          (II) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability with respect to whom the claimant
             5914      applies for a veteran's exemption [was disabled] had a disability at the time the deceased
             5915      [disabled] veteran with a disability died; and


             5916          (B) the date the written decision described in Subsection (2)(b)(i)(A) takes effect is in
             5917      any year prior to the current calendar year;
             5918          (ii) subject to Subsections (2)(b)(iv) and (2)(d), for a claimant who applies for a
             5919      veteran's exemption on or after January 1, 2004, a county shall allow the claimant to amend the
             5920      application required by Subsection (2)(a) on or before September 1 of the year after the year the
             5921      claimant filed the application under Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B) if:
             5922          (A) on or after January 1, 2004, a military entity issues a written decision that the
             5923      percentage of disability has changed for the:
             5924          (I) [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5925          (II) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability with respect to whom the claimant
             5926      applies for a veteran's exemption; and
             5927          (B) the date the written decision described in Subsection (2)(b)(ii)(A) takes effect is in
             5928      any year prior to the current calendar year;
             5929          (iii) subject to Subsections (2)(b)(iv) and (2)(d), for a claimant who applies for a
             5930      veteran's exemption on or after January 1, 2004, a county shall extend the deadline for filing
             5931      the application required by Subsection (2)(a) to September 1 of the year after the year the
             5932      claimant would otherwise be required to file the application under Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B) if the
             5933      county legislative body determines that:
             5934          (A) the claimant or a member of the claimant's immediate family had an illness or
             5935      injury that prevented the claimant from filing the application on or before the deadline for
             5936      filing the application established in Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B);
             5937          (B) a member of the claimant's immediate family died during the calendar year the
             5938      claimant was required to file the application under Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B);
             5939          (C) the claimant was not physically present in the state for a time period of at least six
             5940      consecutive months during the calendar year the claimant was required to file the application
             5941      under Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B); or
             5942          (D) the failure of the claimant to file the application on or before the deadline for filing
             5943      the application established in Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B):
             5944          (I) would be against equity or good conscience; and
             5945          (II) was beyond the reasonable control of the claimant; and
             5946          (iv) a county may extend the deadline for filing an application or amending an


             5947      application under this Subsection (2) until December 31 if the county finds that good cause
             5948      exists to extend the deadline.
             5949          (c) The following shall accompany the initial application for a veteran's exemption:
             5950          (i) a copy of the veteran's certificate of discharge from the military service of:
             5951          (A) the United States; or
             5952          (B) this state; or
             5953          (ii) other satisfactory evidence of eligible military service.
             5954          (d) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
             5955      commission may by rule:
             5956          (i) establish procedures and requirements for amending an application under
             5957      Subsection (2)(b)(ii);
             5958          (ii) for purposes of Subsection (2)(b)(iii), define the terms:
             5959          (A) "immediate family"; or
             5960          (B) "physically present"; or
             5961          (iii) for purposes of Subsection (2)(b)(iii), prescribe the circumstances under which the
             5962      failure of a claimant to file an application on or before the deadline for filing the application
             5963      established in Subsection (2)(a)(i)(B):
             5964          (A) would be against equity or good conscience; and
             5965          (B) is beyond the reasonable control of a claimant.
             5966          (e) If a claimant has on file with the county the application described in Subsection
             5967      (2)(a), the county may not require the claimant to file another application described in
             5968      Subsection (2)(a) unless:
             5969          (i) the claimant applies all or a portion of an exemption allowed by this section to any
             5970      tangible personal property;
             5971          (ii) the percentage of disability has changed for the:
             5972          (A) [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             5973          (B) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability with respect to whom a claimant
             5974      applies for a veteran's exemption under this section;
             5975          (iii) the [disabled] veteran with a disability dies;
             5976          (iv) the claimant's ownership interest in the claimant's primary residence changes;
             5977          (v) the claimant's occupancy of the primary residence for which the claimant claims an


             5978      exemption under Section 59-2-1104 changes; or
             5979          (vi) the claimant who files an application for a veteran's exemption with respect to a
             5980      deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability or veteran who was killed in action or died in the
             5981      line of duty is a person other than the claimant who filed the application described in
             5982      Subsection (2)(a) for a veteran's exemption:
             5983          (A) for the calendar year immediately preceding the current calendar year; and
             5984          (B) with respect to that deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability or veteran who
             5985      was killed in action or died in the line of duty.
             5986          (f) The county may verify that the residential property for which the claimant claims an
             5987      exemption under Section 59-2-1104 is the claimant's primary residence.
             5988          (3) (a) (i) Subject to Subsection (3)(a)(ii), a claimant who files an application for a
             5989      veteran's exemption shall have on file with the county a statement:
             5990          (A) issued by a military entity; and
             5991          (B) listing the percentage of disability for the [disabled] veteran with a disability or
             5992      deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability with respect to whom a claimant applies for a
             5993      veteran's exemption.
             5994          (ii) If a claimant has on file with the county the statement described in Subsection
             5995      (3)(a)(i), the county may not require the claimant to file another statement described in
             5996      Subsection (3)(a)(i) unless:
             5997          (A) the claimant who files an application under this section for a veteran's exemption
             5998      with respect to a deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability or veteran who was killed in
             5999      action or died in the line of duty is a person other than the claimant who filed the statement
             6000      described in Subsection (3)(a)(i) for a veteran's exemption:
             6001          (I) for the calendar year immediately preceding the current calendar year; and
             6002          (II) with respect to that deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability or veteran who
             6003      was killed in action or died in the line of duty; or
             6004          (B) the percentage of disability has changed for a:
             6005          (I) [disabled] veteran with a disability; or
             6006          (II) deceased [disabled] veteran with a disability with respect to whom the claimant
             6007      applies for a veteran's exemption under this section.
             6008          (b) For a claimant filing an application in accordance with Subsection (2)(b)(i), the


             6009      claimant shall include with the application required by Subsection (2) a statement issued by a
             6010      military entity listing the date the written decision described in Subsection (2)(b)(i)(A) takes
             6011      effect.
             6012          (c) For a claimant amending an application in accordance with Subsection (2)(b)(ii),
             6013      the claimant shall provide to the county a statement issued by a military entity listing the date
             6014      the written decision described in Subsection (2)(b)(ii)(A) takes effect.
             6015          (4) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (4):
             6016          (i) "Property taxes due" means the taxes due on a claimant's property:
             6017          (A) for which a veteran's exemption is granted by a county; and
             6018          (B) for the calendar year for which the veteran's exemption is granted.
             6019          (ii) "Property taxes paid" is an amount equal to the sum of:
             6020          (A) the amount of the property taxes the claimant paid for the calendar year for which
             6021      the claimant is applying for the veteran's exemption; and
             6022          (B) the veteran's exemption the county granted for the calendar year described in
             6023      Subsection (4)(a)(ii)(A).
             6024          (b) A county granting a veteran's exemption to a claimant shall refund to that claimant
             6025      an amount equal to the amount by which the claimant's property taxes paid exceed the
             6026      claimant's property taxes due, if that amount is $1 or more.
             6027          Section 105. Section 59-2-1109 is amended to read:
             6028           59-2-1109. Indigent persons -- Deferral or abatement -- Application -- County
             6029      authority to make refunds.
             6030          (1) A person under the age of 65 years is not eligible for a deferral or abatement
             6031      provided for poor people under Sections 59-2-1107 and 59-2-1108 unless:
             6032          (a) the county finds that extreme hardship would prevail if the grants were not made; or
             6033          (b) the person [is disabled] has a disability.
             6034          (2) (a) An application for the deferral or abatement shall be filed on or before
             6035      September 1 with the county in which the property is located.
             6036          (b) The application shall include a signed statement setting forth the eligibility of the
             6037      applicant for the deferral or abatement.
             6038          (c) Both husband and wife shall sign the application if the husband and wife seek a
             6039      deferral or abatement on a residence:


             6040          (i) in which they both reside; and
             6041          (ii) which they own as joint tenants.
             6042          (d) A county may extend the deadline for filing under Subsection (2)(a) until December
             6043      31 if the county finds that good cause exists to extend the deadline.
             6044          (3) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (3):
             6045          (i) "Property taxes due" means the taxes due on a person's property:
             6046          (A) for which an abatement is granted by a county under Section 59-2-1107 ; and
             6047          (B) for the calendar year for which the abatement is granted.
             6048          (ii) "Property taxes paid" is an amount equal to the sum of:
             6049          (A) the amount of the property taxes the person paid for the taxable year for which the
             6050      person is applying for the abatement; and
             6051          (B) the amount of the abatement the county grants under Section 59-2-1107 .
             6052          (b) A county granting an abatement to a person under Section 59-2-1107 shall refund
             6053      to that person an amount equal to the amount by which the person's property taxes paid exceed
             6054      the person's property taxes due, if that amount is $1 or more.
             6055          (4) For purposes of this section:
             6056          (a) a poor person is any person:
             6057          (i) whose total household income as defined in Section 59-2-1202 is less than the
             6058      maximum household income certified to a homeowner's credit under Subsection 59-2-1208 (1);
             6059          (ii) who resides for not less than 10 months of each year in the residence for which the
             6060      tax relief, deferral, or abatement is requested; and
             6061          (iii) who is unable to meet the tax assessed on the person's residential property as the
             6062      tax becomes due; and
             6063          (b) "residence" includes a mobile home as defined under Section 70D-2-401 .
             6064          (5) If the claimant is the grantor of a trust holding title to real or tangible personal
             6065      property on which an abatement or deferral is claimed, the claimant may claim the portion of
             6066      the abatement or deferral under Section 59-2-1107 or 59-2-1108 and be treated as the owner of
             6067      that portion of the property held in trust for which the claimant proves to the satisfaction of the
             6068      county that:
             6069          (a) title to the portion of the trust will revest in the claimant upon the exercise of a
             6070      power:


             6071          (i) by:
             6072          (A) the claimant as grantor of the trust;
             6073          (B) a nonadverse party; or
             6074          (C) both the claimant and a nonadverse party; and
             6075          (ii) regardless of whether the power is a power:
             6076          (A) to revoke;
             6077          (B) to terminate;
             6078          (C) to alter;
             6079          (D) to amend; or
             6080          (E) to appoint;
             6081          (b) the claimant is obligated to pay the taxes on that portion of the trust property
             6082      beginning January 1 of the year the claimant claims the abatement or deferral; and
             6083          (c) the claimant meets the requirements under this part for the abatement or deferral.
             6084          (6) The commission shall adopt rules to implement this section.
             6085          (7) Any poor person may qualify for:
             6086          (a) the deferral of taxes under Section 59-2-1108 ;
             6087          (b) if the person meets the requisites of this section, for the abatement of taxes under
             6088      Section 59-2-1107 ; or
             6089          (c) both:
             6090          (i) the deferral described in Subsection (7)(a); and
             6091          (ii) the abatement described in Subsection (7)(b).
             6092          Section 106. Section 59-7-602 is amended to read:
             6093           59-7-602. Credit for cash contributions to sheltered workshops.
             6094          (1) For tax years beginning January 1, 1983, and thereafter, in computing the tax due
             6095      the state of Utah pursuant to Section 59-7-104 , there shall be a tax credit allowed for cash
             6096      contributions made within the taxable year to nonprofit rehabilitation sheltered workshop
             6097      facilities for [the disabled] people with a disability operating in Utah which are certified by the
             6098      Department of Human Services as a qualifying facility. The allowable credit is an amount
             6099      equal to 50% of the aggregate amount of the cash contributions to qualifying rehabilitation
             6100      facilities, but in no case shall the credit allowed exceed $1,000.
             6101          (2) If a taxpayer has subtracted an amount for cash contributions to a sheltered


             6102      workshop when determining federal taxable income, that amount shall be added back under
             6103      Section 59-7-105 before a credit may be taken under this section.
             6104          Section 107. Section 59-10-1011 is amended to read:
             6105           59-10-1011. Tutoring tax credits for dependents with a disability.
             6106          (1) For purposes of this section:
             6107          (a) ["Disabled dependent"] "Dependent with a disability" means a person who:
             6108          (i) [is disabled] has a disability under Section 53A-15-301 ;
             6109          (ii) attends a public or private kindergarten, elementary, or secondary school; and
             6110          (iii) is eligible to receive disability program money under Section 53A-17a-111 .
             6111          (b) (i) "Tutoring" means educational services:
             6112          (A) approved by an individual education plan team;
             6113          (B) provided to a [disabled] dependent with a disability; and
             6114          (C) that supplement classroom instruction the [disabled] dependent with a disability
             6115      described in Subsection (1)(b)(i)(B) receives at a public or private kindergarten, elementary, or
             6116      secondary school in the state.
             6117          (ii) "Tutoring" does not include:
             6118          (A) purchases of instructional books and material; or
             6119          (B) payments for attendance at extracurricular activities including sporting events,
             6120      musical or dramatic events, speech activities, or driver education.
             6121          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(b), for taxable years beginning on or after
             6122      January 1, 1996, but beginning on or before December 31, 2009, a claimant allowed to claim a
             6123      [disabled] dependent with a disability as a dependent under this section may claim for each
             6124      [disabled] dependent with a disability a nonrefundable tutoring tax credit in an amount equal to
             6125      25% of the costs paid by the claimant for tutoring the [disabled] dependent with a disability.
             6126          (b) The tutoring tax credit under Subsection (2)(a) may not exceed $100.
             6127          (3) The tutoring tax credit under Subsection (2) may be claimed by a claimant only in
             6128      the taxable year in which the claimant pays the tutoring costs for which the tax credit is
             6129      claimed.
             6130          Section 108. Section 62A-1-108.5 is amended to read:
             6131           62A-1-108.5. Mental illness and intellectual disability examinations --
             6132      Responsibilities of the department.


             6133          (1) In accomplishing its duties to conduct mental illness and [mental retardation]
             6134      intellectual disability examinations under Title 77, Utah Code of Criminal Procedure, the
             6135      department shall proceed as outlined in this section and within appropriations authorized by the
             6136      Legislature. The executive director may delegate the executive director's responsibilities under
             6137      this section to one or more divisions within the department.
             6138          (2) When the department is ordered by the court to conduct a mental illness or [mental
             6139      retardation] intellectual disability examination, the executive director shall:
             6140          (a) direct that the examination be performed at the Utah State Hospital; or
             6141          (b) designate at least one examiner, selected under Subsection (3), to examine the
             6142      defendant in the defendant's current custody or status.
             6143          (3) The department shall establish criteria, in consultation with the Commission on
             6144      Criminal and Juvenile Justice, and shall contract with persons or organizations to conduct
             6145      mental illness and [mental retardation] intellectual disability examinations under Subsection
             6146      (2)(b). In making this selection, the department shall follow the provisions of Title 63G,
             6147      Chapter 6, Utah Procurement Code.
             6148          (4) Nothing in this section prohibits the executive director, at the request of defense
             6149      counsel or a prosecuting attorney in a criminal proceeding under Title 77, Utah Code of
             6150      Criminal Procedure, and for good cause shown, from proposing a person who has not been
             6151      previously selected under Subsection (3) to contract with the department to conduct the
             6152      examination. In selecting that person, the criteria of the department established under
             6153      Subsection (3) and the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 6, Utah Procurement Code, shall be
             6154      met.
             6155          Section 109. Section 62A-2-101 is amended to read:
             6156           62A-2-101. Definitions.
             6157          As used in this chapter:
             6158          (1) "Adult day care" means nonresidential care and supervision:
             6159          (a) for three or more adults for at least four but less than 24 hours a day; and
             6160          (b) that meets the needs of functionally impaired adults through a comprehensive
             6161      program that provides a variety of health, social, recreational, and related support services in a
             6162      protective setting.
             6163          (2) (a) "Boarding school" means a private school that:


             6164          (i) uses a regionally accredited education program;
             6165          (ii) provides a residence to the school's students:
             6166          (A) for the purpose of enabling the school's students to attend classes at the school; and
             6167          (B) as an ancillary service to educating the students at the school;
             6168          (iii) has the primary purpose of providing the school's students with an education, as
             6169      defined in Subsection (2)(b)(i); and
             6170          (iv) (A) does not provide the treatment or services described in Subsection (26)(a); or
             6171          (B) provides the treatment or services described in Subsection (26)(a) on a limited
             6172      basis, as described in Subsection (2)(b)(ii).
             6173          (b) (i) For purposes of Subsection (2)(a)(iii), "education" means a course of study for
             6174      one or more of grades kindergarten through 12th grade.
             6175          (ii) For purposes of Subsection (2)(a)(iv)(B), a private school provides the treatment or
             6176      services described in Subsection (26)(a) on a limited basis if:
             6177          (A) the treatment or services described in Subsection (26)(a) are provided only as an
             6178      incidental service to a student; and
             6179          (B) the school does not:
             6180          (I) specifically solicit a student for the purpose of providing the treatment or services
             6181      described in Subsection (26)(a); or
             6182          (II) have a primary purpose of providing the services described in Subsection (26)(a).
             6183          (c) "Boarding school" does not include a therapeutic school.
             6184          (3) "Certified local inspector" means a person certified by the office, pursuant to
             6185      Subsection 62A-2-108.3 (1), to conduct an inspection described in Subsection 62A-2-108.3 (4).
             6186          (4) "Certified local inspector applicant" means a person for which designation as a
             6187      certified local inspector is sought under Section 62A-2-108.3 .
             6188          (5) "Child" means a person under 18 years of age.
             6189          (6) "Child placing" means receiving, accepting, or providing custody or care for any
             6190      child, temporarily or permanently, for the purpose of:
             6191          (a) finding a person to adopt the child;
             6192          (b) placing the child in a home for adoption; or
             6193          (c) foster home placement.
             6194          (7) "Client" means an individual who receives or has received services from a licensee.


             6195          (8) "Day treatment" means specialized treatment that is provided to:
             6196          (a) a client less than 24 hours a day; and
             6197          (b) four or more persons who:
             6198          (i) are unrelated to the owner or provider; and
             6199          (ii) have emotional, psychological, developmental, physical, or behavioral
             6200      dysfunctions, impairments, or chemical dependencies.
             6201          (9) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.
             6202          (10) "Direct access" means that an individual has, or likely will have, contact with or
             6203      access to a child or vulnerable adult that provides the individual with an opportunity for
             6204      personal communication or touch.
             6205          (11) "Director" means the director of the Office of Licensing.
             6206          (12) "Domestic violence" is as defined in Section 77-36-1 .
             6207          (13) "Domestic violence treatment program" means a nonresidential program designed
             6208      to provide psychological treatment and educational services to perpetrators and victims of
             6209      domestic violence.
             6210          (14) "Elder adult" means a person 65 years of age or older.
             6211          (15) "Executive director" means the executive director of the department.
             6212          (16) "Foster home" means a temporary residential living environment for the care of:
             6213          (a) fewer than four foster children in the home of a licensed or certified foster parent;
             6214      or
             6215          (b) four or more children in the home of a licensed or certified foster parent if the
             6216      children are siblings.
             6217          (17) (a) "Human services program" means a:
             6218          (i) foster home;
             6219          (ii) therapeutic school;
             6220          (iii) youth program;
             6221          (iv) resource family home; or
             6222          (v) facility or program that provides:
             6223          (A) secure treatment;
             6224          (B) inpatient treatment;
             6225          (C) residential treatment;


             6226          (D) residential support;
             6227          (E) adult day care;
             6228          (F) day treatment;
             6229          (G) outpatient treatment;
             6230          (H) domestic violence treatment;
             6231          (I) child placing services;
             6232          (J) social detoxification; or
             6233          (K) any other human services that are required by contract with the department to be
             6234      licensed with the department.
             6235          (b) "Human services program" does not include a boarding school.
             6236          (18) "Licensee" means a person or human services program licensed by the office.
             6237          (19) "Local government" means a:
             6238          (a) city; or
             6239          (b) county.
             6240          (20) "Minor" has the same meaning as "child."
             6241          (21) "Office" means the Office of Licensing within the Department of Human Services.
             6242          (22) "Outpatient treatment" means individual, family, or group therapy or counseling
             6243      designed to improve and enhance social or psychological functioning for those whose physical
             6244      and emotional status allows them to continue functioning in their usual living environment.
             6245          (23) (a) "Person associated with the licensee" means a person:
             6246          (i) affiliated with a licensee as an owner, director, member of the governing body,
             6247      employee, agent, provider of care, or volunteer; or
             6248          (ii) applying to become affiliated with a licensee in any capacity listed under
             6249      Subsection (23)(a)(i).
             6250          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (23)(a), "person associated with the licensee" does not
             6251      include an individual serving on the following bodies unless that individual has direct access to
             6252      children or vulnerable adults:
             6253          (i) a local mental health authority under Section 17-43-301 ;
             6254          (ii) a local substance abuse authority under Section 17-43-201 ; or
             6255          (iii) a board of an organization operating under a contract to provide:
             6256          (A) mental health or substance abuse programs; or


             6257          (B) services for the local mental health authority or substance abuse authority.
             6258          (c) "Person associated with the licensee" does not include a guest or visitor whose
             6259      access to children or vulnerable adults is directly supervised by the licensee at all times.
             6260          (24) "Regular business hours" means:
             6261          (a) the hours during which services of any kind are provided to a client; or
             6262          (b) the hours during which a client is present at the facility of a licensee.
             6263          (25) (a) "Residential support" means arranging for or providing the necessities of life
             6264      as a protective service to individuals or families who [are disabled] have a disability or who are
             6265      experiencing a dislocation or emergency that prevents them from providing these services for
             6266      themselves or their families.
             6267          (b) "Residential support" includes providing a supervised living environment for
             6268      persons with:
             6269          (i) dysfunctions or impairments that are:
             6270          (A) emotional;
             6271          (B) psychological;
             6272          (C) developmental; or
             6273          (D) behavioral; or
             6274          (ii) chemical dependencies.
             6275          (c) Treatment is not a necessary component of residential support.
             6276          (d) "Residential support" does not include residential services that are performed:
             6277          (i) exclusively under contract with the Division of Services for People with
             6278      Disabilities; and
             6279          (ii) in a facility that serves less than four individuals.
             6280          (26) (a) "Residential treatment" means a 24-hour group living environment for four or
             6281      more individuals unrelated to the owner or provider that offers room or board and specialized
             6282      treatment, behavior modification, rehabilitation, discipline, emotional growth, or habilitation
             6283      services for persons with emotional, psychological, developmental, or behavioral dysfunctions,
             6284      impairments, or chemical dependencies.
             6285          (b) "Residential treatment" does not include a:
             6286          (i) boarding school; or
             6287          (ii) foster home.


             6288          (27) "Residential treatment program" means a human services program that provides:
             6289          (a) residential treatment; or
             6290          (b) secure treatment.
             6291          (28) (a) "Secure treatment" means 24-hour specialized residential treatment or care for
             6292      persons whose current functioning is such that they cannot live independently or in a less
             6293      restrictive environment.
             6294          (b) "Secure treatment" differs from residential treatment to the extent that it requires
             6295      intensive supervision, locked doors, and other security measures that are imposed on residents
             6296      with neither their consent nor control.
             6297          (29) "Social detoxification" means short-term residential services for persons who are
             6298      experiencing or have recently experienced drug or alcohol intoxication, that are provided
             6299      outside of a health care facility licensed under Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care Facility
             6300      Licensing and Inspection Act, and that include:
             6301          (a) room and board for persons who are unrelated to the owner or manager of the
             6302      facility;
             6303          (b) specialized rehabilitation to acquire sobriety; and
             6304          (c) aftercare services.
             6305          (30) "Substance abuse treatment program" means a program:
             6306          (a) designed to provide:
             6307          (i) specialized drug or alcohol treatment;
             6308          (ii) rehabilitation; or
             6309          (iii) habilitation services; and
             6310          (b) that provides the treatment or services described in Subsection (30)(a) to persons
             6311      with:
             6312          (i) a diagnosed substance abuse disorder; or
             6313          (ii) chemical dependency disorder.
             6314          (31) "Therapeutic school" means a residential group living facility:
             6315          (a) for four or more individuals that are not related to:
             6316          (i) the owner of the facility; or
             6317          (ii) the primary service provider of the facility;
             6318          (b) that serves students who have a history of failing to function:


             6319          (i) at home;
             6320          (ii) in a public school; or
             6321          (iii) in a nonresidential private school; and
             6322          (c) that offers:
             6323          (i) room and board; and
             6324          (ii) an academic education integrated with:
             6325          (A) specialized structure and supervision; or
             6326          (B) services or treatment related to:
             6327          (I) a disability;
             6328          (II) emotional development;
             6329          (III) behavioral development;
             6330          (IV) familial development; or
             6331          (V) social development.
             6332          (32) "Unrelated persons" means persons other than parents, legal guardians,
             6333      grandparents, brothers, sisters, uncles, or aunts.
             6334          (33) "Vulnerable adult" means an elder adult or an adult who has a temporary or
             6335      permanent mental or physical impairment that substantially affects the person's ability to:
             6336          (a) provide personal protection;
             6337          (b) provide necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or mental or other health care;
             6338          (c) obtain services necessary for health, safety, or welfare;
             6339          (d) carry out the activities of daily living;
             6340          (e) manage the adult's own resources; or
             6341          (f) comprehend the nature and consequences of remaining in a situation of abuse,
             6342      neglect, or exploitation.
             6343          (34) (a) "Youth program" means a nonresidential program designed to provide
             6344      behavioral, substance abuse, or mental health services to minors that:
             6345          (i) serves adjudicated or nonadjudicated youth;
             6346          (ii) charges a fee for its services;
             6347          (iii) may or may not provide host homes or other arrangements for overnight
             6348      accommodation of the youth;
             6349          (iv) may or may not provide all or part of its services in the outdoors;


             6350          (v) may or may not limit or censor access to parents or guardians; and
             6351          (vi) prohibits or restricts a minor's ability to leave the program at any time of the
             6352      minor's own free will.
             6353          (b) "Youth program" does not include recreational programs such as Boy Scouts, Girl
             6354      Scouts, 4-H, and other such organizations.
             6355          Section 110. Section 62A-2-120 is amended to read:
             6356           62A-2-120. Criminal background checks -- Direct access to children or
             6357      vulnerable adults.
             6358          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (7), an applicant for an initial license or a
             6359      license renewal under this chapter shall submit to the office the names and other identifying
             6360      information, which may include fingerprints, of all persons associated with the licensee, as
             6361      defined in Section 62A-2-101 , with direct access to children or vulnerable adults.
             6362          (b) The Criminal Investigations and Technical Services Division of the Department of
             6363      Public Safety, or the office as authorized under Section 53-10-108 , shall process the
             6364      information described in Subsection (1)(a) to determine whether the individual has been
             6365      convicted of any crime.
             6366          (c) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(d), if an individual has not continuously lived
             6367      in Utah for the five years immediately preceding the day on which the information referred to
             6368      in Subsection (1)(a) is submitted to the office, the individual shall submit fingerprints for a FBI
             6369      national criminal history record check. The fingerprints shall be submitted to the FBI through
             6370      the Criminal Investigations and Technical Services Division.
             6371          (d) An individual is not required to comply with Subsection (1)(c) if:
             6372          (i) the individual continuously lived in Utah for the five years immediately preceding
             6373      the day on which the information described in Subsection (1)(a) is submitted to the office,
             6374      except for time spent outside of the United States and its territories; and
             6375          (ii) the background check of the individual is being conducted for a purpose other than
             6376      a purpose described in Subsection (1)(f).
             6377          (e) If an applicant described in Subsection (1)(a) spent time outside of the United
             6378      States and its territories during the five years immediately preceding the day on which the
             6379      information described in Subsection (1)(a) is submitted to the office, the office shall require the
             6380      applicant to submit documentation establishing whether the applicant was convicted of a crime


             6381      during the time that the applicant spent outside of the United States and its territories.
             6382          (f) Notwithstanding Subsections (1)(a) through (e), and except as provided in
             6383      Subsection (1)(h), an applicant described in Subsection (1)(a) shall submit fingerprints for an
             6384      FBI national criminal history records check, through the Criminal Investigations and Technical
             6385      Services Division, if the background check of the applicant is being conducted for the purpose
             6386      of:
             6387          (i) licensing a prospective foster home; or
             6388          (ii) approving a prospective adoptive placement of a child in state custody.
             6389          (g) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(h), in addition to the other requirements of
             6390      this section, if the background check of an applicant described in Subsection (1)(a) is being
             6391      conducted for the purpose of licensing a prospective foster home or approving a prospective
             6392      adoptive placement of a child in state custody, the office shall:
             6393          (i) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each prospective
             6394      foster parent or prospective adoptive parent resided in the five years immediately preceding the
             6395      day on which the prospective foster parent or prospective adoptive parent applied to be a foster
             6396      parent or adoptive parent, to determine whether the prospective foster parent or prospective
             6397      adoptive parent is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or supported finding of child
             6398      abuse or neglect; and
             6399          (ii) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each adult living in
             6400      the home of the prospective foster parent or prospective adoptive parent described in
             6401      Subsection (1)(g)(i) resided in the five years immediately preceding the day on which the
             6402      prospective foster parent or prospective adoptive parent applied to be a foster parent or
             6403      adoptive parent, to determine whether the adult is listed in the registry as having a substantiated
             6404      or supported finding of child abuse or neglect.
             6405          (h) The requirements under Subsections (1)(f) and (g) do not apply to the extent that:
             6406          (i) federal law or rule permits otherwise; or
             6407          (ii) the requirements would prohibit the Division of Child and Family Services or a
             6408      court from placing a child with:
             6409          (A) a noncustodial parent under Section 62A-4a-209 , 78A-6-307 , or 78A-6-307.5 ; or
             6410          (B) a relative, other than a noncustodial parent, under Section 62A-4a-209 , 78A-6-307 ,
             6411      or 78A-6-307.5 , pending completion of the background check described in Subsections (1)(f)


             6412      and (g).
             6413          (i) The office shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             6414      Administrative Rulemaking Act, to implement the provisions of this Subsection (1) relating to
             6415      background checks.
             6416          (2) The office shall approve a person for whom identifying information is submitted
             6417      under Subsection (1) to have direct access to children or vulnerable adults in the licensee
             6418      program if:
             6419          (a) (i) the person is found to have no criminal history record; or
             6420          (ii) (A) the only convictions in the person's criminal history record are misdemeanors
             6421      or infractions not involving any of the offenses described in Subsection (3); and
             6422          (B) the date of the last conviction under Subsection (2)(a)(ii)(A) is more than five years
             6423      before the date of the search;
             6424          (b) the person is not listed in the statewide database of the Division of Aging and Adult
             6425      Services created by Section 62A-3-311.1 ;
             6426          (c) juvenile court records do not show that a court made a substantiated finding, under
             6427      Section 78A-6-323 , that the person committed a severe type of child abuse or neglect;
             6428          (d) the person is not listed in the Licensing Information System of the Division of
             6429      Child and Family Services created by Section 62A-4a-1006 ;
             6430          (e) the person has not pled guilty or no contest to a pending charge for any:
             6431          (i) felony;
             6432          (ii) misdemeanor listed in Subsection (3); or
             6433          (iii) infraction listed in Subsection (3); and
             6434          (f) for a person described in Subsection (1)(g), the registry check described in
             6435      Subsection (1)(g) does not indicate that the person is listed in a child abuse and neglect registry
             6436      of another state as having a substantiated or supported finding of a severe type of child abuse or
             6437      neglect as defined in Section 62A-4a-1002 .
             6438          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (8), unless at least 10 years have passed since the
             6439      date of conviction, the office may not approve a person to have direct access to children or
             6440      vulnerable adults in the licensee's human services program if that person has been convicted of
             6441      an offense, whether a felony, misdemeanor, or infraction, that is:
             6442          (a) identified as a sexual offense, domestic violence, lewdness, assault, or battery;


             6443          (b) a violation of any pornography law, including sexual exploitation of a minor;
             6444          (c) prostitution;
             6445          (d) included in:
             6446          (i) Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person;
             6447          (ii) Title 76, Chapter 5a, Sexual Exploitation of Children; or
             6448          (iii) Title 76, Chapter 7, Offenses Against the Family;
             6449          (e) a violation of Section 76-6-103 , aggravated arson;
             6450          (f) a violation of Section 76-6-203 , aggravated burglary;
             6451          (g) a violation of Section 76-6-302 , aggravated robbery; or
             6452          (h) a conviction for an offense committed outside of the state that, if committed in the
             6453      state, would constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsections (3)(d) through (g).
             6454          (4) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8), if a person for whom identifying
             6455      information is submitted under Subsection (1) is not approved by the office under Subsection
             6456      (2) or (3) to have direct access to children or vulnerable adults in the licensee program, the
             6457      office shall conduct a comprehensive review of criminal and court records and related
             6458      circumstances if the reason the approval is not granted is due solely to one or more of the
             6459      following:
             6460          (i) a conviction for:
             6461          (A) any felony not listed in Subsection (3);
             6462          (B) any misdemeanor or infraction, not listed in Subsection (3), within five years of the
             6463      date of the search;
             6464          (C) a protective order or ex parte protective order violation under Section 76-5-108 or
             6465      a similar statute in another state; or
             6466          (D) any felony, misdemeanor, or infraction listed in Subsection (3) if at least 10 years
             6467      have passed since the date of conviction;
             6468          (ii) a plea of guilty or no contest to a pending:
             6469          (A) felony;
             6470          (B) misdemeanor listed in Subsection (3); or
             6471          (C) infraction listed in Subsection (3);
             6472          (iii) the person is listed in the statewide database of the Division of Aging and Adult
             6473      Services created by Section 62A-3-311.1 ;


             6474          (iv) juvenile court records show that a court made a substantiated finding, under
             6475      Section 78A-6-323 , that the person committed a severe type of child abuse or neglect;
             6476          (v) the person is listed in the Licensing Information System of the Division of Child
             6477      and Family Services created by Section 62A-4a-1006 ; or
             6478          (vi) the person is listed in a child abuse or neglect registry of another state as having a
             6479      substantiated or supported finding of a severe type of child abuse or neglect as defined in
             6480      Section 62A-4a-1002 .
             6481          (b) The comprehensive review under Subsection (4)(a) shall include an examination of:
             6482          (i) the date of the offense or incident;
             6483          (ii) the nature and seriousness of the offense or incident;
             6484          (iii) the circumstances under which the offense or incident occurred;
             6485          (iv) the age of the perpetrator when the offense or incident occurred;
             6486          (v) whether the offense or incident was an isolated or repeated incident;
             6487          (vi) whether the offense or incident directly relates to abuse of a child or vulnerable
             6488      adult, including:
             6489          (A) actual or threatened, nonaccidental physical or mental harm;
             6490          (B) sexual abuse;
             6491          (C) sexual exploitation; and
             6492          (D) negligent treatment;
             6493          (vii) any evidence provided by the person of rehabilitation, counseling, or psychiatric
             6494      treatment received, or additional academic or vocational schooling completed, by the person;
             6495      and
             6496          (viii) any other pertinent information.
             6497          (c) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review under Subsection (4)(a), the office
             6498      shall approve the person who is the subject of the review to have direct access to children or
             6499      vulnerable adults, unless it finds that approval will likely create a risk of harm to a child or
             6500      vulnerable adult.
             6501          (d) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
             6502      office may make rules, consistent with this chapter, defining procedures for the comprehensive
             6503      review described in this Subsection (4).
             6504          (5) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (5), "directly supervised" means that the person


             6505      being supervised is under the uninterrupted visual and auditory surveillance of the person doing
             6506      the supervising.
             6507          (b) A licensee may not permit any person to have direct access to a child or a
             6508      vulnerable adult unless, subject to Subsection (5)(c), that person is:
             6509          (i) associated with the licensee and:
             6510          (A) approved by the office to have direct access to children or vulnerable adults under
             6511      this section; or
             6512          (B) (I) the office has not determined whether to approve that person to have direct
             6513      access to children or vulnerable adults;
             6514          (II) the information described in Subsection (1)(a), relating to that person, is submitted
             6515      to the department; and
             6516          (III) that person is directly supervised by a person associated with the licensee who is
             6517      approved by the office to have direct access to children or vulnerable adults under this section;
             6518          (ii) (A) not associated with the licensee; and
             6519          (B) directly supervised by a person associated with the licensee who is approved by the
             6520      office to have direct access to children or vulnerable adults under this section;
             6521          (iii) the parent or guardian of the child or vulnerable adult; or
             6522          (iv) a person approved by the parent or guardian of the child or vulnerable adult to
             6523      have direct access to the child or vulnerable adult.
             6524          (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(b), a person may not have direct access to a child
             6525      or a vulnerable adult if that person is prohibited by court order from having that access.
             6526          (6) (a) Within 30 days after receiving the identifying information for a person under
             6527      Subsection (1), the office shall give written notice to the person and to the licensee or applicant
             6528      with whom the person is associated of:
             6529          (i) the office's decision regarding its background screening clearance and findings; and
             6530          (ii) a list of any convictions found in the search.
             6531          (b) With the notice described in Subsection (6)(a), the office shall also give to the
             6532      person the details of any comprehensive review conducted under Subsection (4).
             6533          (c) If the notice under Subsection (6)(a) states that the person is not approved to have
             6534      direct access to children or vulnerable adults, the notice shall further advise the persons to
             6535      whom the notice is given that either the person or the licensee or applicant with whom the


             6536      person is associated, or both, may, under Subsection 62A-2-111 (2), request a hearing in the
             6537      department's Office of Administrative Hearings, to challenge the office's decision.
             6538          (d) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
             6539      office shall make rules, consistent with this chapter:
             6540          (i) defining procedures for the challenge of its background screening decision
             6541      described in this Subsection (6); and
             6542          (ii) expediting the process for renewal of a license under the requirements of this
             6543      section and other applicable sections.
             6544          (7) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(a), this section does not apply to an applicant for
             6545      an initial license, or license renewal, to operate a substance abuse program that provides
             6546      services to adults only.
             6547          (8) (a) Notwithstanding Subsections (2) through (4), the office may not approve or
             6548      license a person as a prospective foster parent or a prospective adoptive parent if the person has
             6549      been convicted of:
             6550          (i) a felony involving conduct that constitutes any of the following:
             6551          (A) child abuse, as described in Section 76-5-109 ;
             6552          (B) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, as described in Section
             6553      76-5-109.1 ;
             6554          (C) abuse or neglect of a [disabled] child with a disability, as described in Section
             6555      76-5-110 ;
             6556          (D) endangerment of a child, as described in Section 76-5-112.5 ;
             6557          (E) aggravated murder, as described in Section 76-5-202 ;
             6558          (F) murder, as described in Section 76-5-203 ;
             6559          (G) manslaughter, as described in Section 76-5-205 ;
             6560          (H) child abuse homicide, as described in Section 76-5-208 ;
             6561          (I) homicide by assault, as described in Section 76-5-209 ;
             6562          (J) kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301 ;
             6563          (K) child kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301.1 ;
             6564          (L) aggravated kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-302 ;
             6565          (M) an offense described in Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
             6566          (N) an offense described in Title 76, Chapter 5a, Sexual Exploitation of Children;


             6567          (O) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103 ;
             6568          (P) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203 ;
             6569          (Q) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302 ; or
             6570          (R) domestic violence, as described in Section 77-36-1 ; or
             6571          (ii) an offense committed outside the state that, if committed in the state, would
             6572      constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsection (8)(a)(i).
             6573          (b) Notwithstanding Subsections (2) through (4), the office may not approve or license
             6574      a person as a prospective foster parent or a prospective adoptive parent if, within the five years
             6575      immediately preceding the day on which the person would otherwise be approved or licensed,
             6576      the person has been convicted of a felony involving conduct that constitutes any of the
             6577      following:
             6578          (i) aggravated assault, as described in Section 76-5-103 ;
             6579          (ii) aggravated assault by a prisoner, as described in Section 76-5-103.5 ;
             6580          (iii) mayhem, as described in Section 76-5-105 ;
             6581          (iv) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
             6582          (v) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
             6583          (vi) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances
             6584      Act;
             6585          (vii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance
             6586      Precursor Act; or
             6587          (viii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37d, Clandestine Drug Lab Act.
             6588          (9) If any provision of this section conflicts with a provision of Section 62A-2-120.5 ,
             6589      the conflicting provision of Section 62A-2-120.5 shall govern.
             6590          Section 111. Section 62A-2-122 is amended to read:
             6591           62A-2-122. Access to vulnerable adult abuse and neglect information.
             6592          (1) For purposes of this section:
             6593          (a) "Direct service worker" is as defined in Section 62A-5-101 .
             6594          (b) "Personal care attendant" is as defined in Section 62A-3-101 .
             6595          (2) With respect to a licensee, a certified local inspector applicant, a direct service
             6596      worker, or a personal care attendant, the department may access the database created by Section
             6597      62A-3-311.1 for the purpose of:


             6598          (a) (i) determining whether a person associated with a licensee, with direct access to
             6599      vulnerable adults, has a supported or substantiated finding of:
             6600          (A) abuse;
             6601          (B) neglect; or
             6602          (C) exploitation; and
             6603          (ii) informing a licensee that a person associated with the licensee has a supported or
             6604      substantiated finding of:
             6605          (A) abuse;
             6606          (B) neglect; or
             6607          (C) exploitation;
             6608          (b) (i) determining whether a certified local inspector applicant has a supported or
             6609      substantiated finding of:
             6610          (A) abuse;
             6611          (B) neglect; or
             6612          (C) exploitation; and
             6613          (ii) informing a local government that a certified local inspector applicant has a
             6614      supported or substantiated finding of:
             6615          (A) abuse;
             6616          (B) neglect; or
             6617          (C) exploitation;
             6618          (c) (i) determining whether a direct service worker has a supported or substantiated
             6619      finding of:
             6620          (A) abuse;
             6621          (B) neglect; or
             6622          (C) exploitation; and
             6623          (ii) informing a direct service worker or the direct service worker's employer that the
             6624      direct service worker has a supported or substantiated finding of:
             6625          (A) abuse;
             6626          (B) neglect; or
             6627          (C) exploitation; or
             6628          (d) (i) determining whether a personal care attendant has a supported or substantiated


             6629      finding of:
             6630          (A) abuse;
             6631          (B) neglect; or
             6632          (C) exploitation; and
             6633          (ii) informing a person described in Subsections 62A-3-101 [(8)] (9)(a)(i) through (iv)
             6634      that a personal care attendant has a supported or substantiated finding of:
             6635          (A) abuse;
             6636          (B) neglect; or
             6637          (C) exploitation.
             6638          (3) After receiving identifying information for a person under Subsection
             6639      62A-2-120 (1), the department shall process the information for the purposes described in
             6640      Subsection (2).
             6641          (4) The department shall adopt rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             6642      Rulemaking Act, consistent with this chapter and Title 62A, Chapter 3, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect,
             6643      or Exploitation of a Vulnerable [Adults] Adult, defining the circumstances under which a
             6644      person may have direct access or provide services to vulnerable adults when the person is listed
             6645      in the statewide database of the Division of Aging and Adult Services created by Section
             6646      62A-3-311.1 as having a supported or substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
             6647          Section 112. Section 62A-4a-1010 is amended to read:
             6648     
CHAPTER 3. AGING AND ADULT SERVICES

             6649     
Part 3. Abuse, Neglect, or Exploitation of a Vulnerable Adult

             6650           62A-4a-1010. Notice and opportunity for court hearing for persons listed in
             6651      Licensing Information System.
             6652          (1) Persons whose names were listed on the Licensing Information System as of May
             6653      6, 2002 and who have not been the subject of a court determination with respect to the alleged
             6654      incident of abuse or neglect may at any time:
             6655          (a) request review by the division of their case and removal of their name from the
             6656      Licensing Information System pursuant to Subsection (3); or
             6657          (b) file a petition for an evidentiary hearing and a request for a finding of
             6658      unsubstantiated or without merit.
             6659          (2) Subsection (1) does not apply to an individual who has been the subject of any of


             6660      the following court determinations with respect to the alleged incident of abuse or neglect:
             6661          (a) conviction;
             6662          (b) adjudication under Title 78A, Chapter 6, Juvenile Court Act of 1996;
             6663          (c) plea of guilty;
             6664          (d) plea of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness; or
             6665          (e) no contest.
             6666          (3) If an alleged perpetrator listed on the Licensing Information System prior to May 6,
             6667      2002, requests removal of the alleged perpetrator's name from the Licensing Information
             6668      System, the division shall, within 30 days:
             6669          (a) (i) review the case to determine whether the incident of alleged abuse or neglect
             6670      qualifies as:
             6671          (A) a severe type of child abuse or neglect;
             6672          (B) chronic abuse; or
             6673          (C) chronic neglect; and
             6674          (ii) if the alleged abuse or neglect does not qualify as a type of abuse or neglect
             6675      described in Subsections (3)(a)(i)(A) through (C), remove the alleged perpetrator's name from
             6676      the Licensing Information System; or
             6677          (b) determine whether to file a petition for substantiation.
             6678          (4) If the division decides to file a petition, that petition must be filed no more than 14
             6679      days after the decision.
             6680          (5) The juvenile court shall act on the petition as provided in Subsection 78A-6-323 (3).
             6681          (6) If a person whose name appears on the Licensing Information System prior to May
             6682      6, 2002 files a petition pursuant to Section 78A-6-323 during the time that an alleged
             6683      perpetrator's application for clearance to work with children or vulnerable adults is pending, the
             6684      court shall hear the matter on an expedited basis.
             6685          Section 113. Section 62A-5-101 is amended to read:
             6686           62A-5-101. Definitions.
             6687          As used in this chapter:
             6688          (1) "Approved provider" means a person approved by the division to provide
             6689      home-based services.
             6690          (2) (a) "Brain injury" means an acquired injury to the brain that is neurological in


             6691      nature, including a cerebral vascular accident.
             6692          (b) "Brain injury" does not include a deteriorating disease.
             6693          (3) "Designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional" means:
             6694          (a) a psychologist licensed under Title 58, Chapter 61, Psychologist Licensing Act,
             6695      who:
             6696          (i) (A) has at least one year of specialized training in working with persons with
             6697      [mental retardation] an intellectual disability; or
             6698          (B) has at least one year of clinical experience with persons with [mental retardation]
             6699      an intellectual disability; and
             6700          (ii) is designated by the division as specially qualified, by training and experience, in
             6701      the treatment of [mental retardation] an intellectual disability; or
             6702          (b) a clinical social worker, certified social worker, marriage and family therapist, or
             6703      professional counselor, licensed under Title 58, Chapter 60, Mental Health Professional
             6704      Practice Act, who:
             6705          (i) has at least two years of clinical experience with persons with [mental retardation]
             6706      an intellectual disability; and
             6707          (ii) is designated by the division as specially qualified, by training and experience, in
             6708      the treatment of [mental retardation] an intellectual disability.
             6709          (4) "Deteriorating disease" includes:
             6710          (a) multiple sclerosis;
             6711          (b) muscular dystrophy;
             6712          (c) Huntington's chorea;
             6713          (d) Alzheimer's disease;
             6714          (e) ataxia; or
             6715          (f) cancer.
             6716          (5) "Developmental center" means the Utah State Developmental Center, established in
             6717      accordance with Part 2, Utah State Developmental Center.
             6718          (6) "Direct service worker" means a person who provides services to a person with a
             6719      disability:
             6720          (a) when the services are rendered in:
             6721          (i) the physical presence of the person with a disability; or


             6722          (ii) a location where the person rendering the services has access to the physical
             6723      presence of the person with a disability; and
             6724          (b) (i) under a contract with the division;
             6725          (ii) under a grant agreement with the division; or
             6726          (iii) as an employee of the division.
             6727          (7) "Director" means the director of the Division of Services for People with
             6728      Disabilities.
             6729          (8) (a) "Disability" means a severe, chronic disability that:
             6730          (i) is attributable to:
             6731          (A) [mental retardation] an intellectual disability;
             6732          (B) a condition that qualifies a person as a person with a related condition, as defined
             6733      in 42 C.F.R. 435.1009;
             6734          (C) a physical disability; or
             6735          (D) a brain injury;
             6736          (ii) is likely to continue indefinitely;
             6737          (iii) (A) for a condition described in Subsection (8)(a)(i)(A), (B), or (C), results in a
             6738      substantial functional limitation in three or more of the following areas of major life activity:
             6739          (I) self-care;
             6740          (II) receptive and expressive language;
             6741          (III) learning;
             6742          (IV) mobility;
             6743          (V) self-direction;
             6744          (VI) capacity for independent living; or
             6745          (VII) economic self-sufficiency; or
             6746          (B) for a condition described in Subsection (8)(a)(i)(D), results in a substantial
             6747      limitation in three or more of the following areas:
             6748          (I) memory or cognition;
             6749          (II) activities of daily life;
             6750          (III) judgment and self-protection;
             6751          (IV) control of emotions;
             6752          (V) communication;


             6753          (VI) physical health; or
             6754          (VII) employment; and
             6755          (iv) requires a combination or sequence of special interdisciplinary or generic care,
             6756      treatment, or other services that:
             6757          (A) may continue throughout life; and
             6758          (B) must be individually planned and coordinated.
             6759          (b) "Disability" does not include a condition due solely to:
             6760          (i) mental illness;
             6761          (ii) personality disorder;
             6762          (iii) hearing impairment;
             6763          (iv) visual impairment;
             6764          (v) learning disability;
             6765          (vi) behavior disorder;
             6766          (vii) substance abuse; or
             6767          (viii) the aging process.
             6768          (9) "Division" means the Division of Services for People with Disabilities.
             6769          (10) "Eligible to receive division services" or "eligibility" means qualification, based
             6770      on criteria established by the division in accordance with Subsection 62A-5-102 (4), to receive
             6771      services that are administered by the division.
             6772          (11) "Endorsed program" means a facility or program that:
             6773          (a) is operated:
             6774          (i) by the division; or
             6775          (ii) under contract with the division; or
             6776          (b) provides services to a person committed to the division under Part 3, Admission to
             6777      [Mental Retardation Facility] an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual
             6778      Disability.
             6779          (12) "Licensed physician" means:
             6780          (a) an individual licensed to practice medicine under:
             6781          (i) Title 58, Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act; or
             6782          (ii) Title 58, Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act; or
             6783          (b) a medical officer of the United States Government while in this state in the


             6784      performance of official duties.
             6785          [(13) "Mental retardation" means a significant, subaverage general intellectual
             6786      functioning, that:]
             6787          [(a) exists concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior; and]
             6788          [(b) is manifested during the developmental period as defined in the current edition of
             6789      the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American
             6790      Psychiatric Association.]
             6791          [(14) "Mental retardation facility" means a residential facility for a person with mental
             6792      retardation, that receives state or federal funds under Title XIX of the federal Social Security
             6793      Act, for the purpose of serving a mentally retarded person in this state.]
             6794          [(15)] (13) "Physical disability" means a medically determinable physical impairment
             6795      that has resulted in the functional loss of two or more of a person's limbs.
             6796          [(16)] (14) "Public funds" means state or federal funds that are disbursed by the
             6797      division.
             6798          [(17)] (15) "Resident" means an individual under observation, care, or treatment in [a
             6799      mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
             6800      disability.
             6801          Section 114. Section 62A-5-103 is amended to read:
             6802           62A-5-103. Responsibility and authority of division.
             6803          (1) For purposes of this section "administer" means to:
             6804          (a) plan;
             6805          (b) develop;
             6806          (c) manage;
             6807          (d) monitor; and
             6808          (e) conduct certification reviews.
             6809          (2) The division has the authority and responsibility to:
             6810          (a) administer an array of services and supports for persons with disabilities and their
             6811      families throughout the state;
             6812          (b) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             6813      Rulemaking Act, that establish eligibility criteria for the services and supports described in
             6814      Subsection (2)(a);


             6815          (c) consistent with Section 62A-5-206 , supervise the programs and facilities of the
             6816      Developmental Center;
             6817          (d) in order to enhance the quality of life for a person with a disability, establish either
             6818      directly, or by contract with private, nonprofit organizations, programs of:
             6819          (i) outreach;
             6820          (ii) information and referral;
             6821          (iii) prevention;
             6822          (iv) technical assistance; and
             6823          (v) public awareness;
             6824          (e) supervise the programs and facilities operated by, or under contract with, the
             6825      division;
             6826          (f) cooperate with other state, governmental, and private agencies that provide services
             6827      to a person with a disability;
             6828          (g) subject to Subsection (3), ensure that a person with a disability is not deprived of
             6829      that person's constitutionally protected rights without due process procedures designed to
             6830      minimize the risk of error when a person with a disability is admitted to [any structured
             6831      residential mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with an
             6832      intellectual disability, including:
             6833          (i) the developmental center; and
             6834          (ii) facilities within the community;
             6835          (h) determine whether to approve providers;
             6836          (i) monitor and sanction approved providers, as specified in the providers' contract;
             6837          (j) subject to Section 62A-5-103.5 , receive and disburse public funds;
             6838          (k) review financial actions of a provider who is a representative payee appointed by
             6839      the Social Security Administration;
             6840          (l) establish standards and rules for the administration and operation of programs
             6841      conducted by, or under contract with, the division;
             6842          (m) approve and monitor division programs to insure compliance with the board's rules
             6843      and standards;
             6844          (n) establish standards and rules necessary to fulfill the division's responsibilities under
             6845      Parts 2, Utah State Developmental Center, and 3 [of this chapter], Admission to an


             6846      Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual Disability, with regard to [mental
             6847      retardation facilities] an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability;
             6848          (o) assess and collect equitable fees for a person who receives services provided under
             6849      this chapter;
             6850          (p) maintain records of, and account for, the funds described in Subsection (2)(o);
             6851          (q) establish and apply rules to determine whether to approve, deny, or defer the
             6852      division's services to a person who is:
             6853          (i) applying to receive the services; or
             6854          (ii) currently receiving the services;
             6855          (r) in accordance with state law, establish rules:
             6856          (i) relating to [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with
             6857      an intellectual disability that is an endorsed program; and
             6858          (ii) governing the admission, transfer, and discharge of a person with a disability;
             6859          (s) manage funds for a person residing in a facility operated by the division:
             6860          (i) upon request of a parent or guardian of the person; or
             6861          (ii) under administrative or court order; and
             6862          (t) fulfill the responsibilities described in Chapter 5a, Coordinating Council for Persons
             6863      with Disabilities.
             6864          (3) The due process procedures described in Subsection (2)(g):
             6865          (a) shall include initial and periodic reviews to determine the constitutional
             6866      appropriateness of the placement; and
             6867          (b) with regard to facilities in the community, do not require commitment to the
             6868      division.
             6869          Section 115. Section 62A-5-104 is amended to read:
             6870           62A-5-104. Director -- Qualifications -- Responsibilities.
             6871          (1) The director of the division shall be appointed by the executive director.
             6872          (2) The director shall have a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college,
             6873      be experienced in administration, and be knowledgeable in developmental disabilities, [mental
             6874      retardation] intellectual disability, and other disabilities.
             6875          (3) The director is the administrative head of the division.
             6876          (4) The director shall appoint the superintendent of the developmental center and the


             6877      necessary and appropriate administrators for other facilities operated by the division with the
             6878      concurrence of the executive director.
             6879          Section 116. Section 62A-5-110 is amended to read:
             6880           62A-5-110. Discretionary trusts for persons with disabilities -- Impact on state
             6881      services.
             6882          (1) For purposes of this section:
             6883          (a) "Discretionary trust for a person with disabilities" means a trust:
             6884          (i) that is established for the benefit of an individual who, at the time the trust is
             6885      created, is under age 65 and has a disability as defined in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1382c;
             6886          (ii) under which the trustee has discretionary power to determine distributions;
             6887          (iii) under which the beneficiary may not control or demand payments unless an abuse
             6888      of the trustee's duties or discretion is shown;
             6889          (iv) that contains the assets of the beneficiary and is established for the benefit of the
             6890      beneficiary by a parent, grandparent, legal guardian, or court;
             6891          (v) that is irrevocable, except that the trust document may provide that the trust be
             6892      terminated if the beneficiary no longer has a disability as defined in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1382c;
             6893          (vi) that is invalid as to any portion funded by property that is or may be subject to a
             6894      lien by the state; and
             6895          (vii) providing that, upon the death of the beneficiary, the state will receive all amounts
             6896      remaining in the trust, up to an amount equal to the total medical assistance paid on behalf of
             6897      the beneficiary.
             6898          (b) "Medical assistance" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26-18-2 .
             6899          (2) A state agency providing services or support to a person with disabilities may:
             6900          (a) waive application of Subsection (1)(a)(v) with respect to that individual if it
             6901      determines that application of the criteria would place an undue hardship upon that individual;
             6902      and
             6903          (b) define, by rule, what constitutes "undue hardship" for purposes of this section.
             6904          (3) A discretionary trust for a person with disabilities is not liable for reimbursement or
             6905      payment to the state or any state agency, for financial aid or services provided to that individual
             6906      except:
             6907          (a) to the extent that the trust property has been distributed directly to or is otherwise


             6908      under the control of the [disabled] beneficiary with a disability; or
             6909          (b) as provided in Subsection (1)(a)(vi).
             6910          (4) Property, goods, and services that are purchased or owned by a discretionary trust
             6911      for a person with disabilities and that are used or consumed by a [disabled] beneficiary with a
             6912      disability shall not be considered trust property that is distributed to or under the control of the
             6913      beneficiary.
             6914          (5) The benefits that a person with disabilities is otherwise legally entitled to may not
             6915      be reduced, impaired, or diminished in any way because of contribution to a discretionary trust
             6916      for that person.
             6917          (6) All state agencies shall disregard a discretionary trust for a person with disabilities,
             6918      as defined in Subsection (1), as a resource when determining eligibility for services or support
             6919      except as, and only to the extent that it is otherwise prohibited by federal law.
             6920          (7) This section applies to all discretionary trusts that meet the requirements contained
             6921      in Subsection (1) created before, on, or after July 1, 1994.
             6922          Section 117. Section 62A-5-201 is amended to read:
             6923           62A-5-201. Utah State Developmental Center.
             6924          (1) [The facility for persons with mental retardation] The intermediate care facility for
             6925      people with an intellectual disability located in American Fork City, Utah County, shall be
             6926      known as the "Utah State Developmental Center."
             6927          (2) Within appropriations authorized by the Legislature, the role and function of the
             6928      developmental center is to:
             6929          (a) provide care, services, and treatment to persons described in Subsection (3); and
             6930          (b) provide the following services and support to persons with disabilities who do not
             6931      reside at the developmental center:
             6932          (i) psychiatric testing;
             6933          (ii) specialized medical and dental treatment and evaluation;
             6934          (iii) family and client special intervention;
             6935          (iv) crisis management;
             6936          (v) occupational, physical, speech, and audiology services; and
             6937          (vi) professional services, such as education, evaluation, and consultation, for families,
             6938      public organizations, providers of community and family support services, and courts.


             6939          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (6), within appropriations authorized by the
             6940      Legislature, and notwithstanding the provisions of Part 3, Admission to [Mental Retardation
             6941      Facility] an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual Disability, only the
             6942      following persons may be residents of, be admitted to, or receive care, services, or treatment at
             6943      the developmental center:
             6944          (a) persons with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability;
             6945          (b) persons who receive services and supports under Subsection (2)(b); and
             6946          (c) persons who require at least one of the following services from the developmental
             6947      center:
             6948          (i) continuous medical care;
             6949          (ii) intervention for conduct that is dangerous to self or others; or
             6950          (iii) temporary residential assessment and evaluation.
             6951          (4) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (6), the division shall, in the division's
             6952      discretion:
             6953          (i) place residents from the developmental center into appropriate less restrictive
             6954      placements; and
             6955          (ii) determine each year the number to be placed based upon the individual assessed
             6956      needs of the residents.
             6957          (b) The division shall confer with parents and guardians to ensure the most appropriate
             6958      placement for each resident.
             6959          (5) Except as provided in Subsection (7), within appropriations authorized by the
             6960      Legislature, and notwithstanding the provisions of Subsection (3) and Part 3, Admission to
             6961      [Mental Retardation Facility] an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual
             6962      Disability, a person who is under 18 years of age may be a resident of, admitted to, or receive
             6963      care, services, or treatment at the developmental center only if the director certifies in writing
             6964      that the developmental center is the most appropriate placement for that person.
             6965          (6) (a) If the division determines, pursuant to Utah's [Home and Community-Based
             6966      Services Waiver for Individuals with Mental Retardation and Other Related Conditions]
             6967      Community Supports Waiver (CSW) for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities and Other
             6968      Related Conditions, that a person who otherwise qualifies for placement in an [ICF/MR]
             6969      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability should receive services in a


             6970      home or community-based setting, the division shall:
             6971          (i) if the person does not have a legal representative or legal guardian:
             6972          (A) inform the person of any feasible alternatives under the waiver; and
             6973          (B) give the person the choice of being placed in an [ICF/MR] intermediate care
             6974      facility for people with an intellectual disability or receiving services in a home or
             6975      community-based setting; or
             6976          (ii) if the person has a legal representative or legal guardian:
             6977          (A) inform the legal representative or legal guardian of any feasible alternatives under
             6978      the waiver; and
             6979          (B) give the legal representative or legal guardian the choice of having the person
             6980      placed in an [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability or
             6981      receiving services in a home or community-based setting.
             6982          (b) If a person chooses, under Subsection (6)(a)(i), to be placed in an [ICF/MR]
             6983      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability instead of receiving services
             6984      in a home or community-based setting, the division shall:
             6985          (i) ask the person whether the person prefers to be placed in the developmental center
             6986      rather than a private [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
             6987      disability; and
             6988          (ii) if the person expresses a preference to be placed in the developmental center:
             6989          (A) place the person in the developmental center if the cost of placing the person in the
             6990      developmental center is equal to, or less than, the cost of placing the person in a private
             6991      [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability; or
             6992          (B) (I) strongly consider the person's preference to be placed in the developmental
             6993      center if the cost of placing the person in the developmental center exceeds the cost of placing
             6994      the person in a private [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
             6995      disability; and
             6996          (II) place the person in the developmental center or a private [ICF/MR] intermediate
             6997      care facility for people with an intellectual disability.
             6998          (c) If a legal representative or legal guardian chooses, under Subsection (6)(a)(ii), to
             6999      have the person placed in an [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
             7000      disability instead of receiving services in a home or community-based setting, the division


             7001      shall:
             7002          (i) ask the legal representative or legal guardian whether the legal representative or
             7003      legal guardian prefers to have the person placed in the developmental center rather than a
             7004      private [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability; and
             7005          (ii) if the legal representative or legal guardian expresses a preference to have the
             7006      person placed in the developmental center:
             7007          (A) place the person in the developmental center if the cost of placing the person in the
             7008      developmental center is equal to, or less than, the cost of placing the person in a private
             7009      [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability; or
             7010          (B) (I) strongly consider the legal representative's or legal guardian's preference for the
             7011      person's placement if the cost of placing the person in the developmental center exceeds the
             7012      cost of placing the person in a private [ICF/MR] intermediate care facility for people with an
             7013      intellectual disability; and
             7014          (II) place the person in the developmental center or a private [ICF/MR] intermediate
             7015      care facility for people with an intellectual disability.
             7016          (7) The certification described in Subsection (5) is not required for a person who
             7017      receives services and support under Subsection (2)(b).
             7018          Section 118. Section 62A-5-206 is amended to read:
             7019           62A-5-206. Powers and duties of division.
             7020          The powers and duties of the division, with respect to the developmental center are as
             7021      follows:
             7022          (1) to establish rules, not inconsistent with law, for the government of the
             7023      developmental center;
             7024          (2) to receive, take, and hold property, both real and personal, in trust for the state for
             7025      the use and benefit of the developmental center;
             7026          (3) to establish rules governing the admission and discharge of persons with [mental
             7027      retardation] an intellectual disability in accordance with state law;
             7028          (4) to employ necessary medical and other professional personnel to assist in
             7029      establishing rules relating to the developmental center and to the treatment and training of
             7030      persons with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability at the center;
             7031          (5) to transfer a person who has been committed to the developmental center under


             7032      Part 3 of this chapter to any other facility or program operated by or under contract with the
             7033      division, after careful evaluation of the treatment needs of that person, if the facilities or
             7034      programs available meet the needs indicated, and if transfer would be in the best interest of that
             7035      person. A person transferred shall remain under the jurisdiction of the division;
             7036          (6) the developmental center may receive a person who meets the requirements of
             7037      Subsection 62A-5-201 (3) from any other facility or program operated by or under contract with
             7038      the division, after careful evaluation of the treatment needs of that person, if the facility or
             7039      programs of the developmental center meet those needs, and if transfer would be in the best
             7040      interest of that person. A person so received by the developmental center remains under the
             7041      jurisdiction of the division;
             7042          (7) to manage funds for a person residing in the developmental center, upon request by
             7043      that person's parent or guardian, or upon administrative or court order;
             7044          (8) to charge and collect a fair and equitable fee from developmental center residents,
             7045      parents who have the ability to pay, or guardians where funds for that purpose are available;
             7046      and
             7047          (9) supervision and administration of security responsibilities for the developmental
             7048      center is vested in the division. The executive director may designate, as special function
             7049      officers, individuals to perform special security functions for the developmental center that
             7050      require peace officer authority. Those special function officers may not become or be
             7051      designated as members of the Public Safety Retirement System.
             7052          Section 119. Section 62A-5-207 is amended to read:
             7053           62A-5-207. Superintendent -- Qualifications.
             7054          The superintendent of the developmental center, appointed in accordance with
             7055      Subsection 62A-5-104 (4), shall have a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or
             7056      college, be experienced in administration, and be knowledgeable in developmental disabilities
             7057      and [mental retardation] intellectual disability.
             7058          Section 120. Section 62A-5-302 is amended to read:
             7059     
Part 3. Admission to an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual

             7060     
Disability

             7061           62A-5-302. Division responsibility.
             7062          The division is responsible:


             7063          (1) for the supervision, care, and treatment of persons with [mental retardation] an
             7064      intellectual disability in this state who are committed to the division's jurisdiction under the
             7065      provisions of this part; and
             7066          (2) to evaluate and determine the most appropriate, least restrictive setting for [a
             7067      mentally retarded] an individual with an intellectual disability.
             7068          Section 121. Section 62A-5-304 is amended to read:
             7069           62A-5-304. Limited admission of persons convicted of felony offenses.
             7070          A person with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability who has been convicted of
             7071      a felony, or if a minor, of a crime that would constitute a felony if committed by an adult, may
             7072      not be admitted to [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with an
             7073      intellectual disability unless it is determined by the division, in accordance with the provisions
             7074      of this part and other state law, that the person may benefit from treatment in that facility.
             7075          Section 122. Section 62A-5-305 is amended to read:
             7076           62A-5-305. Residency requirements -- Transportation of person to another state.
             7077          (1) A person with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability who has a parent or
             7078      guardian residing in this state may be admitted to [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate
             7079      care facility for people with an intellectual disability in accordance with the provisions of this
             7080      part.
             7081          (2) If a person with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability enters Utah from
             7082      another state, the division may have that person transported to the home of a relative or friend
             7083      located outside of this state, or to an appropriate facility in the state where the person with
             7084      [mental retardation] the intellectual disability is domiciled. This section does not prevent a
             7085      person with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability who is temporarily located in this
             7086      state from being temporarily admitted or committed to [a mental retardation facility] an
             7087      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability in this state.
             7088          Section 123. Section 62A-5-308 is amended to read:
             7089           62A-5-308. Commitment -- Persons under age 18.
             7090          Beginning July 1, 1993, the director of the division or [his] the director's designee, may
             7091      commit an individual under 18 years of age who has [mental retardation] an intellectual
             7092      disability or symptoms of [mental retardation] an intellectual disability, to the division for
             7093      observation, diagnosis, care, and treatment if that commitment is based on:


             7094          (1) involuntary commitment under the provisions of Section 62A-5-312 . Proceedings
             7095      for involuntary commitment of an individual under 18 years of age may be commenced by
             7096      filing a written petition with the juvenile court under Section 62A-5-312 . The juvenile court
             7097      has jurisdiction to proceed in the same manner and with the same authority as the district court;
             7098      or
             7099          (2) an emergency commitment in accordance with the provisions of Section
             7100      62A-5-311 .
             7101          Section 124. Section 62A-5-309 is amended to read:
             7102           62A-5-309. Commitment -- Person 18 years or older.
             7103          Beginning July 1, 1993, the director or his designee may commit to the division an
             7104      individual 18 years of age or older who has [mental retardation] an intellectual disability, for
             7105      observation, diagnosis, care, and treatment if that commitment is based on:
             7106          (1) involuntary commitment under the provisions of Section 62A-5-312 ; or
             7107          (2) temporary emergency commitment under the provisions of Section 62A-5-311 .
             7108          Section 125. Section 62A-5-310 is amended to read:
             7109           62A-5-310. Involuntary commitment.
             7110          An individual may not be involuntarily committed to [a mental retardation facility] an
             7111      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability except in accordance with
             7112      Sections 62A-5-311 and 62A-5-312 .
             7113          Section 126. Section 62A-5-311 is amended to read:
             7114           62A-5-311. Temporary emergency commitment -- Observation and evaluation.
             7115          (1) The director of the division or his designee may temporarily commit an individual
             7116      to the division and therefore, as a matter of course, to [a mental retardation facility] an
             7117      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability for observation and
             7118      evaluation upon:
             7119          (a) written application by a responsible person who has reason to know that the
             7120      individual is in need of commitment, stating:
             7121          (i) a belief that the individual has [mental retardation] an intellectual disability and is
             7122      likely to cause serious injury to self or others if not immediately committed;
             7123          (ii) personal knowledge of the individual's condition; and
             7124          (iii) the circumstances supporting that belief; or


             7125          (b) certification by a licensed physician or designated [mental retardation] intellectual
             7126      disability professional stating that the physician or designated [mental retardation] intellectual
             7127      disability professional:
             7128          (i) has examined the individual within a three-day period immediately preceding the
             7129      certification; and
             7130          (ii) is of the opinion that the individual has [mental retardation] an intellectual
             7131      disability, and that because of the individual's [mental retardation] intellectual disability is
             7132      likely to injure self or others if not immediately committed.
             7133          (2) If the individual in need of commitment is not placed in the custody of the director
             7134      or [his] the director's designee by the person submitting the application, the [director] director's
             7135      or [his] the director's designee may certify, either in writing or orally that the individual is in
             7136      need of immediate commitment to prevent injury to self or others.
             7137          (3) Upon receipt of the application required by Subsection (1)(a) and the certifications
             7138      required by [Subsection] Subsections (1)(b) and [Subsection] (2), a peace officer may take the
             7139      individual named in the application and certificates into custody, and may transport the
             7140      individual to a designated [mental retardation facility] intermediate care facility for people with
             7141      an intellectual disability.
             7142          (4) (a) An individual committed under this section may be held for a maximum of 24
             7143      hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. At the expiration of that time, the
             7144      individual shall be released unless proceedings for involuntary commitment have been
             7145      commenced under Section 62A-5-312 .
             7146          (b) After proceedings for involuntary commitment have been commenced the
             7147      individual shall be released unless an order of detention is issued in accordance with Section
             7148      62A-5-312 .
             7149          (5) If an individual is committed to the division under this section on the application of
             7150      any person other than the individual's legal guardian, spouse, parent, or next of kin, the director
             7151      or his designee shall immediately give notice of the commitment to the individual's legal
             7152      guardian, spouse, parent, or next of kin, if known.
             7153          Section 127. Section 62A-5-312 is amended to read:
             7154           62A-5-312. Involuntary commitment -- Procedures -- Necessary findings
             7155      -- Periodic review.


             7156          (1) Any responsible person who has reason to know that an individual is in need of
             7157      commitment, who has a belief that the individual has [mental retardation] an intellectual
             7158      disability, and who has personal knowledge of the conditions and circumstances supporting
             7159      that belief, may commence proceedings for involuntary commitment by filing a written petition
             7160      with the district court, or if the subject of the petition is less than 18 years of age with the
             7161      juvenile court, of the county in which the individual to be committed is physically located at
             7162      the time the petition is filed. The application shall be accompanied by:
             7163          (a) a certificate of a licensed physician or a designated [mental retardation] intellectual
             7164      disability professional, stating that within a seven-day period immediately preceding the
             7165      certification, the physician or designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional
             7166      examined the individual and believes that the individual [is mentally retarded] has an
             7167      intellectual disability and is in need of involuntary commitment; or
             7168          (b) a written statement by the petitioner [stating] that:
             7169          (i) states that the individual was requested to, but refused to, submit to an examination
             7170      for [mental retardation] an intellectual disability by a licensed physician or designated [mental
             7171      retardation] intellectual disability professional, and that the individual refuses to voluntarily go
             7172      to the division or [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with an
             7173      intellectual disability recommended by the division for treatment[. That statement shall be];
             7174          (ii) is under oath; and [set]
             7175          (iii) sets forth the facts on which [it] the statement is based.
             7176          (2) Before issuing a detention order, the court may require the petitioner to consult
             7177      with personnel at the division or at [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility
             7178      for people with an intellectual disability and may direct a designated [mental retardation]
             7179      intellectual disability professional to interview the petitioner and the individual to be
             7180      committed, to determine the existing facts, and to report them to the court.
             7181          (3) The court may issue a detention order and may direct a peace officer to immediately
             7182      take the individual to [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for people with
             7183      an intellectual disability to be detained for purposes of an examination if the court finds from
             7184      the petition, from other statements under oath, or from reports of physicians or designated
             7185      [mental retardation] intellectual disability professionals that there is a reasonable basis to
             7186      believe that the individual to be committed:


             7187          (a) poses an immediate danger of physical injury to self or others;
             7188          (b) requires involuntary commitment pending examination and hearing;
             7189          (c) the individual was requested but refused to submit to an examination by a licensed
             7190      physician or designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional; or
             7191          (d) the individual refused to voluntarily go to the division or to [a mental retardation
             7192      facility] an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability recommended by
             7193      the division.
             7194          (4) (a) If the court issues a detention order based on an application that did not include
             7195      a certification by a designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional or
             7196      physician in accordance with Subsection (1)(a), the director or his designee shall within 24
             7197      hours after issuance of the detention order, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays,
             7198      examine the individual, report the results of the examination to the court and inform the court:
             7199          (i) whether the director or his designee believes that the individual [is mentally
             7200      retarded] has an intellectual disability; and
             7201          (ii) whether appropriate treatment programs are available and will be used by the
             7202      individual without court proceedings.
             7203          (b) If the report of the director or his designee is based on an oral report of the
             7204      examiner, the examiner shall immediately send the results of the examination in writing to the
             7205      clerk of the court.
             7206          (5) Immediately after an individual is involuntarily committed under a detention order
             7207      or under Section 62A-5-311 , the director or his designee shall inform the individual, orally and
             7208      in writing, of his right to communicate with an attorney. If an individual desires to
             7209      communicate with an attorney, the director or his designee shall take immediate steps to assist
             7210      the individual in contacting and communicating with an attorney.
             7211          (6) (a) Immediately after commencement of proceedings for involuntary commitment,
             7212      the court shall give notice of commencement of the proceedings to:
             7213          (i) the individual to be committed;
             7214          (ii) the applicant;
             7215          (iii) any legal guardian of the individual;
             7216          (iv) adult members of the individual's immediate family;
             7217          (v) legal counsel of the individual to be committed, if any;


             7218          (vi) the division; and
             7219          (vii) any other person to whom the individual requests, or the court designates, notice
             7220      to be given.
             7221          (b) If an individual cannot or refuses to disclose the identity of persons to be notified,
             7222      the extent of notice shall be determined by the court.
             7223          (7) That notice shall:
             7224          (a) set forth the allegations of the petition and all supporting facts;
             7225          (b) be accompanied by a copy of any detention order issued under Subsection (3); and
             7226          (c) state that a hearing will be held within the time provided by law, and give the time
             7227      and place for that hearing.
             7228          (8) The court may transfer the case and the custody of the individual to be committed
             7229      to any other district court within the state, if:
             7230          (a) there are no appropriate facilities for persons with [mental retardation] an
             7231      intellectual disability within the judicial district; and
             7232          (b) the transfer will not be adverse to the interests of the individual.
             7233          (9) (a) Within 24 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, after any
             7234      order or commitment under a detention order, the court shall appoint two designated [mental
             7235      retardation] intellectual disability professionals to examine the individual. If requested by the
             7236      individual's counsel, the court shall appoint a reasonably available, qualified person designated
             7237      by counsel to be one of the examining designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability
             7238      professionals. The examinations shall be conducted:
             7239          (i) separately;
             7240          (ii) at the home of the individual to be committed, a hospital, [a facility for person's
             7241      with mental retardation] an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability,
             7242      or any other suitable place not likely to have a harmful effect on the individual; and
             7243          (iii) within a reasonable period of time after appointment of the examiners by the court.
             7244          (b) The court shall set a time for a hearing to be held within 10 court days of the
             7245      appointment of the examiners. However, the court may immediately terminate the proceedings
             7246      and dismiss the application if, prior to the hearing date, the examiners, the director, or his
             7247      designee informs the court that:
             7248          (i) the individual [is not mentally retarded] does not have an intellectual disability; or


             7249          (ii) treatment programs are available and will be used by the individual without court
             7250      proceedings.
             7251          (10) (a) Each individual has the right to be represented by counsel at the commitment
             7252      hearing and in all preliminary proceedings. If neither the individual nor others provide counsel,
             7253      the court shall appoint counsel and allow sufficient time for counsel to consult with the
             7254      individual prior to any hearing.
             7255          (b) If the individual is indigent, the county in which the individual was physically
             7256      located when taken into custody shall pay reasonable [attorneys'] attorney fees as determined
             7257      by the court.
             7258          (11) The division or a designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability
             7259      professional in charge of the individual's care shall provide all documented information on the
             7260      individual to be committed and to the court at the time of the hearing. The individual's attorney
             7261      shall have access to all documented information on the individual at the time of and prior to the
             7262      hearing.
             7263          (12) (a) The court shall provide an opportunity to the individual, the petitioner, and all
             7264      other persons to whom notice is required to be given to appear at the hearing, to testify, and to
             7265      present and cross-examine witnesses.
             7266          (b) The court may, in its discretion:
             7267          (i) receive the testimony of any other person;
             7268          (ii) allow a waiver of the right to appear only for good cause shown;
             7269          (iii) exclude from the hearing all persons not necessary to conduct the proceedings; and
             7270          (iv) upon motion of counsel, require the testimony of each examiner to be given out of
             7271      the presence of any other examiner.
             7272          (c) The hearing shall be conducted in as informal a manner as may be consistent with
             7273      orderly procedure, and in a physical setting that is not likely to have a harmful effect on the
             7274      individual. The Utah Rules of Evidence apply, and the hearing shall be a matter of court
             7275      record. A verbatim record of the proceedings shall be maintained.
             7276          (13) The court may order commitment if, upon completion of the hearing and
             7277      consideration of the record, it finds by clear and convincing evidence that all of the following
             7278      conditions are met:
             7279          (a) the individual to be committed [is mentally retarded] has an intellectual disability;


             7280          (b) because of the individual's [mental retardation] intellectual disability one or more
             7281      of the following conditions exist:
             7282          (i) the individual poses an immediate danger of physical injury to self or others;
             7283          (ii) the individual lacks the capacity to provide the basic necessities of life, such as
             7284      food, clothing, or shelter; or
             7285          (iii) the individual is in immediate need of habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or
             7286      treatment to minimize the effects of the condition which poses a threat of serious physical or
             7287      psychological injury to the individual, and the individual lacks the capacity to engage in a
             7288      rational decision-making process concerning the need for habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or
             7289      treatment, as evidenced by an inability to weigh the possible costs and benefits of the care or
             7290      treatment and the alternatives to it;
             7291          (c) there is no appropriate, less restrictive alternative reasonably available; and
             7292          (d) the division or the [mental retardation facility] intermediate care facility for people
             7293      with an intellectual disability recommended by the division in which the individual is to be
             7294      committed can provide the individual with treatment, care, habilitation, or rehabilitation that is
             7295      adequate and appropriate to the individual's condition and needs.
             7296          (14) In the absence of any of the required findings by the court, described in Subsection
             7297      (13), the court shall dismiss the proceedings.
             7298          (15) (a) The order of commitment shall designate the period for which the individual
             7299      will be committed. An initial commitment may not exceed six months. Before the end of the
             7300      initial commitment period, the administrator of the [facility for persons with mental
             7301      retardation] intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability shall commence
             7302      a review hearing on behalf of the individual.
             7303          (b) At the conclusion of the review hearing, the court may issue an order of
             7304      commitment for up to a one-year period.
             7305          (16) An individual committed under this part has the right to a rehearing, upon filing a
             7306      petition with the court within 30 days after entry of the court's order. If the petition for
             7307      rehearing alleges error or mistake in the court's findings, the court shall appoint one impartial
             7308      licensed physician and two impartial designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability
             7309      professionals who have not previously been involved in the case to examine the individual. The
             7310      rehearing shall, in all other respects, be conducted in accordance with this part.


             7311          (17) (a) The court shall maintain a current list of all individuals under its orders of
             7312      commitment. That list shall be reviewed in order to determine those patients who have been
             7313      under an order of commitment for the designated period.
             7314          (b) At least two weeks prior to the expiration of the designated period of any
             7315      commitment order still in effect, the court that entered the original order shall inform the
             7316      director of the division of the impending expiration of the designated commitment period.
             7317          (c) The staff of the division shall immediately:
             7318          (i) reexamine the reasons upon which the order of commitment was based and report
             7319      the results of the examination to the court;
             7320          (ii) discharge the resident from involuntary commitment if the conditions justifying
             7321      commitment no longer exist; and
             7322          (iii) immediately inform the court of any discharge.
             7323          (d) If the director of the division reports to the court that the conditions justifying
             7324      commitment no longer exist, and the administrator of the [mental retardation facility]
             7325      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability does not discharge the
             7326      individual at the end of the designated period, the court shall order the immediate discharge of
             7327      the individual, unless involuntary commitment proceedings are again commenced in
             7328      accordance with this section.
             7329          (e) If the director of the division, or [his] the director's designee reports to the court that
             7330      the conditions designated in Subsection (13) still exist, the court may extend the commitment
             7331      order for up to one year. At the end of any extension, the individual must be reexamined in
             7332      accordance with this section, or discharged.
             7333          (18) When a resident is discharged under this subsection, the division shall provide any
             7334      further support services available and required to meet the resident's needs.
             7335          Section 128. Section 62A-5-313 is amended to read:
             7336           62A-5-313. Transfer -- Procedures.
             7337          (1) The director of the division, or the director's designee, may place an involuntarily
             7338      committed resident in appropriate care or treatment outside the [mental retardation facility]
             7339      intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability. During that placement, the
             7340      order of commitment shall remain in effect, until the resident is discharged or the order is
             7341      terminated.


             7342          (2) If the resident, or the resident's parent or guardian, objects to a proposed placement
             7343      under this section, the resident may appeal the decision to the executive director or the
             7344      executive director's designee. Those appeals shall be conducted in accordance with the
             7345      procedures and requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act. If an
             7346      objection is made, the proposed placement may not take effect until the committee holds that
             7347      hearing and the executive director makes a final decision on the placement.
             7348          Section 129. Section 62A-5-316 is amended to read:
             7349           62A-5-316. Temporary detention.
             7350          Pending removal to [a mental retardation facility] an intermediate care facility for
             7351      people with an intellectual disability, an individual taken into custody or ordered to be
             7352      committed under this part may be detained in [his or her] the individual's home, or in some
             7353      other suitable facility. The individual shall not, however, be detained in a nonmedical facility
             7354      used for detention of individuals charged with or convicted of penal offenses, except in a
             7355      situation of extreme emergency. The division shall take reasonable measures, as may be
             7356      necessary, to assure proper care of an individual temporarily detained under this part.
             7357          Section 130. Section 62A-5-317 is amended to read:
             7358           62A-5-317. Authority to transfer resident.
             7359          (1) The administrator of [a mental retardation facility, or his] an intermediate care
             7360      facility for people with an intellectual disability, or the administrator's designee, may transfer or
             7361      authorize the transfer of a resident to another [mental retardation facility] intermediate care
             7362      facility for people with an intellectual disability if, before the transfer, the administrator
             7363      conducts a careful evaluation of the resident and [his] the resident's treatment needs, and
             7364      determines that a transfer would be in the best interest of that resident. If a resident is
             7365      transferred, the administrator shall give immediate notice of the transfer to the resident's
             7366      spouse, guardian, parent, or advocate or, if none of those persons are known, to the resident's
             7367      nearest known relative.
             7368          (2) If a resident, or [his] the resident's parent or guardian, objects to a proposed transfer
             7369      under this section, the administrator shall conduct a hearing on the objection before a
             7370      committee composed of persons selected by the administrator. That committee shall hear all
             7371      evidence and make a recommendation to the administrator concerning the proposed transfer.
             7372      The transfer may not take effect until the committee holds that hearing and the administrator


             7373      renders a final decision on the proposed transfer.
             7374          Section 131. Section 62A-5-318 is amended to read:
             7375           62A-5-318. Involuntary treatment with medication -- Committee -- Findings.
             7376          (1) If, after commitment, a resident elects to refuse treatment with medication, the
             7377      director, the administrator of the [facility for persons with mental retardation] intermediate care
             7378      facility for people with an intellectual disability, or a designee, shall submit documentation
             7379      regarding the resident's proposed treatment to a committee composed of:
             7380          (a) a licensed physician experienced in treating persons with [mental retardation and
             7381      related disabilities] an intellectual disability, who is not directly involved in the resident's
             7382      treatment or diagnosis, and who is not biased toward any one facility;
             7383          (b) a psychologist who is a designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability
             7384      professional who is not directly involved in the resident's treatment or diagnosis; and
             7385          (c) another designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional of the
             7386      facility for persons with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability, or a designee.
             7387          (2) Based upon the court's finding, under Subsection 62A-5-312 (13), that the resident
             7388      lacks the ability to engage in a rational decision-making process regarding the need for
             7389      habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or treatment, as demonstrated by evidence of inability to weigh
             7390      the possible costs and benefits of treatment, the committee may authorize involuntary treatment
             7391      with medication if it determines that:
             7392          (a) the proposed treatment is in the medical best interest of the resident, taking into
             7393      account the possible side effects as well as the potential benefits of the medication; and
             7394          (b) the proposed treatment is in accordance with prevailing standards of accepted
             7395      medical practice.
             7396          (3) In making the determination described in Subsection (2), the committee shall
             7397      consider the resident's general history and present condition, the specific need for medication
             7398      and its possible side effects, and any previous reaction to the same or comparable medication.
             7399          (4) Any authorization of involuntary treatment under this section shall be periodically
             7400      reviewed in accordance with rules promulgated by the division.
             7401          Section 132. Section 62A-6-101 is amended to read:
             7402     
CHAPTER 6. STERILIZATION OF A PERSON WITH A DISABILITY

             7403           62A-6-101. Definitions.


             7404          As used in this chapter:
             7405          (1) "Informed consent" means consent that is voluntary and based on an understanding
             7406      by the person to be sterilized of the nature and consequences of sterilization, the reasonably
             7407      foreseeable risks and benefits of sterilization, and the available alternative methods of
             7408      contraception.
             7409          (2) "Institutionalized" means residing in the Utah State Developmental Center, the
             7410      Utah State Hospital, a residential facility for persons with a disability as defined in Sections
             7411      10-9a-103 and 17-27a-103 , a group home for [disabled] persons with a disability, a nursing
             7412      home, or a foster care home or facility.
             7413          (3) "Sterilization" means any medical procedure, treatment, or operation rendering an
             7414      individual permanently incapable of procreation.
             7415          Section 133. Section 62A-11-111 is amended to read:
             7416           62A-11-111. Lien provisions.
             7417          Provisions for collection of any lien placed as a condition of eligibility for any federally
             7418      or state-funded public assistance program are as follows:
             7419          (1) Any assistance granted after July 1, 1953 to the spouse of an old-age recipient who
             7420      was not eligible for old-age assistance but who participated in the assistance granted to the
             7421      family is recoverable in the same manner as old-age assistance granted to the old-age recipient.
             7422          (2) At the time of the settlement of a lien given as a condition of eligibility for the
             7423      old-age assistance program, there shall be allowed a cash exemption of $1,000, less any
             7424      additional money invested by the department in the home of an old-age recipient or recipients
             7425      of other assistance programs either as payment of taxes, home and lot improvements, or to
             7426      protect the interest of the state in the property for necessary improvements to make the home
             7427      habitable, to be deducted from the market or appraised value of the real property. When it is
             7428      necessary to sell property or to settle an estate the department may grant reasonable costs of
             7429      sale and settlement of an estate as follows:
             7430          (a) When the total cost of probate, including the sale of property when it is sold, and
             7431      the cost of burial and last illness do not exceed $1,000, the exemption of $1,000 shall be the
             7432      total exemption, which shall be the only amount deductible from the market or appraised value
             7433      of the property.
             7434          (b) [When] Subject to Subsection (2)(c), when $1,000 is not sufficient to pay for the


             7435      costs of probate, the following expenditures are authorized:
             7436          (i) cost of funeral expenses not exceeding $1,500;
             7437          (ii) costs of terminal illness, provided the medical expenses have not been paid from
             7438      any state or federally-funded assistance program;
             7439          (iii) realty fees, if any;
             7440          (iv) costs of revenue stamps, if any;
             7441          (v) costs of abstract or title insurance, whichever is the least costly;
             7442          (vi) [attorney's] attorney fees not exceeding the recommended fee established by the
             7443      Utah State Bar[. When an attorney sells the property in an estate he is probating, he is entitled
             7444      only to either a real estate fee or an attorney's fee, whichever is the lesser amount];
             7445          (vii) administrator's fee not to exceed $150;
             7446          (viii) court costs; and
             7447          (ix) delinquent taxes, if any.
             7448          (c) An attorney, who sells the property in an estate that the attorney is probating, is
             7449      entitled to the lesser of:
             7450          (i) a real estate fee; or
             7451          (ii) an attorney fee.
             7452          (3) The amounts listed in Subsection (2)(b) are to be considered only when the total
             7453      costs of probate exceed $1,000, and those amounts are to be deducted from the market or
             7454      appraised value of the property in lieu of the exemption of $1,000 and are not in addition to the
             7455      $1,000 exemption.
             7456          (4) When both husband and wife are recipients and one or both of them own an interest
             7457      in real property, the lien attaches to the interests of both for the reimbursement of assistance
             7458      received by either or both spouses. Only one exemption, as provided in this section, is
             7459      allowed.
             7460          (5) When a lien was executed by one party on property that is owned in joint tenancy
             7461      with full rights of survivorship, the execution of the lien severs the joint tenancy and a tenancy
             7462      in common results, insofar as a department lien is affected, unless the recipients are husband
             7463      and wife. When recipients are husband and wife who own property in joint tenancy with full
             7464      rights of survivorship, the execution of a lien does not sever the joint tenancy, insofar as a
             7465      department lien might be affected, and settlement of the lien shall be in accordance with the


             7466      provisions of Subsection (4).
             7467          (6) The amount of the lien given for old-age assistance shall be the total amount of
             7468      assistance granted up to the market or appraised value of the real or personal property, less the
             7469      amount of the legal maximum property limitations from the execution of the lien until
             7470      settlement thereof. There shall be no exemption of any kind or nature allowed against real or
             7471      personal property liens granted for old-age assistance except assistance in the form of medical
             7472      care, and nursing home care, other types of congregate care, and similar plans for [physically
             7473      and mentally ill] persons with a physical or mental disability.
             7474          (7) When it is necessary to sell property or to settle an estate, the department is
             7475      authorized to approve payment of the reasonable costs of sale and settlement of an estate on
             7476      which a lien has been given for old-age assistance.
             7477          (8) The amount of reimbursement of all liens held by the department shall be
             7478      determined on the basis of the formulas described in this section, when they become due and
             7479      payable.
             7480          (9) All lien agreements shall be recorded with the county recorder of the county in
             7481      which the real property is located, and that recording has the same effect as a judgment lien on
             7482      any real property in which the recipient has any title or interest. All such real property
             7483      including but not limited to, joint tenancy interests, shall, from the time a lien agreement is
             7484      recorded, be and become charged with a lien for all assistance received by the recipient or his
             7485      spouse as provided in this section. That lien has priority over all unrecorded encumbrances.
             7486      No fees or costs shall be paid for such recording.
             7487          (10) Liens shall become due and payable, and the department shall seek collection of
             7488      each lien now held:
             7489          (a) when the property to which the lien attaches is transferred to a third party prior to
             7490      the recipient's death, provided, that if other property is purchased by the recipient to be used by
             7491      [him] the recipient as a home, the department may transfer the amount of the lien from the
             7492      property sold to the property purchased;
             7493          (b) upon the death of the recipient and [his] the recipient's spouse, if any. When the
             7494      heirs or devisees of the property are also recipients of public assistance, or when other hardship
             7495      circumstances exist, the department may postpone settlement of the lien if that would be in the
             7496      best interest of the recipient and the state;


             7497          (c) when a recipient voluntarily offers to settle the lien; or
             7498          (d) when property subject to a lien is no longer used by a recipient and appears to be
             7499      abandoned.
             7500          (11) When a lien becomes due and payable, a certificate in a form approved by the
             7501      department certifying to the amount of assistance provided to the recipient and the amount of
             7502      the lien, shall be mailed to the recipient, [his] the recipient's heirs, or administrators of the
             7503      estate, and the same shall be allowed, approved, filed, and paid as a preferred claim, as
             7504      provided in Subsection 75-3-805 (1)(e) in the administration of the decedent's estate. The
             7505      amount so certified constitutes the entire claim, as of the date of the certificate, against the real
             7506      or personal property of the recipient[,] or [his] the recipient's spouse. Any person dealing with
             7507      the recipient, heirs, or administrators, may rely upon that certificate as evidence of the amount
             7508      of the existing lien against that real or personal property. That amount, however, shall increase
             7509      by accruing interest until time of final settlement, at the rate of 6% per annum, commencing six
             7510      months after the lien becomes due and payable, or at the termination of probate proceedings,
             7511      whichever occurs later.
             7512          (12) If heirs are unable to make a lump-sum settlement of the lien at the time it
             7513      becomes due and payable, the department may permit settlement based upon periodic
             7514      repayments in a manner prescribed by the department, with interest as provided in Subsection
             7515      (11).
             7516          (13) All sums so recovered, except those credited to the federal government, shall be
             7517      retained by the department.
             7518          (14) The department is empowered to accept voluntary conveyance of real or personal
             7519      property in satisfaction of its interest therein. All property acquired by the department under
             7520      the provisions of this section may be disposed of by public or private sale under rules
             7521      prescribed by the department. The department is authorized to execute and deliver any
             7522      document necessary to convey title to all property that comes into its possession, as though the
             7523      department constituted a corporate entity.
             7524          (15) Any real property acquired by the department, either by foreclosure or voluntary
             7525      conveyance, is tax exempt, so long as it is so held.
             7526          Section 134. Section 62A-15-605 is amended to read:
             7527           62A-15-605. Forensic Mental Health Coordinating Council -- Establishment and


             7528      purpose.
             7529          (1) There is established the Forensic Mental Health Coordinating Council composed of
             7530      the following members:
             7531          (a) the director or the director's appointee;
             7532          (b) the superintendent of the state hospital or the superintendent's appointee;
             7533          (c) the executive director of the Department of Corrections or the executive director's
             7534      appointee;
             7535          (d) a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or its appointee;
             7536          (e) the attorney general or the attorney general's appointee;
             7537          (f) the director of the Division of Services for People with Disabilities or the director's
             7538      appointee;
             7539          (g) the director of the Division of Juvenile Justice Services or the director's appointee;
             7540          (h) the director of the Commission on Criminal and Juvenile Justice or the director's
             7541      appointee;
             7542          (i) the state court administrator or the administrator's appointee;
             7543          (j) the state juvenile court administrator or the administrator's appointee;
             7544          (k) a representative from a local mental health authority or an organization, excluding
             7545      the state hospital that provides mental health services under contract with the Division of
             7546      Substance Abuse and Mental Health or a local mental health authority, as appointed by the
             7547      director of the division;
             7548          (l) the executive director of the Governor's Council for People with Disabilities or the
             7549      director's appointee; and
             7550          (m) other persons as appointed by the members described in Subsections (1)(a) through
             7551      (l).
             7552          (2) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
             7553      may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
             7554          (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
             7555          (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
             7556          (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
             7557      63A-3-107 .
             7558          (3) The purpose of the Forensic Mental Health Coordinating Council is to:


             7559          (a) advise the director regarding admissions to the state hospital of persons in the
             7560      custody of the Department of Corrections;
             7561          (b) develop policies for coordination between the division and the Department of
             7562      Corrections;
             7563          (c) advise the executive director of the Department of Corrections regarding issues of
             7564      care for persons in the custody of the Department of Corrections who are mentally ill;
             7565          (d) promote communication between and coordination among all agencies dealing with
             7566      persons with [mental retardation, as defined in Section 62A-5-101 ,] an intellectual disability or
             7567      mental illness who become involved in the civil commitment system or in the criminal or
             7568      juvenile justice system;
             7569          (e) study, evaluate, and recommend changes to laws and procedures relating to persons
             7570      with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability or mental illness who become involved in
             7571      the civil commitment system or in the criminal or juvenile justice system;
             7572          (f) identify and promote the implementation of specific policies and programs to deal
             7573      fairly and efficiently with persons with [mental retardation] an intellectual disability or mental
             7574      illness who become involved in the civil commitment system or in the criminal or juvenile
             7575      justice system; and
             7576          (g) promote judicial education relating to persons with [mental retardation] an
             7577      intellectual disability or mental illness who become involved in the civil commitment system
             7578      or in the criminal or juvenile justice system.
             7579          Section 135. Section 62A-15-608 is amended to read:
             7580           62A-15-608. Local mental health authority -- Supervision and treatment of
             7581      persons with a mental illness.
             7582          (1) Each local mental health authority has responsibility for supervision and treatment
             7583      of [mentally ill] persons with a mental illness who have been committed to its custody under
             7584      the provisions of this part, whether residing in the state hospital or elsewhere.
             7585          (2) The division, in administering and supervising the security responsibilities of the
             7586      state hospital under its authority provided by Section 62A-15-603 , shall enforce Sections
             7587      62A-15-620 through 62A-15-624 to the extent they pertain to the state hospital.
             7588          Section 136. Section 62A-15-610 is amended to read:
             7589           62A-15-610. Objectives of state hospital and other facilities -- Persons who may


             7590      be admitted to state hospital.
             7591          (1) The objectives of the state hospital and other mental health facilities shall be to care
             7592      for all persons within this state who are subject to the provisions of this chapter; and to furnish
             7593      them with the proper attendance, medical treatment, seclusion, rest, restraint, amusement,
             7594      occupation, and support that is conducive to their physical and mental well-being.
             7595          (2) Only the following persons may be admitted to the state hospital:
             7596          (a) persons 18 years of age and older who meet the criteria necessary for commitment
             7597      under this part and who have severe mental disorders for whom no appropriate, less restrictive
             7598      treatment alternative is available;
             7599          (b) persons under 18 years of age who meet the criteria necessary for commitment
             7600      under Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and
             7601      Mental Health, and for whom no less restrictive alternative is available;
             7602          (c) persons adjudicated and found to be guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness
             7603      under Title 77, Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of [Mentally Ill] Persons with a
             7604      Mental Illness;
             7605          (d) persons adjudicated and found to be not guilty by reason of insanity who are under
             7606      a subsequent commitment order because they [are mentally ill] have a mental illness and are a
             7607      danger to themselves or others, under Section 77-16a-302 ;
             7608          (e) persons found incompetent to proceed under Section 77-15-6 ;
             7609          (f) persons who require an examination under Title 77, Utah Code of Criminal
             7610      Procedure; and
             7611          (g) persons in the custody of the Department of Corrections, admitted in accordance
             7612      with Section 62A-15-605.5 , giving priority to those persons with severe mental disorders.
             7613          Section 137. Section 62A-15-616 is amended to read:
             7614           62A-15-616. Persons entering state mentally ill.
             7615          (1) A person who enters this state while mentally ill may be returned by a local mental
             7616      health authority to the home of relatives or friends of that [mentally ill] person with a mental
             7617      illness, if known, or to a hospital in the state where that [mentally ill] person with a mental
             7618      illness is domiciled, in accordance with Title 62A, Chapter 15, Part 8, Interstate Compact on
             7619      Mental Health.
             7620          (2) This section does not prevent commitment of persons who are traveling through or


             7621      temporarily residing in this state.
             7622          Section 138. Section 62A-15-619 is amended to read:
             7623           62A-15-619. Liability of estate of person with a mental illness.
             7624          The provisions made in this part for the support of [mentally ill] persons with a mental
             7625      illness at public expense do not release the estates of those persons from liability for their care
             7626      and treatment, and the division is authorized and empowered to collect from the estates of
             7627      those persons any sums paid by the state in their behalf.
             7628          Section 139. Section 62A-15-629 is amended to read:
             7629           62A-15-629. Temporary commitment -- Requirements and procedures.
             7630          (1) (a) An adult may be temporarily, involuntarily committed to a local mental health
             7631      authority upon:
             7632          (i) written application by a responsible person who has reason to know, stating a belief
             7633      that the individual is likely to cause serious injury to [himself] self or others if not immediately
             7634      restrained, and stating the personal knowledge of the individual's condition or circumstances
             7635      which lead to that belief; and
             7636          (ii) a certification by a licensed physician or designated examiner stating that the
             7637      physician or designated examiner has examined the individual within a three-day period
             7638      immediately preceding that certification, and that [he] the physician or designated examiner is
             7639      of the opinion that the individual [is mentally ill] has a mental illness and, because of [his] the
             7640      individual's mental illness, is likely to injure [himself] self or others if not immediately
             7641      restrained.
             7642          (b) Application and certification as described in Subsection (1)(a) authorizes any peace
             7643      officer to take the individual into the custody of a local mental health authority and transport
             7644      the individual to that authority's designated facility.
             7645          (2) If a duly authorized peace officer observes a person involved in conduct that gives
             7646      the officer probable cause to believe that the person [is mentally ill] has a mental illness, as
             7647      defined in Section 62A-15-602 , and because of that apparent mental illness and conduct, there
             7648      is a substantial likelihood of serious harm to that person or others, pending proceedings for
             7649      examination and certification under this part, the officer may take that person into protective
             7650      custody. The peace officer shall transport the person to be transported to the designated facility
             7651      of the appropriate local mental health authority pursuant to this section, either on the basis of


             7652      [his] the peace officer's own observation or on the basis of a mental health officer's observation
             7653      that has been reported to [him] the peace officer by that mental health officer. Immediately
             7654      thereafter, the officer shall place the person in the custody of the local mental health authority
             7655      and make application for commitment of that person to the local mental health authority. The
             7656      application shall be on a prescribed form and shall include the following:
             7657          (a) a statement by the officer that [he] the officer believes, on the basis of personal
             7658      observation or on the basis of a mental health officer's observation reported to [him] the officer
             7659      by the mental health officer, that the person is, as a result of a mental illness, a substantial and
             7660      immediate danger to [himself] self or others;
             7661          (b) the specific nature of the danger;
             7662          (c) a summary of the observations upon which the statement of danger is based; and
             7663          (d) a statement of facts which called the person to the attention of the officer.
             7664          (3) A person committed under this section may be held for a maximum of 24 hours,
             7665      excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. At the expiration of that time period, the
             7666      person shall be released unless application for involuntary commitment has been commenced
             7667      pursuant to Section 62A-15-631 . If that application has been made, an order of detention may
             7668      be entered under Subsection 62A-15-631 (3). If no order of detention is issued, the patient shall
             7669      be released unless he has made voluntary application for admission.
             7670          (4) Transportation of [mentally ill] persons with a mental illness pursuant to
             7671      Subsections (1) and (2) shall be conducted by the appropriate municipal, or city or town, law
             7672      enforcement authority or, under the appropriate law enforcement's authority, by ambulance to
             7673      the extent that Subsection (5) applies. However, if the designated facility is outside of that
             7674      authority's jurisdiction, the appropriate county sheriff shall transport the person or cause the
             7675      person to be transported by ambulance to the extent that Subsection (5) applies.
             7676          (5) Notwithstanding Subsections (2) and (4), a peace officer shall cause a person to be
             7677      transported by ambulance if the person meets any of the criteria in Section 26-8a-305 . In
             7678      addition, if the person requires physical medical attention, the peace officer shall direct that
             7679      transportation be to an appropriate medical facility for treatment.
             7680          Section 140. Section 62A-15-631 is amended to read:
             7681           62A-15-631. Involuntary commitment under court order -- Examination --
             7682      Hearing -- Power of court -- Findings required -- Costs.


             7683          (1) Proceedings for involuntary commitment of an individual who is 18 years of age or
             7684      older may be commenced by filing a written application with the district court of the county in
             7685      which the proposed patient resides or is found, by a responsible person who has reason to know
             7686      of the condition or circumstances of the proposed patient which lead to the belief that the
             7687      individual [is mentally ill] has a mental illness and should be involuntarily committed. That
             7688      application shall be accompanied by:
             7689          (a) a certificate of a licensed physician or a designated examiner stating that within a
             7690      seven-day period immediately preceding the certification the physician or designated examiner
             7691      has examined the individual, and that [he] the physician or designated examiner is of the
             7692      opinion that the individual is mentally ill and should be involuntarily committed; or
             7693          (b) a written statement by the applicant that:
             7694          (i) the individual has been requested to, but has refused to, submit to an examination of
             7695      mental condition by a licensed physician or designated examiner[. That application shall be];
             7696          (ii) is sworn to under oath; and [shall state]
             7697          (iii) states the facts upon which the application is based.
             7698          (2) [Prior to] Before issuing a judicial order, the court may require the applicant to
             7699      consult with the appropriate local mental health authority, or may direct a mental health
             7700      professional from that local mental health authority to interview the applicant and the proposed
             7701      patient to determine the existing facts and report them to the court.
             7702          (3) If the court finds from the application, from any other statements under oath, or
             7703      from any reports from a mental health professional that there is a reasonable basis to believe
             7704      that the proposed patient has a mental illness which poses a substantial danger, as defined in
             7705      Section 62A-15-602 , to [himself] self, others, or property requiring involuntary commitment
             7706      pending examination and hearing; or, if the proposed patient has refused to submit to an
             7707      interview with a mental health professional as directed by the court or to go to a treatment
             7708      facility voluntarily, the court may issue an order, directed to a mental health officer or peace
             7709      officer, to immediately place the proposed patient in the custody of a local mental health
             7710      authority or in a temporary emergency facility as provided in Section 62A-15-634 to be
             7711      detained for the purpose of examination. Within 24 hours of the issuance of the order for
             7712      examination, a local mental health authority or its designee shall report to the court, orally or in
             7713      writing, whether the patient is, in the opinion of the examiners, mentally ill, whether the patient


             7714      has agreed to become a voluntary patient under Section 62A-15-625 , and whether treatment
             7715      programs are available and acceptable without court proceedings. Based on that information,
             7716      the court may, without taking any further action, terminate the proceedings and dismiss the
             7717      application. In any event, if the examiner reports orally, [he] the examiner shall immediately
             7718      send the report in writing to the clerk of the court.
             7719          (4) Notice of commencement of proceedings for involuntary commitment, setting forth
             7720      the allegations of the application and any reported facts, together with a copy of any official
             7721      order of detention, shall be provided by the court to a proposed patient [prior to] before, or
             7722      upon, placement in the custody of a local mental health authority or, with respect to any
             7723      individual presently in the custody of a local mental health authority whose status is being
             7724      changed from voluntary to involuntary, upon the filing of an application for that purpose with
             7725      the court. A copy of that order of detention shall be maintained at the place of detention.
             7726          (5) Notice of commencement of those proceedings shall be provided by the court as
             7727      soon as practicable to the applicant, any legal guardian, any immediate adult family members,
             7728      legal counsel for the parties involved, and any other persons whom the proposed patient or the
             7729      court shall designate. That notice shall advise those persons that a hearing may be held within
             7730      the time provided by law. If the patient has refused to permit release of information necessary
             7731      for provisions of notice under this subsection, the extent of notice shall be determined by the
             7732      court.
             7733          (6) Proceedings for commitment of an individual under the age of 18 years to the
             7734      division may be commenced by filing a written application with the juvenile court in
             7735      accordance with the provisions of Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of
             7736      Substance Abuse and Mental Health.
             7737          (7) The district court may, in its discretion, transfer the case to any other district court
             7738      within this state, provided that the transfer will not be adverse to the interest of the proposed
             7739      patient.
             7740          (8) (a) Within 24 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, of the
             7741      issuance of a judicial order, or after commitment of a proposed patient to a local mental health
             7742      authority under court order for detention or examination, the court shall appoint two designated
             7743      examiners to examine the proposed patient. If requested by the proposed patient's counsel, the
             7744      court shall appoint, as one of the examiners, a reasonably available qualified person designated


             7745      by counsel. The examinations, to be conducted separately, shall be held at the home of the
             7746      proposed patient, a hospital or other medical facility, or at any other suitable place that is not
             7747      likely to have a harmful effect on the patient's health.
             7748          (b) The examiner shall inform the patient if not represented by an attorney that, if
             7749      desired, the patient does not have to say anything, the nature and reasons for the examination,
             7750      that it was ordered by the court, that any information volunteered could form part of the basis
             7751      for his or her involuntary commitment, and that findings resulting from the examination will be
             7752      made available to the court.
             7753          (c) A time shall be set for a hearing to be held within 10 calendar days of the
             7754      appointment of the designated examiners, unless those examiners or a local mental health
             7755      authority or its designee informs the court prior to that hearing date that the patient is not
             7756      mentally ill, that [he] the patient has agreed to become a voluntary patient under Section
             7757      62A-15-625 , or that treatment programs are available and acceptable without court
             7758      proceedings, in which event the court may, without taking any further action, terminate the
             7759      proceedings and dismiss the application.
             7760          (9) (a) [Prior to] Before the hearing, an opportunity to be represented by counsel shall
             7761      be afforded to every proposed patient, and if neither the patient nor others provide counsel, the
             7762      court shall appoint counsel and allow [him] counsel sufficient time to consult with the patient
             7763      [prior to] before the hearing. In the case of an indigent patient, the payment of reasonable
             7764      [attorneys'] attorney fees for counsel, as determined by the court, shall be made by the county
             7765      in which the patient resides or was found.
             7766          (b) The proposed patient, the applicant, and all other persons to whom notice is
             7767      required to be given shall be afforded an opportunity to appear at the hearing, to testify, and to
             7768      present and cross-examine witnesses. The court may, in its discretion, receive the testimony of
             7769      any other person. The court may allow a waiver of the patient's right to appear only for good
             7770      cause shown, and that cause shall be made a matter of court record.
             7771          (c) The court is authorized to exclude all persons not necessary for the conduct of the
             7772      proceedings and may, upon motion of counsel, require the testimony of each examiner to be
             7773      given out of the presence of any other examiners.
             7774          (d) The hearing shall be conducted in as informal a manner as may be consistent with
             7775      orderly procedure, and in a physical setting that is not likely to have a harmful effect on the


             7776      mental health of the proposed patient.
             7777          (e) The court shall consider all relevant historical and material information which is
             7778      offered, subject to the rules of evidence, including reliable hearsay under Rule 1102, Utah
             7779      Rules of Evidence.
             7780          (f) (i) A local mental health authority or its designee, or the physician in charge of the
             7781      patient's care shall, at the time of the hearing, provide the court with the following information:
             7782          (A) the detention order;
             7783          (B) admission notes;
             7784          (C) the diagnosis;
             7785          (D) any doctors' orders;
             7786          (E) progress notes;
             7787          (F) nursing notes; and
             7788          (G) medication records pertaining to the current commitment.
             7789          (ii) That information shall also be supplied to the patient's counsel at the time of the
             7790      hearing, and at any time prior to the hearing upon request.
             7791          (10) The court shall order commitment of an individual who is 18 years of age or older
             7792      to a local mental health authority if, upon completion of the hearing and consideration of the
             7793      information presented in accordance with Subsection (9)(e), the court finds by clear and
             7794      convincing evidence that:
             7795          (a) the proposed patient has a mental illness;
             7796          (b) because of the proposed patient's mental illness [he] the proposed patient poses a
             7797      substantial danger, as defined in Section 62A-15-602 , of physical injury to [others or himself]
             7798      self or others, which may include the inability to provide the basic necessities of life such as
             7799      food, clothing, and shelter, if allowed to remain at liberty;
             7800          (c) the patient lacks the ability to engage in a rational decision-making process
             7801      regarding the acceptance of mental treatment as demonstrated by evidence of inability to weigh
             7802      the possible risks of accepting or rejecting treatment;
             7803          (d) there is no appropriate less-restrictive alternative to a court order of commitment;
             7804      and
             7805          (e) the local mental health authority can provide the individual with treatment that is
             7806      adequate and appropriate to [his] the individual's conditions and needs. In the absence of the


             7807      required findings of the court after the hearing, the court shall forthwith dismiss the
             7808      proceedings.
             7809          (11) (a) The order of commitment shall designate the period for which the individual
             7810      shall be treated. When the individual is not under an order of commitment at the time of the
             7811      hearing, that period may not exceed six months without benefit of a review hearing. Upon
             7812      such a review hearing, to be commenced prior to the expiration of the previous order, an order
             7813      for commitment may be for an indeterminate period, if the court finds by clear and convincing
             7814      evidence that the required conditions in Subsection (10) will last for an indeterminate period.
             7815          (b) The court shall maintain a current list of all patients under its order of commitment.
             7816      That list shall be reviewed to determine those patients who have been under an order of
             7817      commitment for the designated period. At least two weeks prior to the expiration of the
             7818      designated period of any order of commitment still in effect, the court that entered the original
             7819      order shall inform the appropriate local mental health authority or its designee. The local
             7820      mental health authority or its designee shall immediately reexamine the reasons upon which the
             7821      order of commitment was based. If the local mental health authority or its designee determines
             7822      that the conditions justifying that commitment no longer exist, it shall discharge the patient
             7823      from involuntary commitment and immediately report that to the court. Otherwise, the court
             7824      shall immediately appoint two designated examiners and proceed under Subsections (8)
             7825      through (10).
             7826          (c) The local mental health authority or its designee responsible for the care of a patient
             7827      under an order of commitment for an indeterminate period, shall at six-month intervals
             7828      reexamine the reasons upon which the order of indeterminate commitment was based. If the
             7829      local mental health authority or its designee determines that the conditions justifying that
             7830      commitment no longer exist, that local mental health authority or its designee shall discharge
             7831      the patient from its custody and immediately report the discharge to the court. If the local
             7832      mental health authority or its designee determines that the conditions justifying that
             7833      commitment continue to exist, the local mental health authority or its designee shall send a
             7834      written report of those findings to the court. The patient and his counsel of record shall be
             7835      notified in writing that the involuntary commitment will be continued, the reasons for that
             7836      decision, and that the patient has the right to a review hearing by making a request to the court.
             7837      Upon receiving the request, the court shall immediately appoint two designated examiners and


             7838      proceed under Subsections (8) through (10).
             7839          (12) In the event that the designated examiners are unable, because a proposed patient
             7840      refuses to submit to an examination, to complete that examination on the first attempt, the
             7841      court shall fix a reasonable compensation to be paid to those designated examiners for their
             7842      services.
             7843          (13) Any person committed as a result of an original hearing or a person's legally
             7844      designated representative who is aggrieved by the findings, conclusions, and order of the court
             7845      entered in the original hearing has the right to a new hearing upon a petition filed with the court
             7846      within 30 days of the entry of the court order. The petition must allege error or mistake in the
             7847      findings, in which case the court shall appoint three impartial designated examiners previously
             7848      unrelated to the case to conduct an additional examination of the patient. The new hearing
             7849      shall, in all other respects, be conducted in the manner otherwise permitted.
             7850          (14) Costs of all proceedings under this section shall be paid by the county in which the
             7851      proposed patient resides or is found.
             7852          Section 141. Section 62A-15-632 is amended to read:
             7853           62A-15-632. Circumstances under which conditions justifying initial involuntary
             7854      commitment shall be considered to continue to exist.
             7855          (1) After a person has been involuntarily committed to the custody of a local mental
             7856      health authority under Subsection 62A-15-631 (10), the conditions justifying commitment
             7857      under that subsection shall be considered to continue to exist, for purposes of continued
             7858      treatment under Subsection 62A-15-631 (11) or conditional release under Section 62A-15-637 ,
             7859      if the court finds that the patient is still mentally ill, and that absent an order of involuntary
             7860      commitment and without continued treatment [he] the patient will suffer severe and abnormal
             7861      mental and emotional distress as indicated by recent past history, and will experience
             7862      deterioration in [his] the patient's ability to function in the least restrictive environment, thereby
             7863      making [him] the patient a substantial danger to [himself] self or others.
             7864          (2) A patient whose treatment is continued or who is conditionally released under the
             7865      terms of this section, shall be maintained in the least restrictive environment available [which]
             7866      that can provide [him] the patient with the treatment that is adequate and appropriate.
             7867          Section 142. Section 62A-15-644 is amended to read:
             7868           62A-15-644. Additional powers of director -- Reports and records of division.


             7869          (1) In addition to specific authority granted by other provisions of this part, the director
             7870      has authority to prescribe the form of applications, records, reports, and medical certificates
             7871      provided for under this part, and the information required to be contained therein, and to adopt
             7872      rules that are not inconsistent with the provisions of this part that [he] the director finds to be
             7873      reasonably necessary for the proper and efficient commitment of [mentally ill] persons with a
             7874      mental illness.
             7875          (2) The division shall require reports relating to the admission, examination, diagnosis,
             7876      release, or discharge of any patient and investigate complaints made by any patient or by any
             7877      person on behalf of a patient.
             7878          (3) A local mental health authority shall keep a record of the names and current status
             7879      of all persons involuntarily committed to it under this chapter.
             7880          Section 143. Section 62A-15-706 is amended to read:
             7881           62A-15-706. Parent advocate.
             7882          The division shall establish the position of a parent advocate to assist parents of
             7883      [mentally ill] children with a mental illness who are subject to the procedures required by this
             7884      part.
             7885          Section 144. Section 62A-15-902 is amended to read:
             7886           62A-15-902. Design and operation -- Security.
             7887          (1) The forensic mental health facility is a secure treatment facility.
             7888          (2) (a) The forensic mental health facility accommodates the following populations:
             7889          (i) prison inmates displaying mental illness, as defined in Section 62A-15-602 ,
             7890      necessitating treatment in a secure mental health facility;
             7891          (ii) criminally adjudicated persons found guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness
             7892      or guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense undergoing
             7893      evaluation for mental illness under Title 77, Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of
             7894      [Mentally Ill] Persons with a Mental Illness;
             7895          (iii) criminally adjudicated persons undergoing evaluation for competency or found
             7896      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness or guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness
             7897      at the time of the offense under Title 77, Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of
             7898      [Mentally Ill] Persons with a Mental Illness, who also have [mental retardation] an intellectual
             7899      disability;


             7900          (iv) persons undergoing evaluation for competency or found by a court to be
             7901      incompetent to proceed in accordance with Title 77, Chapter 15, Inquiry into Sanity of
             7902      Defendant, or not guilty by reason of insanity under Title 77, Chapter 14, Defenses;
             7903          (v) persons who are civilly committed to the custody of a local mental health authority
             7904      in accordance with Title 62A, Chapter 15, Part 6, Utah State Hospital and Other Mental Health
             7905      Facilities, and who may not be properly supervised by the Utah State Hospital because of a lack
             7906      of necessary security, as determined by the superintendent or the superintendent's designee; and
             7907          (vi) persons ordered to commit themselves to the custody of the Division of Substance
             7908      Abuse and Mental Health for treatment at the Utah State Hospital as a condition of probation or
             7909      stay of sentence pursuant to Title 77, Chapter 18, The Judgment.
             7910          (b) Placement of an offender in the forensic mental health facility under any category
             7911      described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (vi) shall be made on the basis of the offender's
             7912      status as established by the court at the time of adjudication.
             7913          (c) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
             7914      department shall make rules providing for the allocation of beds to the categories described in
             7915      Subsection (2)(a).
             7916          (3) The department shall:
             7917          (a) own and operate the forensic mental health facility;
             7918          (b) provide and supervise administrative and clinical staff; and
             7919          (c) provide security staff who are trained as psychiatric technicians.
             7920          (4) Pursuant to Subsection 62A-15-603 (3) the executive director shall designate
             7921      individuals to perform security functions for the state hospital.
             7922          Section 145. Section 63M-9-103 is amended to read:
             7923           63M-9-103. Definitions.
             7924          As used in this chapter:
             7925          (1) "Children and youth at risk" means:
             7926          (a) [disabled] persons, age 18 to 22, who have a disability; or
             7927          (b) persons in the custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice Services within the
             7928      Department of Human Services age 18 to 21; and
             7929          (c) minors who may at times require appropriate and uniquely designed intervention to:
             7930          (i) achieve literacy;


             7931          (ii) advance through the schools;
             7932          (iii) achieve commensurate with their ability; and
             7933          (iv) participate in society in a meaningful way as competent, productive, caring, and
             7934      responsible citizens.
             7935          (2) "Council" means the Families, Agencies, and Communities Together State Council
             7936      established under Section 63M-9-201 .
             7937          (3) "Local interagency council" means a council established under Section 63M-9-301 .
             7938          (4) "Steering committee" means the Families, Agencies, and Communities Together
             7939      Steering Committee established under Section 63M-9-202 .
             7940          (5) (a) "Child and family centered service delivery system" means services provided to
             7941      children and youth at risk and their families that may be delivered by teams and within a
             7942      supportive community environment.
             7943          (b) "Community" includes, when available, parents of children and youth at risk;
             7944      directors of geographical service delivery areas designated by state agencies; local government
             7945      elected officials; appointed county officials who are responsible for providing substance abuse,
             7946      mental health, or public health services; educators; school districts; parent-teacher
             7947      organizations; child and family advocacy groups; religious and community-based service
             7948      organizations; individuals; and private sector entities who come together to develop, adopt, and
             7949      administer a plan for a collaborative service delivery system for children and youth at risk.
             7950          (c) "Community resources" means time, money, services, and other contributions
             7951      provided by individuals, private sector entities, religious organizations, community-based
             7952      service organizations, school districts, municipal governments, and county governments.
             7953          (d) "Individualized and coordinated service plan" means a plan for services and
             7954      supports that is comprehensive in its scope, is the product of a collaborative process between
             7955      public and private service providers, and is specifically tailored to the unique needs of each
             7956      child or youth served under this chapter.
             7957          (e) "Performance monitoring system" means a process to regularly collect and analyze
             7958      performance information including performance indicators and performance goals:
             7959          (i) "performance indicators" means actual performance information regarding a
             7960      program or activity; and
             7961          (ii) "performance goals" means a target level of performance or an expected level of


             7962      performance against which actual performance is measured.
             7963          (f) "Plan for a collaborative service delivery system," "plan," or "plans" means a
             7964      written document describing how a community proposes to deliver services and supports to
             7965      children and youth at risk that effectively bring to bear all needed resources, including
             7966      community resources, to enable them to achieve the outcomes described in Subsection (1)(c).
             7967          Section 146. Section 64-9b-1 is amended to read:
             7968           64-9b-1. Legislative findings.
             7969          (1) The Legislature finds that it is in the best interest of the state [of Utah] for the
             7970      department to:
             7971          (a) develop job opportunities to further enhance the rehabilitation of inmates of the
             7972      Utah state prison;
             7973          (b) establish and actively work toward the goal that all inmates shall be productively
             7974      involved in a treatment, education, or work program, or a combination of these programs, as
             7975      appropriate, except for inmates who the department determines [are physically or mentally
             7976      disabled] have a physical or mental disability, or pose a danger to the public, so that they are
             7977      unable to engage in these activities; and
             7978          (c) submit a comprehensive management plan outlining the department's plan to meet
             7979      this goal to the Legislature on or before November 1 of each even-numbered year, and the plan
             7980      shall include:
             7981          (i) a cost-effective analysis of current inmate education, treatment, and work programs;
             7982      and
             7983          (ii) a study of the feasibility of expanding inmate work programs, particularly in regard
             7984      to programs that:
             7985          (A) are not capital intensive;
             7986          (B) do not unfairly compete with existing Utah industry; and
             7987          (C) are designed to increase the motivation, develop the work capabilities, and foster
             7988      the cooperation of inmates.
             7989          (2) The Legislature further finds that a proper means to accomplish this is through a
             7990      liberal application of this [act] chapter.
             7991          Section 147. Section 67-19-27 is amended to read:
             7992           67-19-27. Leave of absence with pay for employees with a disability who are


             7993      covered under other civil service systems.
             7994          (1) As used in this section:
             7995          (a) (i) "Law enforcement officer" means a sworn and certified peace officer who is an
             7996      employee of a law enforcement agency that is part of or administered by the state, and whose
             7997      primary and principal duties consist of the prevention and detection of crime and the
             7998      enforcement of criminal statutes of this state.
             7999          (ii) "Law enforcement officer" specifically includes the following:
             8000          (A) the commissioner of public safety and any member of the Department of Public
             8001      Safety certified as a peace officer;
             8002          (B) all persons specified in Sections 23-20-1.5 and 79-4-501 ;
             8003          (C) investigators for the Motor Vehicle Enforcement Division;
             8004          (D) special agents or investigators employed by the attorney general;
             8005          (E) employees of the Department of Natural Resources designated as peace officers by
             8006      law;
             8007          (F) the executive director of the Department of Corrections and any correctional
             8008      enforcement or investigative officer designated by the executive director and approved by the
             8009      commissioner of public safety and certified by the division; and
             8010          (G) correctional enforcement, investigative, or adult probation and parole officers
             8011      employed by the Department of Corrections serving on or before July 1, 1993.
             8012          (b) "State correctional officer" means a correctional officer as defined in Section
             8013      53-13-104 who is employed by the Department of Corrections.
             8014          (2) (a) Each law enforcement officer, state correctional officer, operator license
             8015      examiner, commercial license examiner, or Driver License Division hearing examiner who is
             8016      injured in the course of employment shall be given a leave of absence with full pay during the
             8017      period the employee [is temporarily disabled] has a temporary disability.
             8018          (b) This compensation is in lieu of all other compensation provided by law except
             8019      hospital and medical services that are provided by law.
             8020          (3) Each law enforcement officer or state correctional officer who [is 100% disabled]
             8021      has a 100% disability through a criminal act upon [his] the law enforcement officer's person
             8022      while in the lawful discharge of [his] the law enforcement officer's duties, shall be given a
             8023      leave of absence with full compensation until [he] the law enforcement officer retires or


             8024      reaches the retirement age of 62 years.
             8025          Section 148. Section 68-3-12.5 is amended to read:
             8026           68-3-12.5. Definitions for Utah Code.
             8027          (1) The definitions listed in this section apply to the Utah Code, unless:
             8028          (a) the definition is inconsistent with the manifest intent of the Legislature or repugnant
             8029      to the context of the statute; or
             8030          (b) a different definition is expressly provided for the respective title, chapter, part,
             8031      section, or subsection.
             8032          (2) "Adjudicative proceeding" means:
             8033          (a) an action by a board, commission, department, officer, or other administrative unit
             8034      of the state that determines the legal rights, duties, privileges, immunities, or other legal
             8035      interests of one or more identifiable persons, including an action to grant, deny, revoke,
             8036      suspend, modify, annul, withdraw, or amend an authority, right, or license; and
             8037          (b) judicial review of an action described in Subsection (2)(a).
             8038          (3) "Administrator" includes "executor" when the subject matter justifies the use.
             8039          (4) "Advisory board," "advisory commission," and "advisory council" mean a board,
             8040      commission, committee, or council that:
             8041          (a) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, statute or executive order;
             8042          (b) performs its duties only under the supervision of another person as provided by
             8043      statute; and
             8044          (c) provides advice and makes recommendations to another person that makes policy
             8045      for the benefit of the general public.
             8046          (5) "County executive" means:
             8047          (a) the county commission, in the county commission or expanded county commission
             8048      form of government established under Title 17, Chapter 52, Changing Forms of County
             8049      Government;
             8050          (b) the county executive, in the county executive-council optional form of government
             8051      authorized by Section 17-52-504 ; or
             8052          (c) the county manager, in the council-manager optional form of government
             8053      authorized by Section 17-52-505 .
             8054          (6) "County legislative body" means:


             8055          (a) the county commission, in the county commission or expanded county commission
             8056      form of government established under Title 17, Chapter 52, Changing Forms of County
             8057      Government;
             8058          (b) the county council, in the county executive-council optional form of government
             8059      authorized by Section 17-52-504 ; and
             8060          (c) the county council, in the council-manager optional form of government authorized
             8061      by Section 17-52-505 .
             8062          (7) "Depose" means to make a written statement made under oath or affirmation.
             8063          (8) "Executor" includes "administrator" when the subject matter justifies the use.
             8064          (9) "Guardian" includes a person who:
             8065          (a) qualifies as a guardian of a minor or incapacitated person pursuant to testamentary
             8066      or court appointment; or
             8067          (b) is appointed by a court to manage the estate of a minor or incapacitated person.
             8068          (10) "Highway" includes:
             8069          (a) a public bridge;
             8070          (b) a county way;
             8071          (c) a county road;
             8072          (d) a common road; and
             8073          (e) a state road.
             8074          (11) "Intellectual disability" means a significant, subaverage general intellectual
             8075      functioning that:
             8076          (a) exists concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior; and
             8077          (b) is manifested during the developmental period as defined in the current edition of
             8078      the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American
             8079      Psychiatric Association.
             8080          (12) "Intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability" means an
             8081      intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as defined in Title XIX of the Social
             8082      Security Act.
             8083          [(11)] (13) "Land" includes:
             8084          (a) land;
             8085          (b) a tenement;


             8086          (c) a hereditament;
             8087          (d) a water right;
             8088          (e) a possessory right; and
             8089          (f) a claim.
             8090          [(12)] (14) "Month" means a calendar month, unless otherwise expressed.
             8091          [(13)] (15) "Oath" includes "affirmation."
             8092          [(14)] (16) "Person" means:
             8093          (a) an individual;
             8094          (b) an association;
             8095          (c) an institution;
             8096          (d) a corporation;
             8097          (e) a company;
             8098          (f) a trust;
             8099          (g) a limited liability company;
             8100          (h) a partnership;
             8101          (i) a political subdivision;
             8102          (j) a government office, department, division, bureau, or other body of government;
             8103      and
             8104          (k) any other organization or entity.
             8105          [(15)] (17) "Personal property" includes:
             8106          (a) money;
             8107          (b) goods;
             8108          (c) chattels;
             8109          (d) effects;
             8110          (e) evidences of a right in action;
             8111          (f) a written instrument by which a pecuniary obligation, right, or title to property is
             8112      created, acknowledged, transferred, increased, defeated, discharged, or diminished; and
             8113          (g) a right or interest in an item described in Subsections [(15)] (17)(a) through (f).
             8114          [(16)] (18) "Personal representative," "executor," and "administrator" include:
             8115          (a) an executor;
             8116          (b) an administrator;


             8117          (c) a successor personal representative;
             8118          (d) a special administrator; and
             8119          (e) a person who performs substantially the same function as a person described in
             8120      Subsections [(16)] (18)(a) through (d) under the law governing the person's status.
             8121          [(17)] (19) "Policy board," "policy commission," or "policy council" means a board,
             8122      commission, or council that:
             8123          (a) is authorized to make policy for the benefit of the general public;
             8124          (b) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, the constitution or statute; and
             8125          (c) performs its duties according to its own rules without supervision other than under
             8126      the general control of another person as provided by statute.
             8127          [(18)] (20) "Population" is shown by the most recent state or national census, unless
             8128      expressly provided otherwise.
             8129          [(19)] (21) "Process" means a writ or summons issued in the course of a judicial
             8130      proceeding.
             8131          [(20)] (22) "Property" includes both real and personal property.
             8132          [(21)] (23) "Real estate" or "real property" includes:
             8133          (a) land;
             8134          (b) a tenement;
             8135          (c) a hereditament;
             8136          (d) a water right;
             8137          (e) a possessory right; and
             8138          (f) a claim.
             8139          [(22)] (24) "Review board," "review commission," and "review council" mean a board,
             8140      commission, committee, or council that:
             8141          (a) is authorized to approve policy made for the benefit of the general public by another
             8142      body or person;
             8143          (b) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, statute; and
             8144          (c) performs its duties according to its own rules without supervision other than under
             8145      the general control of another person as provided by statute.
             8146          [(23)] (25) "Road" includes:
             8147          (a) a public bridge;


             8148          (b) a county way;
             8149          (c) a county road;
             8150          (d) a common road; and
             8151          (e) a state road.
             8152          [(24)] (26) "Signature" includes a name, mark, or sign written with the intent to
             8153      authenticate an instrument or writing.
             8154          [(25)] (27) "State," when applied to the different parts of the United States, includes a
             8155      state, district, or territory of the United States.
             8156          [(26)] (28) "Swear" includes "affirm."
             8157          [(27)] (29) "Testify" means to make an oral statement under oath or affirmation.
             8158          [(28)] (30) "United States" includes each state, district, and territory of the United
             8159      States of America.
             8160          [(29)] (31) "Utah Code" means the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code, as amended,
             8161      unless the text expressly references a portion of the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code as it
             8162      existed:
             8163          (a) on the day on which the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code was enacted; or
             8164          (b) (i) after the day described in Subsection [(29)] (31)(a); and
             8165          (ii) before the most recent amendment to the referenced portion of the 1953
             8166      recodification of the Utah Code.
             8167          [(30)] (32) "Vessel," when used with reference to shipping, includes a steamboat, canal
             8168      boat, and every structure adapted to be navigated from place to place.
             8169          [(31)] (33) "Will" includes a codicil.
             8170          [(32)] (34) "Writ" means an order or precept in writing, issued in the name of:
             8171          (a) the state;
             8172          (b) a court; or
             8173          (c) a judicial officer.
             8174          [(33)] (35) "Writing" includes:
             8175          (a) printing;
             8176          (b) handwriting; and
             8177          (c) information stored in an electronic or other medium if the information is retrievable
             8178      in a perceivable format.


             8179          Section 149. Section 71-10-1 is amended to read:
             8180           71-10-1. Definitions.
             8181          As used in this chapter:
             8182          (1) "Active duty" means active military duty and does not include active duty for
             8183      training, initial active duty for training, or inactive duty for training.
             8184          [(3)] (2) "Government entity" means the state, any county, municipality, local district,
             8185      special service district, or any other political subdivision or administrative unit of the state,
             8186      including state institutions of education.
             8187          [(4)] (3) "Preference eligible" means:
             8188          (a) any individual who has served on active duty in the armed forces for more than 180
             8189      consecutive days, or was a member of a reserve component who served in a campaign or
             8190      expedition for which a campaign medal has been authorized and who has been separated under
             8191      honorable conditions;
             8192          (b) a [disabled veteran with any] veteran with a disability, regardless of the percentage
             8193      of disability;
             8194          (c) the spouse or unmarried widow or widower of a veteran;
             8195          (d) a purple heart recipient; or
             8196          (e) a retired member of the armed forces who retired below the rank of major or its
             8197      equivalent.
             8198          [(5)] (4) "Veteran" means:
             8199          (a) an individual who has served on active duty in the armed forces for more than 180
             8200      consecutive days, or was a member of a reserve component who served in a campaign or
             8201      expedition for which a campaign medal has been authorized and who has been separated or
             8202      retired under honorable conditions; or
             8203          (b) any individual incurring an actual service-related injury or disability in the line of
             8204      duty whether or not that person completed 180 consecutive days of active duty.
             8205          [(2) "Disabled veteran"] (5) "Veteran with a disability" means an individual who has:
             8206          (a) been separated or retired from the armed forces under honorable conditions; and
             8207          (b) established the existence of a service-connected disability or is receiving
             8208      compensation, disability retirement benefits, or pension because of a public statute
             8209      administered by the federal Department of Veterans Affairs or a military department.


             8210          Section 150. Section 71-10-2 is amended to read:
             8211           71-10-2. Veteran's preference.
             8212          (1) Each government entity shall grant a veteran's preference upon initial hiring to each
             8213      preference eligible veteran or preference eligible spouse according to the procedures and
             8214      requirements of this chapter.
             8215          (2) The personnel officer of any government entity shall add to the score of a
             8216      preference eligible who receives a passing score on an examination, or any rating or ranking
             8217      mechanism used in selecting an individual for any career service position with the government
             8218      entity:
             8219          (a) [five percent] 5% of the total possible score, if [he] the preference eligible is a
             8220      veteran;
             8221          (b) [10 percent] 10% of the total possible score, if [he] the preference eligible is a
             8222      [disabled] veteran with a disability or a purple heart recipient; or
             8223          (c) in the case of a preference eligible spouse, widow, or widower, the same percentage
             8224      the qualifying veteran is, or would have been, entitled to.
             8225          (3) A preference eligible who applies for a position that does not require an
             8226      examination, or where examination results are other than a numeric score, shall be given
             8227      preference in interviewing and hiring for the position.
             8228          Section 151. Section 71-11-2 is amended to read:
             8229           71-11-2. Definitions.
             8230          As used in this chapter:
             8231          (1) "Administrator" means a Veterans' Nursing Home Administrator selected in
             8232      accordance with Section 71-11-5 .
             8233          (2) "Board" means any Veterans' Nursing Home Advisory Board.
             8234          (3) "Department" means the Department of Veterans' Affairs created in Section 71-8-2 .
             8235          (4) "Executive director" means the executive director of the Department of Veterans'
             8236      Affairs.
             8237          (5) "Home" means any Utah Veterans' Nursing Home.
             8238          (6) "Veteran" [shall have the same meaning as found] is as defined in Subsection
             8239      71-10-1 [(5)] (4).
             8240          Section 152. Section 72-10-601 is amended to read:


             8241           72-10-601. Definitions.
             8242          As used in this part:
             8243          (1) "City" means a municipality of the first class, as defined under Section 10-2-301 ,
             8244      that:
             8245          (a) is authorized by statute to operate an airport; and
             8246          (b) operates an airport with greater than 10 million annual passengers.
             8247          (2) "Division" means the Criminal Investigation and Technical Services Division of the
             8248      Department of Public Safety, established in Section 53-10-103 .
             8249          (3) "Ground transportation service" means transporting passengers for hire or as a
             8250      courtesy in connection with a business over public streets pursuant to a license with the city.
             8251          (4) (a) "Ground transportation service provider" means a driver who provides ground
             8252      transportation service where the pickup or drop-off of a passenger occurs at an airport under a
             8253      city's authority.
             8254          (b) "Ground transportation service provider" includes:
             8255          (i) a taxicab driver;
             8256          (ii) a limousine or luxury car driver;
             8257          (iii) a bus or minibus driver, except a driver of a transit vehicle, as defined in Section
             8258      17B-2a-802 ;
             8259          (iv) a courtesy vehicle or hotel vehicle driver;
             8260          (v) a special transportation vehicle driver who transports [disabled] persons with a
             8261      disability; and
             8262          (vi) a van driver.
             8263          Section 153. Section 75-2-801 is amended to read:
             8264           75-2-801. Disclaimer of property interests -- Time -- Form -- Effect -- Waiver and
             8265      bar -- Remedy not exclusive -- Application.
             8266          (1) A person, or the representative of a person, to whom an interest in or with respect
             8267      to property or an interest therein devolves by whatever means may disclaim it in whole or in
             8268      part by delivering or filing a written disclaimer under this section. The right to disclaim exists
             8269      notwithstanding:
             8270          (a) any limitation on the interest of the disclaimant in the nature of a spendthrift
             8271      provision or similar restriction; or


             8272          (b) any restriction or limitation on the right to disclaim contained in the governing
             8273      instrument. For purposes of this subsection, the "representative of a person" includes a
             8274      personal representative of a decedent, a conservator of a [disabled] person with a disability, a
             8275      guardian of a minor or incapacitated person, and an agent acting on behalf of the person within
             8276      the authority of a power of attorney.
             8277          (2) The following rules govern the time when a disclaimer shall be filed or delivered:
             8278          (a) If the property or interest has devolved to the disclaimant under a testamentary
             8279      instrument or by the laws of intestacy, the disclaimer shall be filed, if of a present interest, not
             8280      later than nine months after the death of the deceased owner or deceased donee of a power of
             8281      appointment and, if of a future interest, not later than nine months after the event determining
             8282      that the taker of the property or interest is finally ascertained and his interest is indefeasibly
             8283      vested. The disclaimer shall be filed in the district court of the county in which proceedings for
             8284      the administration of the estate of the deceased owner or deceased donee of the power have
             8285      been commenced. A copy of the disclaimer shall be delivered in person or mailed by registered
             8286      or certified mail, return receipt requested, to any personal representative or other fiduciary of
             8287      the decedent or donee of the power.
             8288          (b) If a property or interest has devolved to the disclaimant under a nontestamentary
             8289      instrument or contract, the disclaimer shall be delivered or filed, if of a present interest, not
             8290      later than nine months after the effective date of the nontestamentary instrument or contract
             8291      and, if of a future interest, not later than nine months after the event determining that the taker
             8292      of the property or interest is finally ascertained and his interest is indefeasibly vested. If the
             8293      person entitled to disclaim does not know of the existence of the interest, the disclaimer shall
             8294      be delivered or filed not later than nine months after the person learns of the existence of the
             8295      interest. The effective date of a revocable instrument or contract is the date on which the
             8296      maker no longer has power to revoke it or to transfer to [himself] the maker or another the
             8297      entire legal and equitable ownership of the interest. The disclaimer or a copy thereof shall be
             8298      delivered in person or mailed by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the
             8299      person who has legal title to or possession of the interest disclaimed.
             8300          (c) A surviving joint tenant or tenant by the entireties may disclaim as a separate
             8301      interest any property or interest therein devolving to him by right of survivorship. A surviving
             8302      joint tenant or tenant by the entireties may disclaim the entire interest in any property or interest


             8303      therein that is the subject of a joint tenancy or tenancy by the entireties devolving to [him] the
             8304      surviving joint tenant or tenant by the entireties, if the joint tenancy or tenancy by the entireties
             8305      was created by act of a deceased joint tenant or tenant by the entireties, the survivor did not
             8306      join in creating the joint tenancy or tenancy by the entireties, and has not accepted a benefit
             8307      under it.
             8308          (d) If real property or an interest therein is disclaimed, a copy of the disclaimer may be
             8309      recorded in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the property or interest
             8310      disclaimed is located.
             8311          (3) The disclaimer shall:
             8312          (a) describe the property or interest disclaimed;
             8313          (b) declare the disclaimer and extent thereof; and
             8314          (c) be signed by the disclaimant.
             8315          (4) The effects of a disclaimer are:
             8316          (a) If property or an interest therein devolves to a disclaimant under a testamentary
             8317      instrument, under a power of appointment exercised by a testamentary instrument, or under the
             8318      laws of intestacy, and the decedent has not provided for another disposition of that interest,
             8319      should it be disclaimed, or of disclaimed, or failed interests in general, the disclaimed interest
             8320      devolves as if the disclaimant had predeceased the decedent, but if by law or under the
             8321      testamentary instrument the descendants of the disclaimant would share in the disclaimed
             8322      interest per capita at each generation or otherwise were the disclaimant to predecease the
             8323      decedent, then the disclaimed interest passes per capita at each generation, or passes as directed
             8324      by the governing instrument, to the descendants of the disclaimant who survive the decedent.
             8325      A future interest that takes effect in possession or enjoyment after the termination of the estate
             8326      or interest disclaimed takes effect as if the disclaimant had predeceased the decedent. A
             8327      disclaimer relates back for all purposes to the date of death of the decedent.
             8328          (b) If property or an interest therein devolves to a disclaimant under a nontestamentary
             8329      instrument or contract and the instrument or contract does not provide for another disposition
             8330      of that interest, should it be disclaimed, or of disclaimed or failed interests in general, the
             8331      disclaimed interest devolves as if the disclaimant has predeceased the effective date of the
             8332      instrument or contract, but if by law or under the nontestamentary instrument or contract the
             8333      descendants of the disclaimant would share in the disclaimed interest per capita at each


             8334      generation or otherwise were the disclaimant to predecease the effective date of the instrument,
             8335      then the disclaimed interest passes per capita at each generation, or passes as directed by the
             8336      governing instrument, to the descendants of the disclaimant who survive the effective date of
             8337      the instrument. A disclaimer relates back for all purposes to that date. A future interest that
             8338      takes effect in possession or enjoyment at or after the termination of the disclaimed interest
             8339      takes effect as if the disclaimant had died before the effective date of the instrument or contract
             8340      that transferred the disclaimed interest.
             8341          (c) The disclaimer or the written waiver of the right to disclaim is binding upon the
             8342      disclaimant or person waiving and all persons claiming through or under either of them.
             8343          (5) The right to disclaim property or an interest therein is barred by:
             8344          (a) an assignment, conveyance, encumbrance, pledge, or transfer of the property or
             8345      interest, or a contract therefor;
             8346          (b) a written waiver of the right to disclaim;
             8347          (c) an acceptance of the property or interest or a benefit under it; or
             8348          (d) a sale of the property or interest under judicial sale made before the disclaimer is
             8349      made.
             8350          (6) This section does not abridge the right of a person to waive, release, disclaim, or
             8351      renounce property or an interest therein under any other statute.
             8352          (7) An interest in property that exists on July 1, 1998, as to which, if a present interest,
             8353      the time for filing a disclaimer under this section has not expired or, if a future interest, the
             8354      interest has not become indefeasibly vested or the taker finally ascertained, may be disclaimed
             8355      within nine months after July 1, 1998.
             8356          Section 154. Section 75-5-303 is amended to read:
             8357           75-5-303. Procedure for court appointment of a guardian of an incapacitated
             8358      person.
             8359          (1) The incapacitated person or any person interested in the incapacitated person's
             8360      welfare may petition for a finding of incapacity and appointment of a guardian.
             8361          (2) Upon the filing of a petition, the court shall set a date for hearing on the issues of
             8362      incapacity; and unless the allegedly incapacitated person has counsel of the person's own
             8363      choice, it shall appoint an attorney to represent the person in the proceeding the cost of which
             8364      shall be paid by the person alleged to be incapacitated, unless the court determines that the


             8365      petition is without merit, in which case the attorney fees and court costs shall be paid by the
             8366      person filing the petition.
             8367          (3) The person alleged to be incapacitated may be examined by a physician appointed
             8368      by the court who shall submit a report in writing to the court and may be interviewed by a
             8369      visitor sent by the court. The visitor also may interview the person seeking appointment as
             8370      guardian, visit the present place of abode of the person alleged to be incapacitated and the place
             8371      it is proposed that the person will be detained or reside if the requested appointment is made,
             8372      and submit a report in writing to the court.
             8373          (4) (a) The person alleged to be incapacitated shall be present at the hearing in person
             8374      and see or hear all evidence bearing upon the person's condition. If the person seeking the
             8375      guardianship requests a waiver of presence of the person alleged to be incapacitated, the court
             8376      shall order an investigation by a court visitor, the costs of which shall be paid by the person
             8377      seeking the guardianship.
             8378          (b) The investigation by a court visitor is not required if there is clear and convincing
             8379      evidence from a physician that the person alleged to be incapacitated [suffers from: (a)] has:
             8380          (i) fourth stage Alzheimer's Disease; [(b)]
             8381          (ii) extended comatosis; or [(c) profound mental retardation.]
             8382          (iii) (A) an intellectual disability; and
             8383          (B) an intelligence quotient score under 20 to 25.
             8384          (c) The person alleged to be incapacitated is entitled to be represented by counsel, to
             8385      present evidence, to cross-examine witnesses, including the court-appointed physician and the
             8386      visitor, and to trial by jury. The issue may be determined at a closed hearing without a jury if
             8387      the person alleged to be incapacitated or the person's counsel so requests.
             8388          Section 155. Section 75-5-316 is amended to read:
             8389           75-5-316. Expedited guardianship proceedings.
             8390          (1) (a) With regard to persons who are residents of the Utah State Developmental
             8391      Center, the expedited process provided by this section may be applied to obtain a limited
             8392      guardianship.
             8393          (b) For purposes of this section:
             8394          (i) "Limited guardianship" means a guardianship solely for the purpose of granting
             8395      consent for medical care and for participation in approval of the ward's individualized program


             8396      plan.
             8397          (ii) "Ward" means a resident of the Utah State Developmental Center who is the
             8398      subject of guardianship proceedings under this section.
             8399          (2) Any person interested in the incapacitated person's welfare may file a petition for a
             8400      finding of incapacity and appointment of a guardian. That person may seek the limited
             8401      guardianship pro se, using the forms described in this section. Any fee for filing a petition for a
             8402      limited guardianship shall be waived if the guardian is proceeding under this section.
             8403          (3) Upon filing a petition for limited guardianship under this section, the court shall set
             8404      a date for hearing.
             8405          (4) The ward has the right to be present at the hearing and to see and hear all evidence
             8406      relating to his condition.
             8407          (5) At that hearing the court shall review the affidavit of the superintendent of the Utah
             8408      State Developmental Center, described in Subsection (11), and determine whether notice has
             8409      been given to the appropriate persons described in Subsection (6).
             8410          (6) If the proposed guardian is not a parent or relative of the ward, personal notice shall
             8411      be given to the ward's spouse, parents, and any adult children of the ward. Personal notice
             8412      shall also be given to other persons as the court may direct.
             8413          (7) The court may, in its discretion, appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the ward in
             8414      the hearing, and may request independent evaluation by a physician appointed by the court.
             8415      The physician shall submit his findings to the court in writing.
             8416          (8) The court may grant the petition for a limited guardianship and sign the Order of
             8417      Appointment if the court finds that:
             8418          (a) the appropriate parties have been given notice;
             8419          (b) the ward is incapacitated, based on the affidavit of the superintendent of the Utah
             8420      State Developmental Center and any affidavit or testimony of persons entitled to receive notice
             8421      or requested to present evidence under this section; and
             8422          (c) it is necessary and desirable to establish the guardianship.
             8423          (9) Venue for these expedited guardianship proceedings shall be the same as that
             8424      described in Section 75-5-302 .
             8425          (10) A petition for a limited guardianship shall include the following information:
             8426          (a) the interest of the petitioner;


             8427          (b) the name, age, residence, and address of the ward;
             8428          (c) verification that the ward is a resident of the Utah State Developmental Center;
             8429          (d) the name and address of the nearest relative of the ward; and
             8430          (e) the reason for appointment of guardianship.
             8431          (11) The petitioner shall also provide the court with an affidavit of the superintendent
             8432      of the Utah State Developmental Center that includes the following information:
             8433          (a) that the ward is a resident of the Utah State Developmental Center;
             8434          (b) the date the ward was originally admitted to the Utah State Developmental Center;
             8435          (c) the diagnosis of the ward, including a description of the ward's disabling condition,
             8436      the level of [retardation] the ward's intellectual disability, and any medical or physical
             8437      conditions of the ward;
             8438          (d) that the Utah State Developmental Center is certified as an [Intermediate Care
             8439      Facility for the Mentally Retarded under Title XIX of the Social Security Act] intermediate
             8440      care facility for people with an intellectual disability;
             8441          (e) that because of that certification, the Utah State Developmental Center receives
             8442      financial participation from the United States Government for its operation and maintenance
             8443      costs; and
             8444          (f) that federal regulations under Title XIX require the ward to have a guardian
             8445      appointed for the sole purpose of giving consent for medical and dental care and of
             8446      participation in and approval of the ward's individual program plan.
             8447          (12) If the court finds that, under the requirements of this section the proposed limited
             8448      guardian should be appointed, it shall enter an order establishing that limited guardianship in
             8449      substantially the following form:
             8450          The court finds that:
             8451          (a) appointment of a limited guardianship for (named ward) is necessary and desirable
             8452      as a means of providing continuing care and supervision and to ensure his welfare;
             8453          (b) the ward is incapacitated;
             8454          (c) (named guardian) is appointed as the limited guardian of (named ward); and
             8455          (d) the guardianship is a limited guardianship solely for the purpose of:
             8456          (i) granting permission for medical and dental care on behalf of the ward; and
             8457          (ii) participation in the development and approval of the ward's individual program


             8458plan.
             8459          (13) Appointment of guardianship under this section places no additional responsibility
             8460      or liability on the guardian with regard to the ward. The limited guardianship is solely for
             8461      consent for medical care and approval of the ward's individualized program plan, and shall not
             8462      be construed to increase or create liability or responsibility for the guardian.
             8463          Section 156. Section 75-5-408 is amended to read:
             8464           75-5-408. Permissible court orders.
             8465          (1) The court has the following powers which may be exercised directly or through a
             8466      conservator in respect to the estate and affairs of protected persons:
             8467          (a) While a petition for appointment of a conservator or other protective order is
             8468      pending and after preliminary hearing and without notice to others, the court has power to
             8469      preserve and apply the property of the person to be protected as may be required for [his] the
             8470      person's benefit or the benefit of [his] the person's dependents.
             8471          (b) After hearing and upon determining that a basis for an appointment or other
             8472      protective order exists with respect to a minor without other disability, the court has all those
             8473      powers over the estate and affairs of the minor which are or might be necessary for the best
             8474      interests of the minor, [his] the minor's family, and the members of [his] the minor's household.
             8475          (c) After hearing and upon determining that a basis for an appointment or other
             8476      protective order exists with respect to a person for reasons other than minority, the court has,
             8477      for the benefit of the person and members of [his] the person's household, all the powers over
             8478      [his] the person's estate and affairs [which he] that the person could exercise if present and not
             8479      under disability, except the power to make a will. These powers include[, but are not limited
             8480      to] the power to make gifts, to convey or release [his] the person's contingent and expectant
             8481      interests in property including marital property rights and any right of survivorship incident to
             8482      joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety, to exercise or release [his] the person's powers as
             8483      trustee, personal representative, custodian for minors, conservator, or donee of a power of
             8484      appointment, to enter into contracts, to create revocable or irrevocable trusts of property of the
             8485      estate [which] that may extend beyond [his] the person's disability or life, to exercise options of
             8486      the [disabled] person with a disability to purchase securities or other property, to exercise [his]
             8487      the person's rights to elect options and change beneficiaries under insurance and annuity
             8488      policies and to surrender the policies for their cash value, to exercise [his] the person's right to


             8489      an elective share in the estate of [his] the person's deceased spouse, and to renounce any
             8490      interest by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transfer.
             8491          (d) The court may exercise, or direct the exercise of, its authority to exercise or release
             8492      powers of appointment of which the protected person is donee, to renounce interests, to make
             8493      gifts in trust or otherwise exceeding 20% of any year's income of the estate, or to change
             8494      beneficiaries under insurance and annuity policies, only if satisfied, after notice and hearing,
             8495      that it is in the best interests of the protected person, and that [he] the person either is incapable
             8496      of consenting or has consented to the proposed exercise of power.
             8497          (2) An order made pursuant to this section determining that a basis for appointment of
             8498      a conservator or other protective order exists has no effect on the capacity of the protected
             8499      person.
             8500          Section 157. Section 75-5-425 is amended to read:
             8501           75-5-425. Distributive duties and powers of conservator.
             8502          (1) A conservator may expend or distribute income or principal of the estate without
             8503      court authorization or confirmation for the support, education, care, or benefit of the protected
             8504      person and his dependents in accordance with the following principles:
             8505          (a) The conservator is to consider recommendations relating to the appropriate standard
             8506      of support, education, and benefit for the protected person made by a parent or guardian, if any.
             8507      He may not be surcharged for sums paid to persons or organizations actually furnishing
             8508      support, education, or care to the protected person pursuant to the recommendations of a parent
             8509      or guardian of the protected person unless he knows that the parent or guardian is deriving
             8510      personal financial benefit therefrom, including relief from any personal duty of support, or
             8511      unless the recommendations are clearly not in the best interests of the protected person.
             8512          (b) The conservator is to expend or distribute sums reasonably necessary for the
             8513      support, education, care or benefit of the protected person with due regard to:
             8514          (i) the size of the estate, the probable duration of the conservatorship and the likelihood
             8515      that the protected person, at some future time, may be fully able to manage [his] the protected
             8516      person's affairs and the estate which has been conserved for [him] the protected person;
             8517          (ii) the accustomed standard of living of the protected person and members of [his] the
             8518      protected person's household; and
             8519          (iii) other funds or sources used for the support of the protected person.


             8520          (c) The conservator may expend funds of the estate for the support of persons legally
             8521      dependent on the protected person and others who are members of the protected person's
             8522      household who are unable to support themselves and who are in need of support.
             8523          (d) Funds expended under this Subsection (1) may be paid by the conservator to any
             8524      person, including the protected person to reimburse for expenditures which the conservator
             8525      might have made, or in advance for services to be rendered to the protected person when it is
             8526      reasonable to expect that they will be performed and where advance payments are customary or
             8527      reasonably necessary under the circumstances.
             8528          (2) If the estate is ample to provide for the purposes implicit in the distributions
             8529      authorized by Subsection (1), a conservator for a protected person other than a minor has power
             8530      to make gifts to charity and other objects as the protected person might have been expected to
             8531      make, in amounts which do not exceed in total for any year 20% of the income from the estate.
             8532          (3) When a person who is a minor and who has not been adjudged [disabled] to have a
             8533      disability under Subsection 75-5-401 [(1)(b)](2)(a) attains [his] the age of majority, [his] the
             8534      person's conservator, after meeting all prior claims and expenses of administration, shall pay
             8535      over and distribute all funds and properties to the former protected person as soon as possible.
             8536          (4) When the conservator is satisfied that a protected person's disability (other than
             8537      minority) has ceased, the conservator, after meeting all prior claims and expenses of
             8538      administration, shall pay over and distribute all funds and properties to the former protected
             8539      person as soon as possible.
             8540          (5) If a protected person dies, the conservator shall deliver to the court for safekeeping
             8541      any will of the deceased protected person [which] that may have come into [his] the
             8542      conservator's possession, inform the executor or a beneficiary named in the will that [he] the
             8543      conservator has done so, and retain the estate for delivery to a duly appointed personal
             8544      representative of the decedent or other persons entitled to it. If after 40 days from the death of
             8545      the protected person no other person has been appointed personal representative and no
             8546      application or petition for appointment is before the court, the conservator may apply to
             8547      exercise the powers and duties of a personal representative so that [he] the conservator may
             8548      proceed to administer and distribute the decedent's estate without additional or further
             8549      appointment. Upon application for an order granting the powers of a personal representative to
             8550      a conservator, after notice as provided in Section 75-3-310 , the court may order the conferral of


             8551      the power upon determining that there is no objection and endorse the letters of the conservator
             8552      to note that the formerly protected person is deceased and that the conservator has acquired all
             8553      of the powers and duties of a personal representative. The making and entry of an order under
             8554      this section shall have the effect of an order of appointment of a personal representative as
             8555      provided in Section 75-3-308 and Chapter 3, Parts 6 through 10, except that the estate in the
             8556      name of the conservator, after administration, may be distributed to the decedent's successors
             8557      without prior retransfer to the conservator as personal representative.
             8558          Section 158. Section 75-5-501 is amended to read:
             8559           75-5-501. Power of attorney not affected by disability or lapse of time -- Agent
             8560      responsibilities.
             8561          (1) Whenever a principal designates another [his] as the principal's attorney-in-fact or
             8562      agent by a power of attorney in writing and the writing contains the words "This power of
             8563      attorney shall not be affected by disability of the principal," or "This power of attorney shall
             8564      become effective upon the disability of the principal," or similar words showing the intent of
             8565      the principal that the authority conferred shall be exercisable notwithstanding [his] the
             8566      principal's disability, the authority of the attorney-in-fact or agent is exercisable by [him] the
             8567      attorney-in-fact or agent as provided in the power on behalf of the principal notwithstanding:
             8568          (a) later disability or incapacity of the principal at law or later uncertainty as to whether
             8569      the principal is dead or alive; or
             8570          (b) the lapse of time since the execution of the instrument, unless the instrument states
             8571      a time of termination.
             8572          (2) If an attorney-in-fact or agent determines that the principal has become
             8573      incapacitated or [disabled] has acquired a disability and the power of attorney by its terms
             8574      remains in effect or becomes effective as a result of a principal's incapacity or disability, the
             8575      attorney-in-fact or agent shall:
             8576          (a) notify all interested persons of [his] the attorney-in-fact's or agent's status as the
             8577      power of attorney holder within 30 days of the principal's incapacitation, and provide them
             8578      with [his] the attorney-in-fact's or agent's name and address;
             8579          (b) provide to any interested persons upon written request, a copy of the power of
             8580      attorney;
             8581          (c) provide to any interested persons upon written request, an annual accounting of the


             8582      assets to which the power of attorney applies, unless the power of attorney specifically directs
             8583      that the attorney-in-fact or agent is not required to do so; and
             8584          (d) notify all interested persons upon the death of the principal.
             8585          (3) All interested persons shall be notified within 10 days if the attorney-in-fact or
             8586      agent changes. The notification shall be made by the new attorney-in-fact or agent who shall
             8587      then be accountable to the interested persons in accordance with Subsection (2).
             8588          (4) All acts done by the attorney-in-fact or agent pursuant to the power during any
             8589      period of disability or incompetence or uncertainty as to whether the principal is dead or alive
             8590      have the same effect and inure to the benefit of and bind the principal or [his] the principal's
             8591      heirs, devisees, and personal representative as if the principal were alive, competent, and [not
             8592      disabled] did not have a disability, except as provided in Section 75-5-503 .
             8593          (5) A conservator may be appointed for a principal even though the principal has a
             8594      valid power of attorney in place. If a conservator thereafter is appointed for the principal, the
             8595      attorney-in-fact or agent, during the continuance of the appointment, shall account to the
             8596      conservator rather than the principal. The conservator, pursuant to court order as provided in
             8597      Subsection 75-5-408 (1)(d), has the same power the principal would have had, if [he were not
             8598      disabled or] the principle did not have a disability or was not incompetent, to revoke, suspend,
             8599      or terminate all or any part of the power of attorney or agency.
             8600          (6) For the purposes of this section, "interested person" means any person entitled to a
             8601      part of the principal's estate from the principal's will or through the intestacy laws, whichever is
             8602      applicable.
             8603          Section 159. Section 76-3-203.5 is amended to read:
             8604           76-3-203.5. Habitual violent offender -- Definition -- Procedure -- Penalty.
             8605          (1) As used in this section:
             8606          (a) "Felony" means any violation of a criminal statute of the state, any other state, the
             8607      United States, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States for which the
             8608      maximum punishment the offender may be subjected to exceeds one year in prison.
             8609          (b) "Habitual violent offender" means a person convicted within the state of any violent
             8610      felony and who on at least two previous occasions has been convicted of a violent felony and
             8611      committed to either prison in Utah or an equivalent correctional institution of another state or
             8612      of the United States either at initial sentencing or after revocation of probation.


             8613          (c) "Violent felony" means:
             8614          (i) any of the following offenses, or any attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit
             8615      any of the following offenses punishable as a felony:
             8616          (A) aggravated arson, arson, knowingly causing a catastrophe, and criminal mischief,
             8617      Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
             8618          (B) assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-102.5 ;
             8619          (C) disarming a police officer, Section 76-5-102.8 ;
             8620          (D) aggravated assault, Section 76-5-103 ;
             8621          (E) aggravated assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-103.5 ;
             8622          (F) mayhem, Section 76-5-105 ;
             8623          (G) stalking, Subsection 76-5-106.5 (2) or (3);
             8624          (H) threat of terrorism, Section 76-5-107.3 ;
             8625          (I) child abuse, Subsection 76-5-109 (2)(a) or (b);
             8626          (J) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, Section 76-5-109.1 ;
             8627          (K) abuse or neglect of [disabled] a child with a disability, Section 76-5-110 ;
             8628          (L) abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-111 ;
             8629          (M) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-112.5 ;
             8630          (N) criminal homicide offenses under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
             8631          (O) kidnapping, child kidnapping, and aggravated kidnapping under Title 76, Chapter
             8632      5, Part 3, Kidnapping, Trafficking, and Smuggling;
             8633          (P) rape, Section 76-5-402 ;
             8634          (Q) rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.1 ;
             8635          (R) object rape, Section 76-5-402.2 ;
             8636          (S) object rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.3 ;
             8637          (T) forcible sodomy, Section 76-5-403 ;
             8638          (U) sodomy on a child, Section 76-5-403.1 ;
             8639          (V) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ;
             8640          (W) aggravated sexual abuse of a child or sexual abuse of a child, Section 76-5-404.1 ;
             8641          (X) aggravated sexual assault, Section 76-5-405 ;
             8642          (Y) sexual exploitation of a minor, Section 76-5a-3 ;
             8643          (Z) aggravated burglary and burglary of a dwelling under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2,


             8644      Burglary and Criminal Trespass;
             8645          (AA) aggravated robbery and robbery under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
             8646          (BB) theft by extortion under Subsection 76-6-406 (2)(a) or (b);
             8647          (CC) tampering with a witness under Subsection 76-8-508 (1);
             8648          (DD) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant under Section 76-8-508.3 ;
             8649          (EE) tampering with a juror under Subsection 76-8-508.5 (2)(c);
             8650          (FF) extortion to dismiss a criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509 if by any threat
             8651      or by use of force theft by extortion has been committed pursuant to Subsections
             8652      76-6-406 (2)(a), (b), and (i);
             8653          (GG) possession, use, or removal of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under
             8654      Subsections 76-10-306 (3) through (6);
             8655          (HH) unlawful delivery of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under Section
             8656      76-10-307 ;
             8657          (II) purchase or possession of a dangerous weapon or handgun by a restricted person
             8658      under Section 76-10-503 ;
             8659          (JJ) unlawful discharge of a firearm under Section 76-10-508 ;
             8660          (KK) aggravated exploitation of prostitution under Subsection 76-10-1306 (1)(a);
             8661          (LL) bus hijacking under Section 76-10-1504 ; and
             8662          (MM) discharging firearms and hurling missiles under Section 76-10-1505 ; or
             8663          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
             8664      any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute a violent
             8665      felony as defined in this Subsection (1) if committed in this state.
             8666          (2) If a person is convicted in this state of a violent felony by plea or by verdict and the
             8667      trier of fact determines beyond a reasonable doubt that the person is a habitual violent offender
             8668      under this section, the penalty for a:
             8669          (a) third degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony;
             8670          (b) second degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony; or
             8671          (c) first degree felony remains the penalty for a first degree penalty except:
             8672          (i) the convicted person is not eligible for probation; and
             8673          (ii) the Board of Pardons and Parole shall consider that the convicted person is a
             8674      habitual violent offender as an aggravating factor in determining the length of incarceration.


             8675          (3) (a) The prosecuting attorney, or grand jury if an indictment is returned, shall
             8676      provide notice in the information or indictment that the defendant is subject to punishment as a
             8677      habitual violent offender under this section. Notice shall include the case number, court, and
             8678      date of conviction or commitment of any case relied upon by the prosecution.
             8679          (b) (i) The defendant shall serve notice in writing upon the prosecutor if the defendant
             8680      intends to deny that:
             8681          (A) the defendant is the person who was convicted or committed;
             8682          (B) the defendant was represented by counsel or had waived counsel; or
             8683          (C) the defendant's plea was understandingly or voluntarily entered.
             8684          (ii) The notice of denial shall be served not later than five days prior to trial and shall
             8685      state in detail the defendant's contention regarding the previous conviction and commitment.
             8686          (4) (a) If the defendant enters a denial under Subsection (3)(b) and if the case is tried to
             8687      a jury, the jury may not be told until after it returns its verdict on the underlying felony charge,
             8688      of the:
             8689          (i) defendant's previous convictions for violent felonies, except as otherwise provided
             8690      in the Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             8691          (ii) allegation against the defendant of being a habitual violent offender.
             8692          (b) If the jury's verdict is guilty, the defendant shall be tried regarding the allegation of
             8693      being an habitual violent offender by the same jury, if practicable, unless the defendant waives
             8694      the jury, in which case the allegation shall be tried immediately to the court.
             8695          (c) (i) [Prior to] Before or at the time of sentencing the trier of fact shall determine if
             8696      this section applies.
             8697          (ii) The trier of fact shall consider any evidence presented at trial and the prosecution
             8698      and the defendant shall be afforded an opportunity to present any necessary additional
             8699      evidence.
             8700          (iii) [Prior to] Before sentencing under this section, the trier of fact shall determine
             8701      whether this section is applicable beyond a reasonable doubt.
             8702          (d) If any previous conviction and commitment is based upon a plea of guilty or no
             8703      contest, there is a rebuttable presumption that the conviction and commitment were regular and
             8704      lawful in all respects if the conviction and commitment occurred after January 1, 1970. If the
             8705      conviction and commitment occurred prior to January 1, 1970, the burden is on the prosecution


             8706      to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant was then represented by
             8707      counsel or had lawfully waived the right to have counsel present, and that the defendant's plea
             8708      was understandingly and voluntarily entered.
             8709          (e) If the trier of fact finds this section applicable, the court shall enter that specific
             8710      finding on the record and shall indicate in the order of judgment and commitment that the
             8711      defendant has been found by the trier of fact to be a habitual violent offender and is sentenced
             8712      under this section.
             8713          (5) (a) The sentencing enhancement provisions of Section 76-3-407 supersede the
             8714      provisions of this section.
             8715          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), the "violent felony" offense defined in
             8716      Subsection (1)(c) shall include any felony sexual offense violation of Title 76, Chapter 5, Part
             8717      4, Sexual Offenses, to determine if the convicted person is a habitual violent offender.
             8718          (6) The sentencing enhancement described in this section does not apply if:
             8719          (a) the offense for which the person is being sentenced is:
             8720          (i) a grievous sexual offense;
             8721          (ii) child kidnapping, Section 76-5-301.1 ;
             8722          (iii) aggravated kidnapping, Section 76-5-302 ; or
             8723          (iv) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ; and
             8724          (b) applying the sentencing enhancement provided for in this section would result in a
             8725      lower maximum penalty than the penalty provided for under the section that describes the
             8726      offense for which the person is being sentenced.
             8727          Section 160. Section 76-3-406 is amended to read:
             8728           76-3-406. Crimes for which probation, suspension of sentence, lower category of
             8729      offense, or hospitalization may not be granted.
             8730          Notwithstanding Sections 76-3-201 and 77-18-1 and Title 77, Chapter 16a,
             8731      Commitment and Treatment of [Mentally Ill] Persons with a Mental Illness, except as provided
             8732      in Section 76-5-406.5 , probation shall not be granted, the execution or imposition of sentence
             8733      shall not be suspended, the court shall not enter a judgment for a lower category of offense, and
             8734      hospitalization shall not be ordered, the effect of which would in any way shorten the prison
             8735      sentence for any person who commits a capital felony or a first degree felony involving:
             8736          (1) Section 76-5-202 , aggravated murder;


             8737          (2) Section 76-5-203 , murder;
             8738          (3) Section 76-5-301.1 , child kidnaping;
             8739          (4) Section 76-5-302 , aggravated kidnaping;
             8740          (5) Section 76-5-402 , rape, if the person is sentenced under Subsection 76-5-402 (3)(b),
             8741      (3)(c), or (4);
             8742          (6) Section 76-5-402.1 , rape of a child;
             8743          (7) Section 76-5-402.2 , object rape, if the person is sentenced under Subsection 76-
             8744      5-402.2 (1)(b), (1)(c), or (2);
             8745          (8) Section 76-5-402.3 , object rape of a child;
             8746          (9) Section 76-5-403 , forcible sodomy, if the person is sentenced under Subsection
             8747      76-5-403 (4)(b), (4)(c), or (5);
             8748          (10) Section 76-5-403.1 , sodomy on a child;
             8749          (11) Section 76-5-404 , forcible sexual abuse, if the person is sentenced under
             8750      Subsection 76-5-404 (2)(b) or (3);
             8751          (12) Subsections 76-5-404.1 (4) and (5), aggravated sexual abuse of a child;
             8752          (13) Section 76-5-405 , aggravated sexual assault; or
             8753          (14) any attempt to commit a felony listed in Subsection (6), (8), or (10).
             8754          Section 161. Section 76-5-109 is amended to read:
             8755           76-5-109. Child abuse -- Child abandonment.
             8756          (1) As used in this section:
             8757          (a) "Child" means a human being who is under 18 years of age.
             8758          (b) (i) "Child abandonment" means that a parent or legal guardian of a child:
             8759          (A) intentionally ceases to maintain physical custody of the child;
             8760          (B) intentionally fails to make reasonable arrangements for the safety, care, and
             8761      physical custody of the child; and
             8762          (C) (I) intentionally fails to provide the child with food, shelter, or clothing;
             8763          (II) manifests an intent to permanently not resume physical custody of the child; or
             8764          (III) for a period of at least 30 days:
             8765          (Aa) intentionally fails to resume physical custody of the child; and
             8766          (Bb) fails to manifest a genuine intent to resume physical custody of the child.
             8767          (ii) "Child abandonment" does not include:


             8768          (A) safe relinquishment of a child pursuant to the provisions of Section 62A-4a-802 ; or
             8769          (B) giving legal consent to a court order for termination of parental rights:
             8770          (I) in a legal adoption proceeding; or
             8771          (II) in a case where a petition for the termination of parental rights, or the termination
             8772      of a guardianship, has been filed.
             8773          (c) "Child abuse" means any offense described in Subsection (2), (3), or (4) or in
             8774      Section 76-5-109.1 .
             8775          (d) "Enterprise" is as defined in Section 76-10-1602 .
             8776          (e) "Physical injury" means an injury to or condition of a child which impairs the
             8777      physical condition of the child, including:
             8778          (i) a bruise or other contusion of the skin;
             8779          (ii) a minor laceration or abrasion;
             8780          (iii) failure to thrive or malnutrition; or
             8781          (iv) any other condition which imperils the child's health or welfare and which is not a
             8782      serious physical injury as defined in Subsection (1)(f).
             8783          (f) (i) "Serious physical injury" means any physical injury or set of injuries that:
             8784          (A) seriously impairs the child's health;
             8785          (B) involves physical torture;
             8786          (C) causes serious emotional harm to the child; or
             8787          (D) involves a substantial risk of death to the child.
             8788          (ii) "Serious physical injury" includes:
             8789          (A) fracture of any bone or bones;
             8790          (B) intracranial bleeding, swelling or contusion of the brain, whether caused by blows,
             8791      shaking, or causing the child's head to impact with an object or surface;
             8792          (C) any burn, including burns inflicted by hot water, or those caused by placing a hot
             8793      object upon the skin or body of the child;
             8794          (D) any injury caused by use of a dangerous weapon as defined in Section 76-1-601 ;
             8795          (E) any combination of two or more physical injuries inflicted by the same person,
             8796      either at the same time or on different occasions;
             8797          (F) any damage to internal organs of the body;
             8798          (G) any conduct toward a child that results in severe emotional harm, severe


             8799      developmental delay or [retardation] intellectual disability, or severe impairment of the child's
             8800      ability to function;
             8801          (H) any injury that creates a permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment
             8802      of the function of a bodily member, limb, or organ;
             8803          (I) any conduct that causes a child to cease breathing, even if resuscitation is successful
             8804      following the conduct; or
             8805          (J) any conduct that results in starvation or failure to thrive or malnutrition that
             8806      jeopardizes the child's life.
             8807          (2) Any person who inflicts upon a child serious physical injury or, having the care or
             8808      custody of such child, causes or permits another to inflict serious physical injury upon a child is
             8809      guilty of an offense as follows:
             8810          (a) if done intentionally or knowingly, the offense is a felony of the second degree;
             8811          (b) if done recklessly, the offense is a felony of the third degree; or
             8812          (c) if done with criminal negligence, the offense is a class A misdemeanor.
             8813          (3) Any person who inflicts upon a child physical injury or, having the care or custody
             8814      of such child, causes or permits another to inflict physical injury upon a child is guilty of an
             8815      offense as follows:
             8816          (a) if done intentionally or knowingly, the offense is a class A misdemeanor;
             8817          (b) if done recklessly, the offense is a class B misdemeanor; or
             8818          (c) if done with criminal negligence, the offense is a class C misdemeanor.
             8819          (4) A person who commits child abandonment, or encourages or causes another to
             8820      commit child abandonment, or an enterprise that encourages, commands, or causes another to
             8821      commit child abandonment, is:
             8822          (a) except as provided in Subsection (4)(b), guilty of a felony of the third degree; or
             8823          (b) guilty of a felony of the second degree, if, as a result of the child abandonment:
             8824          (i) the child suffers a serious physical injury; or
             8825          (ii) the person or enterprise receives, directly or indirectly, any benefit.
             8826          (5) (a) In addition to the penalty described in Subsection (4)(b), the court may order the
             8827      person or enterprise described in Subsection (4)(b)(ii) to pay the costs of investigating and
             8828      prosecuting the offense and the costs of securing any forfeiture provided for under Subsection
             8829      (5)(b).


             8830          (b) Any tangible or pecuniary benefit received under Subsection (4)(b)(ii) is subject to
             8831      criminal or civil forfeiture pursuant to Title 24, Chapter 1, Utah Uniform [Forfeitures]
             8832      Forfeiture Procedures Act.
             8833          (6) A parent or legal guardian who provides a child with treatment by spiritual means
             8834      alone through prayer, in lieu of medical treatment, in accordance with the tenets and practices
             8835      of an established church or religious denomination of which the parent or legal guardian is a
             8836      member or adherent shall not, for that reason alone, be considered to have committed an
             8837      offense under this section.
             8838          (7) A parent or guardian of a child does not violate this section by selecting a treatment
             8839      option for the medical condition of the child, if the treatment option is one that a reasonable
             8840      parent or guardian would believe to be in the best interest of the child.
             8841          (8) A person is not guilty of an offense under this section for conduct that constitutes:
             8842          (a) reasonable discipline or management of a child, including withholding privileges;
             8843          (b) conduct described in Section 76-2-401 ; or
             8844          (c) the use of reasonable and necessary physical restraint or force on a child:
             8845          (i) in self-defense;
             8846          (ii) in defense of others;
             8847          (iii) to protect the child; or
             8848          (iv) to remove a weapon in the possession of a child for any of the reasons described in
             8849      Subsections (8)(c)(i) through (iii).
             8850          Section 162. Section 76-5-110 is amended to read:
             8851           76-5-110. Abuse or neglect of a child with a disability.
             8852          (1) As used in this section:
             8853          (a) "Abuse" means:
             8854          (i) inflicting physical injury, as that term is defined in Section 76-5-109 ;
             8855          (ii) having the care or custody of a [disabled] child with a disability, causing or
             8856      permitting another to inflict physical injury, as that term is defined in Section 76-5-109 ; or
             8857          (iii) unreasonable confinement.
             8858          (b) "Caretaker" means:
             8859          (i) any parent, legal guardian, or other person having under that person's care and
             8860      custody a [disabled] child with a disability; or


             8861          (ii) any person, corporation, or public institution that has assumed by contract or court
             8862      order the responsibility to provide food, shelter, clothing, medical, and other necessities to a
             8863      [disabled] child with a disability.
             8864          (c) ["Disabled child"] "Child with a disability" means any person under 18 years of age
             8865      who is impaired because of mental illness, mental deficiency, physical illness or disability, or
             8866      other cause, to the extent that the person is unable to care for the person's own personal safety
             8867      or to provide necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, and medical care.
             8868          (d) "Neglect" means failure by a caretaker to provide care, nutrition, clothing, shelter,
             8869      supervision, or medical care.
             8870          (2) Any caretaker who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly abuses or neglects a
             8871      [disabled] child with a disability is guilty of a third degree felony.
             8872          (3) (a) A parent or legal guardian who provides a child with treatment by spiritual
             8873      means alone through prayer, in lieu of medical treatment, in accordance with the tenets and
             8874      practices of an established church or religious denomination of which the parent or legal
             8875      guardian is a member or adherent shall not, for that reason alone, be considered to be in
             8876      violation under this section.
             8877          (b) Subject to Subsection 78A-6-117 (2)(n)(iii), the exception under Subsection (3)(a)
             8878      does not preclude a court from ordering medical services from a physician licensed to engage
             8879      in the practice of medicine to be provided to the child where there is substantial risk of harm to
             8880      the child's health or welfare if the treatment is not provided.
             8881          (c) A caretaker of a [disabled] child with a disability does not violate this section by
             8882      selecting a treatment option for a [disabled child's] medical condition of a child with a
             8883      disability, if the treatment option is one that a reasonable caretaker would believe to be in the
             8884      best interest of the [disabled] child with a disability.
             8885          Section 163. Section 77-13-1 is amended to read:
             8886           77-13-1. Kinds of pleas.
             8887          (1) There are five kinds of pleas to an indictment or information:
             8888          (a) not guilty;
             8889          (b) guilty;
             8890          (c) no contest;
             8891          (d) not guilty by reason of insanity; and


             8892          (e) guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense.
             8893          (2) An alternative plea of not guilty or not guilty by reason of insanity may be entered.
             8894          Section 164. Section 77-16a-101 is amended to read:
             8895     
CHAPTER 16a. COMMITMENT AND TREATMENT OF PERSONS WITH A

             8896     
MENTAL ILLNESS

             8897           77-16a-101. Definitions.
             8898          As used in this chapter:
             8899          (1) "Board" means the Board of Pardons and Parole established under Section 77-27-2 .
             8900          (2) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.
             8901          (3) "Executive director" means the executive director of the Department of Human
             8902      Services.
             8903          (4) "Mental health facility" means the Utah State Hospital or other facility that
             8904      provides mental health services under contract with the division, a local mental health
             8905      authority, or organization that contracts with a local mental health authority.
             8906          (5) ["Mentally ill" means the same as that term is] "Mental illness" is as defined in
             8907      Section 76-2-305 .
             8908          (6) ["Mentally ill offender"] "Offender with a mental illness" means an individual who
             8909      has been adjudicated guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, including an individual
             8910      who [is mentally retarded] has an intellectual disability.
             8911          [(7) "Mentally retarded" means the same as the term "mental retardation", defined in
             8912      Section 62A-5-101 .]
             8913          [(8)] (7) "UDC" means the Department of Corrections.
             8914          Section 165. Section 77-16a-102 is amended to read:
             8915           77-16a-102. Jury instructions.
             8916          (1) If a defendant asserts a defense of not guilty by reason of insanity, the court shall
             8917      instruct the jury that it may find the defendant:
             8918          (a) guilty;
             8919          (b) guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense;
             8920          (c) guilty of a lesser offense;
             8921          (d) guilty of a lesser offense [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the
             8922      offense;


             8923          (e) not guilty by reason of insanity; or
             8924          (f) not guilty.
             8925          (2) (a) When a defendant asserts a mental defense pursuant to Section 76-2-305 or
             8926      asserts special mitigation reducing the level of an offense pursuant to Subsection
             8927      76-5-205.5 (1)(a), or when the evidence raises the issue and either party requests the instruction,
             8928      the jury shall be instructed that if it finds a defendant guilty by proof beyond a reasonable doubt
             8929      of any charged offense or lesser included offense, it shall also return a special verdict indicating
             8930      whether it finds that the defendant [was mentally ill] had a mental illness at the time of the
             8931      offense.
             8932          (b) If the jury finds the defendant guilty of the charged offense by proof beyond a
             8933      reasonable doubt, and by special verdict finds the defendant [was mentally ill] had a mental
             8934      illness at the time of the offense, it shall return the general verdict of "guilty [and mentally ill]
             8935      with a mental illness at the time of the offense."
             8936          (c) If the jury finds the defendant guilty of a lesser offense by proof beyond a
             8937      reasonable doubt, and by special verdict finds the defendant [was mentally ill] had a mental
             8938      illness at the time of the offense, it shall return the general verdict of "guilty of a lesser offense
             8939      [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense."
             8940          (d) If the jury finds the defendant guilty of the charged offense or a lesser included
             8941      offense and does not find that the defendant [was mentally ill] had a mental illness at the time
             8942      of the offense, the jury shall return a verdict of "guilty" of that offense, along with the special
             8943      verdict form indicating that the jury did not find that the defendant [mentally ill] had a mental
             8944      illness at the time of the offense.
             8945          (e) The special verdict shall be returned by the jury at the same time as the general
             8946      verdict, to indicate the basis for its general verdict.
             8947          (3) In determining whether a defendant should be found guilty [and mentally ill] with a
             8948      mental illness at the time of the offense, the jury shall be instructed that the standard of proof
             8949      applicable to a finding of mental illness is by a preponderance of the evidence. The jury shall
             8950      also be instructed that the standard of preponderance of the evidence does not apply to the
             8951      elements establishing a defendant's guilt, and that the proof of the elements establishing a
             8952      defendant's guilt of any offense must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
             8953          (4) (a) When special mitigation based on extreme emotional distress is at issue


             8954      pursuant to Subsection 76-5-205.5 (1)(b), the jury shall, in addition to its general verdict, return
             8955      a special verdict.
             8956          (b) The special verdict shall be returned by the jury at the same time as the general
             8957      verdict, to indicate the basis for its general verdict.
             8958          Section 166. Section 77-16a-103 is amended to read:
             8959           77-16a-103. Plea of guilty with a mental illness at the time of the offense.
             8960          (1) Upon a plea of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the
             8961      offense being tendered by a defendant to any charge, the court shall hold a hearing within a
             8962      reasonable time to determine whether the defendant [is] currently [mentally ill] has a mental
             8963      illness.
             8964          (2) The court may order the department to examine the defendant, and may receive the
             8965      testimony of any public or private expert witness offered by the defendant or the prosecutor.
             8966      The defendant may be placed in the Utah State Hospital for that examination only upon
             8967      approval by the executive director.
             8968          (3) (a) A defendant who tenders a plea of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness
             8969      at the time of the offense shall be examined first by the trial judge, in compliance with the
             8970      standards for taking pleas of guilty. The defendant shall be advised that a plea of guilty [and
             8971      mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense is a plea of guilty and not a
             8972      contingent plea.
             8973          (b) If the defendant is later found not to [be currently mentally ill] have a current
             8974      mental illness, that plea remains a valid plea of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at
             8975      the time of the offense, and the defendant shall be sentenced as any other offender.
             8976          (4) If the court concludes that the defendant [is currently mentally ill his] currently has
             8977      a mental illness, the defendant's plea shall be accepted and [he] the defendant shall be
             8978      sentenced in accordance with Section 77-16a-104 .
             8979          (5) (a) When the offense is a state offense, expenses of examination, observation, and
             8980      treatment for the defendant shall be paid by the department.
             8981          (b) Travel expenses shall be paid by the county where prosecution is commenced.
             8982          (c) Expenses of examination for defendants charged with violation of a municipal or
             8983      county ordinance shall be paid by the municipality or county that commenced the prosecution.
             8984          Section 167. Section 77-16a-104 is amended to read:


             8985           77-16a-104. Verdict of guilty with a mental illness -- Hearing to determine
             8986      present mental state.
             8987          (1) Upon a verdict of guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness for the offense
             8988      charged, or any lesser offense, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine the defendant's
             8989      present mental state.
             8990          (2) The court may order the department to examine the defendant to determine [his] the
             8991      defendant's mental condition, and may receive the evidence of any public or private expert
             8992      witness offered by the defendant or the prosecutor. The defendant may be placed in the Utah
             8993      State Hospital for that examination only upon approval of the executive director.
             8994          (3) If the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant [is currently
             8995      mentally ill, it] currently has a mental illness, the court shall impose any sentence that could be
             8996      imposed under law upon a defendant who [is not mentally ill] does not have a mental illness
             8997      and who is convicted of the same offense, and:
             8998          (a) commit [him] the defendant to the department, in accordance with the provisions of
             8999      Section 77-16a-202 , if:
             9000          (i) the court gives the department the opportunity to provide an evaluation and
             9001      recommendation under Subsection (4); and
             9002          (ii) the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
             9003          (A) because of [his] the defendant's mental illness the defendant poses an immediate
             9004      physical danger to self or others, including jeopardizing [his] the defendant's own or others'
             9005      safety, health, or welfare if placed in a correctional or probation setting, or lacks the ability to
             9006      provide the basic necessities of life, such as food, clothing, and shelter, if placed on probation;
             9007      and
             9008          (B) the department is able to provide the defendant with treatment, care, custody, and
             9009      security that is adequate and appropriate to the defendant's conditions and needs;
             9010          (b) order probation in accordance with Section 77-16a-201 ; or
             9011          (c) if the court determines that commitment to the department under Subsection (3)(a)
             9012      or probation under Subsection (3)(b) is not appropriate, the court shall place the defendant in
             9013      the custody of UDC or a county jail as allowed by law.
             9014          (4) In order to insure that the requirements of Subsection (3)(a) are met, the court shall,
             9015      [prior to] before making a determination, notify the executive director of the proposed


             9016      placement and provide the department with an opportunity to evaluate the defendant and make
             9017      a recommendation to the court regarding placement prior to commitment.
             9018          (5) If the court finds that the defendant [is not currently mentally ill, it] does not
             9019      currently have a mental illness, the court shall sentence the defendant as it would any other
             9020      defendant.
             9021          (6) Expenses for examinations ordered under this section shall be paid in accordance
             9022      with Subsection 77-16a-103 (5).
             9023          Section 168. Section 77-16a-201 is amended to read:
             9024           77-16a-201. Probation.
             9025          (1) (a) In felony cases, when the court proposes to place on probation a defendant who
             9026      has pled or is found guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense, it
             9027      shall request UDC to provide a presentence investigation report regarding whether probation is
             9028      appropriate for that defendant and, if so, recommending a specific treatment program. If the
             9029      defendant is placed on probation, that treatment program shall be made a condition of
             9030      probation, and the defendant shall remain under the jurisdiction of the sentencing court.
             9031          (b) The court may not place an offender who has been convicted of the felony offenses
             9032      listed in Section 76-3-406 on probation, regardless of whether [he is or has been mentally ill]
             9033      the offender has, or had, a mental illness.
             9034          (2) The period of probation for a felony offense committed by a person who has been
             9035      found guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness at the time of the offense may be for no
             9036      less than five years. Probation for those offenders may not be subsequently reduced by the
             9037      sentencing court without consideration of an updated report on the mental health status of the
             9038      defendant.
             9039          (3) (a) Treatment ordered by the court under this section may be provided by or under
             9040      contract with the department, a mental health facility, a local mental health authority, or, with
             9041      the approval of the sentencing court, any other public or private mental health provider.
             9042          (b) The entity providing treatment under this section shall file a report with the
             9043      defendant's probation officer at least every six months during the term of probation.
             9044          (c) Any request for termination of probation regarding a defendant who is receiving
             9045      treatment under this section shall include a current mental health report prepared by the
             9046      treatment provider.


             9047          (4) Failure to continue treatment or any other condition of probation, except by
             9048      agreement with the entity providing treatment and the sentencing court, is a basis for initiating
             9049      probation violation hearings.
             9050          (5) The court may not release [a mentally ill offender] an offender with a mental illness
             9051      into the community, as a part of probation, if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that [he]
             9052      the offender:
             9053          (a) poses an immediate physical danger to [himself] self or others, including
             9054      jeopardizing [his] the offender's own or others' safety, health, or welfare if released into the
             9055      community; or
             9056          (b) lacks the ability to provide the basic necessities of life, such as food, clothing, and
             9057      shelter, if released into the community.
             9058          (6) [A mentally ill offender] An offender with a mental illness who is not eligible for
             9059      release into the community under the provisions of Subsection (5) may be placed by the court,
             9060      on probation, in an appropriate mental health facility.
             9061          Section 169. Section 77-16a-202 is amended to read:
             9062           77-16a-202. Person found guilty with a mental illness -- Commitment to
             9063      department -- Admission to Utah State Hospital.
             9064          (1) In sentencing and committing [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness to
             9065      the department under Subsection 77-16a-104 (3)(a), the court shall:
             9066          (a) sentence the offender to a term of imprisonment and order that he be committed to
             9067      the department and admitted to the Utah State Hospital for care and treatment until transferred
             9068      to UDC in accordance with Sections 77-16a-203 and 77-16a-204 , making provision for
             9069      readmission to the Utah State Hospital whenever the requirements and conditions of Section
             9070      77-16a-204 are met; or
             9071          (b) sentence the offender to a term of imprisonment and order that [he] the offender be
             9072      committed to the department for care and treatment for no more than 18 months, or until the
             9073      offender's condition has been stabilized to the point that commitment to the department and
             9074      admission to the Utah State Hospital is no longer necessary to ensure adequate mental health
             9075      treatment, whichever occurs first. At the expiration of that time, the court may recall the
             9076      sentence and commitment, and resentence the offender. A commitment and retention of
             9077      jurisdiction under this Subsection (1)(b) shall be specified in the sentencing order. If that


             9078      specification is not included in the sentencing order, the offender shall be committed in
             9079      accordance with Subsection (1)(a).
             9080          (2) The court may not retain jurisdiction, under Subsection (1)(b), over the sentence of
             9081      [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness who has been convicted of a capital felony. In
             9082      capital cases, the court shall make the findings required by this section after the capital
             9083      sentencing proceeding mandated by Section 76-3-207 .
             9084          (3) When an offender is committed to the department and admitted to the Utah State
             9085      Hospital under Subsection (1)(b), the department shall provide the court with reports of the
             9086      offender's mental health status every six months. Those reports shall be prepared in accordance
             9087      with the requirements of Section 77-16a-203 . Additionally, the court may appoint an
             9088      independent examiner to assess the mental health status of the offender.
             9089          (4) The period of commitment to the department and admission to the Utah State
             9090      Hospital, and any subsequent retransfers to the Utah State Hospital made pursuant to Section
             9091      77-16a-204 may not exceed the maximum sentence imposed by the court. Upon expiration of
             9092      that sentence, the administrator of the facility where the offender is located may initiate civil
             9093      proceedings for involuntary commitment in accordance with Title 62A, Chapter 5, Services
             9094      [to] for People with Disabilities, or Title 62A, Chapter 15, Substance Abuse and Mental Health
             9095      Act.
             9096          Section 170. Section 77-16a-203 is amended to read:
             9097           77-16a-203. Review of offenders with a mental illness committed to department --
             9098      Recommendations for transfer to Department of Corrections.
             9099          (1) (a) The executive director shall designate a review team of at least three qualified
             9100      staff members, including at least one licensed psychiatrist, to evaluate the mental condition of
             9101      each [mentally ill] offender with a mental illness committed to it in accordance with Section
             9102      77-16a-202 , at least once every six months.
             9103          (b) If the offender [is mentally retarded] has an intellectual disability, the review team
             9104      shall include at least one individual who is a designated [mental retardation] intellectual
             9105      disability professional, as defined in Section 62A-5-101 .
             9106          (2) At the conclusion of its evaluation, the review team described in Subsection (1)
             9107      shall make a report to the executive director:
             9108          (a) regarding the offender's:


             9109          (i) current mental condition;
             9110          (ii) progress since commitment; and
             9111          (iii) prognosis; and
             9112          (b) that includes a recommendation regarding whether the [mentally ill] offender with a
             9113      mental illness should be:
             9114          (i) transferred to UDC; or
             9115          (ii) remain in the custody of the department.
             9116          (3) (a) The executive director shall notify the UDC medical administrator, and the
             9117      board's mental health adviser that [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness is eligible
             9118      for transfer to UDC if the review team finds that the offender:
             9119          (i) [is] no longer [mentally ill] has a mental illness; or
             9120          (ii) [is still mentally ill] has a mental illness and may continue to be a danger to
             9121      [himself] self or others, but can be controlled if adequate care, medication, and treatment are
             9122      provided by UDC; and
             9123          (iii) the offender's condition has been stabilized to the point that commitment to the
             9124      department and admission to the Utah State Hospital are no longer necessary to ensure
             9125      adequate mental health treatment.
             9126          (b) The administrator of the mental health facility where the offender is located shall
             9127      provide the UDC medical administrator with a copy of the reviewing staff's recommendation
             9128      and:
             9129          (i) all available clinical facts;
             9130          (ii) the diagnosis;
             9131          (iii) the course of treatment received at the mental health facility;
             9132          (iv) the prognosis for remission of symptoms;
             9133          (v) the potential for recidivism;
             9134          (vi) an estimation of the offender's dangerousness, either to [himself] self or others;
             9135      and
             9136          (vii) recommendations for future treatment.
             9137          Section 171. Section 77-16a-204 is amended to read:
             9138           77-16a-204. UDC acceptance of transfer of persons found guilty with a mental
             9139      illness -- Retransfer from UDC to department for admission to the Utah State Hospital.


             9140          (1) The UDC medical administrator shall designate a transfer team of at least three
             9141      qualified staff members, including at least one licensed psychiatrist, to evaluate the
             9142      recommendation made by the department's review team pursuant to Section 77-16a-203 . If the
             9143      offender [is mentally retarded] has an intellectual disability, the transfer team shall include at
             9144      least one person who has expertise in testing and diagnosis of [mentally retarded individuals]
             9145      people with intellectual disabilities.
             9146          (2) The transfer team shall concur in the recommendation if [it] the transfer team
             9147      determines that UDC can provide the [mentally ill] offender with a mental illness with
             9148      adequate mental health treatment.
             9149          (3) The UDC transfer team and medical administrator shall recommend the facility in
             9150      which the offender should be placed and the treatment to be provided in order for [his] the
             9151      offender's mental condition to remain stabilized to the director of the Division of Institutional
             9152      Operations, within the Department of Corrections.
             9153          (4) In the event that the department and UDC do not agree on the transfer of [a
             9154      mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness, the administrator of the mental health facility
             9155      where the offender is located shall notify the mental health adviser for the board, in writing, of
             9156      the dispute. The mental health adviser shall be provided with copies of all reports and
             9157      recommendations. The board's mental health adviser shall make a recommendation to the
             9158      board on the transfer and the board shall issue its decision within 30 days.
             9159          (5) UDC shall notify the board whenever [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental
             9160      illness is transferred from the department to UDC.
             9161          (6) When [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness sentenced under Section
             9162      77-16a-202 , who has been transferred from the department to UDC, and accepted by UDC, is
             9163      evaluated and it is determined that the offender's mental condition has deteriorated or that the
             9164      offender has become mentally unstable, the offender may be readmitted to the Utah State
             9165      Hospital in accordance with the findings and procedures described in Section 62A-15-605.5 .
             9166          (7) Any person readmitted to the Utah State Hospital pursuant to Subsection (6) shall
             9167      remain in the custody of UDC, and the state hospital shall act solely as the agent of UDC.
             9168          (8) [A mentally ill] An offender with a mental illness who has been readmitted to the
             9169      Utah State Hospital pursuant to Subsection (6) shall be transferred back to UDC in accordance
             9170      with the provisions of Section 77-16a-203 .


             9171          Section 172. Section 77-16a-205 is amended to read:
             9172           77-16a-205. Parole.
             9173          (1) When [a mentally ill] an offender with a mental illness who has been committed to
             9174      the department becomes eligible to be considered for parole, the board shall request a
             9175      recommendation from the executive director and from UDC before placing the offender on
             9176      parole.
             9177          (2) Before setting a parole date, the board shall request that its mental health adviser
             9178      prepare a report regarding the [mentally ill] offender with a mental illness, including:
             9179          (a) all available clinical facts;
             9180          (b) the diagnosis;
             9181          (c) the course of treatment received at the mental health facility;
             9182          (d) the prognosis for remission of symptoms;
             9183          (e) potential for recidivism;
             9184          (f) an estimation of the [mentally ill offender's] dangerousness of the offender with a
             9185      mental illness either to [himself] self or others; and
             9186          (g) recommendations for future treatment.
             9187          (3) Based on the report described in Subsection (2), the board may place the [mentally
             9188      ill] offender with a mental illness on parole. The board may require mental health treatment as
             9189      a condition of parole. If treatment is ordered, failure to continue treatment, except by
             9190      agreement with the treatment provider, and the board, is a basis for initiation of parole
             9191      violation hearings by the board.
             9192          (4) UDC, through Adult Probation and Parole, shall monitor the status of [a mentally
             9193      ill] an offender with a mental illness who has been placed on parole. UDC may provide
             9194      treatment by contracting with the department, a local mental health authority, any other public
             9195      or private provider, or in-house staff.
             9196          (5) The period of parole may be no less than five years, or until expiration of the
             9197      defendant's sentence, whichever occurs first. The board may not subsequently reduce the
             9198      period of parole without considering an updated report on the offender's current mental
             9199      condition.
             9200          Section 173. Section 77-16a-302 is amended to read:
             9201           77-16a-302. Persons found not guilty by reason of insanity -- Disposition.


             9202          (1) Upon a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, the court shall conduct a hearing
             9203      within 10 days to determine whether the defendant [is] currently [mentally ill] has a mental
             9204      illness. The defense counsel and prosecutors may request further evaluations and present
             9205      testimony from those examiners.
             9206          (2) After the hearing and upon consideration of the record, the court shall order the
             9207      defendant committed to the department if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
             9208          (a) the defendant [is still mentally ill] has a mental illness; and
             9209          (b) because of that mental illness the defendant presents a substantial danger to
             9210      [himself] self or others.
             9211          (3) The period of commitment described in Subsection (2) may not exceed the period
             9212      for which the defendant could be incarcerated had [he] the defendant been convicted and
             9213      received the maximum sentence for the crime of which [he] the defendant was accused. At the
             9214      time that period expires, involuntary civil commitment proceedings may be instituted in
             9215      accordance with Title 62A, Chapter 15, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Act.
             9216          Section 174. Section 77-16a-304 is amended to read:
             9217           77-16a-304. Review after commitment.
             9218          (1) (a) The executive director, or the executive director's designee, shall establish a
             9219      review team of at least three qualified staff members to review the defendant's mental condition
             9220      at least every six months.
             9221          (b) The team described in Subsection (1)(a) shall include:
             9222          (i) at least one psychiatrist; and
             9223          (ii) if the defendant [is mentally retarded] has an intellectual disability, at least one
             9224      staff member who is a designated [mental retardation] intellectual disability professional[, as
             9225      defined in Section 62A-5-101 ].
             9226          (2) If the review team described in Subsection (1) finds that the defendant has
             9227      recovered from the defendant's mental illness, or, that the defendant [is] still [mentally ill] has a
             9228      mental illness but does not present a substantial danger to [himself] self or others, the executive
             9229      director, or the executive director's designee, shall:
             9230          (a) notify the court that committed the defendant that the defendant is a candidate for
             9231      discharge; and
             9232          (b) provide the court with a report stating the facts that form the basis for the


             9233      recommendation.
             9234          (3) (a) The court shall conduct a hearing within 10 business days after receipt of the
             9235      executive director's, or the executive director's designee's, notification.
             9236          (b) The court clerk shall provide notice of the date and time of the hearing to:
             9237          (i) the prosecuting attorney;
             9238          (ii) the defendant's attorney; and
             9239          (iii) any victim of the crime for which the defendant was found not guilty by reason of
             9240      insanity.
             9241          (4) (a) The court shall order that the defendant be discharged from commitment if the
             9242      court finds that the defendant:
             9243          (i) [is] no longer [mentally ill] has a mental illness; or
             9244          (ii) [is mentally ill] has a mental illness, but no longer presents a substantial danger to
             9245      [himself] self or others.
             9246          (b) The court shall order the person conditionally released in accordance with Section
             9247      77-16a-305 if the court finds that the defendant:
             9248          (i) [is still mentally ill] has a mental illness;
             9249          (ii) is a substantial danger to [himself] self or others; and
             9250          (iii) can be controlled adequately if conditionally released with treatment as a condition
             9251      of release.
             9252          (c) The court shall order that the commitment be continued if the court finds that the
             9253      defendant:
             9254          (i) has not recovered from [his] the defendant's mental illness;
             9255          (ii) is a substantial danger to [himself] self or others; and
             9256          (iii) cannot adequately be controlled if conditionally released on supervision.
             9257          (d) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (4)(d)(ii), the court may not discharge a
             9258      defendant whose mental illness is in remission as a result of medication or hospitalization if it
             9259      can be determined within reasonable medical probability that without continued medication or
             9260      hospitalization the defendant's mental illness will reoccur, making the defendant a substantial
             9261      danger to [himself] self or others.
             9262          (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (4)(d)(i), the defendant described in Subsection
             9263      (4)(d)(i) may be a candidate for conditional release, in accordance with Section 77-16a-305 .


             9264          Section 175. Section 77-16a-306 is amended to read:
             9265           77-16a-306. Continuing review -- Discharge.
             9266          (1) Each entity that provides treatment for a defendant committed to the department as
             9267      not guilty by reason of insanity under this part shall review the status of each defendant at least
             9268      once every six months. If the treatment provider finds that a defendant has recovered from
             9269      [his] the defendant's mental illness, or [if still mentally ill], if the defendant has a mental
             9270      illness, no longer presents a substantial danger to [himself] self or others, it shall notify the
             9271      executive director of its findings.
             9272          (2) Upon receipt of notification under Subsection (1), the executive director shall
             9273      designate a review team, in accordance with Section 77-16a-304 , to evaluate the defendant. If
             9274      that review team concurs with the treatment provider's assessment, the executive director shall
             9275      notify the court, the defendant's attorney, and the prosecuting attorney that the defendant is a
             9276      candidate for discharge. The court shall conduct a hearing, in accordance with Section
             9277      77-16a-302 , within 10 business days after receipt of that notice.
             9278          (3) The court may not discharge an individual whose mental illness is in remission as a
             9279      result of medication or hospitalization if it can be determined within reasonable medical
             9280      probability that without continued medication or hospitalization the defendant's mental illness
             9281      will reoccur, making the defendant a substantial danger to [himself] self or others.
             9282          Section 176. Section 77-18-1 is amended to read:
             9283           77-18-1. Suspension of sentence -- Pleas held in abeyance -- Probation --
             9284      Supervision -- Presentence investigation -- Standards -- Confidentiality -- Terms and
             9285      conditions -- Termination, revocation, modification, or extension -- Hearings -- Electronic
             9286      monitoring.
             9287          (1) On a plea of guilty or no contest entered by a defendant in conjunction with a plea
             9288      in abeyance agreement, the court may hold the plea in abeyance as provided in Title 77,
             9289      Chapter 2a, Pleas in Abeyance, and under the terms of the plea in abeyance agreement.
             9290          (2) (a) On a plea of guilty, guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, or
             9291      conviction of any crime or offense, the court may, after imposing sentence, suspend the
             9292      execution of the sentence and place the defendant on probation. The court may place the
             9293      defendant:
             9294          (i) on probation under the supervision of the Department of Corrections except in cases


             9295      of class C misdemeanors or infractions;
             9296          (ii) on probation with an agency of local government or with a private organization; or
             9297          (iii) on bench probation under the jurisdiction of the sentencing court.
             9298          (b) (i) The legal custody of all probationers under the supervision of the department is
             9299      with the department.
             9300          (ii) The legal custody of all probationers under the jurisdiction of the sentencing court
             9301      is vested as ordered by the court.
             9302          (iii) The court has continuing jurisdiction over all probationers.
             9303          (3) (a) The department shall establish supervision and presentence investigation
             9304      standards for all individuals referred to the department. These standards shall be based on:
             9305          (i) the type of offense;
             9306          (ii) the demand for services;
             9307          (iii) the availability of agency resources;
             9308          (iv) the public safety; and
             9309          (v) other criteria established by the department to determine what level of services
             9310      shall be provided.
             9311          (b) Proposed supervision and investigation standards shall be submitted to the Judicial
             9312      Council and the Board of Pardons and Parole on an annual basis for review and comment prior
             9313      to adoption by the department.
             9314          (c) The Judicial Council and the department shall establish procedures to implement
             9315      the supervision and investigation standards.
             9316          (d) The Judicial Council and the department shall annually consider modifications to
             9317      the standards based upon criteria in Subsection (3)(a) and other criteria as they consider
             9318      appropriate.
             9319          (e) The Judicial Council and the department shall annually prepare an impact report
             9320      and submit it to the appropriate legislative appropriations subcommittee.
             9321          (4) Notwithstanding other provisions of law, the department is not required to
             9322      supervise the probation of persons convicted of class B or C misdemeanors or infractions or to
             9323      conduct presentence investigation reports on class C misdemeanors or infractions. However,
             9324      the department may supervise the probation of class B misdemeanants in accordance with
             9325      department standards.


             9326          (5) (a) [Prior to] Before the imposition of any sentence, the court may, with the
             9327      concurrence of the defendant, continue the date for the imposition of sentence for a reasonable
             9328      period of time for the purpose of obtaining a presentence investigation report from the
             9329      department or information from other sources about the defendant.
             9330          (b) The presentence investigation report shall include a victim impact statement
             9331      according to guidelines set in Section 77-38a-203 describing the effect of the crime on the
             9332      victim and the victim's family.
             9333          (c) The presentence investigation report shall include a specific statement of pecuniary
             9334      damages, accompanied by a recommendation from the department regarding the payment of
             9335      restitution with interest by the defendant in accordance with Title 77, Chapter 38a, Crime
             9336      Victims Restitution Act.
             9337          (d) The presentence investigation report shall include:
             9338          (i) findings from any screening and any assessment of the offender conducted under
             9339      Section 77-18-1.1 ; and
             9340          (ii) recommendations for treatment of the offender.
             9341          (e) The contents of the presentence investigation report are protected and are not
             9342      available except by court order for purposes of sentencing as provided by rule of the Judicial
             9343      Council or for use by the department.
             9344          (6) (a) The department shall provide the presentence investigation report to the
             9345      defendant's attorney, or the defendant if not represented by counsel, the prosecutor, and the
             9346      court for review, three working days prior to sentencing. Any alleged inaccuracies in the
             9347      presentence investigation report, which have not been resolved by the parties and the
             9348      department prior to sentencing, shall be brought to the attention of the sentencing judge, and
             9349      the judge may grant an additional 10 working days to resolve the alleged inaccuracies of the
             9350      report with the department. If after 10 working days the inaccuracies cannot be resolved, the
             9351      court shall make a determination of relevance and accuracy on the record.
             9352          (b) If a party fails to challenge the accuracy of the presentence investigation report at
             9353      the time of sentencing, that matter shall be considered to be waived.
             9354          (7) At the time of sentence, the court shall receive any testimony, evidence, or
             9355      information the defendant or the prosecuting attorney desires to present concerning the
             9356      appropriate sentence. This testimony, evidence, or information shall be presented in open court


             9357      on record and in the presence of the defendant.
             9358          (8) While on probation, and as a condition of probation, the court may require that the
             9359      defendant:
             9360          (a) perform any or all of the following:
             9361          (i) pay, in one or several sums, any fine imposed at the time of being placed on
             9362      probation;
             9363          (ii) pay amounts required under Title 77, Chapter 32a, Defense Costs;
             9364          (iii) provide for the support of others for whose support the defendant is legally liable;
             9365          (iv) participate in available treatment programs, including any treatment program in
             9366      which the defendant is currently participating, if the program is acceptable to the court;
             9367          (v) serve a period of time, not to exceed one year, in a county jail designated by the
             9368      department, after considering any recommendation by the court as to which jail the court finds
             9369      most appropriate;
             9370          (vi) serve a term of home confinement, which may include the use of electronic
             9371      monitoring;
             9372          (vii) participate in compensatory service restitution programs, including the
             9373      compensatory service program provided in Section 76-6-107.1 ;
             9374          (viii) pay for the costs of investigation, probation, and treatment services;
             9375          (ix) make restitution or reparation to the victim or victims with interest in accordance
             9376      with Title 77, Chapter 38a, Crime Victims Restitution Act; and
             9377          (x) comply with other terms and conditions the court considers appropriate; and
             9378          (b) if convicted on or after May 5, 1997:
             9379          (i) complete high school classwork and obtain a high school graduation diploma, a
             9380      GED certificate, or a vocational certificate at the defendant's own expense if the defendant has
             9381      not received the diploma, GED certificate, or vocational certificate prior to being placed on
             9382      probation; or
             9383          (ii) provide documentation of the inability to obtain one of the items listed in
             9384      Subsection (8)(b)(i) because of:
             9385          (A) a diagnosed learning disability; or
             9386          (B) other justified cause.
             9387          (9) The department shall collect and disburse the account receivable as defined by


             9388      Section 76-3-201.1 , with interest and any other costs assessed under Section 64-13-21 during:
             9389          (a) the parole period and any extension of that period in accordance with Subsection
             9390      77-27-6 (4); and
             9391          (b) the probation period in cases for which the court orders supervised probation and
             9392      any extension of that period by the department in accordance with Subsection (10).
             9393          (10) (a) (i) Probation may be terminated at any time at the discretion of the court or
             9394      upon completion without violation of 36 months probation in felony or class A misdemeanor
             9395      cases, or 12 months in cases of class B or C misdemeanors or infractions.
             9396          (ii) (A) If, upon expiration or termination of the probation period under Subsection
             9397      (10)(a)(i), there remains an unpaid balance upon the account receivable as defined in Section
             9398      76-3-201.1 , the court may retain jurisdiction of the case and continue the defendant on bench
             9399      probation for the limited purpose of enforcing the payment of the account receivable.
             9400          (B) In accordance with Section 77-18-6 , the court shall record in the registry of civil
             9401      judgments any unpaid balance not already recorded and immediately transfer responsibility to
             9402      collect the account to the Office of State Debt Collection.
             9403          (iii) Upon motion of the Office of State Debt Collection, prosecutor, victim, or upon its
             9404      own motion, the court may require the defendant to show cause why the defendant's failure to
             9405      pay should not be treated as contempt of court.
             9406          (b) (i) The department shall notify the sentencing court, the Office of State Debt
             9407      Collection, and the prosecuting attorney in writing in advance in all cases when termination of
             9408      supervised probation will occur by law.
             9409          (ii) The notification shall include a probation progress report and complete report of
             9410      details on outstanding accounts receivable.
             9411          (11) (a) (i) Any time served by a probationer outside of confinement after having been
             9412      charged with a probation violation and prior to a hearing to revoke probation does not
             9413      constitute service of time toward the total probation term unless the probationer is exonerated
             9414      at a hearing to revoke the probation.
             9415          (ii) Any time served in confinement awaiting a hearing or decision concerning
             9416      revocation of probation does not constitute service of time toward the total probation term
             9417      unless the probationer is exonerated at the hearing.
             9418          (b) The running of the probation period is tolled upon the filing of a violation report


             9419      with the court alleging a violation of the terms and conditions of probation or upon the issuance
             9420      of an order to show cause or warrant by the court.
             9421          (12) (a) (i) Probation may not be modified or extended except upon waiver of a hearing
             9422      by the probationer or upon a hearing and a finding in court that the probationer has violated the
             9423      conditions of probation.
             9424          (ii) Probation may not be revoked except upon a hearing in court and a finding that the
             9425      conditions of probation have been violated.
             9426          (b) (i) Upon the filing of an affidavit alleging with particularity facts asserted to
             9427      constitute violation of the conditions of probation, the court that authorized probation shall
             9428      determine if the affidavit establishes probable cause to believe that revocation, modification, or
             9429      extension of probation is justified.
             9430          (ii) If the court determines there is probable cause, it shall cause to be served on the
             9431      defendant a warrant for the defendant's arrest or a copy of the affidavit and an order to show
             9432      cause why the defendant's probation should not be revoked, modified, or extended.
             9433          (c) (i) The order to show cause shall specify a time and place for the hearing and shall
             9434      be served upon the defendant at least five days prior to the hearing.
             9435          (ii) The defendant shall show good cause for a continuance.
             9436          (iii) The order to show cause shall inform the defendant of a right to be represented by
             9437      counsel at the hearing and to have counsel appointed if the defendant is indigent.
             9438          (iv) The order shall also inform the defendant of a right to present evidence.
             9439          (d) (i) At the hearing, the defendant shall admit or deny the allegations of the affidavit.
             9440          (ii) If the defendant denies the allegations of the affidavit, the prosecuting attorney
             9441      shall present evidence on the allegations.
             9442          (iii) The persons who have given adverse information on which the allegations are
             9443      based shall be presented as witnesses subject to questioning by the defendant unless the court
             9444      for good cause otherwise orders.
             9445          (iv) The defendant may call witnesses, appear and speak in the defendant's own behalf,
             9446      and present evidence.
             9447          (e) (i) After the hearing the court shall make findings of fact.
             9448          (ii) Upon a finding that the defendant violated the conditions of probation, the court
             9449      may order the probation revoked, modified, continued, or that the entire probation term


             9450      commence anew.
             9451          (iii) If probation is revoked, the defendant shall be sentenced or the sentence previously
             9452      imposed shall be executed.
             9453          (13) The court may order the defendant to commit himself or herself to the custody of
             9454      the Division of Substance Abuse and Mental Health for treatment at the Utah State Hospital as
             9455      a condition of probation or stay of sentence, only after the superintendent of the Utah State
             9456      Hospital or the superintendent's designee has certified to the court that:
             9457          (a) the defendant is appropriate for and can benefit from treatment at the state hospital;
             9458          (b) treatment space at the hospital is available for the defendant; and
             9459          (c) persons described in Subsection 62A-15-610 (2)(g) are receiving priority for
             9460      treatment over the defendants described in this Subsection (13).
             9461          (14) Presentence investigation reports are classified protected in accordance with Title
             9462      63G, Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management Act. Notwithstanding Sections
             9463      63G-2-403 and 63G-2-404 , the State Records Committee may not order the disclosure of a
             9464      presentence investigation report. Except for disclosure at the time of sentencing pursuant to
             9465      this section, the department may disclose the presentence investigation only when:
             9466          (a) ordered by the court pursuant to Subsection 63G-2-202 (7);
             9467          (b) requested by a law enforcement agency or other agency approved by the department
             9468      for purposes of supervision, confinement, and treatment of the offender;
             9469          (c) requested by the Board of Pardons and Parole;
             9470          (d) requested by the subject of the presentence investigation report or the subject's
             9471      authorized representative; or
             9472          (e) requested by the victim of the crime discussed in the presentence investigation
             9473      report or the victim's authorized representative, provided that the disclosure to the victim shall
             9474      include only information relating to statements or materials provided by the victim, to the
             9475      circumstances of the crime including statements by the defendant, or to the impact of the crime
             9476      on the victim or the victim's household.
             9477          (15) (a) The court shall consider home confinement as a condition of probation under
             9478      the supervision of the department, except as provided in Sections 76-3-406 and 76-5-406.5 .
             9479          (b) The department shall establish procedures and standards for home confinement,
             9480      including electronic monitoring, for all individuals referred to the department in accordance


             9481      with Subsection (16).
             9482          (16) (a) If the court places the defendant on probation under this section, it may order
             9483      the defendant to participate in home confinement through the use of electronic monitoring as
             9484      described in this section until further order of the court.
             9485          (b) The electronic monitoring shall alert the department and the appropriate law
             9486      enforcement unit of the defendant's whereabouts.
             9487          (c) The electronic monitoring device shall be used under conditions which require:
             9488          (i) the defendant to wear an electronic monitoring device at all times; and
             9489          (ii) that a device be placed in the home of the defendant, so that the defendant's
             9490      compliance with the court's order may be monitored.
             9491          (d) If a court orders a defendant to participate in home confinement through electronic
             9492      monitoring as a condition of probation under this section, it shall:
             9493          (i) place the defendant on probation under the supervision of the Department of
             9494      Corrections;
             9495          (ii) order the department to place an electronic monitoring device on the defendant and
             9496      install electronic monitoring equipment in the residence of the defendant; and
             9497          (iii) order the defendant to pay the costs associated with home confinement to the
             9498      department or the program provider.
             9499          (e) The department shall pay the costs of home confinement through electronic
             9500      monitoring only for those persons who have been determined to be indigent by the court.
             9501          (f) The department may provide the electronic monitoring described in this section
             9502      either directly or by contract with a private provider.
             9503          Section 177. Section 77-18-1.1 is amended to read:
             9504           77-18-1.1. Screening, assessment, and treatment.
             9505          (1) As used in this section:
             9506          (a) "Assessment" has the same meaning as in Section 41-6a-501 .
             9507          (b) "Convicted" means:
             9508          (i) a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, guilty [and mentally ill]
             9509      with a mental illness, or no contest; and
             9510          (ii) conviction of any crime or offense.
             9511          (c) "Screening" has the same meaning as in Section 41-6a-501 .


             9512          (d) "Substance abuse treatment" means treatment obtained through a substance abuse
             9513      program that is licensed by the Office of Licensing within the Department of Human Services.
             9514          (2) On or after July 1, 2009, the courts of the judicial districts where the Drug Offender
             9515      Reform Act under Section 63M-7-305 is implemented shall, in coordination with the local
             9516      substance abuse authority regarding available resources, order offenders convicted of a felony
             9517      to:
             9518          (a) participate in a screening prior to sentencing;
             9519          (b) participate in an assessment prior to sentencing if the screening indicates an
             9520      assessment to be appropriate; and
             9521          (c) participate in substance abuse treatment if:
             9522          (i) the assessment indicates treatment to be appropriate;
             9523          (ii) the court finds treatment to be appropriate for the offender; and
             9524          (iii) the court finds the offender to be an appropriate candidate for community-based
             9525      supervision.
             9526          (3) The findings from any screening and any assessment conducted under this section
             9527      shall be part of the presentence investigation report submitted to the court [prior to] before
             9528      sentencing of the offender.
             9529          (4) Monies appropriated by the Legislature to assist in the funding of the screening,
             9530      assessment, substance abuse treatment, and supervision provided under this section are not
             9531      subject to any requirement regarding matching funds from a state or local governmental entity.
             9532          Section 178. Section 77-18-8.3 is amended to read:
             9533           77-18-8.3. Special condition of sentence during incarceration -- Penalty.
             9534          (1) At the time of sentence, the court may order the defendant to be prohibited from
             9535      directly or indirectly engaging in any profit or benefit generating activity relating to the
             9536      publication of facts or circumstances pertaining to the defendant's involvement in the criminal
             9537      act for which the defendant is convicted.
             9538          (2) The court's order may prohibit the defendant from contracting with any person,
             9539      firm, corporation, partnership, association, or other legal entity with respect to the commission
             9540      and reenactment of the defendant's criminal conduct, by way of a movie, book, magazine
             9541      article, tape recording, phonograph record, radio, or television presentations, live entertainment
             9542      of any kind, or from the expression of the defendant's thoughts, feelings, opinions, or emotions


             9543      regarding the criminal conduct.
             9544          (3) The court may order that the prohibition includes any event undertaken and
             9545      experienced by the defendant while avoiding apprehension from the authorities or while facing
             9546      criminal charges.
             9547          (4) The court may order that any action taken by the defendant by way of execution of
             9548      power of attorney, creation of corporate entities, or other action to avoid compliance with the
             9549      court's order may be found to be contempt.
             9550          (5) The Department of Corrections shall notify the attorney general of any alleged
             9551      violation of the court's order under this section.
             9552          (6) The Board of Pardons and Parole and any county jail administrator may consider
             9553      the court's finding in any incarceration release decision concerning the incarcerated defendant.
             9554          (7) For purposes of this section:
             9555          (a) "convicted" means a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
             9556      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, and conviction of any crime or
             9557      offense; and
             9558          (b) "defendant" means the convicted defendant, the defendant's assignees, and
             9559      representatives acting on the defendant's authority.
             9560          Section 179. Section 77-18-8.5 is amended to read:
             9561           77-18-8.5. Special condition of probation -- Penalty.
             9562          (1) In accordance with Subsections 77-18-1 (2) and (8), the court may place the
             9563      defendant on probation and as a condition of probation, the court may order the defendant to be
             9564      prohibited from directly or indirectly engaging in any profit or benefit generating activity
             9565      relating to the publication of facts or circumstances pertaining to the defendant's involvement
             9566      in the criminal act for which the defendant is convicted.
             9567          (2) The court's order may prohibit the defendant from contracting with any person,
             9568      firm, corporation, partnership, association, or other legal entity with respect to the commission
             9569      and reenactment of the defendant's criminal conduct, by way of a movie, book, magazine
             9570      article, tape recording, phonograph record, radio, or television presentations, live entertainment
             9571      of any kind, or from the expression of the defendant's thoughts, feelings, opinions, or emotions
             9572      regarding the criminal conduct.
             9573          (3) The court may order that the prohibition includes any event undertaken and


             9574      experienced by the defendant while avoiding apprehension from the authorities or while facing
             9575      criminal charges.
             9576          (4) The court may order that any action taken by the defendant by way of execution of
             9577      power of attorney, creation of corporate entities, or other action to avoid compliance with the
             9578      court's order shall be found to be in contempt.
             9579          (5) Adult Probation and Parole shall notify the attorney general of any alleged violation
             9580      of the court's order under this section.
             9581          (6) The violation of the court's order shall be considered a violation of probation.
             9582          (7) For purposes of this section:
             9583          (a) "convicted" means a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
             9584      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, and conviction of any crime or
             9585      offense; and
             9586          (b) "defendant" means the convicted defendant, the defendant's assignees, and
             9587      representatives acting on the defendant's authority.
             9588          Section 180. Section 77-27-2 is amended to read:
             9589           77-27-2. Board of Pardons and Parole -- Creation -- Compensation -- Functions.
             9590          (1) There is created the Board of Pardons and Parole. The board shall consist of five
             9591      full-time members and not more than five pro tempore members to be appointed by the
             9592      governor with the consent of the Senate as provided in this section. The members of the board
             9593      shall be resident citizens of the state. The governor shall establish salaries for the members of
             9594      the board within the salary range fixed by the Legislature in Title 67, Chapter 22, State Officer
             9595      Compensation.
             9596          (2) (a) (i) The full-time board members shall serve terms of five years. The terms of
             9597      the full-time members shall be staggered so one board member is appointed for a term of five
             9598      years on March 1 of each year.
             9599          (ii) The pro tempore members shall serve terms of five years, beginning on March 1 of
             9600      the year of appointment, with no more than one pro tempore member term beginning or
             9601      expiring in the same calendar year. If a pro tempore member vacancy occurs, the board may
             9602      submit the names of not fewer than three or more than five persons to the governor for
             9603      appointment to fill the vacancy.
             9604          (b) All vacancies occurring on the board for any cause shall be filled by the governor


             9605      with the consent of the Senate pursuant to this section for the unexpired term of the vacating
             9606      member.
             9607          (c) The governor may at any time remove any member of the board for inefficiency,
             9608      neglect of duty, malfeasance or malfeasance in office, or for cause upon a hearing.
             9609          (d) A member of the board may not hold any other office in the government of the
             9610      United States, this state or any other state, or of any county government or municipal
             9611      corporation within a state. A member may not engage in any occupation or business
             9612      inconsistent with the member's duties.
             9613          (e) A majority of the board constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business,
             9614      including the holding of hearings at any time or any location within or without the state, or for
             9615      the purpose of exercising any duty or authority of the board. Action taken by a majority of the
             9616      board regarding whether parole, pardon, commutation, termination of sentence, or remission of
             9617      fines or forfeitures may be granted or restitution ordered in individual cases is deemed the
             9618      action of the board. A majority vote of the five full-time members of the board is required for
             9619      adoption of rules or policies of general applicability as provided by statute. However, a
             9620      vacancy on the board does not impair the right of the remaining board members to exercise any
             9621      duty or authority of the board as long as a majority of the board remains.
             9622          (f) Any investigation, inquiry, or hearing that the board has authority to undertake or
             9623      hold may be conducted by any board member or an examiner appointed by the board. When
             9624      any of these actions are approved and confirmed by the board and filed in its office, they are
             9625      considered to be the action of the board and have the same effect as if originally made by the
             9626      board.
             9627          (g) When a full-time board member is absent or in other extraordinary circumstances
             9628      the chair may, as dictated by public interest and efficient administration of the board, assign a
             9629      pro tempore member to act in the place of a full-time member. Pro tempore members shall
             9630      receive a per diem rate of compensation as established by the Division of Finance and all actual
             9631      and necessary expenses incurred in attending to official business.
             9632          (h) The chair may request staff and administrative support as necessary from the
             9633      Department of Corrections.
             9634          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), the Commission on Criminal and
             9635      Juvenile Justice shall:


             9636          (i) recommend five applicants to the governor for a full-time member appointment to
             9637      the Board of Pardons and Parole; and
             9638          (ii) consider applicants' knowledge of the criminal justice system, state and federal
             9639      criminal law, judicial procedure, corrections policies and procedures, and behavioral sciences.
             9640          (b) The procedures and requirements of Subsection (3)(a) do not apply if the governor
             9641      appoints a sitting board member to a new term of office.
             9642          (4) (a) The board shall appoint an individual to serve as its mental health adviser and
             9643      may appoint other staff necessary to aid it in fulfilling its responsibilities under Title 77,
             9644      Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of [Mentally Ill] Persons with a Mental Illness. The
             9645      adviser shall prepare reports and recommendations to the board on all persons adjudicated as
             9646      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, in accordance with Title 77, Chapter 16a.
             9647          (b) The mental health adviser shall possess the qualifications necessary to carry out the
             9648      duties imposed by the board and may not be employed by the Department of Corrections or the
             9649      Utah State Hospital.
             9650          (i) The Board of Pardons and Parole may review outside employment by the mental
             9651      health advisor.
             9652          (ii) The Board of Pardons and Parole shall develop rules governing employment with
             9653      entities other than the board by the mental health advisor for the purpose of prohibiting a
             9654      conflict of interest.
             9655          (c) The mental health adviser shall:
             9656          (i) act as liaison for the board with the Department of Human Services and local mental
             9657      health authorities;
             9658          (ii) educate the members of the board regarding the needs and special circumstances of
             9659      [mentally ill] persons with a mental illness in the criminal justice system;
             9660          (iii) in cooperation with the Department of Corrections, monitor the status of persons
             9661      in the prison who have been found guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness;
             9662          (iv) monitor the progress of other persons under the board's jurisdiction who [are
             9663      mentally ill] have a mental illness;
             9664          (v) conduct hearings as necessary in the preparation of reports and recommendations;
             9665      and
             9666          (vi) perform other duties as assigned by the board.


             9667          Section 181. Section 77-27-5.3 is amended to read:
             9668           77-27-5.3. Meritless and bad faith litigation.
             9669          (1) For purposes of this section:
             9670          (a) "Convicted" means a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
             9671      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, and conviction of any crime or
             9672      offense.
             9673          (b) "Prisoner" means a person who has been convicted of a crime and is incarcerated
             9674      for that crime or is being held in custody for trial or sentencing.
             9675          (2) In any case filed in state or federal court in which a prisoner submits a claim that
             9676      the court finds to be without merit and brought or asserted in bad faith, the Board of Pardons
             9677      and Parole and any county jail administrator may consider that finding in any early release
             9678      decisions concerning the prisoner.
             9679          Section 182. Section 77-27-10.5 is amended to read:
             9680           77-27-10.5. Special condition of parole -- Penalty.
             9681          (1) In accordance with Section 77-27-5 , the Board of Pardons and Parole may release
             9682      the defendant on parole and as a condition of parole, the board may order the defendant to be
             9683      prohibited from directly or indirectly engaging in any profit or benefit generating activity
             9684      relating to the publication of facts or circumstances pertaining to the defendant's involvement
             9685      in the criminal act for which the defendant is convicted.
             9686          (2) The order may prohibit the defendant from contracting with any person, firm,
             9687      corporation, partnership, association, or other legal entity with respect to the commission and
             9688      reenactment of the defendant's criminal conduct, by way of a movie, book, magazine article,
             9689      tape recording, phonograph record, radio, or television presentations, live entertainment of any
             9690      kind, or from the expression of the defendant's thoughts, feelings, opinions, or emotions
             9691      regarding the criminal conduct.
             9692          (3) The board may order that the prohibition includes any event undertaken and
             9693      experienced by the defendant while avoiding apprehension from the authorities or while facing
             9694      criminal charges.
             9695          (4) The board may order that any action taken by the defendant by way of execution of
             9696      power of attorney, creation of corporate entities, or other action to avoid compliance with the
             9697      board's order shall be grounds for revocation of parole as provided in Section 77-27-11 .


             9698          (5) Adult Probation and Parole shall notify the board of any alleged violation of the
             9699      board's order under this section.
             9700          (6) The violation of the board's order shall be considered a violation of parole.
             9701          (7) For purposes of this section:
             9702          (a) "convicted" means a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
             9703      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, and conviction of any crime or
             9704      offense; and
             9705          (b) "defendant" means the convicted defendant, the defendant's assignees, and
             9706      representatives acting on the defendant's authority.
             9707          Section 183. Section 77-33-5 is amended to read:
             9708           77-33-5. Rendition procedure inapplicable to person confined as insane or having
             9709      a mental illness or under sentence of death.
             9710          This act does not apply to any person in this state confined as insane or [mentally ill] as
             9711      having a mental illness or under sentence of death.
             9712          Section 184. Section 77-38-302 is amended to read:
             9713           77-38-302. Definitions.
             9714          As used in this part:
             9715          (1) "Conviction" means an adjudication by a federal or state court resulting from a trial
             9716      or plea, including a plea of no contest, nolo contendere, a finding of not guilty due to insanity,
             9717      or not guilty but [mentally ill] having a mental illness regardless of whether the sentence was
             9718      imposed or suspended.
             9719          (2) "Fund" means the Crime Victim Reparations Fund created in Section 51-9-404 .
             9720          (3) "Memorabilia" means any tangible property of a person convicted of a first degree
             9721      or capital felony, the value of which is enhanced by the notoriety gained from the conviction.
             9722          (4) "Profit" means any income or benefit over and above the fair market value of the
             9723      property that is received upon the sale or transfer of memorabilia.
             9724          Section 185. Section 78A-2-302 is amended to read:
             9725           78A-2-302. Impecunious litigants -- Affidavit.
             9726          (1) For purposes of Sections 78A-2-302 through 78A-2-309 :
             9727          (a) "Convicted" means a conviction by entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
             9728      guilty [and mentally ill] with a mental illness, no contest, and conviction of any crime or


             9729      offense.
             9730          (b) "Prisoner" means a person who has been convicted of a crime and is incarcerated
             9731      for that crime or is being held in custody for trial or sentencing.
             9732          (2) As provided in this chapter, any person may institute, prosecute, defend, and appeal
             9733      any cause in any court in this state without prepayment of fees and costs or security, by taking
             9734      and subscribing, before any officer authorized to administer an oath, an affidavit of
             9735      impecuniosity demonstrating financial inability to pay fees and costs or give security.
             9736          (3) The affidavit shall contain complete information on the party's:
             9737          (a) identity and residence;
             9738          (b) amount of income, including government financial support, alimony, child support;
             9739          (c) assets owned, including real and personal property;
             9740          (d) business interests;
             9741          (e) accounts receivable;
             9742          (f) securities, checking and savings account balances;
             9743          (g) debts; and
             9744          (h) monthly expenses.
             9745          (4) If the party is a prisoner, he shall also disclose the amount of money held in his
             9746      prisoner trust account at the time the affidavit is executed as provided in Section 78A-2-305 .
             9747          (5) In addition to the financial disclosures, the affidavit shall state the following:
             9748          I, A B, do solemnly swear or affirm that due to my poverty I am unable to bear the
             9749      expenses of the action or legal proceedings which I am about to commence or the appeal which
             9750      I am about to take, and that I believe I am entitled to the relief sought by the action, legal
             9751      proceedings, or appeal.
             9752          Section 186. Section 78A-6-103 is amended to read:
             9753           78A-6-103. Jurisdiction of juvenile court -- Original -- Exclusive.
             9754          (1) Except as otherwise provided by law, the juvenile court has exclusive original
             9755      jurisdiction in proceedings concerning:
             9756          (a) a child who has violated any federal, state, or local law or municipal ordinance or a
             9757      person younger than 21 years of age who has violated any law or ordinance before becoming
             9758      18 years of age, regardless of where the violation occurred, excluding offenses in Subsection
             9759      78A-7-106 (2);


             9760          (b) a person 21 years of age or older who has failed or refused to comply with an order
             9761      of the juvenile court to pay a fine or restitution, if the order was imposed [prior to] before the
             9762      person's 21st birthday; however, the continuing jurisdiction is limited to causing compliance
             9763      with existing orders;
             9764          (c) a child who is an abused child, neglected child, or dependent child, as those terms
             9765      are defined in Section 78A-6-105 ;
             9766          (d) a protective order for a child pursuant to the provisions of Title 78B, Chapter 7,
             9767      Part 2, Child Protective Orders, which the juvenile court may transfer to the district court if the
             9768      juvenile court has entered an ex parte protective order and finds that:
             9769          (i) the petitioner and the respondent are the natural parent, adoptive parent, or step
             9770      parent of the child who is the object of the petition;
             9771          (ii) the district court has a petition pending or an order related to custody or parent-time
             9772      entered under Title 30, Chapter 3, Divorce, Title 78B, Chapter 7, Part 1, Cohabitant Abuse Act,
             9773      or Title 78B, Chapter 15, Utah Uniform Parentage Act, in which the petitioner and the
             9774      respondent are parties; and
             9775          (iii) the best interests of the child will be better served in the district court;
             9776          (e) appointment of a guardian of the person or other guardian of a minor who comes
             9777      within the court's jurisdiction under other provisions of this section;
             9778          (f) the emancipation of a minor in accordance with Part 8, Emancipation;
             9779          (g) the termination of the legal parent-child relationship in accordance with Part 5,
             9780      Termination of Parental Rights Act, including termination of residual parental rights and
             9781      duties;
             9782          (h) the treatment or commitment of a [mentally retarded] minor who has an intellectual
             9783      disability;
             9784          (i) a minor who is a habitual truant from school;
             9785          (j) the judicial consent to the marriage of a child under age 16 upon a determination of
             9786      voluntariness or where otherwise required by law, employment, or enlistment of a child when
             9787      consent is required by law;
             9788          (k) any parent or parents of a child committed to a secure youth corrections facility, to
             9789      order, at the discretion of the court and on the recommendation of a secure facility, the parent
             9790      or parents of a child committed to a secure facility for a custodial term, to undergo group


             9791      rehabilitation therapy under the direction of a secure facility therapist, who has supervision of
             9792      that parent's or parents' child, or any other therapist the court may direct, for a period directed
             9793      by the court as recommended by a secure facility;
             9794          (l) a minor under Title 55, Chapter 12, Interstate Compact for Juveniles;
             9795          (m) the treatment or commitment of a [mentally ill] child with a mental illness. The
             9796      court may commit a child to the physical custody of a local mental health authority in
             9797      accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title 62A, Chapter 15, Part 7,
             9798      Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and Mental Health, but
             9799      not directly to the Utah State Hospital;
             9800          (n) the commitment of a child in accordance with Section 62A-15-301 ;
             9801          (o) de novo review of final agency actions resulting from an informal adjudicative
             9802      proceeding as provided in Section 63G-4-402 ; and
             9803          (p) adoptions conducted in accordance with the procedures described in Title 78B,
             9804      Chapter 6, Part 1, Utah Adoption Act, when the juvenile court has previously entered an order
             9805      terminating the rights of a parent and finds that adoption is in the best interest of the child.
             9806          (2) Notwithstanding Section 78A-7-106 and Subsection 78A-5-102 (9), the juvenile
             9807      court has exclusive jurisdiction over the following offenses committed by a child:
             9808          (a) Title 41, Chapter 6a, Part 5, Driving Under the Influence and Reckless Driving;
             9809          (b) Section 73-18-12 , reckless operation; and
             9810          (c) class B and C misdemeanors, infractions, or violations of ordinances that are part of
             9811      a single criminal episode filed in a petition that contains an offense over which the court has
             9812      jurisdiction.
             9813          (3) The juvenile court has jurisdiction over an ungovernable or runaway child who is
             9814      referred to it by the Division of Child and Family Services or by public or private agencies that
             9815      contract with the division to provide services to that child where, despite earnest and persistent
             9816      efforts by the division or agency, the child has demonstrated that the child:
             9817          (a) is beyond the control of the child's parent, guardian, lawful custodian, or school
             9818      authorities to the extent that the child's behavior or condition endangers the child's own welfare
             9819      or the welfare of others; or
             9820          (b) has run away from home.
             9821          (4) This section does not restrict the right of access to the juvenile court by private


             9822      agencies or other persons.
             9823          (5) The juvenile court has jurisdiction of all magistrate functions relative to cases
             9824      arising under Section 78A-6-702 .
             9825          (6) The juvenile court has jurisdiction to make a finding of substantiated,
             9826      unsubstantiated, or without merit, in accordance with Section 78A-6-323 .
             9827          (7) The juvenile court has jurisdiction of matters transferred to it by another trial court
             9828      pursuant to Subsection 78A-7-106 (7).
             9829          Section 187. Section 78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/11) is amended to read:
             9830           78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/11). Adjudication of jurisdiction of juvenile court --
             9831      Disposition of cases -- Enumeration of possible court orders -- Considerations of court --
             9832      Obtaining DNA sample.
             9833          (1) (a) When a minor is found to come within the provisions of Section 78A-6-103 , the
             9834      court shall so adjudicate. The court shall make a finding of the facts upon which it bases its
             9835      jurisdiction over the minor. However, in cases within the provisions of Subsection
             9836      78A-6-103 (1), findings of fact are not necessary.
             9837          (b) If the court adjudicates a minor for a crime of violence or an offense in violation of
             9838      Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, it shall order that notice of the adjudication be provided
             9839      to the school superintendent of the district in which the minor resides or attends school. Notice
             9840      shall be made to the district superintendent within three days of the adjudication and shall
             9841      include:
             9842          (i) the specific offenses for which the minor was adjudicated; and
             9843          (ii) if available, if the victim:
             9844          (A) resides in the same school district as the minor; or
             9845          (B) attends the same school as the minor.
             9846          (2) Upon adjudication the court may make the following dispositions by court order:
             9847          (a) (i) The court may place the minor on probation or under protective supervision in
             9848      the minor's own home and upon conditions determined by the court, including compensatory
             9849      service as provided in Subsection (2)(m)(iii).
             9850          (ii) The court may place the minor in state supervision with the probation department
             9851      of the court, under the legal custody of:
             9852          (A) the minor's parent or guardian;


             9853          (B) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services; or
             9854          (C) the Division of Child and Family Services.
             9855          (iii) If the court orders probation or state supervision, the court shall direct that notice
             9856      of its order be provided to designated persons in the local law enforcement agency and the
             9857      school or transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons may
             9858      receive the information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety.
             9859          (iv) Any employee of the local law enforcement agency and the school that the minor
             9860      attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
             9861          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
             9862      provided in Section 63G-7-202 ; and
             9863          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when the disclosure constitutes a knowing
             9864      violation of Section 63G-2-801 .
             9865          (b) The court may place the minor in the legal custody of a relative or other suitable
             9866      person, with or without probation or protective supervision, but the juvenile court may not
             9867      assume the function of developing foster home services.
             9868          (c) (i) The court may:
             9869          (A) vest legal custody of the minor in the Division of Child and Family Services,
             9870      Division of Juvenile Justice Services, or the Division of Substance Abuse and Mental Health;
             9871      and
             9872          (B) order the Department of Human Services to provide dispositional
             9873      recommendations and services.
             9874          (ii) For minors who may qualify for services from two or more divisions within the
             9875      Department of Human Services, the court may vest legal custody with the department.
             9876          (iii) (A) A minor who is committed to the custody of the Division of Child and Family
             9877      Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect is subject to the provisions of Title 78A,
             9878      Chapter 6, Part 4, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect, and Title 62A,
             9879      Chapter 4a, Part 2a, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect.
             9880          (B) [Prior to] Before the court entering an order to place a minor in the custody of the
             9881      Division of Child and Family Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect, the court shall
             9882      provide the division with notice of the hearing no later than five days before the time specified
             9883      for the hearing so the division may attend the hearing.


             9884          (C) [Prior to] Before committing a child to the custody of the Division of Child and
             9885      Family Services, the court shall make a finding as to what reasonable efforts have been
             9886      attempted to prevent the child's removal from the child's home.
             9887          (d) (i) The court may commit a minor to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services for
             9888      secure confinement.
             9889          (ii) A minor under the jurisdiction of the court solely on the ground of abuse, neglect,
             9890      or dependency under Subsection 78A-6-103 (1)(c) may not be committed to the Division of
             9891      Juvenile Justice Services.
             9892          (e) The court may commit a minor, subject to the court retaining continuing
             9893      jurisdiction over the minor, to the temporary custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice
             9894      Services for observation and evaluation for a period not to exceed 45 days, which period may
             9895      be extended up to 15 days at the request of the director of the Division of Juvenile Justice
             9896      Services.
             9897          (f) (i) The court may commit a minor to a place of detention or an alternative to
             9898      detention for a period not to exceed 30 days subject to the court retaining continuing
             9899      jurisdiction over the minor. This commitment may be stayed or suspended upon conditions
             9900      ordered by the court.
             9901          (ii) This Subsection (2)(f) applies only to a minor adjudicated for:
             9902          (A) an act which if committed by an adult would be a criminal offense; or
             9903          (B) contempt of court under Section 78A-6-1101 .
             9904          (g) The court may vest legal custody of an abused, neglected, or dependent minor in
             9905      the Division of Child and Family Services or any other appropriate person in accordance with
             9906      the requirements and procedures of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and
             9907      Dependency Proceedings.
             9908          (h) The court may place a minor on a ranch or forestry camp, or similar facility for care
             9909      and also for work, if possible, if the person, agency, or association operating the facility has
             9910      been approved or has otherwise complied with all applicable state and local laws. A minor
             9911      placed in a forestry camp or similar facility may be required to work on fire prevention,
             9912      forestation and reforestation, recreational works, forest roads, and on other works on or off the
             9913      grounds of the facility and may be paid wages, subject to the approval of and under conditions
             9914      set by the court.


             9915          (i) (i) The court may order a minor to repair, replace, or otherwise make restitution for
             9916      damage or loss caused by the minor's wrongful act, including costs of treatment as stated in
             9917      Section 78A-6-321 and impose fines in limited amounts.
             9918          (ii) The court may also require a minor to reimburse an individual, entity, or
             9919      governmental agency who offered and paid a reward to a person or persons for providing
             9920      information resulting in a court adjudication that the minor is within the jurisdiction of the
             9921      juvenile court due to the commission of a criminal offense.
             9922          (iii) If a minor is returned to this state under the Interstate Compact on Juveniles, the
             9923      court may order the minor to make restitution for costs expended by any governmental entity
             9924      for the return.
             9925          (j) The court may issue orders necessary for the collection of restitution and fines
             9926      ordered by the court, including garnishments, wage withholdings, and executions.
             9927          (k) (i) The court may through its probation department encourage the development of
             9928      employment or work programs to enable minors to fulfill their obligations under Subsection
             9929      (2)(i) and for other purposes considered desirable by the court.
             9930          (ii) Consistent with the order of the court, the probation officer may permit a minor
             9931      found to be within the jurisdiction of the court to participate in a program of work restitution or
             9932      compensatory service in lieu of paying part or all of the fine imposed by the court.
             9933          (l) (i) In violations of traffic laws within the court's jurisdiction, the court may, in
             9934      addition to any other disposition authorized by this section:
             9935          (A) restrain the minor from driving for periods of time the court considers necessary;
             9936      and
             9937          (B) take possession of the minor's driver license.
             9938          (ii) The court may enter any other disposition under Subsection (2)(l)(i); however, the
             9939      suspension of driving privileges for an offense under Section 78A-6-606 are governed only by
             9940      Section 78A-6-606 .
             9941          (m) (i) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under
             9942      Section 78A-6-103 because of violating Section 58-37-8 , Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug
             9943      Paraphernalia Act, or Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances Act, the court
             9944      shall, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed, order that the minor perform a
             9945      minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours, of compensatory service. Satisfactory


             9946      completion of an approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited
             9947      by the court as compensatory service hours.
             9948          (ii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
             9949      78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 32A-12-209 or Subsection 76-9-701 (1), the court
             9950      may, upon the first adjudication, and shall, upon a second or subsequent adjudication, order
             9951      that the minor perform a minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours of compensatory
             9952      service, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed. Satisfactory completion of an
             9953      approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited by the court as
             9954      compensatory service hours.
             9955          (iii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
             9956      78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 76-6-106 or 76-6-206 using graffiti, the court may
             9957      order the minor to clean up graffiti created by the minor or any other person at a time and place
             9958      within the jurisdiction of the court. Compensatory service required under this section may be
             9959      performed in the presence and under the direct supervision of the minor's parent or legal
             9960      guardian. The parent or legal guardian shall report completion of the order to the court. The
             9961      minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, if applicable, shall be responsible for removal
             9962      costs as determined under Section 76-6-107 , unless waived by the court for good cause. The
             9963      court may also require the minor to perform other alternative forms of restitution or repair to
             9964      the damaged property pursuant to Subsection 77-18-1 (8).
             9965          (A) For a first adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
             9966      less than eight hours.
             9967          (B) For a second adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for
             9968      not less than 16 hours.
             9969          (C) For a third adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
             9970      less than 24 hours.
             9971          (n) (i) Subject to Subsection (2)(n)(iii), the court may order that a minor:
             9972          (A) be examined or treated by a physician, surgeon, psychiatrist, or psychologist; or
             9973          (B) receive other special care.
             9974          (ii) For purposes of receiving the examination, treatment, or care described in
             9975      Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court may place the minor in a hospital or other suitable facility.
             9976          (iii) In determining whether to order the examination, treatment, or care described in


             9977      Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court shall consider:
             9978          (A) the desires of the minor;
             9979          (B) if the minor is under the age of 18, the desires of the parents or guardian of the
             9980      minor; and
             9981          (C) whether the potential benefits of the examination, treatment, or care outweigh the
             9982      potential risks and side-effects, including behavioral disturbances, suicidal ideation, brain
             9983      function impairment, or emotional or physical harm resulting from the compulsory nature of
             9984      the examination, treatment, or care.
             9985          (o) (i) The court may appoint a guardian for the minor if it appears necessary in the
             9986      interest of the minor, and may appoint as guardian a public or private institution or agency in
             9987      which legal custody of the minor is vested.
             9988          (ii) In placing a minor under the guardianship or legal custody of an individual or of a
             9989      private agency or institution, the court shall give primary consideration to the welfare of the
             9990      minor. When practicable, the court may take into consideration the religious preferences of the
             9991      minor and of a child's parents.
             9992          (p) (i) In support of a decree under Section 78A-6-103 , the court may order reasonable
             9993      conditions to be complied with by a minor's parents or guardian, a minor, a minor's custodian,
             9994      or any other person who has been made a party to the proceedings. Conditions may include:
             9995          (A) parent-time by the parents or one parent;
             9996          (B) restrictions on the minor's associates;
             9997          (C) restrictions on the minor's occupation and other activities; and
             9998          (D) requirements to be observed by the parents or custodian.
             9999          (ii) A minor whose parents or guardians successfully complete a family or other
             10000      counseling program may be credited by the court for detention, confinement, or probation time.
             10001          (q) The court may order the child to be committed to the physical custody of a local
             10002      mental health authority, in accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title 62A,
             10003      Chapter 15, Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and
             10004      Mental Health.
             10005          (r) (i) The court may make an order committing a minor within the court's jurisdiction
             10006      to the Utah State Developmental Center if the minor has [mental retardation] an intellectual
             10007      disability in accordance with the provisions of Title 62A, Chapter 5, Part 3, Admission to


             10008      [Mental Retardation Facility] an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual
             10009      Disability.
             10010          (ii) The court shall follow the procedure applicable in the district courts with respect to
             10011      judicial commitments to the Utah State Developmental Center when ordering a commitment
             10012      under Subsection (2)(r)(i).
             10013          (s) The court may terminate all parental rights upon a finding of compliance with the
             10014      provisions of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 5, Termination of Parental Rights Act.
             10015          (t) The court may make any other reasonable orders for the best interest of the minor or
             10016      as required for the protection of the public, except that a child may not be committed to jail or
             10017      prison.
             10018          (u) The court may combine the dispositions listed in this section if they are compatible.
             10019          (v) Before depriving any parent of custody, the court shall give due consideration to the
             10020      rights of parents concerning their child. The court may transfer custody of a minor to another
             10021      person, agency, or institution in accordance with the requirements and procedures of Title 78A,
             10022      Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and Dependency Proceedings.
             10023          (w) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(y)(i), an order under this section for
             10024      probation or placement of a minor with an individual or an agency shall include a date certain
             10025      for a review of the case by the court. A new date shall be set upon each review.
             10026          (x) In reviewing foster home placements, special attention shall be given to making
             10027      adoptable children available for adoption without delay.
             10028          (y) (i) The juvenile court may enter an order of permanent custody and guardianship
             10029      with an individual or relative of a child where the court has previously acquired jurisdiction as
             10030      a result of an adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency. The juvenile court may enter an
             10031      order for child support on behalf of the child against the natural or adoptive parents of the
             10032      child.
             10033          (ii) Orders under Subsection (2)(y)(i):
             10034          (A) shall remain in effect until the child reaches majority;
             10035          (B) are not subject to review under Section 78A-6-118 ; and
             10036          (C) may be modified by petition or motion as provided in Section 78A-6-1103 .
             10037          (iii) Orders permanently terminating the rights of a parent, guardian, or custodian and
             10038      permanent orders of custody and guardianship do not expire with a termination of jurisdiction


             10039      of the juvenile court.
             10040          (3) In addition to the dispositions described in Subsection (2), when a minor comes
             10041      within the court's jurisdiction, the minor may be given a choice by the court to serve in the
             10042      National Guard in lieu of other sanctions, provided:
             10043          (a) the minor meets the current entrance qualifications for service in the National
             10044      Guard as determined by a recruiter, whose determination is final;
             10045          (b) the minor is not under the jurisdiction of the court for any act that:
             10046          (i) would be a felony if committed by an adult;
             10047          (ii) is a violation of Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act; or
             10048          (iii) was committed with a weapon; and
             10049          (c) the court retains jurisdiction over the minor under conditions set by the court and
             10050      agreed upon by the recruiter or the unit commander to which the minor is eventually assigned.
             10051          (4) (a) A DNA specimen shall be obtained from a minor who is under the jurisdiction
             10052      of the court as described in Subsection 53-10-403 (3). The specimen shall be obtained by
             10053      designated employees of the court or, if the minor is in the legal custody of the Division of
             10054      Juvenile Justice Services, then by designated employees of the division under Subsection
             10055      53-10-404 (5)(b).
             10056          (b) The responsible agency shall ensure that employees designated to collect the saliva
             10057      DNA specimens receive appropriate training and that the specimens are obtained in accordance
             10058      with accepted protocol.
             10059          (c) Reimbursements paid under Subsection 53-10-404 (2)(a) shall be placed in the DNA
             10060      Specimen Restricted Account created in Section 53-10-407 .
             10061          (d) Payment of the reimbursement is second in priority to payments the minor is
             10062      ordered to make for restitution under this section and treatment under Section 78A-6-321 .
             10063          Section 188. Section 78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/11) is amended to read:
             10064           78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/11). Adjudication of jurisdiction of juvenile court --
             10065      Disposition of cases -- Enumeration of possible court orders -- Considerations of court --
             10066      Obtaining DNA sample.
             10067          (1) (a) When a minor is found to come within the provisions of Section 78A-6-103 , the
             10068      court shall so adjudicate. The court shall make a finding of the facts upon which it bases its
             10069      jurisdiction over the minor. However, in cases within the provisions of Subsection


             10070      78A-6-103 (1), findings of fact are not necessary.
             10071          (b) If the court adjudicates a minor for a crime of violence or an offense in violation of
             10072      Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, it shall order that notice of the adjudication be provided
             10073      to the school superintendent of the district in which the minor resides or attends school. Notice
             10074      shall be made to the district superintendent within three days of the adjudication and shall
             10075      include:
             10076          (i) the specific offenses for which the minor was adjudicated; and
             10077          (ii) if available, if the victim:
             10078          (A) resides in the same school district as the minor; or
             10079          (B) attends the same school as the minor.
             10080          (2) Upon adjudication the court may make the following dispositions by court order:
             10081          (a) (i) The court may place the minor on probation or under protective supervision in
             10082      the minor's own home and upon conditions determined by the court, including compensatory
             10083      service as provided in Subsection (2)(m)(iii).
             10084          (ii) The court may place the minor in state supervision with the probation department
             10085      of the court, under the legal custody of:
             10086          (A) the minor's parent or guardian;
             10087          (B) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services; or
             10088          (C) the Division of Child and Family Services.
             10089          (iii) If the court orders probation or state supervision, the court shall direct that notice
             10090      of its order be provided to designated persons in the local law enforcement agency and the
             10091      school or transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons may
             10092      receive the information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety.
             10093          (iv) Any employee of the local law enforcement agency and the school that the minor
             10094      attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
             10095          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
             10096      provided in Section 63G-7-202 ; and
             10097          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when the disclosure constitutes a knowing
             10098      violation of Section 63G-2-801 .
             10099          (b) The court may place the minor in the legal custody of a relative or other suitable
             10100      person, with or without probation or protective supervision, but the juvenile court may not


             10101      assume the function of developing foster home services.
             10102          (c) (i) The court may:
             10103          (A) vest legal custody of the minor in the Division of Child and Family Services,
             10104      Division of Juvenile Justice Services, or the Division of Substance Abuse and Mental Health;
             10105      and
             10106          (B) order the Department of Human Services to provide dispositional
             10107      recommendations and services.
             10108          (ii) For minors who may qualify for services from two or more divisions within the
             10109      Department of Human Services, the court may vest legal custody with the department.
             10110          (iii) (A) A minor who is committed to the custody of the Division of Child and Family
             10111      Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect is subject to the provisions of Title 78A,
             10112      Chapter 6, Part 4, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect, and Title 62A,
             10113      Chapter 4a, Part 2a, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect.
             10114          (B) Prior to the court entering an order to place a minor in the custody of the Division
             10115      of Child and Family Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect, the court shall provide
             10116      the division with notice of the hearing no later than five days before the time specified for the
             10117      hearing so the division may attend the hearing.
             10118          (C) Prior to committing a child to the custody of the Division of Child and Family
             10119      Services, the court shall make a finding as to what reasonable efforts have been attempted to
             10120      prevent the child's removal from the child's home.
             10121          (d) (i) The court may commit a minor to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services for
             10122      secure confinement.
             10123          (ii) A minor under the jurisdiction of the court solely on the ground of abuse, neglect,
             10124      or dependency under Subsection 78A-6-103 (1)(c) may not be committed to the Division of
             10125      Juvenile Justice Services.
             10126          (e) The court may commit a minor, subject to the court retaining continuing
             10127      jurisdiction over the minor, to the temporary custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice
             10128      Services for observation and evaluation for a period not to exceed 45 days, which period may
             10129      be extended up to 15 days at the request of the director of the Division of Juvenile Justice
             10130      Services.
             10131          (f) (i) The court may commit a minor to a place of detention or an alternative to


             10132      detention for a period not to exceed 30 days subject to the court retaining continuing
             10133      jurisdiction over the minor. This commitment may be stayed or suspended upon conditions
             10134      ordered by the court.
             10135          (ii) This Subsection (2)(f) applies only to a minor adjudicated for:
             10136          (A) an act which if committed by an adult would be a criminal offense; or
             10137          (B) contempt of court under Section 78A-6-1101 .
             10138          (g) The court may vest legal custody of an abused, neglected, or dependent minor in
             10139      the Division of Child and Family Services or any other appropriate person in accordance with
             10140      the requirements and procedures of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and
             10141      Dependency Proceedings.
             10142          (h) The court may place a minor on a ranch or forestry camp, or similar facility for care
             10143      and also for work, if possible, if the person, agency, or association operating the facility has
             10144      been approved or has otherwise complied with all applicable state and local laws. A minor
             10145      placed in a forestry camp or similar facility may be required to work on fire prevention,
             10146      forestation and reforestation, recreational works, forest roads, and on other works on or off the
             10147      grounds of the facility and may be paid wages, subject to the approval of and under conditions
             10148      set by the court.
             10149          (i) (i) The court may order a minor to repair, replace, or otherwise make restitution for
             10150      damage or loss caused by the minor's wrongful act, including costs of treatment as stated in
             10151      Section 78A-6-321 and impose fines in limited amounts.
             10152          (ii) The court may also require a minor to reimburse an individual, entity, or
             10153      governmental agency who offered and paid a reward to a person or persons for providing
             10154      information resulting in a court adjudication that the minor is within the jurisdiction of the
             10155      juvenile court due to the commission of a criminal offense.
             10156          (iii) If a minor is returned to this state under the Interstate Compact on Juveniles, the
             10157      court may order the minor to make restitution for costs expended by any governmental entity
             10158      for the return.
             10159          (j) The court may issue orders necessary for the collection of restitution and fines
             10160      ordered by the court, including garnishments, wage withholdings, and executions.
             10161          (k) (i) The court may through its probation department encourage the development of
             10162      employment or work programs to enable minors to fulfill their obligations under Subsection


             10163      (2)(i) and for other purposes considered desirable by the court.
             10164          (ii) Consistent with the order of the court, the probation officer may permit a minor
             10165      found to be within the jurisdiction of the court to participate in a program of work restitution or
             10166      compensatory service in lieu of paying part or all of the fine imposed by the court.
             10167          (l) (i) In violations of traffic laws within the court's jurisdiction, the court may, in
             10168      addition to any other disposition authorized by this section:
             10169          (A) restrain the minor from driving for periods of time the court considers necessary;
             10170      and
             10171          (B) take possession of the minor's driver license.
             10172          (ii) The court may enter any other disposition under Subsection (2)(l)(i). However, the
             10173      suspension of driving privileges for an offense under Section 78A-6-606 is governed only by
             10174      Section 78A-6-606 .
             10175          (m) (i) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under
             10176      Section 78A-6-103 because of violating Section 58-37-8 , Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug
             10177      Paraphernalia Act, or Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances Act, the court
             10178      shall, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed, order that the minor perform a
             10179      minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours, of compensatory service. Satisfactory
             10180      completion of an approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited
             10181      by the court as compensatory service hours.
             10182          (ii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
             10183      78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 32B-4-409 or Subsection 76-9-701 (1), the court
             10184      may, upon the first adjudication, and shall, upon a second or subsequent adjudication, order
             10185      that the minor perform a minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours of compensatory
             10186      service, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed. Satisfactory completion of an
             10187      approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited by the court as
             10188      compensatory service hours.
             10189          (iii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
             10190      78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 76-6-106 or 76-6-206 using graffiti, the court may
             10191      order the minor to clean up graffiti created by the minor or any other person at a time and place
             10192      within the jurisdiction of the court. Compensatory service required under this section may be
             10193      performed in the presence and under the direct supervision of the minor's parent or legal


             10194      guardian. The parent or legal guardian shall report completion of the order to the court. The
             10195      minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, if applicable, shall be responsible for removal
             10196      costs as determined under Section 76-6-107 , unless waived by the court for good cause. The
             10197      court may also require the minor to perform other alternative forms of restitution or repair to
             10198      the damaged property pursuant to Subsection 77-18-1 (8).
             10199          (A) For a first adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
             10200      less than eight hours.
             10201          (B) For a second adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for
             10202      not less than 16 hours.
             10203          (C) For a third adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
             10204      less than 24 hours.
             10205          (n) (i) Subject to Subsection (2)(n)(iii), the court may order that a minor:
             10206          (A) be examined or treated by a physician, surgeon, psychiatrist, or psychologist; or
             10207          (B) receive other special care.
             10208          (ii) For purposes of receiving the examination, treatment, or care described in
             10209      Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court may place the minor in a hospital or other suitable facility.
             10210          (iii) In determining whether to order the examination, treatment, or care described in
             10211      Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court shall consider:
             10212          (A) the desires of the minor;
             10213          (B) if the minor is under the age of 18, the desires of the parents or guardian of the
             10214      minor; and
             10215          (C) whether the potential benefits of the examination, treatment, or care outweigh the
             10216      potential risks and side-effects, including behavioral disturbances, suicidal ideation, brain
             10217      function impairment, or emotional or physical harm resulting from the compulsory nature of
             10218      the examination, treatment, or care.
             10219          (o) (i) The court may appoint a guardian for the minor if it appears necessary in the
             10220      interest of the minor, and may appoint as guardian a public or private institution or agency in
             10221      which legal custody of the minor is vested.
             10222          (ii) In placing a minor under the guardianship or legal custody of an individual or of a
             10223      private agency or institution, the court shall give primary consideration to the welfare of the
             10224      minor. When practicable, the court may take into consideration the religious preferences of the


             10225      minor and of a child's parents.
             10226          (p) (i) In support of a decree under Section 78A-6-103 , the court may order reasonable
             10227      conditions to be complied with by a minor's parents or guardian, a minor, a minor's custodian,
             10228      or any other person who has been made a party to the proceedings. Conditions may include:
             10229          (A) parent-time by the parents or one parent;
             10230          (B) restrictions on the minor's associates;
             10231          (C) restrictions on the minor's occupation and other activities; and
             10232          (D) requirements to be observed by the parents or custodian.
             10233          (ii) A minor whose parents or guardians successfully complete a family or other
             10234      counseling program may be credited by the court for detention, confinement, or probation time.
             10235          (q) The court may order the child to be committed to the physical custody of a local
             10236      mental health authority, in accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title 62A,
             10237      Chapter 15, Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and
             10238      Mental Health.
             10239          (r) (i) The court may make an order committing a minor within the court's jurisdiction
             10240      to the Utah State Developmental Center if the minor has [mental retardation] an intellectual
             10241      disability in accordance with the provisions of Title 62A, Chapter 5, Part 3, Admission to
             10242      [Mental Retardation Facility] an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual
             10243      Disability.
             10244          (ii) The court shall follow the procedure applicable in the district courts with respect to
             10245      judicial commitments to the Utah State Developmental Center when ordering a commitment
             10246      under Subsection (2)(r)(i).
             10247          (s) The court may terminate all parental rights upon a finding of compliance with the
             10248      provisions of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 5, Termination of Parental Rights Act.
             10249          (t) The court may make any other reasonable orders for the best interest of the minor or
             10250      as required for the protection of the public, except that a child may not be committed to jail or
             10251      prison.
             10252          (u) The court may combine the dispositions listed in this section if they are compatible.
             10253          (v) Before depriving any parent of custody, the court shall give due consideration to the
             10254      rights of parents concerning their child. The court may transfer custody of a minor to another
             10255      person, agency, or institution in accordance with the requirements and procedures of Title 78A,


             10256      Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and Dependency Proceedings.
             10257          (w) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(y)(i), an order under this section for
             10258      probation or placement of a minor with an individual or an agency shall include a date certain
             10259      for a review of the case by the court. A new date shall be set upon each review.
             10260          (x) In reviewing foster home placements, special attention shall be given to making
             10261      adoptable children available for adoption without delay.
             10262          (y) (i) The juvenile court may enter an order of permanent custody and guardianship
             10263      with an individual or relative of a child where the court has previously acquired jurisdiction as
             10264      a result of an adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency. The juvenile court may enter an
             10265      order for child support on behalf of the child against the natural or adoptive parents of the
             10266      child.
             10267          (ii) Orders under Subsection (2)(y)(i):
             10268          (A) shall remain in effect until the child reaches majority;
             10269          (B) are not subject to review under Section 78A-6-118 ; and
             10270          (C) may be modified by petition or motion as provided in Section 78A-6-1103 .
             10271          (iii) Orders permanently terminating the rights of a parent, guardian, or custodian and
             10272      permanent orders of custody and guardianship do not expire with a termination of jurisdiction
             10273      of the juvenile court.
             10274          (3) In addition to the dispositions described in Subsection (2), when a minor comes
             10275      within the court's jurisdiction, the minor may be given a choice by the court to serve in the
             10276      National Guard in lieu of other sanctions, provided:
             10277          (a) the minor meets the current entrance qualifications for service in the National
             10278      Guard as determined by a recruiter, whose determination is final;
             10279          (b) the minor is not under the jurisdiction of the court for any act that:
             10280          (i) would be a felony if committed by an adult;
             10281          (ii) is a violation of Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act; or
             10282          (iii) was committed with a weapon; and
             10283          (c) the court retains jurisdiction over the minor under conditions set by the court and
             10284      agreed upon by the recruiter or the unit commander to which the minor is eventually assigned.
             10285          (4) (a) A DNA specimen shall be obtained from a minor who is under the jurisdiction
             10286      of the court as described in Subsection 53-10-403 (3). The specimen shall be obtained by


             10287      designated employees of the court or, if the minor is in the legal custody of the Division of
             10288      Juvenile Justice Services, then by designated employees of the division under Subsection
             10289      53-10-404 (5)(b).
             10290          (b) The responsible agency shall ensure that employees designated to collect the saliva
             10291      DNA specimens receive appropriate training and that the specimens are obtained in accordance
             10292      with accepted protocol.
             10293          (c) Reimbursements paid under Subsection 53-10-404 (2)(a) shall be placed in the DNA
             10294      Specimen Restricted Account created in Section 53-10-407 .
             10295          (d) Payment of the reimbursement is second in priority to payments the minor is
             10296      ordered to make for restitution under this section and treatment under Section 78A-6-321 .
             10297          Section 189. Section 78A-11-108 is amended to read:
             10298           78A-11-108. Involuntary disability retirement or removal of a judge.
             10299          (1) The commission shall recommend and issue an order for the removal or involuntary
             10300      retirement of a judge of any court of this state, in accordance with the procedure outlined in this
             10301      section, for a disability that seriously interferes with the performance of the judge's judicial
             10302      duties and which is, or is likely to become, of a permanent character.
             10303          (2) The commission shall order a medical examination and report.
             10304          (3) The commission in recommending an order of involuntary retirement or removal of
             10305      a judge for a disability, shall base it on the evaluation and recommendations submitted by one
             10306      or more medical examiners or physicians, including an examination of essential statements
             10307      submitted by either bar or judicial associations or committees certifying that:
             10308          (a) the judge [is mentally or physically disabled] acquires a physical or mental
             10309      disability and this disability seriously interferes with the performance of the judge's judicial
             10310      duties; and
             10311          (b) the judge's incapacity is likely to continue and be permanent and that the judge
             10312      should be involuntarily retired or removed.
             10313          (4) (a) The Supreme Court shall review the commission's proceedings as to both law
             10314      and fact and may permit the introduction of additional evidence.
             10315          (b) After its review, the Supreme Court shall issue its order implementing, rejecting, or
             10316      modifying the commission's order.
             10317          (5) Retirement or involuntary retirement as provided in this chapter shall be processed


             10318      through the Utah State Retirement Office, and the judge retiring shall meet the requirements for
             10319      retirement as specified in this chapter.
             10320          (6) Upon an order for involuntary retirement, the judge shall retire with the same rights
             10321      and privileges as if the judge retired pursuant to statute.
             10322          Section 190. Section 78B-3-110 is amended to read:
             10323           78B-3-110. Defense to civil action for damages resulting from commission of
             10324      crime.
             10325          (1) A person may not recover from the victim of a crime for personal injury or property
             10326      damage if the person:
             10327          (a) entered the property of the victim with criminal intent and the injury or damage
             10328      occurred while the person was on the victim's property; or
             10329          (b) committed a crime against the victim, during which the damage or injury occurred.
             10330          (2) The provisions of Subsection (1) do not apply if the person can prove by clear and
             10331      convincing evidence that:
             10332          (a) [his] the person's actions did not constitute a felony; and
             10333          (b) [his] the person's culpability was less than the person from whom recovery is
             10334      sought.
             10335          (3) Subsections (1) and (2) apply to any next-of-kin, heirs, or personal representatives
             10336      of the person if the person [is disabled] acquires a disability or is killed.
             10337          (4) Subsections (1), (2), and (3) do not apply if the person committing or attempting to
             10338      commit the crime has clearly retreated from the criminal activity.
             10339          (5) "Clearly retreated" means that the person committing the criminal act has fully,
             10340      clearly, and immediately ceased all hostile, threatening, violent, or criminal behavior or
             10341      activity.
             10342          Section 191. Effective date.
             10343          This bill takes effect on May 10, 2011, except that the amendments to Section
             10344      78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/11) take effect on July 1, 2011.
             10344a      H. Section 192. Coordinating H.B. 230 with H.B. 13 -- Technical amendments.
             10344b      If this H.B. 230 and H.B. 13, Immunizations for Teen mothers, both pass, it is the intent of the
             10344c      Legislature that the Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel shall prepare the Utah Code
             10344d      database for publication by:
             10344e      (1) amending Section 26-10-1 to read:
             10344f      "26-10-1. Definitions.
             10344g      As used in this chapter:
             10344h      (1) "Maternal and child health services" means:


             10344i      (a) the provision of educational, preventative, diagnostic, and treatment services, including medical
             10344j      care, hospitalization, and other institutional care and aftercare, appliances, and facilitating services
             10344k      directed toward reducing infant mortality and improving the health of mothers and children provided,
             10344l      however, that nothing in this [section] Subsection (1) shall be construed to allow any agency of the
             10344m      state to interfere with the rights of the parent of an unmarried minor in decisions about the providing
             10344n      of health information or services;
             10344o      (b) the development, strengthening, and improvement of standards and techniques relating to the
             10344p      services and care;
             10344q      (c) the training of personnel engaged in the provision, development, strengthening, or improvement of
             10344r      the services and care; and
             10344s      (d) necessary administrative services connected with Subsections (1)(a), (b), and (c).
             10344t      [(2) "Crippled children's services" means:]
             10344u      (2) "Minor" means a person under the age of 18.
             10344v      (3) "Services for children with disabilities" means:
             10344w      (a) the early location of [crippled] children with a disability, provided that any program of prenatal
             10344x      diagnosis for the purpose of detecting the possible disease or disabilities of an unborn child will not be
             10344y      used for screening, but rather will be utilized only when there are medical or genetic indications that
             10344z      warrant diagnosis;
             10344aa      (b) the provision for [such] children described in Subsection (3)(a) of preventive, diagnosis, and
             10344ab      treatment services, including medical care, hospitalization, and other institutional care and
             10344ac      aftercare, appliances, and facilitating services directed toward the diagnosis of the condition of [such]
             10344ad      those children or toward the restoration of the children to maximum physical and mental health;
             10344ae      (c) the development, strengthening, and improvement of standards and techniques relating to [such]
             10344af      services and care described in this Subsection (3);
             10344ag      (d) the training of personnel engaged in the provision, development, strengthening, or improvement of
             10344ah      [such] services and care described in this Subsection (3); and
             10344ai      (e) necessary administrative services connected with Subsections [(2)] (3)(a), (b), and (c)."; and
             10344aj      (2) amending Section 26-10-2 to read:
             10344ak      "26-10-2. Maternal and child health and crippled children's services provided by department.
             10344al      The department shall, as funding permits, provide for maternal and child health services and [crippled
             10344am      children's] services [to individuals who need such services and] for children with a disability if the
             10344an      individual needs the services and the individual cannot reasonably obtain [them] the services from
             10344ao      other sources." .H


[Bill Documents][Bills Directory]