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S.B. 21
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8 LONG TITLE
9 Committee Note:
10 The Natural Resources, Agriculture, and Environment Interim Committee
11 recommended this bill.
12 General Description:
13 This bill changes the composition of each board created under Title 19, Environmental
14 Quality Code, requires specific qualifications for a board member, subjects a board
15 member to certain requirements, transfers some powers and duties from the boards to
16 the executive director or division directors, and gives rulemaking authority to the
17 department.
18 Highlighted Provisions:
19 This bill:
20 . gives rulemaking authority to the Department of Environmental Quality to create
21 attendance standards and conflicts of interest procedures for board members and to
22 make procedural rules for adjudicative proceedings;
23 . changes the composition of each board created under Title 19, Environmental
24 Quality Code;
25 . establishes qualifications for board members;
26 . requires board members to comply with attendance standards and conflict of interest
27 procedures;
28 . provides for the executive director of the Department of Environmental Quality to
29 take final dispositive action on an adjudicative proceeding under Title 19,
30 Environmental Quality Code;
31 . transfers powers and duties from a board to a division director;
32 . provides for certain division boards to approve enforcement settlements negotiated
33 by a division director that exceed $25,000; and
34 . makes technical changes.
35 Money Appropriated in this Bill:
36 None
37 Other Special Clauses:
38 This bill provides an effective date.
39 Utah Code Sections Affected:
40 AMENDS:
41 19-1-105, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
42 19-1-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 17
43 19-1-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
44 19-2-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 68
45 19-2-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
46 19-2-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 174
47 19-2-105, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 2
48 19-2-107, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
49 19-2-108, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
50 19-2-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 90
51 19-2-109.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 297
52 19-2-109.2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapters 286 and 324
53 19-2-110, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
54 19-2-115, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 297
55 19-2-116, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
56 19-2-117, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
57 19-2-120, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
58 19-3-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 314
59 19-3-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
60 19-3-103.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
61 19-3-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
62 19-3-105, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 26
63 19-3-106.4, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
64 19-3-108, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
65 19-3-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
66 19-3-111, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
67 19-4-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 51
68 19-4-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
69 19-4-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
70 19-4-106, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
71 19-4-107, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
72 19-4-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
73 19-5-102 (Effective 07/01/12), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 155,
74 297, and 304
75 19-5-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
76 19-5-104 (Effective 07/01/12), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 304
77 19-5-105.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 155
78 19-5-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1995, Chapter 114
79 19-5-107, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 271
80 19-5-108, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1995, Chapter 114
81 19-5-111, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
82 19-5-112, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
83 19-5-113, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
84 19-5-114, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
85 19-5-115, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 297 and 340
86 19-6-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 366
87 19-6-102.1, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 230
88 19-6-102.6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
89 19-6-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 286
90 19-6-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
91 19-6-105, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
92 19-6-107, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
93 19-6-108, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 133 and 297
94 19-6-108.3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 250 and 382
95 19-6-109, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
96 19-6-112, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
97 19-6-117, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
98 19-6-119, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 251
99 19-6-120, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 391
100 19-6-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 324
101 19-6-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 56 and 382
102 19-6-404, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
103 19-6-405.3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 186
104 19-6-405.7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 256
105 19-6-407, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
106 19-6-408, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
107 19-6-409, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 186
108 19-6-411, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 95
109 19-6-412, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
110 19-6-413, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 297
111 19-6-414, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
112 19-6-416, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1999, Chapter 21
113 19-6-416.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 297
114 19-6-417, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
115 19-6-418, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 255
116 19-6-419, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 186
117 19-6-420, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 255
118 19-6-421, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
119 19-6-423, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 186
120 19-6-424, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
121 19-6-424.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 255
122 19-6-425, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 172
123 19-6-428, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 107
124 19-6-601, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 122 and renumbered and amended
125 by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 112
126 19-6-606, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 79
127 19-6-703, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 324
128 19-6-704, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 377
129 19-6-705, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 186
130 19-6-706, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 324
131 19-6-710, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 186
132 19-6-711, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 283
133 19-6-712, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 388
134 19-6-717, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 283
135 19-6-718, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 283
136 19-6-721, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
137 19-6-803, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
138 19-6-804, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 256
139 19-6-806, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
140 19-6-811, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 256
141 19-6-817, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 256
142 19-6-819, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
143 19-6-820, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2001, Chapter 165
144 19-6-821, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
145 19-6-1002, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 187
146 19-6-1003, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
147 19-6-1004, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 187
148 19-6-1005, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 187
149 19-6-1102, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 340
150 19-6-1104, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 340
151 19-8-106, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 247
152 19-8-119, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 356
153 41-6a-1644, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 333
154 59-1-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 46, 344, and 410
155 72-6-106.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 340
156
157 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
158 Section 1. Section 19-1-105 is amended to read:
159 19-1-105. Divisions of department -- Control by division directors.
160 (1) The following divisions are created within the department:
161 (a) the Division of Air Quality, to administer Title 19, Chapter 2, Air Conservation
162 Act;
163 (b) the Division of Drinking Water, to administer Title 19, Chapter 4, Safe Drinking
164 Water Act;
165 (c) the Division of Environmental Response and Remediation, to administer:
166 (i) Title 19, Chapter 6, [
167 and
168 (ii) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 4, Underground Storage Tank Act;
169 (d) the Division of Radiation Control, to administer Title 19, Chapter 3, Radiation
170 Control Act;
171 (e) the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste, to administer:
172 (i) Title 19, Chapter 6, [
173 (ii) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 2, Hazardous Waste Facility Siting Act;
174 (iii) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 5, Solid Waste Management Act;
175 (iv) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 6, Lead Acid Battery Disposal;
176 (v) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 7, Used Oil Management Act;
177 (vi) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 8, Waste Tire Recycling Act;
178 (vii) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 10, Mercury Switch Removal Act;
179 (viii) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 11, Industrial Byproduct Reuse; and
180 (ix) Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 12, Disposal of Electronic Waste Program; and
181 (f) the Division of Water Quality, to administer Title 19, Chapter 5, Water Quality Act.
182 (2) Each division is under the immediate direction and control of a division director
183 appointed by the executive director.
184 (3) (a) [
185 training [
186 director. [
187 (b) A division director shall [
188 an accredited college or university [
189 [
190 [
191 [
192 (4) [
193 remove a division director at will.
194 (5) A division director shall serve as the executive secretary to the policymaking board,
195 created in Section 19-1-106 , that has rulemaking authority over the division director's division.
196 Section 2. Section 19-1-201 is amended to read:
197 19-1-201. Powers and duties of department -- Rulemaking authority.
198 (1) The department shall:
199 (a) enter into cooperative agreements with the Department of Health to delineate
200 specific responsibilities to assure that assessment and management of risk to human health
201 from the environment are properly administered;
202 (b) consult with the Department of Health and enter into cooperative agreements, as
203 needed, to ensure efficient use of resources and effective response to potential health and safety
204 threats from the environment, and to prevent gaps in protection from potential risks from the
205 environment to specific individuals or population groups; [
206 (c) coordinate implementation of environmental programs to maximize efficient use of
207 resources by developing, with local health departments, a Comprehensive Environmental
208 Service Delivery Plan that:
209 (i) recognizes that the department and local health departments are the foundation for
210 providing environmental health programs in the state;
211 (ii) delineates the responsibilities of the department and each local health department
212 for the efficient delivery of environmental programs using federal, state, and local authorities,
213 responsibilities, and resources;
214 (iii) provides for the delegation of authority and pass through of funding to local health
215 departments for environmental programs, to the extent allowed by applicable law, identified in
216 the plan, and requested by the local health department; and
217 (iv) is reviewed and updated annually[
218 (d) make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
219 Rulemaking Act, as follows:
220 (i) for a board created in Section 19-1-106 , rules regarding:
221 (A) board meeting attendance; and
222 (B) conflicts of interest procedures; and
223 (ii) rules that govern an adjudicative proceeding, consistent with Section 19-1-301 and
224 Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
225 (2) The department may:
226 (a) investigate matters affecting the environment;
227 (b) investigate and control matters affecting the public health when caused by
228 environmental hazards;
229 (c) prepare, publish, and disseminate information to inform the public concerning
230 issues involving environmental quality;
231 (d) establish and operate programs, as authorized by this title, necessary for protection
232 of the environment and public health from environmental hazards;
233 (e) use local health departments in the delivery of environmental health programs to
234 the extent provided by law;
235 (f) enter into contracts with local health departments or others to meet responsibilities
236 established under this title;
237 (g) acquire real and personal property by purchase, gift, devise, and other lawful
238 means;
239 (h) prepare and submit to the governor a proposed budget to be included in the budget
240 submitted by the governor to the Legislature;
241 (i) (i) establish a schedule of fees that may be assessed for actions and services of the
242 department according to the procedures and requirements of Section 63J-1-504 ; and
243 (ii) in accordance with Section 63J-1-504 , all fees shall be reasonable, fair, and reflect
244 the cost of services provided;
245 (j) prescribe by rule reasonable requirements not inconsistent with law relating to
246 environmental quality for local health departments;
247 (k) perform the administrative functions of the boards established by Section 19-1-106 ,
248 including the acceptance and administration of grants from the federal government and from
249 other sources, public or private, to carry out the board's functions;
250 (l) upon the request of any board or [
251 provide professional, technical, and clerical staff and field and laboratory services, the extent of
252 which are limited by the funds available to the department for the staff and services; and
253 (m) establish a supplementary fee, not subject to Section 63J-1-504 , to provide service
254 that the person paying the fee agrees by contract to be charged for the service in order to
255 efficiently utilize department resources, protect department permitting processes, address
256 extraordinary or unanticipated stress on permitting processes, or make use of specialized
257 expertise.
258 (3) In providing service under Subsection (2)(m), the department may not provide
259 service in a manner that impairs any other person's service from the department.
260 Section 3. Section 19-1-301 is amended to read:
261 19-1-301. Adjudicative proceedings.
262 (1) As used in this section, "dispositive action" is a final agency action that:
263 (a) [
264 request for agency action; and
265 (b) is subject to judicial review under Section 63G-4-403 .
266 (2) (a) The department and its boards shall comply with the procedures and
267 requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
268 (b) The procedures for an adjudicative proceeding conducted by an administrative law
269 judge are governed by:
270 (i) Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act;
271 (ii) rules adopted by a board as authorized by:
272 (A) Subsection 63G-4-102 (6); and
273 (B) this title; and
274 (iii) the Utah Rules of Civil Procedure, in the absence of a procedure established under
275 Subsection (2)(b)(i) or (ii).
276 (3) [
277 hear a party's request for agency action [
278 (4) The executive director shall appoint an administrative law judge who:
279 (a) is a member in good standing of the Utah State Bar;
280 (b) has a minimum of:
281 (i) 10 years of experience practicing law; and
282 (ii) five years of experience practicing in the field of:
283 (A) environmental compliance;
284 (B) natural resources;
285 (C) regulation by an administrative agency; or
286 (D) a field related to a field listed in Subsections (4)(b)(ii)(A) through (C); and
287 (c) has a working knowledge of the federal laws and regulations and state statutes and
288 rules applicable to a request for agency action.
289 (5) In appointing an administrative law judge who meets the qualifications listed in
290 Subsection (4), the executive director may:
291 (a) compile a list of persons who may be engaged as an administrative law judge pro
292 tempore by mutual consent of the parties to an adjudicative proceeding;
293 (b) appoint an assistant attorney general as an administrative law judge pro tempore; or
294 (c) (i) appoint an administrative law judge as an employee of the department; and
295 (ii) assign the administrative law judge responsibilities in addition to conducting an
296 adjudicative proceeding.
297 (6) (a) An administrative law judge [
298 (i) shall conduct an adjudicative proceeding;
299 (ii) may take any action that is not a dispositive action; and
300 (iii) shall submit to the [
301 including:
302 (A) written findings of fact;
303 (B) written conclusions of law; and
304 (C) a recommended order.
305 (b) [
306 (i) approve, approve with modifications, or disapprove a proposed dispositive action
307 submitted to the [
308 (ii) return the proposed dispositive action to the administrative law judge for further
309 action as directed.
310 (c) In making a decision regarding a dispositive action, the executive director may seek
311 the advice of, and consult with:
312 (i) the assistant attorney general assigned to the department; or
313 (ii) a special master who:
314 (A) is appointed by the executive director; and
315 (B) is an expert in the subject matter of the proposed dispositive action.
316 (d) The executive director shall base a final dispositive action on the record of the
317 proceeding before the administrative law judge.
318 (7) To conduct an adjudicative proceeding, an administrative law judge may:
319 (a) compel:
320 (i) the attendance of a witness; and
321 (ii) the production of a document or other evidence;
322 (b) administer an oath;
323 (c) take testimony; and
324 (d) receive evidence as necessary.
325 (8) A party may appear before an administrative law judge in person, through an agent
326 or employee, or as provided by a board rule.
327 (9) (a) An administrative law judge [
328 not [
329 proceeding regarding the merits of the adjudicative proceeding unless notice and an
330 opportunity to be heard are afforded to all parties.
331 (b) [
332 receives an ex parte communication, the person who receives the ex parte communication shall
333 place the communication into the public record of the proceedings and afford all parties an
334 opportunity to comment on the information.
335 (10) Nothing in this section limits a party's right to an adjudicative proceeding under
336 Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
337 Section 4. Section 19-2-102 is amended to read:
338 19-2-102. Definitions.
339 As used in this chapter:
340 (1) "Air contaminant" means any particulate matter or any gas, vapor, suspended solid,
341 or any combination of them, excluding steam and water vapors.
342 (2) "Air contaminant source" means all sources of emission of air contaminants
343 whether privately or publicly owned or operated.
344 (3) "Air pollution" means the presence in the ambient air of one or more air
345 contaminants in the quantities and duration and under conditions and circumstances as is or
346 tends to be injurious to human health or welfare, animal or plant life, or property, or would
347 unreasonably interfere with the enjoyment of life or use of property, as determined by the rules
348 adopted by the board.
349 (4) "Ambient air" means the surrounding or outside air.
350 (5) "Asbestos" means the asbestiform varieties of serpentine (chrysotile), riebeckite
351 (crocidolite), cummingtonite-grunerite, anthophyllite, and actinolite-tremolite.
352 (6) "Asbestos-containing material" means any material containing more than 1%
353 asbestos, as determined using the method adopted in 40 CFR Part 61, Subpart M, National
354 Emission Standard for Asbestos.
355 (7) "Asbestos inspection" means an activity undertaken to determine the presence or
356 location, or to assess the condition of, asbestos-containing material or suspected
357 asbestos-containing material, whether by visual or physical examination, or by taking samples
358 of the material.
359 (8) (a) "Board" means the Air Quality Board.
360 (b) "Board" means, as used in Sections 19-2-123 through 19-2-126 , the Air Quality
361 Board or the Water Quality Board.
362 (9) "Clean school bus" has the same meaning as defined in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 16091.
363 (10) [
364 director of the Division of Air Quality.
365 (11) "Division" means the Division of Air Quality, created in Subsection
366 19-1-105 (1)(a).
367 [
368 accessories of them, installed or acquired for the primary purpose of controlling or disposing of
369 air pollution.
370 (b) "Facility" does not include an air conditioner, fan, or other similar facility for the
371 comfort of personnel.
372 [
373 than 1% asbestos, as determined using the method adopted in 40 CFR Part 61, Subpart M,
374 National Emission Standard for Asbestos, that hand pressure can crumble, pulverize, or reduce
375 to powder when dry.
376 [
377 attracts or may attract mobile source activity that results in emissions of a pollutant for which
378 there is a national standard.
379 [
380 19-2-123 through 19-2-126 , any land, structure, building, installation, excavation, machinery,
381 equipment, or device, or any addition to, reconstruction, replacement or improvement of, land
382 or an existing structure, building, installation, excavation, machinery, equipment, or device
383 reasonably used, erected, constructed, acquired, or installed by any person if the primary
384 purpose of the use, erection, construction, acquisition, or installation is the prevention, control,
385 or reduction of air or water pollution by:
386 (i) the disposal or elimination of or redesign to eliminate waste and the use of treatment
387 works for industrial waste as defined in Title 19, Chapter 5, Water Quality Act; or
388 (ii) the disposal, elimination, or reduction of or redesign to eliminate or reduce air
389 contaminants or air pollution or air contamination sources and the use of air cleaning devices.
390 (b) "Pollution control facility" or "facility" does not include air conditioners, septic
391 tanks, or other facilities for human waste, nor any property installed, constructed, or used for
392 the moving of sewage to the collection facilities of a public or quasi-public sewerage system.
393 Section 5. Section 19-2-103 is amended to read:
394 19-2-103. Members of board -- Appointment -- Terms -- Organization -- Per diem
395 and expenses.
396 (1) The board [
397 nine members:
398 (a) (i) the executive director [
399 (ii) an employee of the department designated by the executive director; and
400 (b) the following eight members, who shall be nominated by the executive director and
401 appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate[
402 (i) one representative who:
403 (A) is not connected with industry;
404 (B) is an expert in air quality matters; and
405 (C) is a Utah-licensed physician, a Utah-licensed professional engineer, or a scientist
406 with relevant training and experience;
407 (ii) two government representatives who do not represent the federal government;
408 (iii) one representative from the mining or manufacturing industry;
409 (iv) one representative from the fuels industry;
410 (v) one representative from the public who represents a nongovernmental organization;
411 (vi) one representative from the public who is trained and experienced in public health;
412 and
413 (vii) one Utah-licensed practicing attorney who is knowledgeable about air quality
414 regulatory issues.
415 (2) [
416 (a) be knowledgeable [
417 professional degree, a professional accreditation, or documented experience;
418 [
419
420 [
421 [
422 [
423 [
424 [
425 [
426 [
427 [
428
429 (b) be a resident of Utah;
430 (c) attend board meetings in accordance with the attendance rules made by the
431 department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(i)(A); and
432 (d) comply with all applicable statutes, rules, and policies, including the conflict of
433 interest rules made by the department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(ii)(B).
434 (3) No more than five of the appointed members of the board shall belong to the same
435 political party.
436 (4) [
437 portion of their income from persons subject to permits or orders under this chapter. [
438
439
440 [
441
442
443 [
444 appointed for a term of four years.
445 (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection [
446 the time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
447 board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed every two
448 years.
449 [
450 [
451 the member's successor is appointed, but not more than 90 days after the expiration of the
452 member's term.
453 [
454 shall be appointed for the unexpired term.
455 [
456 [
457 (b) Special meetings may be called by the chair upon [
458 upon the request of the [
459 the board.
460 [
461 any meeting.
462 [
463 majority of members present is the action of the board.
464 [
465 service, but may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
466 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
467 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
468 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
469 63A-3-107 .
470 Section 6. Section 19-2-104 is amended to read:
471 19-2-104. Powers of board.
472 (1) The board may make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
473 Administrative Rulemaking Act:
474 (a) regarding the control, abatement, and prevention of air pollution from all sources
475 and the establishment of the maximum quantity of air contaminants that may be emitted by any
476 air contaminant source;
477 (b) establishing air quality standards;
478 (c) requiring persons engaged in operations which result in air pollution to:
479 (i) install, maintain, and use emission monitoring devices, as the board finds necessary;
480 (ii) file periodic reports containing information relating to the rate, period of emission,
481 and composition of the air contaminant; and
482 (iii) provide access to records relating to emissions which cause or contribute to air
483 pollution;
484 (d) implementing 15 U.S.C.A. 2601 et seq. Toxic Substances Control Act, Subchapter
485 II - Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response, and reviewing and approving asbestos management
486 plans submitted by local education agencies under that act;
487 (e) establishing a requirement for a diesel emission opacity inspection and maintenance
488 program for diesel-powered motor vehicles;
489 (f) implementing an operating permit program as required by and in conformity with
490 Titles IV and V of the federal Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990;
491 (g) establishing requirements for county emissions inspection and maintenance
492 programs after obtaining agreement from the counties that would be affected by the
493 requirements;
494 (h) with the approval of the governor, implementing in air quality nonattainment areas
495 employer-based trip reduction programs applicable to businesses having more than 100
496 employees at a single location and applicable to federal, state, and local governments to the
497 extent necessary to attain and maintain ambient air quality standards consistent with the state
498 implementation plan and federal requirements under the standards set forth in Subsection (2);
499 and
500 (i) implementing lead-based paint remediation training, certification, and performance
501 requirements in accordance with 15 U.S.C.A. 2601 et seq., Toxic Substances Control Act,
502 Subchapter IV -- Lead Exposure Reduction, Sections 402 and 406.
503 (2) When implementing Subsection (1)(h) the board shall take into consideration:
504 (a) the impact of the business on overall air quality; and
505 (b) the need of the business to use automobiles in order to carry out its business
506 purposes.
507 (3) (a) The board may:
508 [
509 or matter in, the administration of this chapter [
510
511
512 [
513
514 [
515
516 [
517
518 (ii) order the director to:
519 [
520 (B) enforce the orders by appropriate administrative and judicial proceedings[
521 (C) institute judicial proceedings to secure compliance with this chapter; or
522 [
523
524 [
525
526 [
527
528 (iii) advise, consult, contract, and cooperate with other agencies of the state, local
529 governments, industries, other states, interstate or interlocal agencies, the federal government,
530 or interested persons or groups.
531 (b) The board shall:
532 (i) to ensure compliance with applicable statutes and regulations:
533 (A) review a settlement negotiated by the director in accordance with Subsection
534 19-2-107 (2)(b)(viii) that requires a civil penalty of $25,000 or more; and
535 (B) approve or disapprove the settlement;
536 [
537 purposes of this chapter;
538 [
539
540 [
541
542 [
543
544 [
545
546
547 [
548
549 [
550
551
552 [
553
554
555
556
557 [
558
559
560 [
561 has the potential to emit 100 tons per year or more of any air contaminant or the owner or
562 operator of each existing source which by modification will increase emissions or have the
563 potential of increasing emissions by 100 tons per year or more of any air contaminant, to pay a
564 fee sufficient to cover the reasonable costs of:
565 [
566 [
567 approval order issued pursuant to notice, not including any court costs associated with any
568 enforcement action;
569 [
570
571 [
572 [
573 for persons who:
574 [
575 work involving friable asbestos-containing materials, or asbestos inspections;
576 [
577 the general public has unrestrained access or in school buildings that are subject to the federal
578 Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986;
579 [
580 Toxic Substances Control Act, Subchapter II - Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response; or
581 [
582 seq., Toxic Substances Control Act, Subchapter IV -- Lead Exposure Reduction;
583 [
584 2601 et seq., Toxic Substances Control Act, Subchapter II - Asbestos Hazard Emergency
585 Response, to be accredited as inspectors, management planners, abatement project designers,
586 asbestos abatement contractors and supervisors, or asbestos abatement workers;
587 [
588 provide for experience-based certification of persons who, prior to establishment of the
589 certification requirements, had received relevant asbestos training, as defined by rule, and had
590 acquired at least 1,000 hours of experience as project monitors;
591 [
592 conversion of a motor vehicle to a clean-fuel vehicle, certifying the vehicle is eligible for the
593 tax credit granted in Section 59-7-605 or 59-10-1009 ;
594 [
595 professionals (AQPP), as described in Section 19-2-109.5 ;
596 [
597 2601 et seq., Toxic Control Act, Subchapter IV -- Lead Exposure Reduction, to be accredited
598 as inspectors, risk assessors, supervisors, project designers, or abatement workers; and
599 [
600 standards and implementing an idling reduction program in accordance with Section
601 41-6a-1308 .
602 (4) Any rules adopted under this chapter shall be consistent with provisions of federal
603 laws, if any, relating to control of motor vehicles or motor vehicle emissions.
604 (5) Nothing in this chapter authorizes the board to require installation of or payment for
605 any monitoring equipment by the owner or operator of a source if the owner or operator has
606 installed or is operating monitoring equipment that is equivalent to equipment which the board
607 would require under this section.
608 (6) The board may not require testing for asbestos or related materials on a residential
609 property with four or fewer units.
610 (7) The board may not issue, amend, renew, modify, revoke, or terminate any of the
611 following that are subject to the authority granted to the director under Section 19-2-107 or
612 19-2-108 :
613 (a) a permit;
614 (b) a license;
615 (c) a registration;
616 (d) a certification; or
617 (e) another administrative authorization made by the director.
618 (8) A board member may not speak or act for the board unless the board member is
619 authorized by a majority of a quorum of the board in a vote taken at a meeting of the board.
620 (9) Notwithstanding Subsection (7), the board may exercise all authority granted to the
621 board by a federally enforceable state implementation plan.
622 Section 7. Section 19-2-105 is amended to read:
623 19-2-105. Duties of board.
624 The board, in conjunction with the governing body of each county identified in Section
625 41-6a-1643 and other interested parties, shall order the director to perform an evaluation of the
626 inspection and maintenance program developed under Section 41-6a-1643 including issues
627 relating to:
628 (1) the implementation of a standardized inspection and maintenance program;
629 (2) out-of-state registration of vehicles used in Utah;
630 (3) out-of-county registration of vehicles used within the areas required to have an
631 inspection and maintenance program;
632 (4) use of the farm truck exemption;
633 (5) mechanic training programs;
634 (6) emissions standards; and
635 (7) emissions waivers.
636 Section 8. Section 19-2-107 is amended to read:
637 19-2-107. Director -- Appointment -- Powers.
638 (1) The executive [
639 director[
640 administrative direction of the executive director.
641 (2) (a) The [
642 [
643
644 (i) prepare and develop comprehensive plans for the prevention, abatement, and control
645 of air pollution in Utah;
646 [
647 government, other states and interstate agencies, and [
648 subdivisions, and industries in furtherance of the purposes of this chapter;
649 (iii) review plans, specifications, or other data relative to pollution control systems or
650 any part of the systems provided in this chapter;
651 (iv) under the direction of the executive director, represent the state in all matters
652 relating to interstate air pollution, including interstate compacts and similar agreements;
653 (v) secure necessary scientific, technical, administrative, and operational services,
654 including laboratory facilities, by contract or otherwise;
655 (vi) encourage voluntary cooperation by persons and affected groups to achieve the
656 purposes of this chapter;
657 (vii) encourage local units of government to handle air pollution within their respective
658 jurisdictions on a cooperative basis and provide technical and consulting assistance to them;
659 (viii) determine by means of field studies and sampling the degree of air contamination
660 and air pollution in all parts of the state;
661 (ix) monitor the effects of the emission of air contaminants from motor vehicles on the
662 quality of the outdoor atmosphere in all parts of Utah and take appropriate responsive action;
663 (x) collect and disseminate information relating to air contamination and air pollution
664 and conduct educational and training programs relating to air contamination and air pollution;
665 (xi) assess and collect noncompliance penalties as required in Section 120 of the
666 federal Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. Section 7420;
667 (xii) comply with the requirements of federal air pollution laws;
668 (xiii) subject to the provisions of this chapter, enforce rules through the issuance of
669 orders, including:
670 (A) prohibiting or abating discharges of wastes affecting ambient air;
671 (B) requiring the construction of new control facilities or any parts of new control
672 facilities or the modification, extension, or alteration of existing control facilities or any parts
673 of new control facilities; or
674 (C) adopting other remedial measures to prevent, control, or abate air pollution; and
675 (xiv) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this chapter, act as
676 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
677 (b) The director may:
678 [
679 [
680 authorize any employee or representative of the department to enter at reasonable time and
681 upon reasonable notice in or upon public or private property for the purposes of inspecting and
682 investigating conditions and plant records concerning possible air pollution;
683 [
684 demonstrations relating to air pollution and its causes [
685 and control, as advisable and necessary for the discharge of duties assigned under this chapter,
686 including the establishment of inventories of pollution sources;
687 [
688 prevention, control, and abatement of it;
689 [
690
691 [
692 [
693
694
695 [
696
697 [
698
699 (v) cooperate with studies and research relating to air pollution and its control,
700 abatement, and prevention;
701 (vi) subject to Subsection (3), upon request, consult concerning the following with any
702 person proposing to construct, install, or otherwise acquire an air contaminant source in Utah:
703 (A) the efficacy of any proposed control device or proposed control system for the
704 source; or
705 (B) the air pollution problem that may be related to the source, device, or system;
706 (vii) accept, receive, and administer grants or other funds or gifts from public and
707 private agencies, including the federal government, for the purpose of carrying out any of the
708 functions of this chapter;
709 (viii) subject to Subsection 19-2-104 (3)(b)(i), settle or compromise any civil action
710 initiated by the division to compel compliance with this chapter or the rules made under this
711 chapter; or
712 [
713 exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter, including
714 certification to any state or federal authorities for tax purposes the fact of construction,
715 installation, or acquisition of any facility, land, building, machinery, or equipment or any part
716 of them, in conformity with this chapter[
717 [
718
719 [
720
721
722 (3) A consultation described in Subsection (2)(b)(vi) does not relieve a person from the
723 requirements of this chapter, the rules adopted under this chapter, or any other provision of
724 law.
725 Section 9. Section 19-2-108 is amended to read:
726 19-2-108. Notice of construction or modification of installations required --
727 Authority of director to prohibit construction -- Hearings -- Limitations on authority of
728 board -- Inspections authorized.
729 (1) [
730
731 reasonably be expected to be a source or indirect source of air pollution or to make
732 modifications to an existing installation which will or might reasonably be expected to increase
733 the amount of or change the character or effect of air contaminants discharged, so that the
734 installation may be expected to be a source or indirect source of air pollution, or by any person
735 planning to install an air cleaning device or other equipment intended to control emission of air
736 contaminants.
737 (2) (a) (i) The [
738 the construction, modification, installation, or establishment of the air contaminant source or
739 indirect source, the submission of plans, specifications, and other information as he finds
740 necessary to determine whether the proposed construction, modification, installation, or
741 establishment will be in accord with applicable rules in force under this chapter.
742 (ii) Plan approval for an indirect source may be delegated by the [
743 director to a local authority when requested and upon assurance that the local authority has and
744 will maintain sufficient expertise to insure that the planned installation will meet the
745 requirements established by law.
746 (b) If within 90 days after the receipt of plans, specifications, or other information
747 required under this subsection, the [
748 construction, installation, or establishment or any part of it will not be in accord with the
749 requirements of this chapter or applicable rules or that further time, not exceeding three
750 extensions of 30 days each, is required by the [
751 specifications, or other information, he shall issue an order prohibiting the construction,
752 installation, or establishment of the air contaminant source or sources in whole or in part.
753 (3) In addition to any other remedies, any person aggrieved by the issuance of an order
754 either granting or denying a request for the construction of a new installation, and prior to
755 invoking any such other remedies shall, upon request, in accordance with the rules of the board,
756 be entitled to a hearing conducted by an administrative law judge as provided by Section
757 19-1-301 . [
758
759
760 (4) Any features, machines, and devices constituting parts of or called for by plans,
761 specifications, or other information submitted under Subsection (1) shall be maintained in good
762 working order.
763 (5) This section does not authorize the [
764 devices, or equipment from a particular supplier or produced by a particular manufacturer if the
765 required performance standards may be met by machinery, devices, or equipment otherwise
766 available.
767 (6) (a) Any authorized officer, employee, or representative of the [
768 enter and inspect any property, premise, or place on or at which an air contaminant source is
769 located or is being constructed, modified, installed, or established at any reasonable time for
770 the purpose of ascertaining the state of compliance with this chapter and the rules adopted
771 under it.
772 (b) (i) A person may not refuse entry or access to any authorized representative of the
773 [
774 credentials.
775 (ii) A person may not obstruct, hamper, or interfere with any inspection.
776 (c) If requested, the owner or operator of the premises shall receive a report setting
777 forth all facts found which relate to compliance status.
778 Section 10. Section 19-2-109 is amended to read:
779 19-2-109. Air quality standards -- Hearings on adoption -- Orders of director --
780 Adoption of emission control requirements.
781 (1) (a) The board, in adopting standards of quality for ambient air, shall conduct public
782 hearings.
783 (b) Notice of any public hearing for the consideration, adoption, or amendment of air
784 quality standards shall specify the locations to which the proposed standards apply and the
785 time, date, and place of the hearing.
786 (c) The notice shall be:
787 (i) (A) published at least twice in any newspaper of general circulation in the area
788 affected; and
789 (B) published on the Utah Public Notice Website created in Section 63F-1-701 , at least
790 20 days before the public hearing; and
791 (ii) mailed at least 20 days before the public hearing to the chief executive of each
792 political subdivision of the area affected and to other persons the [
793 has reason to believe will be affected by the standards.
794 (d) The adoption of air quality standards or any modification or changes to air quality
795 standards shall be by order of the [
796 board with respect to the standards.
797 (e) The order shall be published:
798 (i) in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected; and
799 (ii) as required in Section 45-1-101 .
800 (2) (a) The board may establish emission control requirements by rule that in its
801 judgment may be necessary to prevent, abate, or control air pollution that may be statewide or
802 may vary from area to area, taking into account varying local conditions.
803 (b) In adopting these requirements, the board shall give notice and conduct public
804 hearings in accordance with the requirements in Subsection (1).
805 Section 11. Section 19-2-109.1 is amended to read:
806 19-2-109.1. Operating permit required -- Emissions fee -- Implementation.
807 (1) As used in this section and Sections 19-2-109.2 and 19-2-109.3 :
808 (a) "EPA" means the federal Environmental Protection Agency.
809 (b) "1990 Clean Air Act" means the federal Clean Air Act as amended in 1990.
810 (c) "Operating permit" means a permit issued by the [
811 sources of air pollution that meet the requirements of Titles IV and V of the 1990 Clean Air
812 Act.
813 (d) "Program" means the air pollution operating permit program established under this
814 section to comply with Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act.
815 (e) "Regulated pollutant" has the same meaning as defined in Title V of the 1990 Clean
816 Air Act and implementing federal regulations.
817 (2) (a) A person may not operate any source of air pollution required to have a permit
818 under Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act without having obtained an operating permit from the
819 [
820 (b) A person is not required to submit an operating permit application until the
821 governor has submitted an operating permit program to the EPA.
822 (c) Any operating permit issued under this section may not become effective until the
823 day after the EPA issues approval of the permit program or November 15, 1995, whichever
824 occurs first.
825 (3) (a) Operating permits issued under this section shall be for a period of five years
826 unless the [
827 based on substantial evidence in the record, that an operating permit term of less than five years
828 is necessary to protect the public health and the environment of the state.
829 (b) The [
830 only after providing public notice, an opportunity for public comment, and an opportunity for a
831 public hearing.
832 (c) The [
833 and implementing federal regulations, revise the conditions of issued operating permits to
834 incorporate applicable federal regulations in conformity with Section 502(b)(9) of the 1990
835 Clean Air Act, if the remaining period of the permit is three or more years.
836 (d) The [
837 operating permit for cause.
838 (4) (a) The board shall establish a proposed annual emissions fee that conforms with
839 Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act for each ton of regulated pollutant, applicable to all sources
840 required to obtain a permit. The emissions fee established under this section is in addition to
841 fees assessed under Section 19-2-108 for issuance of an approval order.
842 (b) In establishing the fee the board shall comply with the provisions of Section
843 63J-1-504 that require a public hearing and require the established fee to be submitted to the
844 Legislature for its approval as part of the department's annual appropriations request.
845 (c) The fee shall cover all reasonable direct and indirect costs required to develop and
846 administer the program and the small business assistance program established under Section
847 19-2-109.2 . The [
848 and the costs covered by those fees under this Subsection (4).
849 (d) The fee shall be established uniformly for all sources required to obtain an
850 operating permit under the program and for all regulated pollutants.
851 (e) The fee may not be assessed for emissions of any regulated pollutant if the
852 emissions are already accounted for within the emissions of another regulated pollutant.
853 (f) An emissions fee may not be assessed for any amount of a regulated pollutant
854 emitted by any source in excess of 4,000 tons per year of that regulated pollutant.
855 (5) Emissions fees [
856
857 accrued on and after July 1, 1993, but before issuance of an operating permit, shall be based on
858 the most recent emissions inventory, unless a source elects prior to July 1, 1992, to base the fee
859 on allowable emissions, if applicable for a regulated pollutant.
860 (6) After an operating permit is issued the emissions fee shall be based on actual
861 emissions for a regulated pollutant unless a source elects, prior to the issuance or renewal of a
862 permit, to base the fee during the period of the permit on allowable emissions for that regulated
863 pollutant.
864 (7) If the owner or operator of a source subject to this section fails to timely pay an
865 annual emissions fee, the [
866 (a) impose a penalty of not more than 50% of the fee, in addition to the fee, plus
867 interest on the fee computed at 12% annually; or
868 (b) revoke the operating permit.
869 (8) The owner or operator of a source subject to this section may contest an emissions
870 fee assessment or associated penalty in an adjudicative hearing under the Title 63G, Chapter 4,
871 Administrative Procedures Act, and Section 19-1-301 , as provided in this Subsection (8).
872 (a) The owner or operator shall pay the fee under protest prior to being entitled to a
873 hearing. Payment of an emissions fee or penalty under protest is not a waiver of the right to
874 contest the fee or penalty under this section.
875 (b) A request for a hearing under this Subsection (8) shall be made after payment of the
876 emissions fee and within six months after the emissions fee was due.
877 (9) To reinstate an operating permit revoked under Subsection (7) the owner or
878 operator shall pay all outstanding emissions fees, a penalty of not more than 50% of all
879 outstanding fees, and interest on the outstanding emissions fees computed at 12% annually.
880 (10) All emissions fees and penalties collected by the department under this section
881 shall be deposited in the General Fund as the Air Pollution Operating Permit Program
882 dedicated credit to be used solely to pay for the reasonable direct and indirect costs incurred by
883 the department in developing and administering the program and the small business assistance
884 program under Section 19-2-109.2 .
885 (11) Failure of the [
886 application or renewal is a final administrative action only for the purpose of obtaining judicial
887 review by any of the following persons to require the [
888 action on the permit or its renewal without additional delay:
889 (a) the applicant;
890 (b) any person who participated in the public comment process; or
891 (c) any other person who could obtain judicial review of that action under applicable
892 law.
893 Section 12. Section 19-2-109.2 is amended to read:
894 19-2-109.2. Small business assistance program.
895 (1) The board shall establish a small business stationary source technical and
896 environmental compliance assistance program that conforms with Title V of the 1990 Clean
897 Air Act to assist small businesses to comply with state and federal air pollution laws.
898 (2) There is created the Compliance Advisory Panel to advise and monitor the program
899 created in Subsection (1). The seven panel members are:
900 (a) two members who are not owners or representatives of owners of small business
901 stationary air pollution sources, selected by the governor to represent the general public;
902 (b) four members who are owners or who represent owners of small business stationary
903 sources selected by leadership of the Utah Legislature as follows:
904 (i) one member selected by the majority leader of the Senate;
905 (ii) one member selected by the minority leader of the Senate;
906 (iii) one member selected by the majority leader of the House of Representatives; and
907 (iv) one member selected by the minority leader of the House of Representatives; and
908 (c) one member selected by the executive director to represent the Division of Air
909 Quality, Department of Environmental Quality.
910 (3) (a) Except as required by Subsection (3)(b), as terms of current panel members
911 expire, the department shall appoint each new member or reappointed member to a four-year
912 term.
913 (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (3)(a), the department shall, at the
914 time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
915 panel members are staggered so that approximately half of the panel is appointed every two
916 years.
917 (4) Members may serve more than one term.
918 (5) Members shall hold office until the expiration of their terms and until their
919 successors are appointed, but not more than 90 days after the expiration of their terms.
920 (6) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
921 appointed for the unexpired term.
922 (7) Every two years, the panel shall elect a chair from its members.
923 (8) (a) The panel shall meet as necessary to carry out its duties. Meetings may be
924 called by the chair, the [
925 members of the panel.
926 (b) Three days' notice shall be given to each member of the panel prior to a meeting.
927 (9) Four members constitute a quorum at any meeting, and the action of the majority of
928 members present is the action of the panel.
929 (10) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
930 may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
931 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
932 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
933 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
934 63A-3-107 .
935 Section 13. Section 19-2-110 is amended to read:
936 19-2-110. Violations -- Notice to violator -- Corrective action orders --
937 Conference, conciliation, and persuasion by board -- Hearings.
938 (1) (a) Whenever the [
939 violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule issued under it has occurred, [
940 director may serve written notice of the violation upon the alleged violator. The notice shall
941 specify the provision of this chapter or rule alleged to be violated, the facts alleged to constitute
942 the violation, and may include an order that necessary corrective action be taken within a
943 reasonable time.
944 (b) In lieu of beginning an adjudicative proceeding under Subsection (1)(a), the board
945 may initiate an action pursuant to Section 19-2-115 .
946 (2) Nothing in this chapter prevents the [
947 voluntary compliance through warning, conference, conciliation, persuasion, or other
948 appropriate means.
949 (3) Hearings may be held before an administrative law judge as provided by Section
950 19-1-301 .
951 Section 14. Section 19-2-115 is amended to read:
952 19-2-115. Violations -- Penalties -- Reimbursement for expenses.
953 (1) As used in this section, the terms "knowingly," "willfully," and "criminal
954 negligence" shall mean as defined in Section 76-2-103 .
955 (2) (a) A person who violates this chapter, or any rule, order, or permit issued or made
956 under this chapter is subject in a civil proceeding to a penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day for
957 each violation.
958 (b) Subsection (2)(a) also applies to rules made under the authority of Section
959 19-2-104 , for implementation of 15 U.S.C.A. 2601 et seq., Toxic Substances Control Act,
960 Subchapter II - Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response.
961 (c) Penalties assessed for violations described in 15 U.S.C.A. 2647, Toxic Substances
962 Control Act, Subchapter II - Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response, may not exceed the
963 amounts specified in that section and shall be used in accordance with that section.
964 (3) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor and is subject to imprisonment under
965 Section 76-3-204 and a fine of not more than $25,000 per day of violation if that person
966 knowingly violates any of the following under this chapter:
967 (a) an applicable standard or limitation;
968 (b) a permit condition; or
969 (c) a fee or filing requirement.
970 (4) A person is guilty of a third degree felony and is subject to imprisonment under
971 Section 76-3-203 and a fine of not more than $25,000 per day of violation who knowingly:
972 (a) makes any false material statement, representation, or certification, in any notice or
973 report required by permit; or
974 (b) renders inaccurate any monitoring device or method required to be maintained by
975 this chapter or applicable rules made under this chapter.
976 (5) Any fine or penalty assessed under Subsections (2) or (3) is in lieu of any penalty
977 under Section 19-2-109.1 .
978 (6) A person who willfully violates Section 19-2-120 is guilty of a class A
979 misdemeanor.
980 (7) A person who knowingly violates any requirement of an applicable implementation
981 plan adopted by the board, more than 30 days after having been notified in writing by the
982 [
983 an order issued under Subsection 19-2-110 (1)(a), or knowingly handles or disposes of asbestos
984 in violation of a rule made under this chapter is guilty of a third degree felony and subject to
985 imprisonment under Section 76-3-203 and a fine of not more than $25,000 per day of violation
986 in the case of the first offense, and not more than $50,000 per day of violation in the case of
987 subsequent offenses.
988 (8) (a) As used in this section:
989 (i) "Hazardous air pollutant" means any hazardous air pollutant listed under 42 U.S.C.
990 7412 or any extremely hazardous substance listed under 42 U.S.C. 11002(a)(2).
991 (ii) "Organization" means a legal entity, other than a government, established or
992 organized for any purpose, and includes a corporation, company, association, firm, partnership,
993 joint stock company, foundation, institution, trust, society, union, or any other association of
994 persons.
995 (iii) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury which involves a substantial risk of
996 death, unconsciousness, extreme physical pain, protracted and obvious disfigurement, or
997 protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty.
998 (b) (i) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor and subject to imprisonment under
999 Section 76-3-204 and a fine of not more than $25,000 per day of violation if that person with
1000 criminal negligence:
1001 (A) releases into the ambient air any hazardous air pollutant; and
1002 (B) places another person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury.
1003 (ii) As used in this Subsection (8)(b), "person" does not include an employee who is
1004 carrying out the employee's normal activities and who is not a part of senior management
1005 personnel or a corporate officer.
1006 (c) A person is guilty of a second degree felony and is subject to imprisonment under
1007 Section 76-3-203 and a fine of not more than $50,000 per day of violation if that person:
1008 (i) knowingly releases into the ambient air any hazardous air pollutant; and
1009 (ii) knows at the time that the person is placing another person in imminent danger of
1010 death or serious bodily injury.
1011 (d) If a person is an organization, it shall, upon conviction of violating Subsection
1012 (8)(c), be subject to a fine of not more than $1,000,000.
1013 (e) (i) A defendant who is an individual is considered to have acted knowingly under
1014 Subsections (8)(c) and (d), if:
1015 (A) the defendant's conduct placed another person in imminent danger of death or
1016 serious bodily injury; and
1017 (B) the defendant was aware of or believed that there was an imminent danger of death
1018 or serious bodily injury to another person.
1019 (ii) Knowledge possessed by a person other than the defendant may not be attributed to
1020 the defendant.
1021 (iii) Circumstantial evidence may be used to prove that the defendant possessed actual
1022 knowledge, including evidence that the defendant took affirmative steps to be shielded from
1023 receiving relevant information.
1024 (f) (i) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this Subsection (8) that the
1025 conduct charged was freely consented to by the person endangered and that the danger and
1026 conduct charged were reasonably foreseeable hazards of:
1027 (A) an occupation, a business, a profession; or
1028 (B) medical treatment or medical or scientific experimentation conducted by
1029 professionally approved methods and the other person was aware of the risks involved prior to
1030 giving consent.
1031 (ii) The defendant has the burden of proof to establish any affirmative defense under
1032 this Subsection (8)(f) and shall prove that defense by a preponderance of the evidence.
1033 (9) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (9)(b), and unless prohibited by federal law,
1034 all penalties assessed and collected under the authority of this section shall be deposited in the
1035 General Fund.
1036 (b) The department may reimburse itself and local governments from money collected
1037 from civil penalties for extraordinary expenses incurred in environmental enforcement
1038 activities.
1039 (c) The department shall regulate reimbursements by making rules in accordance with
1040 Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, that:
1041 (i) define qualifying environmental enforcement activities; and
1042 (ii) define qualifying extraordinary expenses.
1043 Section 15. Section 19-2-116 is amended to read:
1044 19-2-116. Injunction or other remedies to prevent violations -- Civil actions not
1045 abridged.
1046 (1) Action under Section 19-2-115 does not bar enforcement of this chapter, or any of
1047 the rules adopted under it or any orders made under it by injunction or other appropriate
1048 remedy. The [
1049 any and all enforcement proceedings.
1050 (2) This chapter does not abridge, limit, impair, create, enlarge, or otherwise affect
1051 substantively or procedurally the right of any person to damages or other relief on account of
1052 injury to persons or property and to maintain any action or other appropriate proceeding for this
1053 purpose.
1054 (3) (a) In addition to any other remedy created in this chapter, the director may initiate
1055 an action for appropriate injunctive relief:
1056 (i) upon failure of any person to comply with:
1057 (A) any provision of this chapter [
1058 (B) any rule adopted under [
1059 (C) any final order made by the board, the [
1060 executive director; and
1061 (ii) when it appears necessary for the protection of health and welfare[
1062
1063 (b) The attorney general shall bring injunctive relief actions on request.
1064 (c) A bond is not required.
1065 Section 16. Section 19-2-117 is amended to read:
1066 19-2-117. Attorney general as legal advisor to board -- Duties of attorney general
1067 and county attorneys.
1068 (1) The attorney general is the legal advisor to the board and [
1069 the director and shall defend them or any of them in all actions or proceedings brought against
1070 them or any of them.
1071 (2) The county attorney in the county in which a cause of action arises may, upon
1072 request of the board or [
1073 to abate a condition which exists in violation of, or to prosecute for the violation of or to
1074 enforce, this chapter or the standards, orders, or rules of the board or the [
1075 director issued under this chapter.
1076 (3) The [
1077 represented by the attorney general.
1078 (4) In the event any person fails to comply with a cease and desist order of the board or
1079 [
1080 judicial review, the [
1081 for, and is entitled to, injunctive relief to prevent any further or continued violation of the
1082 order.
1083 Section 17. Section 19-2-120 is amended to read:
1084 19-2-120. Information required of owners or operators of air contaminant
1085 sources.
1086 The owner or operator of any stationary air contaminant source in the state shall furnish
1087 to the [
1088 19-2-104 and any other information the [
1089 the source is in compliance with state and federal regulations and standards. The information
1090 shall be correlated with applicable emission standards or limitations and shall be available to
1091 the public during normal business hours at the office of the [
1092 Section 18. Section 19-3-102 is amended to read:
1093 19-3-102. Definitions.
1094 As used in this chapter:
1095 (1) "Board" means the Radiation Control Board created under Section 19-1-106 .
1096 (2) (a) "Broker" means a person who performs one or more of the following functions
1097 for a generator:
1098 (i) arranges for transportation of the radioactive waste;
1099 (ii) collects or consolidates shipments of radioactive waste; or
1100 (iii) processes radioactive waste in some manner.
1101 (b) "Broker" does not include a carrier whose sole function is to transport the
1102 radioactive waste.
1103 (3) "Byproduct material" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 2014(e)(2).
1104 (4) "Class B and class C low-level radioactive waste" has the same meaning as in 10
1105 CFR 61.55.
1106 [
1107 (5) "Director" means the director of the Division of Radiation Control.
1108 (6) "Division" means the Division of Radiation Control, created in Subsection
1109 19-1-105 (1)(d).
1110 [
1111 (a) possesses any material or component:
1112 (i) that contains radioactivity or is radioactively contaminated; and
1113 (ii) for which the person foresees no further use; and
1114 (b) transfers the material or component to:
1115 (i) a commercial radioactive waste treatment or disposal facility; or
1116 (ii) a broker.
1117 [
1118 dismantled nuclear reactor components, and solid and liquid wastes from fuel reprocessing and
1119 defense-related wastes.
1120 (b) "High-level nuclear waste" does not include medical or institutional wastes,
1121 naturally-occurring radioactive materials, or uranium mill tailings.
1122 [
1123 radioactive nuclides emitting primarily beta or gamma radiation, or both, in concentrations or
1124 quantities which exceed applicable federal or state standards for unrestricted release.
1125 (b) "Low-level radioactive waste" does not include waste containing more than 100
1126 nanocuries of transuranic contaminants per gram of material, nor spent reactor fuel, nor
1127 material classified as either high-level waste or waste which is unsuited for disposal by
1128 near-surface burial under any applicable federal regulations.
1129 [
1130 rays, X-rays, alpha and beta particles, high speed electrons, and other nuclear particles.
1131 [
1132 spontaneously from decay of unstable nuclei.
1133 Section 19. Section 19-3-103 is amended to read:
1134 19-3-103. Radiation Control Board -- Members -- Organization -- Meetings -- Per
1135 diem and expenses.
1136 (1) The board [
1137 nine members[
1138 (a) (i) the executive director[
1139 (ii) an employee of the department designated by the executive director; and
1140 (b) the following eight members, who shall be nominated by the executive director and
1141 appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate[
1142 (i) one representative who is:
1143 (A) a health physicist; or
1144 (B) a professional employed in the field of radiation safety;
1145 (ii) two government representatives who do not represent the federal government;
1146 (iii) one representative from the radioactive waste management industry;
1147 (iv) one representative from the uranium milling industry;
1148 (v) one representative from the public who represents a nongovernmental organization;
1149 (vi) one representative from the public who is trained and experienced in public health;
1150 and
1151 (vii) one Utah-licensed practicing attorney who is knowledgeable about radiation
1152 control regulatory issues.
1153 [
1154 [
1155 (a) be knowledgeable about radiation protection [
1156 evidenced by a professional degree, a professional accreditation, or documented experience;
1157 [
1158 [
1159 [
1160 [
1161
1162
1163 [
1164 [
1165 [
1166 [
1167
1168 (b) be a resident of Utah;
1169 (c) attend board meetings in accordance with the attendance rules made by the
1170 department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(i)(A); and
1171 (d) comply with all applicable statutes, rules, and policies, including the conflict of
1172 interest rules made by the department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(ii)(B).
1173 (3) No more than five appointed members shall be from the same political party.
1174 (4) (a) Except as required by Subsection (4)(b), as terms of current board members
1175 expire, the governor shall appoint each new member or reappointed member to a four-year
1176 term.
1177 (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (4)(a), the governor shall, at the
1178 time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
1179 board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed every two
1180 years.
1181 (5) Each board member is eligible for reappointment to more than one term.
1182 (6) Each board member shall continue in office until the expiration of his term and
1183 until a successor is appointed, but not more than 90 days after the expiration of his term.
1184 (7) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
1185 appointed for the unexpired term by the governor, after considering recommendations by the
1186 department and with the consent of the Senate.
1187 (8) The board shall annually elect a chair and vice chair from its members.
1188 (9) The board shall meet at least quarterly. Other meetings may be called by the chair,
1189 by the [
1190 (10) Reasonable notice shall be given each member of the board prior to any meeting.
1191 (11) [
1192 members present is the action of the board.
1193 (12) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
1194 may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
1195 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
1196 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
1197 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
1198 63A-3-107 .
1199 Section 20. Section 19-3-103.5 is amended to read:
1200 19-3-103.5. Board authority and duties.
1201 (1) The board may:
1202 (a) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
1203 Rulemaking Act, that are necessary to implement the provisions of the Radiation Control Act;
1204 [
1205
1206
1207 (b) order the director to:
1208 [
1209 (ii) enforce the orders by appropriate administrative and judicial proceedings[
1210 (iii) institute judicial proceedings to secure compliance with this part;
1211 (c) (i) hold a hearing that is not an adjudicative proceeding [
1212
1213
1214 (ii) appoint hearing officers to conduct a hearing that is not an adjudicative proceeding[
1215
1216 [
1217
1218 [
1219
1220 [
1221
1222 [
1223
1224 [
1225
1226
1227 [
1228
1229 [
1230
1231 [
1232 private agencies, including the federal government, for the purpose of carrying out any of the
1233 functions of this part; or
1234 [
1235 [
1236
1237
1238 [
1239
1240
1241 [
1242
1243
1244 (e) order the director to impound radioactive material in accordance with Section
1245 19-3-111 .
1246 (2) The board shall:
1247 [
1248
1249 [
1250 19-3-107 as soon as practicable; [
1251 [
1252 [
1253
1254
1255
1256 (b) promote the planning and application of pollution prevention and radioactive waste
1257 minimization measures to prevent the unnecessary waste and depletion of natural resources;
1258 (c) to ensure compliance with applicable statutes and regulations:
1259 (i) review a settlement negotiated by the director in accordance with Subsection
1260 19-3-108 (3)(b) that requires a civil penalty of $25,000 or more; and
1261 (ii) approve or disapprove the settlement;
1262 (d) submit an application to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for approval as an
1263 accrediting body in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 263b, Mammography Quality Standards Act of
1264 1992;
1265 (e) accredit mammography facilities, pursuant to approval as an accrediting body from
1266 the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 263b, Mammography
1267 Quality Standards Act of 1992; and
1268 (f) review the qualifications of, and issue certificates of approval to, individuals who:
1269 (i) survey mammography equipment; or
1270 (ii) oversee quality assurance practices at mammography facilities.
1271 (3) The board may not issue, amend, renew, modify, revoke, or terminate any of the
1272 following that are subject to the authority granted to the director under Section 19-3-108 :
1273 (a) a permit;
1274 (b) a license;
1275 (c) a registration;
1276 (d) a certification; or
1277 (e) another administrative authorization made by the director.
1278 (4) A board member may not speak or act for the board unless the board member is
1279 authorized by a majority of a quorum of the board in a vote taken at a meeting of the board.
1280 Section 21. Section 19-3-104 is amended to read:
1281 19-3-104. Registration and licensing of radiation sources by department --
1282 Assessment of fees -- Rulemaking authority and procedure -- Siting criteria.
1283 (1) As used in this section:
1284 (a) "Decommissioning" includes financial assurance.
1285 (b) "Source material" and "byproduct material" have the same definitions as in 42
1286 U.S.C.A. 2014, Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
1287 (2) The [
1288 that constitute a significant health hazard.
1289 (3) All sources of ionizing radiation, including ionizing radiation producing machines,
1290 shall be registered or licensed by the department.
1291 (4) The board may make rules:
1292 (a) necessary for controlling exposure to sources of radiation that constitute a
1293 significant health hazard;
1294 (b) to meet the requirements of federal law relating to radiation control to ensure the
1295 radiation control program under this part is qualified to maintain primacy from the federal
1296 government;
1297 (c) to establish:
1298 (i) board accreditation requirements and procedures for mammography facilities; and
1299 (ii) certification procedure and qualifications for persons who survey mammography
1300 equipment and oversee quality assurance practices at mammography facilities; and
1301 (d) as necessary regarding the possession, use, transfer, or delivery of source and
1302 byproduct material and the disposal of byproduct material to establish requirements for:
1303 (i) the licensing, operation, decontamination, and decommissioning, including financial
1304 assurances; and
1305 (ii) the reclamation of sites, structures, and equipment used in conjunction with the
1306 activities described in this Subsection (4).
1307 (5) (a) On and after January 1, 2003, a fee is imposed for the regulation of source and
1308 byproduct material and the disposal of byproduct material at uranium mills or commercial
1309 waste facilities, as provided in this Subsection (5).
1310 (b) On and after January 1, 2003 through March 30, 2003:
1311 (i) $6,667 per month for uranium mills or commercial sites disposing of or
1312 reprocessing byproduct material; and
1313 (ii) $4,167 per month for those uranium mills the [
1314 determined are on standby status.
1315 (c) On and after March 31, 2003 through June 30, 2003 the same fees as in Subsection
1316 (5)(b) apply, but only if the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission grants to Utah an
1317 amendment for agreement state status for uranium recovery regulation on or before March 30,
1318 2003.
1319 (d) If the Nuclear Regulatory Commission does not grant the amendment for state
1320 agreement status on or before March 30, 2003, fees under Subsection (5)(e) do not apply and
1321 are not required to be paid until on and after the later date of:
1322 (i) October 1, 2003; or
1323 (ii) the date the Nuclear Regulatory Commission grants to Utah an amendment for
1324 agreement state status for uranium recovery regulation.
1325 (e) For the payment periods beginning on and after July 1, 2003, the department shall
1326 establish the fees required under Subsection (5)(a) under Section 63J-1-504 , subject to the
1327 restrictions under Subsection (5)(d).
1328 (f) The [
1329 into the Environmental Quality Restricted Account created in Section 19-1-108 .
1330 (6) (a) The [
1331 inspection of radiation sources under this section.
1332 (b) The [
1333 in assessing fees for licensure and registration.
1334 (7) The [
1335 Health rules made under Section 26-21a-203 .
1336 (8) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (9), the board may not adopt rules, for the
1337 purpose of the state assuming responsibilities from the United States Nuclear Regulatory
1338 Commission with respect to regulation of sources of ionizing radiation, that are more stringent
1339 than the corresponding federal regulations which address the same circumstances.
1340 (b) In adopting those rules, the board may incorporate corresponding federal
1341 regulations by reference.
1342 (9) (a) The board may adopt rules more stringent than corresponding federal
1343 regulations for the purpose described in Subsection (8) only if it makes a written finding after
1344 public comment and hearing and based on evidence in the record that corresponding federal
1345 regulations are not adequate to protect public health and the environment of the state.
1346 (b) Those findings shall be accompanied by an opinion referring to and evaluating the
1347 public health and environmental information and studies contained in the record which form
1348 the basis for the board's conclusion.
1349 (10) (a) The board shall by rule:
1350 (i) authorize independent qualified experts to conduct inspections required under this
1351 chapter of x-ray facilities registered with the division; and
1352 (ii) establish qualifications and certification procedures necessary for independent
1353 experts to conduct these inspections.
1354 (b) Independent experts under this Subsection (10) are not considered employees or
1355 representatives of the division or the state when conducting the inspections.
1356 (11) (a) The board may by rule establish criteria for siting commercial low-level
1357 radioactive waste treatment or disposal facilities, subject to the prohibition imposed by Section
1358 19-3-103.7 .
1359 (b) Subject to Subsection 19-3-105 (10), any facility under Subsection (11)(a) for which
1360 a radioactive material license is required by this section shall comply with those criteria.
1361 (c) Subject to Subsection 19-3-105 (10), a facility may not receive a radioactive
1362 material license until siting criteria have been established by the board. The criteria also apply
1363 to facilities that have applied for but not received a radioactive material license.
1364 (12) The board shall by rule establish financial assurance requirements for closure and
1365 postclosure care of radioactive waste land disposal facilities, taking into account existing
1366 financial assurance requirements.
1367 Section 22. Section 19-3-105 is amended to read:
1368 19-3-105. Definitions -- Legislative and gubernatorial approval required for
1369 radioactive waste license -- Exceptions -- Application for new, renewed, or amended
1370 license.
1371 (1) As used in this section:
1372 (a) "Alternate feed material" has the same definition as provided in Section 59-24-102 .
1373 (b) (i) "Class A low-level radioactive waste" means:
1374 (A) radioactive waste that is classified as class A waste under 10 C.F.R. 61.55; and
1375 (B) radium-226 up to a maximum radionuclide concentration level of 10,000
1376 picocuries per gram.
1377 (ii) "Class A low-level radioactive waste" does not include:
1378 (A) uranium mill tailings;
1379 (B) naturally occurring radioactive materials; or
1380 (C) the following radionuclides if classified as "special nuclear material" under the
1381 Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 42 U.S.C. 2014:
1382 (I) uranium-233; and
1383 (II) uranium-235 with a radionuclide concentration level greater than the concentration
1384 limits for specific conditions and enrichments established by an order of the Nuclear
1385 Regulatory Commission:
1386 (Aa) to ensure criticality safety for a radioactive waste facility in the state; and
1387 (Bb) in response to a request, submitted prior to January 1, 2004, from a radioactive
1388 waste facility in the state to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to amend the facility's special
1389 nuclear material exemption order.
1390 (c) (i) "Radioactive waste facility" or "facility" means a facility that receives, transfers,
1391 stores, decays in storage, treats, or disposes of radioactive waste:
1392 (A) commercially for profit; or
1393 (B) generated at locations other than the radioactive waste facility.
1394 (ii) "Radioactive waste facility" does not include a facility that receives:
1395 (A) alternate feed material for reprocessing; or
1396 (B) radioactive waste from a location in the state designated as a processing site under
1397 42 U.S.C. 7912(f).
1398 (d) "Radioactive waste license" or "license" means a radioactive material license issued
1399 by the [
1400 modify, or operate a radioactive waste facility.
1401 (2) The provisions of this section are subject to the prohibition under Section
1402 19-3-103.7 .
1403 (3) Subject to Subsection (10), a person may not own, construct, modify, or operate a
1404 radioactive waste facility without:
1405 (a) having received a radioactive waste license for the facility;
1406 (b) meeting the requirements established by rule under Section 19-3-104 ;
1407 (c) the approval of the governing body of the municipality or county responsible for
1408 local planning and zoning where the radioactive waste is or will be located; and
1409 (d) subsequent to meeting the requirements of Subsections (3)(a) through (c), the
1410 approval of the governor and the Legislature.
1411 (4) Subject to Subsection (10), a new radioactive waste license application, or an
1412 application to renew or amend an existing radioactive waste license, is subject to the
1413 requirements of Subsections (3)(b) through (d) if the application, renewal, or amendment:
1414 (a) specifies a different geographic site than a previously submitted application;
1415 (b) would cost 50% or more of the cost of construction of the original radioactive
1416 waste facility or the modification would result in an increase in capacity or throughput of a
1417 cumulative total of 50% of the total capacity or throughput which was approved in the facility
1418 license as of January 1, 1990, or the initial approval facility license if the initial license
1419 approval is subsequent to January 1, 1990; or
1420 (c) requests approval to receive, transfer, store, decay in storage, treat, or dispose of
1421 radioactive waste having a higher radionuclide concentration limit than allowed, under an
1422 existing approved license held by the facility, for the specific type of waste to be received,
1423 transferred, stored, decayed in storage, treated, or disposed of.
1424 (5) The requirements of Subsection (4)(c) do not apply to an application to renew or
1425 amend an existing radioactive waste license if:
1426 (a) the radioactive waste facility requesting the renewal or amendment has received a
1427 license prior to January 1, 2004; and
1428 (b) the application to renew or amend its license is limited to a request to approve the
1429 receipt, transfer, storage, decay in storage, treatment, or disposal of class A low-level
1430 radioactive waste.
1431 (6) A radioactive waste facility which receives a new radioactive waste license after
1432 May 3, 2004, is subject to the requirements of Subsections (3)(b) through (d) for any license
1433 application, renewal, or amendment that requests approval to receive, transfer, store, decay in
1434 storage, treat, or dispose of radioactive waste not previously approved under an existing license
1435 held by the facility.
1436 (7) If the board finds that approval of additional radioactive waste license applications,
1437 renewals, or amendments will result in inadequate oversight, monitoring, or licensure
1438 compliance and enforcement of existing and any additional radioactive waste facilities, the
1439 board shall suspend acceptance of further applications for radioactive waste licenses. The
1440 board shall report the suspension to the Legislative Management Committee.
1441 (8) The [
1442 application to determine whether the application complies with the provisions of this chapter
1443 and the rules of the board.
1444 (9) (a) If the radioactive waste license application is determined to be complete, the
1445 [
1446 (b) If the [
1447 incomplete, the [
1448 information to be provided by the applicant to complete the application.
1449 (10) The requirements of Subsections (3)(c) and (d) and Subsection 19-3-104 (11) do
1450 not apply to:
1451 (a) a radioactive waste license that is in effect on December 31, 2006, including all
1452 amendments to the license that have taken effect as of December 31, 2006;
1453 (b) a license application for a facility in existence as of December 31, 2006, unless the
1454 license application includes an area beyond the facility boundary approved in the license
1455 described in Subsection (10)(a); or
1456 (c) an application to renew or amend a license described in Subsection (10)(a), unless
1457 the renewal or amendment includes an area beyond the facility boundary approved in the
1458 license described in Subsection (10)(a).
1459 Section 23. Section 19-3-106.4 is amended to read:
1460 19-3-106.4. Generator site access permits.
1461 (1) A generator or broker may not transfer radioactive waste to a commercial
1462 radioactive waste treatment or disposal facility in the state without first obtaining a generator
1463 site access permit from the [
1464 (2) The board may make rules pursuant to Section 19-3-104 governing a generator site
1465 access permit program.
1466 (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), the [
1467 establish fees for generator site access permits in accordance with Section 63J-1-504 .
1468 (b) On and after July 1, 2001 through June 30, 2002, the fees are:
1469 (i) $1,300 for generators transferring 1,000 or more cubic feet of radioactive waste per
1470 year;
1471 (ii) $500 for generators transferring less than 1,000 cubic feet of radioactive waste per
1472 year; and
1473 (iii) $5,000 for brokers.
1474 (c) The [
1475 Environmental Quality Restricted Account created in Section 19-1-108 .
1476 (4) This section does not apply to a generator or broker transferring radioactive waste
1477 to a uranium mill licensed under 10 C.F.R. Part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material.
1478 Section 24. Section 19-3-108 is amended to read:
1479 19-3-108. Powers and duties of director.
1480 (1) The executive director shall appoint [
1481
1482 executive director.
1483 (2) The [
1484 (a) develop programs to promote and protect the public from radiation sources in the
1485 state;
1486 (b) advise, consult, [
1487 agencies, states, the federal government, political subdivisions, industries, and other [
1488
1489 Control Act;
1490 [
1491 (c) receive specifications or other information relating to licensing applications for
1492 radioactive materials or registration of radiation sources for review, approval, disapproval, or
1493 termination;
1494 [
1495 administrative authorizations;
1496 [
1497 [
1498 (f) assess penalties in accordance with Section 19-3-109 ;
1499 [
1500 [
1501
1502
1503 (h) issue orders necessary to enforce the provisions of this part, enforce the orders by
1504 appropriate administrative and judicial proceedings, or institute judicial proceedings to secure
1505 compliance with this part; and
1506 (i) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this chapter, act as
1507 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
1508 (3) The director may:
1509 (a) cooperate with any person in studies, research, or demonstration projects regarding
1510 radioactive waste management or control of radiation sources;
1511 (b) subject to Subsection 19-3-103.5 (2)(c), settle or compromise any civil action
1512 initiated by the division to compel compliance with this chapter or the rules made under this
1513 chapter; or
1514 (c) authorize employees or representatives of the department to enter, at reasonable
1515 times and upon reasonable notice, in and upon public or private property for the purpose of
1516 inspecting and investigating conditions and records concerning radiation sources.
1517 Section 25. Section 19-3-109 is amended to read:
1518 19-3-109. Civil penalties -- Appeals.
1519 (1) A person who violates any provision of Sections 19-3-104 through 19-3-113 , any
1520 rule or order issued under the authority of those sections, or the terms of a license, permit, or
1521 registration certificate issued under the authority of those sections is subject to a civil penalty
1522 not to exceed $5,000 for each violation.
1523 (2) The [
1524 this section and may compromise or remit that penalty.
1525 (3) In order to make demand for payment of a penalty assessed under this section, the
1526 [
1527 requirements for notices of agency action contained in Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative
1528 Procedures Act:
1529 (a) the date, facts, and nature of each act or omission charged;
1530 (b) the provision of the statute, rule, order, license, permit, or registration certificate
1531 that is alleged to have been violated;
1532 (c) each penalty that the bureau proposes to impose, together with the amount and date
1533 of effect of that penalty; and
1534 (d) that failure to pay the penalty or respond may result in a civil action for collection.
1535 (4) A person notified according to Subsection (3) may request an adjudicative
1536 proceeding.
1537 (5) Upon request by the [
1538 action to collect a penalty imposed under this section.
1539 (6) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (6)(b), the department shall deposit all money
1540 collected from civil penalties imposed under this section into the General Fund.
1541 (b) The department may reimburse itself and local governments from money collected
1542 from civil penalties for extraordinary expenses incurred in environmental enforcement
1543 activities.
1544 (c) The department shall regulate reimbursements by making rules that:
1545 (i) define qualifying environmental enforcement activities; and
1546 (ii) define qualifying extraordinary expenses.
1547 Section 26. Section 19-3-111 is amended to read:
1548 19-3-111. Impounding of radioactive material.
1549 (1) The [
1550 (a) the material poses an imminent threat or danger to the public health or safety; or
1551 (b) that person is violating:
1552 (i) any provision of Sections 19-3-104 through 19-3-113 ;
1553 (ii) any rules or orders enacted or issued under the authority of those sections; or
1554 (iii) the terms of a license, permit, or registration certificate issued under the authority
1555 of those sections.
1556 (2) Before any dispositive action may be taken with regard to impounded radioactive
1557 materials, the [
1558 Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
1559 Section 27. Section 19-4-102 is amended to read:
1560 19-4-102. Definitions.
1561 As used in this chapter:
1562 (1) "Board" means the Drinking Water Board appointed under Section 19-4-103 .
1563 (2) "Contaminant" means a physical, chemical, biological, or radiological substance or
1564 matter in water.
1565 [
1566 (3) "Director" means the director of the Division of Drinking Water.
1567 (4) "Division" means the Division of Drinking Water, created in Subsection
1568 19-1-105 (1)(b).
1569 [
1570 which groundwater flows or is pumped from a subsurface water-bearing formation.
1571 (b) "Groundwater source" includes:
1572 (i) a well;
1573 (ii) a spring;
1574 (iii) a tunnel; or
1575 (iv) an adit.
1576 [
1577 contaminant in water that is delivered to a user of a public water system.
1578 [
1579 consumption and other domestic uses that:
1580 (i) has at least 15 service connections; or
1581 (ii) serves an average of 25 individuals daily for at least 60 days of the year.
1582 (b) "Public water system" includes:
1583 (i) a collection, treatment, storage, or distribution facility under the control of the
1584 operator and used primarily in connection with the system; and
1585 (ii) a collection, pretreatment, or storage facility used primarily in connection with the
1586 system but not under the operator's control.
1587 [
1588 (a) supplies water for human consumption and other domestic uses to an end user; and
1589 (b) has more than 500 service connections.
1590 [
1591 [
1592 person's water to a retail water supplier.
1593 Section 28. Section 19-4-103 is amended to read:
1594 19-4-103. Drinking Water Board -- Members -- Organization -- Meetings -- Per
1595 diem and expenses.
1596 (1) The board [
1597
1598 (a) (i) the executive director [
1599 (ii) an employee of the department designated by the executive director; and
1600 (b) the following eight members, who shall be nominated by the executive director and
1601 appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate[
1602 (i) one representative who is a Utah-licensed professional engineer with expertise in
1603 civil or sanitary engineering;
1604 (ii) one representative who is:
1605 (A) an elected official from municipal government; or
1606 (B) a representative of the person described in Subsection (1)(b)(ii)(A) who is involved
1607 in the management or operation of a public water system;
1608 (iii) one representative from an improvement district, a water conservancy district, or a
1609 metropolitan water district;
1610 (iv) one representative from an entity that manages or operates a public water system;
1611 (v) one representative from:
1612 (A) the state water research community; or
1613 (B) an institution of higher education that has comparable expertise in water research
1614 to the state water research community;
1615 (vi) one representative from the public who represents a nongovernmental
1616 organization;
1617 (vii) one representative from the public who is trained and experienced in public
1618 health; and
1619 (viii) one Utah-licensed practicing attorney who is knowledgeable about drinking water
1620 regulatory and legal issues.
1621 [
1622 [
1623 (a) be knowledgeable about drinking water and public water systems [
1624 evidenced by a professional degree, a professional accreditation, or documented experience;
1625 (b) represent different geographical areas within the state insofar as practicable[
1626 (c) be a resident of Utah;
1627 (d) attend board meetings in accordance with the attendance rules made by the
1628 department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(i)(A); and
1629 (e) comply with all applicable statutes, rules, and policies, including the conflict of
1630 interest rules made by the department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(ii)(B).
1631 (3) No more than five appointed members of the board shall be from the same political
1632 party.
1633 [
1634 [
1635
1636 [
1637
1638 [
1639
1640 [
1641
1642 [
1643
1644 [
1645
1646
1647 [
1648 [
1649
1650
1651 [
1652 (4) (a) As terms of current board members expire, the governor shall appoint each new
1653 member or reappointed member to a four-year term.
1654 [
1655 shall, at the time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the
1656 terms of board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed
1657 every two years.
1658 [
1659 shall be appointed for the unexpired term.
1660 [
1661 a successor is appointed, but not for more than 90 days after the expiration of the term.
1662 [
1663 [
1664 (b) Special meetings may be called by the chair upon [
1665 upon the request of the [
1666 the board.
1667 (c) Reasonable notice shall be given to each member of the board [
1668 meeting.
1669 [
1670 majority of the members present is the action of the board.
1671 [
1672 service, but may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
1673 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
1674 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
1675 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
1676 63A-3-107 .
1677 Section 29. Section 19-4-104 is amended to read:
1678 19-4-104. Powers of board.
1679 (1) (a) The board may[
1680 Administrative Rulemaking Act:
1681 (i) establishing standards that prescribe the maximum contaminant levels in any public
1682 water system and provide for monitoring, record-keeping, and reporting of water quality related
1683 matters;
1684 (ii) governing design, construction, operation, and maintenance of public water
1685 systems;
1686 (iii) granting variances and exemptions to the requirements established under this
1687 chapter that are not less stringent than those allowed under federal law;
1688 (iv) protecting watersheds and water sources used for public water systems; and
1689 (v) governing capacity development in compliance with Section 1420 of the federal
1690 Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C.A. 300f et seq.;
1691 (b) The board may:
1692 (i) order the director to:
1693 [
1694 (B) enforce the orders by appropriate administrative and judicial proceedings[
1695 (C) institute judicial proceedings to secure compliance with this chapter;
1696 [
1697 administration of this chapter [
1698
1699
1700 [
1701 proceeding [
1702 [
1703
1704 [
1705
1706 [
1707
1708 [
1709
1710
1711
1712 [
1713
1714
1715
1716
1717 [
1718 entities, and the federal government to carry out the purposes of this chapter[
1719 [
1720
1721
1722 [
1723
1724
1725
1726
1727 [
1728 [
1729
1730 (c) The board shall:
1731 (i) require the submission to the director of plans and specifications for construction of,
1732 substantial addition to, or alteration of public water systems for review and approval by the
1733 board before that action begins and require any modifications or impose any conditions that
1734 may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter;
1735 (ii) advise, consult, cooperate with, provide technical assistance to, and enter into
1736 agreements, contracts, or cooperative arrangements with state, federal, or interstate agencies,
1737 municipalities, local health departments, educational institutions, and others necessary to carry
1738 out the purposes of this chapter and to support the laws, ordinances, rules, and regulations of
1739 local jurisdictions;
1740 (iii) develop and implement an emergency plan to protect the public when declining
1741 drinking water quality or quantity creates a serious health risk and issue emergency orders if a
1742 health risk is imminent; and
1743 (iv) meet the requirements of federal law related or pertaining to drinking water.
1744 (2) (a) The board may adopt and enforce standards and establish fees for certification
1745 of operators of any public water system.
1746 (b) The board may not require certification of operators for a water system serving a
1747 population of 800 or less except:
1748 (i) to the extent required for compliance with Section 1419 of the federal Safe Drinking
1749 Water Act, 42 U.S.C.A. 300f et seq.; and
1750 (ii) for a system that is required to treat its drinking water.
1751 (c) The certification program shall be funded from certification and renewal fees.
1752 (3) Routine extensions or repairs of existing public water systems that comply with the
1753 rules and do not alter the system's ability to provide an adequate supply of water are exempt
1754 from the provisions of Subsection (1)[
1755 (4) (a) The board may adopt and enforce standards and establish fees for certification
1756 of persons engaged in administering cross connection control programs or backflow prevention
1757 assembly training, repair, and maintenance testing.
1758 (b) The certification program shall be funded from certification and renewal fees.
1759 (5) A board member may not speak or act for the board unless the board member is
1760 authorized by a majority of a quorum of the board in a vote taken at a meeting of the board.
1761 Section 30. Section 19-4-106 is amended to read:
1762 19-4-106. Director -- Appointment -- Authority.
1763 [
1764
1765
1766 (1) The executive director shall appoint the director. The director shall serve under the
1767 administrative direction of the executive director.
1768 (2) The director shall:
1769 [
1770 water supplies of the state;
1771 [
1772 federal government, and with other groups, political subdivisions, and industries in furtherance
1773 of the purpose of this chapter;
1774 [
1775 water supply systems to [
1776 [
1777 (d) subject to the provisions of this chapter, enforce rules made by the board through
1778 the issuance of orders which may be subsequently revoked, which rules may require:
1779 [
1780 [
1781 [
1782 to protect or improve an existing water system[
1783 (e) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this chapter, act as
1784 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
1785 (3) The director may authorize employees or agents of the department, after reasonable
1786 notice and presentation of credentials, to enter any part of a public water system at reasonable
1787 times to inspect the facilities and water quality records required by board rules, conduct
1788 sanitary surveys, take samples, and investigate the standard of operation and service delivered
1789 by public water systems.
1790 Section 31. Section 19-4-107 is amended to read:
1791 19-4-107. Notice of violation of rule or order -- Action by attorney general.
1792 (1) Upon discovery of any violation of a rule or order of the board, the board or [
1793
1794 nature of the violation, and issue an order requiring correction of that violation or the filing of a
1795 request for variance or exemption by a specific date.
1796 (2) The attorney general shall, upon request of the [
1797 action for an injunction or other relief relative to the order.
1798 Section 32. Section 19-4-109 is amended to read:
1799 19-4-109. Violations -- Penalties -- Reimbursement for expenses.
1800 (1) Any person that violates any rule or order made or issued pursuant to this chapter is
1801 subject to a civil penalty of not more than $1,000 per day for each day of violation. The board
1802 may assess and make a demand for payment of a penalty under this section by directing the
1803 [
1804 Administrative Procedures Act.
1805 (2) (a) Any person that willfully violates any rule or order made or issued pursuant to
1806 this chapter, or that willfully fails to take any corrective action required by such an order, is
1807 guilty of a class B misdemeanor and subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 per day for each
1808 day of violation.
1809 (b) In addition, the person is subject, in a civil proceeding, to a penalty of not more
1810 than $5,000 per day for each day of violation.
1811 (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), all penalties assessed and collected
1812 under the authority of this section shall be deposited in the General Fund.
1813 (b) The department may reimburse itself and local governments from money collected
1814 from civil penalties for extraordinary expenses incurred in environmental enforcement
1815 activities.
1816 (c) The department shall regulate reimbursements by making rules that:
1817 (i) define qualifying environmental enforcement activities; and
1818 (ii) define qualifying extraordinary expenses.
1819 Section 33. Section 19-5-102 (Effective 07/01/12) is amended to read:
1820 19-5-102 (Effective 07/01/12). Definitions.
1821 As used in this chapter:
1822 (1) "Agriculture discharge":
1823 (a) means the release of agriculture water from the property of a farm, ranch, or feed lot
1824 that:
1825 (i) pollutes a surface body of water, including a stream, lake, pond, marshland,
1826 watercourse, waterway, river, ditch, and other water conveyance system of the state;
1827 (ii) pollutes the ground water of the state; or
1828 (iii) constitutes a significant nuisance on urban land; and
1829 (b) does not include:
1830 (i) runoff from a farm, ranch, or feed lot or return flows from irrigated fields onto land
1831 that is not part of a body of water; or
1832 (ii) a release into a normally dry water conveyance to an active body of water, unless
1833 the release reaches the water of a lake, pond, stream, marshland, river, or other active body of
1834 water.
1835 (2) "Agriculture water" means:
1836 (a) water used by a farmer, rancher, or feed lot for the production of food, fiber, or fuel;
1837 (b) return flows from irrigated agriculture; and
1838 (c) agricultural storm water runoff.
1839 (3) "Board" means the Water Quality Board created in Section 19-1-106 .
1840 (4) "Commission" means the Conservation Commission created in Section 4-18-4 .
1841 (5) "Contaminant" means any physical, chemical, biological, or radiological substance
1842 or matter in water.
1843 (6) "Director" means the director of the Division of Water Quality.
1844 [
1845 [
1846 (a) discharges or whose activities would probably result in a discharge of pollutants
1847 into the waters of the state; or
1848 (b) generates or manages sewage sludge.
1849 [
1850 sewerage systems and treatment works.
1851 (10) "Division" means the Division of Water Quality, created in Subsection
1852 19-1-105 (1)(f).
1853 [
1854 including schedules of compliance established under this chapter which apply to discharges.
1855 [
1856 [
1857 (a) means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including any pipe,
1858 ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated
1859 animal feeding operation, or vessel or other floating craft, from which pollutants are or may be
1860 discharged; and
1861 (b) does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
1862 [
1863 chemical, physical, biological, or radiological integrity of any waters of the state, unless the
1864 alteration is necessary for the public health and safety.
1865 [
1866 pollutants owned by the state, its political subdivisions, or other public entity.
1867 [
1868 including an enforceable sequence of actions or operations leading to compliance with this
1869 chapter.
1870 [
1871 during the treatment of municipal wastewater or domestic sewage.
1872 [
1873 other constructions, devices, appurtenances, and facilities used for collecting or conducting
1874 wastes to a point of ultimate disposal.
1875 [
1876 of a pollutant that a body of water can receive and still meet water quality standards.
1877 [
1878 station, incinerator, or other works used for the purpose of treating, stabilizing, or holding
1879 wastes.
1880 [
1881 well injection.
1882 [
1883 domestic wastewater discharges as defined by the board and the executive director.
1884 [
1885 residue, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials,
1886 radioactive materials, heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt, and
1887 industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water.
1888 [
1889 (a) means all streams, lakes, ponds, marshes, watercourses, waterways, wells, springs,
1890 irrigation systems, drainage systems, and all other bodies or accumulations of water, surface
1891 and underground, natural or artificial, public or private, which are contained within, flow
1892 through, or border upon this state or any portion of the state; and
1893 (b) does not include bodies of water confined to and retained within the limits of
1894 private property, and which do not develop into or constitute a nuisance, a public health hazard,
1895 or a menace to fish or wildlife.
1896 Section 34. Section 19-5-103 is amended to read:
1897 19-5-103. Water Quality Board -- Members of board -- Appointment -- Terms --
1898 Organization -- Meetings -- Per diem and expenses.
1899 (1) The board [
1900 (a) (i) the executive director [
1901 (ii) an employee of the department designated by the executive director; and
1902 (b) the following eight members, who shall be nominated by the executive director and
1903 appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate[
1904 (i) one representative who:
1905 (A) is not connected with industry;
1906 (B) is an expert in water quality matters; and
1907 (C) is a Utah-licensed physician, a Utah-licensed professional engineer, or a scientist
1908 with relevant training and experience;
1909 (ii) two government representatives who do not represent the federal government;
1910 (iii) one representative from the mineral or manufacturing industry;
1911 (iv) one representative who represents agricultural and livestock interests;
1912 (v) one representative from the public who represents a nongovernmental organization;
1913 (vi) one representative from the public who is trained and experienced in public health;
1914 and
1915 (vii) one Utah-licensed practicing attorney who is knowledgeable about water quality
1916 regulatory issues.
1917 [
1918 [
1919 [
1920 [
1921 [
1922 [
1923
1924 [
1925 [
1926 [
1927 [
1928
1929
1930 [
1931 (2) A member of the board shall:
1932 (a) be knowledgeable about water quality matters, as evidenced by a professional
1933 degree, a professional accreditation, or documented experience;
1934 (b) be a resident of Utah;
1935 (c) attend board meetings in accordance with the attendance rules made by the
1936 department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(i)(A); and
1937 (d) comply with all applicable statutes, rules, and policies, including the conflict of
1938 interest rules made by the department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(ii)(B).
1939 (3) No more than five of the appointed members may be from the same political party.
1940 (4) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
1941 appointed for the unexpired term with the consent of the Senate.
1942 (5) (a) Except as required by Subsection (5)(b), a member shall be appointed for a term
1943 of four years and is eligible for reappointment.
1944 (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (5)(a), the governor shall, at the
1945 time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
1946 board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed every two
1947 years.
1948 (6) A member shall hold office until the expiration of the member's term and until the
1949 member's successor is appointed, not to exceed 90 days after the formal expiration of the term.
1950 (7) The board shall:
1951 (a) organize and annually select one of its members as chair and one of its members as
1952 vice chair;
1953 (b) hold at least four regular meetings each calendar year; and
1954 (c) keep minutes of its proceedings which are open to the public for inspection.
1955 (8) The chair may call a special meeting upon the request of three or more members of
1956 the board.
1957 (9) Each member of the board and the [
1958 the time and place of each meeting.
1959 (10) [
1960 business, and the action of a majority of members present is the action of the board.
1961 (11) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
1962 may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
1963 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
1964 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
1965 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
1966 63A-3-107 .
1967 Section 35. Section 19-5-104 (Effective 07/01/12) is amended to read:
1968 19-5-104 (Effective 07/01/12). Powers and duties of board.
1969 [
1970 (1) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
1971 board may make rules that:
1972 (a) taking into account Subsection (6):
1973 (i) implement the awarding of construction loans to political subdivisions and
1974 municipal authorities under Section 11-8-2 , including:
1975 (A) requirements pertaining to applications for loans;
1976 (B) requirements for determination of eligible projects;
1977 (C) requirements for determination of the costs upon which loans are based, which
1978 costs may include engineering, financial, legal, and administrative expenses necessary for the
1979 construction, reconstruction, and improvement of sewage treatment plants, including major
1980 interceptors, collection systems, and other facilities appurtenant to the plant;
1981 (D) a priority schedule for awarding loans, in which the board may consider, in
1982 addition to water pollution control needs, any financial needs relevant, including per capita
1983 cost, in making a determination of priority; and
1984 (E) requirements for determination of the amount of the loan;
1985 (ii) implement the awarding of loans for nonpoint source projects pursuant to Section
1986 73-10c-4.5 ;
1987 (iii) set effluent limitations and standards subject to Section 19-5-116 ;
1988 (iv) implement or effectuate the powers and duties of the board; and
1989 (v) protect the public health for the design, construction, operation, and maintenance of
1990 underground wastewater disposal systems, liquid scavenger operations, and vault and earthen
1991 pit privies;
1992 (b) govern inspection, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements for
1993 underground injections and require permits for underground injections, to protect drinking
1994 water sources, except for wells, pits, and ponds covered by Section 40-6-5 regarding gas and
1995 oil, recognizing that underground injection endangers drinking water sources if:
1996 (i) injection may result in the presence of any contaminant in underground water that
1997 supplies or can reasonably be expected to supply any public water system, as defined in Section
1998 19-4-102 ; and
1999 (ii) the presence of the contaminant may:
2000 (A) result in the public water system not complying with any national primary drinking
2001 water standards; or
2002 (B) otherwise adversely affect the health of persons;
2003 (c) govern sewage sludge management, including permitting, inspecting, monitoring,
2004 recordkeeping, and reporting requirements; and
2005 (d) notwithstanding the provisions of Section 19-4-112 , govern design and construction
2006 of irrigation systems that:
2007 (i) convey sewage treatment facility effluent of human origin in pipelines under
2008 pressure, unless contained in surface pipes wholly on private property and for agricultural
2009 purposes; and
2010 (ii) are constructed after May 4, 1998.
2011 (2) (a) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act,
2012 the board shall adopt and enforce rules and establish fees to cover the costs of testing for
2013 certification of operators of treatment works and sewerage systems operated by political
2014 subdivisions.
2015 (b) In establishing certification rules under Subsection (2)(a), the board shall:
2016 (i) base the requirements for certification on the size, treatment process type, and
2017 complexity of the treatment works and sewerage systems operated by political subdivisions;
2018 (ii) allow operators until three years after the date of adoption of the rules to obtain
2019 initial certification;
2020 (iii) allow a new operator one year from the date the operator is hired by a treatment
2021 plant or sewerage system or three years after the date of adoption of the rules, whichever occurs
2022 later, to obtain certification;
2023 (iv) issue certification upon application and without testing, at a grade level
2024 comparable to the grade of current certification to operators who are currently certified under
2025 the voluntary certification plan for wastewater works operators as recognized by the board; and
2026 (v) issue a certification upon application and without testing that is valid only at the
2027 treatment works or sewerage system where that operator is currently employed if the operator:
2028 (A) is in charge of and responsible for the treatment works or sewerage system on
2029 March 16, 1991;
2030 (B) has been employed at least 10 years in the operation of that treatment works or
2031 sewerage system before March 16, 1991; and
2032 (C) demonstrates to the board the operator's capability to operate the treatment works
2033 or sewerage system at which the operator is currently employed by providing employment
2034 history and references as required by the board.
2035 (3) The board shall:
2036 (a) develop programs for the prevention, control, and abatement of new or existing
2037 pollution of the waters of the state;
2038 [
2039
2040
2041 [
2042
2043
2044 [
2045
2046 [
2047 classify those waters according to their reasonable uses in the interest of the public under
2048 conditions the board may prescribe for the prevention, control, and abatement of pollution;
2049 [
2050
2051 [
2052
2053 [
2054 [
2055 [
2056
2057
2058
2059 [
2060
2061
2062 [
2063 [
2064
2065 [
2066 [
2067 [
2068
2069
2070 (c) give reasonable consideration in the exercise of its powers and duties to the
2071 economic impact of water pollution control on industry and agriculture;
2072 (d) meet the requirements of federal law related to water pollution;
2073 (e) establish and conduct a continuing planning process for control of water pollution,
2074 including the specification and implementation of maximum daily loads of pollutants;
2075 (f) (i) approve, approve in part, approve with conditions, or deny, in writing, an
2076 application for water reuse under Title 73, Chapter 3c, Wastewater Reuse Act;
2077 (ii) issue an operating permit for water reuse under Title 73, Chapter 3c, Wastewater
2078 Reuse Act;
2079 (g) (i) review all total daily maximum load reports and recommendations for water
2080 quality end points and implementation strategies developed by the division before submission
2081 of the report, recommendation, or implementation strategy to the EPA;
2082 (ii) disapprove, approve, or approve with conditions all staff total daily maximum load
2083 recommendations; and
2084 (iii) provide suggestions for further consideration to the Division of Water Quality in
2085 the event a total daily maximum load strategy is rejected; and
2086 (h) to ensure compliance with applicable statutes and regulations:
2087 (i) review a settlement negotiated by the director in accordance with Subsection
2088 19-5-106 (2)(k) that requires a civil penalty of $25,000 or more; and
2089 (ii) approve or disapprove the settlement.
2090 (4) The board may:
2091 [
2092 (i) prohibiting or abating discharges;
2093 (ii) requiring the construction of new treatment works or any parts of them, or requiring
2094 the modification, extension, or alteration of existing treatment works as specified by board rule
2095 or any parts of them, or the adoption of other remedial measures to prevent, control, or abate
2096 pollution;
2097 (iii) setting standards of water quality, classifying waters or evidencing any other
2098 determination by the board under this chapter; [
2099 (iv) requiring compliance with this chapter and with rules made under this chapter;
2100 [
2101
2102 [
2103
2104 (b) advise, consult, and cooperate with other agencies of the state, the federal
2105 government, other states, or interstate agencies, or with affected groups, political subdivisions,
2106 or industries to further the purposes of this chapter; or
2107 [
2108 department[
2109 [
2110
2111
2112 [
2113 [
2114
2115 [
2116
2117 [
2118
2119
2120 [
2121 [
2122
2123 [
2124
2125
2126
2127 [
2128
2129
2130 [
2131 [
2132
2133 [
2134 [
2135
2136 [
2137
2138
2139 [
2140
2141 [
2142
2143
2144 [
2145 [
2146
2147 [
2148
2149 [
2150
2151
2152 [
2153
2154 [
2155
2156 [
2157 board shall give priority to pollution that results in a hazard to the public health.
2158 [
2159 (a) in determining eligible project costs; and
2160 (b) in establishing priorities pursuant to Subsection [
2161 [
2162 [
2163
2164 [
2165
2166 [
2167
2168
2169 [
2170
2171
2172
2173 [
2174
2175 [
2176
2177 [
2178
2179 [
2180
2181
2182 (7) The board may not issue, amend, renew, modify, revoke, or terminate any of the
2183 following that are subject to the authority granted to the director under Section 19-5-106 :
2184 (a) a permit;
2185 (b) a license;
2186 (c) a registration;
2187 (d) a certification; or
2188 (e) another administrative authorization made by the director.
2189 (8) A board member may not speak or act for the board unless the board member is
2190 authorized by a majority of a quorum of the board in a vote taken at a meeting of the board.
2191 Section 36. Section 19-5-105.5 is amended to read:
2192 19-5-105.5. Agriculture water.
2193 (1) (a) The board shall draft any rules relating to agriculture water in cooperation with
2194 the commission.
2195 (b) The commission shall advise the board before the board may adopt rules relating to
2196 agriculture water.
2197 (2) A program or rule adopted by the board for agriculture production or irrigation
2198 water shall:
2199 (a) be consistent with the federal Clean Water Act; and
2200 (b) if possible, be developed in a voluntary cooperative program with the agriculture
2201 producer associations and the commission.
2202 (3) (a) The board's authority to regulate a discharge is subject to Subsection (3)(b)
2203 relating to an agriculture discharge.
2204 (b) (i) A person responsible for an agriculture discharge shall mitigate the resulting
2205 damage in a reasonable manner, as approved by the [
2206 consulting with the commission chair.
2207 (ii) A penalty imposed on an agriculture discharge shall be proportionate to the
2208 seriousness of the resulting harm, as determined by the [
2209 consultation with the commission chair.
2210 (iii) An agriculture producer may not be held liable for an agriculture discharge
2211 resulting from a large weather event if the agriculture producer has taken reasonable measures,
2212 as the board defines by rule, to prevent an agriculture discharge.
2213 Section 37. Section 19-5-106 is amended to read:
2214 19-5-106. Director -- Appointment -- Duties.
2215 [
2216
2217
2218 (1) The executive director shall appoint the director. The director shall serve under the
2219 administrative direction of the executive director.
2220 (2) The director shall:
2221 [
2222 existing pollution of the waters of the state;
2223 [
2224 government, other states and interstate agencies, and with affected groups, political
2225 subdivisions, and industries in furtherance of the purposes of this chapter;
2226 [
2227
2228 [
2229
2230
2231
2232 [
2233
2234
2235
2236 [
2237
2238 [
2239 [
2240 (d) subject to the provisions of this chapter, [
2241 through the issuance of orders [
2242 which orders may include:
2243 [
2244 [
2245 modification, extension, or alteration of existing control facilities or any parts of them, or the
2246 adoption of other remedial measures to prevent, control, or abate water pollution; [
2247 [
2248 chapter;
2249 [
2250 systems or any part of the systems provided for in this chapter;
2251 (f) issue construction or operating permits for the installation or modification of
2252 treatment works or any parts of the treatment works;
2253 (g) after public notice and opportunity for public hearing, issue, continue in effect,
2254 renew, revoke, modify, or deny discharge permits under reasonable conditions the board may
2255 prescribe to:
2256 (i) control the management of sewage sludge; or
2257 (ii) prevent or control the discharge of pollutants, including effluent limitations for the
2258 discharge of wastes into the waters of the state;
2259 (h) meet the requirements of federal law related to water pollution;
2260 [
2261
2262
2263
2264
2265 [
2266
2267 [
2268
2269 including interstate compacts and other similar agreements[
2270 (j) collect and disseminate information relating to water pollution and the prevention,
2271 control, and abatement of water pollution; and
2272 (k) subject to Subsection 19-5-104 (3)(h), settle or compromise any civil action initiated
2273 by the division to compel compliance with this chapter or the rules made under this chapter.
2274 (3) The director may:
2275 (a) employ full-time employees as necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter;
2276 (b) subject to the provisions of this chapter, authorize any employee or representative
2277 of the department to enter, at reasonable times and upon reasonable notice, in or upon public or
2278 private property for the purposes of inspecting and investigating conditions and plant records
2279 concerning possible water pollution;
2280 (c) encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, investigations, research, and
2281 demonstrations relating to water pollution and causes of water pollution as necessary for the
2282 discharge of duties assigned under this chapter, including the establishment of inventories of
2283 pollution sources;
2284 (d) collect and disseminate information relating to water pollution and the prevention,
2285 control, and abatement of water pollution;
2286 (e) subject to the provisions of this chapter, exercise all incidental powers necessary to
2287 carry out the purposes of this chapter, including certification to any state or federal authorities
2288 for tax purposes only if the construction, installation, or acquisition of any facility, land,
2289 building, machinery, equipment, or any part of them conforms with this chapter;
2290 (f) cooperate with any person in studies and research regarding water pollution and its
2291 control, abatement, and prevention;
2292 (g) encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, investigations, research, and
2293 demonstrations relating to water pollution and causes of water pollution; or
2294 (h) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this chapter, act as
2295 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
2296 Section 38. Section 19-5-107 is amended to read:
2297 19-5-107. Discharge of pollutants unlawful -- Discharge permit required.
2298 (1) (a) Except as provided in this chapter or rules made under it, it is unlawful for any
2299 person to discharge a pollutant into waters of the state or to cause pollution which constitutes a
2300 menace to public health and welfare, or is harmful to wildlife, fish or aquatic life, or impairs
2301 domestic, agricultural, industrial, recreational, or other beneficial uses of water, or to place or
2302 cause to be placed any wastes in a location where there is probable cause to believe it will
2303 cause pollution.
2304 (b) For purposes of injunctive relief, any violation of this subsection is a public
2305 nuisance.
2306 (2) (a) A person may not generate, store, treat, process, use, transport, dispose, or
2307 otherwise manage sewage sludge, except in compliance with this chapter and rules made under
2308 it.
2309 (b) For purposes of injunctive relief, any violation of this subsection is a public
2310 nuisance.
2311 (3) It is unlawful for any person, without first securing a permit from the [
2312
2313 (a) make any discharge or manage sewage sludge not authorized under an existing
2314 valid discharge permit; or
2315 (b) construct, install, modify, or operate any treatment works or part of any treatment
2316 works or any extension or addition to any treatment works, or construct, install, or operate any
2317 establishment or extension or modification of or addition to any treatment works, the operation
2318 of which would probably result in a discharge.
2319 Section 39. Section 19-5-108 is amended to read:
2320 19-5-108. Discharge permits -- Requirements and procedure for issuance.
2321 (1) The board may [
2322 Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, for and require the submission of plans,
2323 specifications, and other information to the [
2324 the issuance of discharge permits.
2325 (2) Each discharge permit shall have a fixed term not exceeding five years. Upon
2326 expiration of a discharge permit, a new permit may be issued by the [
2327 director as authorized by the board after notice and an opportunity for public hearing and upon
2328 condition that the applicant meets or will meet all applicable requirements of this chapter,
2329 including the conditions of any permit granted by the board.
2330 (3) The board may require notice to the [
2331 introduction of pollutants into publicly-owned treatment works and identification to the
2332 [
2333 source subject to pretreatment standards under Subsection 307(b) of the federal Clean Water
2334 Act. The [
2335 pretreatment standards.
2336 (4) The [
2337 pollutants from publicly-owned treatment works appropriate measures to establish and insure
2338 compliance by industrial users with any system of user charges required under this chapter or
2339 the rules adopted under it.
2340 (5) The [
2341 publicly-owned treatment works, toxic effluent standards and pretreatment standards for the
2342 introduction into the treatment works of pollutants which interfere with, pass through, or
2343 otherwise are incompatible with the treatment works.
2344 Section 40. Section 19-5-111 is amended to read:
2345 19-5-111. Notice of violations -- Hearings.
2346 (1) Whenever the [
2347 that there has been a violation of this chapter or any order of the director or the board, [
2348 director may give written notice to the alleged violator specifying the provisions that have been
2349 violated and the facts that constitute the violation.
2350 (2) The notice shall require that the matters complained of be corrected.
2351 (3) The notice may order the alleged violator to appear before an administrative law
2352 judge as provided by Section 19-1-301 at a time and place specified in the notice and answer
2353 the charges.
2354 Section 41. Section 19-5-112 is amended to read:
2355 19-5-112. Hearings conducted by an administrative law judge -- Decisions on
2356 denial or revocation of permit conducted by executive director.
2357 (1) [
2358 conduct hearings authorized by Section 19-5-111 in accordance with Section 19-1-301 .
2359 [
2360 (2) (a) An administrative law judge shall conduct, on the executive director's behalf, a
2361 hearing regarding an appeal of a permit decision for which the state has assumed primacy under
2362 the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C. Sec. 1251 et seq.
2363 [
2364
2365 [
2366 [
2367
2368 [
2369
2370 [
2371
2372 Section 42. Section 19-5-113 is amended to read:
2373 19-5-113. Power of director to enter property for investigation -- Records and
2374 reports required of owners or operators.
2375 (1) The [
2376 presentation of credentials, the authority to enter at reasonable times upon any private or public
2377 property for the purpose of:
2378 (a) sampling, inspecting, or investigating matters or conditions relating to pollution or
2379 the possible pollution of any waters of the state, effluents or effluent sources, monitoring
2380 equipment, or sewage sludge; and
2381 (b) reviewing and copying records required to be maintained under this chapter.
2382 (2) (a) The board may make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
2383 Administrative Rulemaking Act, that require a person managing sewage sludge, or the owner
2384 or operator of a disposal system, including a system discharging into publicly owned treatment
2385 works, to:
2386 (i) establish and maintain reasonable records and make reports relating to the operation
2387 of the system or the management of the sewage sludge;
2388 (ii) install, use, and maintain monitoring equipment or methods;
2389 (iii) sample, and analyze effluents or sewage sludges; and
2390 (iv) provide other information reasonably required.
2391 (b) The records, reports, and information shall be available to the public except as
2392 provided in Subsection 19-1-306 (2) or Subsections 63G-2-305 (1) and (2), Government
2393 Records Access and Management Act, as appropriate, for other than effluent information.
2394 Section 43. Section 19-5-114 is amended to read:
2395 19-5-114. Spills or discharges of oil or other substance -- Notice to director.
2396 Any person who spills or discharges any oil or other substance which may cause the
2397 pollution of the waters of the state shall immediately notify the [
2398 the spill or discharge, any containment procedures undertaken, and a proposed procedure for
2399 cleanup and disposal, in accordance with rules of the board.
2400 Section 44. Section 19-5-115 is amended to read:
2401 19-5-115. Violations -- Penalties -- Civil actions by board or director --
2402 Ordinances and rules of political subdivisions.
2403 (1) The terms "knowingly," "willfully," and "criminal negligence" are as defined in
2404 Section 76-2-103 .
2405 (2) Any person who violates this chapter, or any permit, rule, or order adopted under it,
2406 upon a showing that the violation occurred, is subject in a civil proceeding to a civil penalty not
2407 to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.
2408 (3) (a) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor and is subject to imprisonment
2409 under Section 76-3-204 and a fine not exceeding $25,000 per day who with criminal
2410 negligence:
2411 (i) discharges pollutants in violation of Subsection 19-5-107 (1) or in violation of any
2412 condition or limitation included in a permit issued under Subsection 19-5-107 (3);
2413 (ii) violates Section 19-5-113 ;
2414 (iii) violates a pretreatment standard or toxic effluent standard for publicly owned
2415 treatment works; or
2416 (iv) manages sewage sludge in violation of this chapter or rules adopted under it.
2417 (b) A person is guilty of a third degree felony and is subject to imprisonment under
2418 Section 76-3-203 and a fine not to exceed $50,000 per day of violation who knowingly:
2419 (i) discharges pollutants in violation of Subsection 19-5-107 (1) or in violation of any
2420 condition or limitation included in a permit issued under Subsection 19-5-107 (3);
2421 (ii) violates Section 19-5-113 ;
2422 (iii) violates a pretreatment standard or toxic effluent standard for publicly owned
2423 treatment works; or
2424 (iv) manages sewage sludge in violation of this chapter or rules adopted under it.
2425 (4) A person is guilty of a third degree felony and subject to imprisonment under
2426 Section 76-3-203 and shall be punished by a fine not exceeding $10,000 per day of violation if
2427 that person knowingly:
2428 (a) makes a false material statement, representation, or certification in any application,
2429 record, report, plan, or other document filed or required to be maintained under this chapter, or
2430 by any permit, rule, or order issued under it; or
2431 (b) falsifies, tampers with, or knowingly renders inaccurate any monitoring device or
2432 method required to be maintained under this chapter.
2433 (5) (a) As used in this section:
2434 (i) "Organization" means a legal entity, other than a government, established or
2435 organized for any purpose, and includes a corporation, company, association, firm, partnership,
2436 joint stock company, foundation, institution, trust, society, union, or any other association of
2437 persons.
2438 (ii) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury which involves a substantial risk of
2439 death, unconsciousness, extreme physical pain, protracted and obvious disfigurement, or
2440 protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty.
2441 (b) A person is guilty of a second degree felony and, upon conviction, is subject to
2442 imprisonment under Section 76-3-203 and a fine of not more than $250,000 if that person:
2443 (i) knowingly violates this chapter, or any permit, rule, or order adopted under it; and
2444 (ii) knows at that time that he is placing another person in imminent danger of death or
2445 serious bodily injury.
2446 (c) If a person is an organization, it shall, upon conviction of violating Subsection
2447 (5)(b), be subject to a fine of not more than $1,000,000.
2448 (d) (i) A defendant who is an individual is considered to have acted knowingly if:
2449 (A) the defendant's conduct placed another person in imminent danger of death or
2450 serious bodily injury; and
2451 (B) the defendant was aware of or believed that there was an imminent danger of death
2452 or serious bodily injury to another person.
2453 (ii) Knowledge possessed by a person other than the defendant may not be attributed to
2454 the defendant.
2455 (iii) Circumstantial evidence may be used to prove that the defendant possessed actual
2456 knowledge, including evidence that the defendant took affirmative steps to be shielded from
2457 receiving relevant information.
2458 (e) (i) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this Subsection (5) that the
2459 conduct charged was consented to by the person endangered and that the danger and conduct
2460 charged were reasonably foreseeable hazards of:
2461 (A) an occupation, a business, or a profession; or
2462 (B) medical treatment or medical or scientific experimentation conducted by
2463 professionally approved methods and the other person was aware of the risks involved prior to
2464 giving consent.
2465 (ii) The defendant has the burden of proof to establish any affirmative defense under
2466 this Subsection (5)(e) and shall prove that defense by a preponderance of the evidence.
2467 (6) For purposes of Subsections 19-5-115 (3) through (5), a single operational upset
2468 which leads to simultaneous violations of more than one pollutant parameter shall be treated as
2469 a single violation.
2470 (7) (a) The [
2471 permanent or temporary injunction, for any violation or threatened violation for which it is
2472 authorized to issue a compliance order under Section 19-5-111 .
2473 (b) Actions shall be brought in the district court where the violation or threatened
2474 violation occurs.
2475 (8) (a) The attorney general is the legal advisor for the board and [
2476
2477 (b) The county attorney or district attorney as appropriate under Sections 17-18-1 ,
2478 17-18-1.5 , and 17-18-1.7 in the county in which a cause of action arises, shall bring any action,
2479 civil or criminal, requested by the board, to abate a condition that exists in violation of, or to
2480 prosecute for the violation of, or to enforce, the laws or the standards, orders, and rules of the
2481 board or the [
2482 (c) The board or the director may [
2483 represented by the attorney general.
2484 (9) If any person fails to comply with a cease and desist order that is not subject to a
2485 stay pending administrative or judicial review, the [
2486
2487 continued violation of the order.
2488 (10) Any political subdivision of the state may enact and enforce ordinances or rules
2489 for the implementation of this chapter that are not inconsistent with this chapter.
2490 (11) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (11)(b), all penalties assessed and collected
2491 under the authority of this section shall be deposited in the General Fund.
2492 (b) The department may reimburse itself and local governments from money collected
2493 from civil penalties for extraordinary expenses incurred in environmental enforcement
2494 activities.
2495 (c) The department shall regulate reimbursements by making rules that:
2496 (i) define qualifying environmental enforcement activities; and
2497 (ii) define qualifying extraordinary expenses.
2498 Section 45. Section 19-6-102 is amended to read:
2499 19-6-102. Definitions.
2500 As used in this part:
2501 (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created in Section
2502 19-1-106 .
2503 (2) "Closure plan" means a plan under Section 19-6-108 to close a facility or site at
2504 which the owner or operator has disposed of nonhazardous solid waste or has treated, stored, or
2505 disposed of hazardous waste including, if applicable, a plan to provide postclosure care at the
2506 facility or site.
2507 (3) (a) "Commercial nonhazardous solid waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility"
2508 means a facility that receives, for profit, nonhazardous solid waste for treatment, storage, or
2509 disposal.
2510 (b) "Commercial nonhazardous solid waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility"
2511 does not include a facility that:
2512 (i) receives waste for recycling;
2513 (ii) receives waste to be used as fuel, in compliance with federal and state
2514 requirements; or
2515 (iii) is solely under contract with a local government within the state to dispose of
2516 nonhazardous solid waste generated within the boundaries of the local government.
2517 (4) "Construction waste or demolition waste":
2518 (a) means waste from building materials, packaging, and rubble resulting from
2519 construction, demolition, remodeling, and repair of pavements, houses, commercial buildings,
2520 and other structures, and from road building and land clearing; and
2521 (b) does not include: asbestos; contaminated soils or tanks resulting from remediation
2522 or cleanup at any release or spill; waste paints; solvents; sealers; adhesives; or similar
2523 hazardous or potentially hazardous materials.
2524 (5) "Demolition waste" has the same meaning as the definition of construction waste in
2525 this section.
2526 (6) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
2527 [
2528 or placing of any solid or hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that the waste or any
2529 constituent of the waste may enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or discharged into
2530 any waters, including groundwaters.
2531 (8) "Division" means the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste, created in
2532 Subsection 19-1-105 (1)(e).
2533 [
2534 [
2535 nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste.
2536 [
2537 than household waste which, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or
2538 infectious characteristics may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an
2539 increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or may pose a substantial
2540 present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated,
2541 stored, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.
2542 [
2543 agencies, hospices, skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, intermediate care
2544 facilities for people with an intellectual disability, residential health care facilities, maternity
2545 homes or birthing centers, free standing ambulatory surgical centers, facilities owned or
2546 operated by health maintenance organizations, and state renal disease treatment centers
2547 including free standing hemodialysis units, the offices of private physicians and dentists
2548 whether for individual or private practice, veterinary clinics, and mortuaries.
2549 [
2550 sanitary wastes in septic tanks, derived from households, including single-family and
2551 multiple-family residences, hotels and motels, bunk houses, ranger stations, crew quarters,
2552 campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas.
2553 [
2554 expected to contain pathogens of sufficient virulence and quantity that exposure to the waste by
2555 a susceptible host could result in an infectious disease.
2556 [
2557 origin, routing, and destination of hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of
2558 generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.
2559 [
2560 this chapter and is also radioactive as defined in Section 19-3-102 .
2561 [
2562 facility or site for the purpose of disposing of nonhazardous solid waste or treating, storing, or
2563 disposing of hazardous waste.
2564 [
2565 plan" means a plan or approval under Section 19-6-108 , including:
2566 (a) a plan to own, construct, or operate a facility or site for the purpose of disposing of
2567 nonhazardous solid waste or treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste;
2568 (b) a closure plan;
2569 (c) a modification plan; or
2570 (d) an approval that the [
2571 [
2572 [
2573 a waste treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility, or other
2574 discarded material, including solid, liquid, semi-solid, or contained gaseous material resulting
2575 from industrial, commercial, mining, or agricultural operations and from community activities
2576 but does not include solid or dissolved materials in domestic sewage or in irrigation return
2577 flows or discharges for which a permit is required under Title 19, Chapter 5, Water Quality
2578 Act, or under the Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C., Section 1251, et seq.
2579 (b) "Solid waste" does not include any of the following wastes unless the waste causes
2580 a public nuisance or public health hazard or is otherwise determined to be a hazardous waste:
2581 (i) certain large volume wastes, such as inert construction debris used as fill material;
2582 (ii) drilling muds, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration,
2583 development, or production of oil, gas, or geothermal energy;
2584 (iii) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste
2585 generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
2586 (iv) solid wastes from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and
2587 minerals; or
2588 (v) cement kiln dust.
2589 [
2590 waste either on a temporary basis or for a period of years in such a manner as not to constitute
2591 disposal of the waste.
2592 [
2593 to any intermediate point or to any point of storage, treatment, or disposal.
2594 [
2595 physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any solid or hazardous waste so as
2596 to neutralize the waste or render the waste nonhazardous, safer for transport, amenable for
2597 recovery, amenable to storage, or reduced in volume.
2598 [
2599 I of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C., Section 6991, et seq.
2600 Section 46. Section 19-6-102.1 is amended to read:
2601 19-6-102.1. Treatment and disposal -- Exclusions.
2602 As used in Subsections 19-6-104 [
2603 (3)(c)(ii)(B), and 19-6-119 (1)(a), the term "treatment and disposal" specifically excludes the
2604 recycling, use, reuse, or reprocessing of fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, or flue gas
2605 emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
2606 waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals; or cement kiln
2607 dust, including recycle, reuse, use, or reprocessing for road sanding, sand blasting, road
2608 construction, railway ballast, construction fill, aggregate, and other construction-related
2609 purposes.
2610 Section 47. Section 19-6-102.6 is amended to read:
2611 19-6-102.6. Legislative participation in landfill siting disputes.
2612 (1) (a) Upon the Legislature's receipt of a written request by a county governing body
2613 or a member of the Legislature whose district is involved in a landfill siting dispute, the
2614 president of the Senate and the speaker of the House shall appoint a committee as described
2615 under Subsection (2) and volunteers under Subsection (3) to actively seek an acceptable
2616 location for a municipal landfill if there is a dispute between two or more counties regarding
2617 the proposed site of a municipal landfill.
2618 (b) The president and the speaker shall consult with the legislators appointed under this
2619 subsection regarding their appointment of members of the committee under Subsection (2), and
2620 volunteers under Subsection (3).
2621 (2) The committee shall consist of the following members, appointed jointly by the
2622 president and the speaker:
2623 (a) two members from the Senate:
2624 (i) one member from the county where the proposed landfill site is located; and
2625 (ii) one member from the other county involved in the dispute, but if more than one
2626 other county is involved, still only one senator from one of those counties;
2627 (b) two members from the House:
2628 (i) one member from the county where the proposed landfill site is located; and
2629 (ii) one member from the other county involved in the dispute, but if more than one
2630 other county is involved, still only one representative from one of those counties;
2631 (c) one individual whose current principal residence is within a community located
2632 within 20 miles of any exterior boundary of the proposed landfill site, but if no community is
2633 located within 20 miles of the community, then an individual whose current residence is in the
2634 community nearest the proposed landfill site;
2635 (d) two resident citizens from the county where the proposed landfill site is located;
2636 and
2637 (e) three resident citizens from the other county involved in the dispute, but if more
2638 than one other county is involved, still only three citizen representatives from those counties.
2639 (3) Two volunteers shall be appointed under Subsection (1). The volunteers shall be
2640 individuals who agree to assist, as requested, the committee members who represent the
2641 interests of the county where the proposed landfill site is located.
2642 (4) (a) Funding and staffing for the committee shall be provided jointly and equally by
2643 the Senate and the House.
2644 (b) The Department of Environmental Quality shall, at the request of the committee
2645 and as funds are available within the department's existing budget, provide support in arranging
2646 for committee hearings to receive public input and secretarial staff to make a record of those
2647 hearings.
2648 (5) The committee shall:
2649 (a) appoint a chair from among its members; and
2650 (b) meet as necessary, but not less often than once per month, until its work is
2651 completed.
2652 (6) The committee shall report in writing the results of its work and any
2653 recommendations it may have for legislative action to the interim committees of the Legislature
2654 as directed by the Legislative Management Committee.
2655 (7) (a) All action by the division, the [
2656 board of the Department of Environmental Quality regarding any proposed municipal landfill
2657 site, regarding which a request has been submitted under Subsection (1), is tolled for one year
2658 from the date the request is submitted, or until the committee completes its work under this
2659 section, whichever occurs first. This Subsection (7) also tolls the time limits imposed by
2660 Subsection 19-6-108 (13).
2661 (b) This Subsection (7) applies to any proposed landfill site regarding which the
2662 department has not granted final approval on or before March 21, 1995.
2663 (c) As used in this Subsection (7), "final approval" means final agency action taken
2664 after conclusion of proceedings under Sections 63G-4-207 through 63G-4-405 .
2665 (8) This section does not apply to a municipal solid waste facility that is, on or before
2666 March 23, 1994:
2667 (a) operating under an existing permit or the renewal of an existing permit issued by
2668 the local health department or other authority granted by the Department of Environmental
2669 Quality; or
2670 (b) operating under the approval of the local health department, regardless of whether a
2671 formal permit has been issued.
2672 Section 48. Section 19-6-103 is amended to read:
2673 19-6-103. Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board -- Members -- Terms --
2674 Organization -- Meetings -- Per diem and expenses.
2675 (1) The [
2676
2677 (a) (i) the executive director [
2678 (ii) an employee of the department designated by the executive director; and
2679 (b) the following eight members, who shall be nominated by the executive director and
2680 appointed by the governor with the consent of the Senate[
2681 (i) one representative who:
2682 (A) is not connected with industry;
2683 (B) is an expert in waste management matters; and
2684 (C) is a Utah-licensed professional engineer;
2685 (ii) two government representatives who do not represent the federal government;
2686 (iii) one representative from the manufacturing, mining, or fuel industry;
2687 (iv) one representative from either:
2688 (A) the private solid or hazardous waste disposal industry; or
2689 (B) the private hazardous waste recovery industry;
2690 (v) one representative from the public who represents a nongovernmental organization;
2691 (vi) one representative from the public who is trained and experienced in public health;
2692 and
2693 (vii) one Utah-licensed practicing attorney who is knowledgeable about waste
2694 management regulatory issues.
2695 (2) [
2696 (a) be knowledgeable about solid and hazardous waste matters [
2697 evidenced by a professional degree, a professional accreditation, or documented experience;
2698 [
2699 [
2700 [
2701 [
2702 [
2703
2704 [
2705 [
2706 [
2707 [
2708
2709 (b) be a resident of Utah;
2710 (c) attend board meetings in accordance with the attendance rules made by the
2711 department under Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(i)(A); and
2712 (d) comply with all applicable statutes, rules, and policies, including the conflict of
2713 interest rules made by the department in accordance with Subsection 19-1-201 (1)(d)(ii)(B).
2714 (3) [
2715 political party.
2716 (4) (a) [
2717 appointed for terms of four years each.
2718 (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (4)(a), the governor shall, at the
2719 time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms of
2720 board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed every two
2721 years.
2722 (5) Each member is eligible for reappointment.
2723 (6) Board members shall continue in office until the expiration of their terms and until
2724 their successors are appointed, but not more than 90 days after the expiration of their terms.
2725 (7) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall be
2726 appointed for the unexpired term by the governor, after considering recommendations of the
2727 board and with the consent of the Senate.
2728 (8) The board shall elect a chair and vice chair on or before April 1 of each year from
2729 its membership.
2730 (9) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
2731 may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
2732 (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
2733 (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
2734 (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
2735 63A-3-107 .
2736 (10) (a) The board shall hold a meeting at least once every three months including one
2737 meeting during each annual general session of the Legislature.
2738 (b) Meetings shall be held on the call of the chair, the [
2739 any three of the members.
2740 (11) [
2741 majority of members present is the action of the board.
2742 Section 49. Section 19-6-104 is amended to read:
2743 19-6-104. Powers of board -- Creation of statewide solid waste management plan.
2744 (1) The board shall:
2745 (a) survey solid and hazardous waste generation and management practices within this
2746 state and, after public hearing and after providing opportunities for comment by local
2747 governmental entities, industry, and other interested persons, prepare and revise, as necessary, a
2748 waste management plan for the state;
2749 [
2750 [
2751
2752
2753
2754 [
2755
2756 [
2757
2758 [
2759
2760 (b) order the director to:
2761 [
2762 [
2763 (ii) enforce [
2764
2765 (iii) initiate judicial proceedings to secure compliance with this part;
2766 [
2767
2768 [
2769
2770 [
2771
2772
2773 [
2774 the unnecessary waste and depletion of natural resources;
2775 [
2776 insure that the solid and hazardous wastes program provided for in this part is qualified to
2777 assume primacy from the federal government in control over solid and hazardous waste;
2778 [
2779 intended for disposing of nonhazardous solid waste or wastes listed in Subsection
2780 (1)[
2781 the board prior to construction, modification, installation, or establishment of a facility to allow
2782 the board to determine whether the proposed construction, modification, installation, or
2783 establishment of the facility will be in accordance with rules made under this part;
2784 (ii) facilities referred to in Subsection (1)[
2785 (A) any incinerator that is intended for disposing of nonhazardous solid waste; and
2786 (B) except for facilities that receive the following wastes solely for the purpose of
2787 recycling, reuse, or reprocessing, any commercial facility that accepts for treatment or disposal,
2788 and with the intent to make a profit: fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, or flue gas
2789 emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
2790 wastes from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals; or cement kiln
2791 dust wastes; and
2792 [
2793
2794 (f) to ensure compliance with applicable statutes and regulations:
2795 (i) review a settlement negotiated by the director in accordance with Subsection
2796 19-6-107 (3)(a) that requires a civil penalty of $25,000 or more; and
2797 (ii) approve or disapprove the settlement.
2798 (2) The board may:
2799 (a) (i) hold a hearing that is not an adjudicative proceeding; or
2800 (ii) appoint hearing officers to conduct a hearing that is not an adjudicative proceeding;
2801 or
2802 (b) advise, consult, cooperate with, or provide technical assistance to other agencies of
2803 the state or federal government, other states, interstate agencies, or affected groups, political
2804 subdivisions, industries, or other persons in carrying out the purposes of this part.
2805 [
2806 management plan by January 1, 1994.
2807 (b) The plan shall:
2808 (i) incorporate the solid waste management plans submitted by the counties;
2809 (ii) provide an estimate of solid waste capacity needed in the state for the next 20
2810 years;
2811 (iii) assess the state's ability to minimize waste and recycle;
2812 (iv) evaluate solid waste treatment, disposal, and storage options, as well as solid waste
2813 needs and existing capacity;
2814 (v) evaluate facility siting, design, and operation;
2815 (vi) review funding alternatives for solid waste management; and
2816 (vii) address other solid waste management concerns that the board finds appropriate
2817 for the preservation of the public health and the environment.
2818 (c) The board shall consider the economic viability of solid waste management
2819 strategies prior to incorporating them into the plan and shall consider the needs of population
2820 centers.
2821 (d) The board shall review and modify the comprehensive statewide solid waste
2822 management plan no less frequently than every five years.
2823 [
2824 tonnage of solid waste disposed of in the state in developing the comprehensive statewide solid
2825 waste management plan.
2826 (b) The board shall review and modify the inventory no less frequently than once every
2827 five years.
2828 [
2829 board shall establish siting criteria for nonhazardous solid waste disposal facilities, including
2830 incinerators.
2831 (6) The board may not issue, amend, renew, modify, revoke, or terminate any of the
2832 following that are subject to the authority granted to the director under Section 19-6-107 :
2833 (a) a permit;
2834 (b) a license;
2835 (c) a registration;
2836 (d) a certification; or
2837 (e) another administrative authorization made by the director.
2838 (7) A board member may not speak or act for the board unless the board member is
2839 authorized by a majority of a quorum of the board in a vote taken at a meeting of the board.
2840 Section 50. Section 19-6-105 is amended to read:
2841 19-6-105. Rules of board.
2842 (1) The board may make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
2843 Administrative Rulemaking Act:
2844 (a) establishing minimum standards for protection of human health and the
2845 environment, for the storage, collection, transport, recovery, treatment, and disposal of solid
2846 waste, including requirements for the approval by the director of plans for the construction,
2847 extension, operation, and closure of solid waste disposal sites;
2848 (b) identifying wastes which are determined to be hazardous, including wastes
2849 designated as hazardous under Sec. 3001 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
2850 1976, 42 U.S.C., Sec. 6921, et seq.;
2851 (c) governing generators and transporters of hazardous wastes and owners and
2852 operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities, including requirements
2853 for keeping records, monitoring, submitting reports, and using a manifest, without treating
2854 high-volume wastes such as cement kiln dust, mining wastes, utility waste, gas and oil drilling
2855 muds, and oil production brines in a manner more stringent than they are treated under federal
2856 standards;
2857 (d) requiring an owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility that is
2858 subject to a plan approval under Section 19-6-108 or which received waste after July 26, 1982,
2859 to take appropriate corrective action or other response measures for releases of hazardous waste
2860 or hazardous waste constituents from the facility, including releases beyond the boundaries of
2861 the facility;
2862 (e) specifying the terms and conditions under which the [
2863 disapprove, revoke, or review hazardous wastes operation plans;
2864 (f) governing public hearings and participation under this part;
2865 (g) establishing standards governing underground storage tanks, in accordance with
2866 Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 4, Underground Storage Tank Act;
2867 (h) relating to the collection, transportation, processing, treatment, storage, and
2868 disposal of infectious waste in health facilities in accordance with the requirements of Section
2869 19-6-106 ;
2870 (i) defining closure plans as major or minor;
2871 (j) defining modification plans as major or minor; and
2872 (k) prohibiting refuse, offal, garbage, dead animals, decaying vegetable matter, or
2873 organic waste substance of any kind to be thrown, or remain upon or in any street, road, ditch,
2874 canal, gutter, public place, private premises, vacant lot, watercourse, lake, pond, spring, or
2875 well.
2876 (2) If any of the following are determined to be hazardous waste and are therefore
2877 subjected to the provisions of this part, the board shall, in the case of landfills or surface
2878 impoundments that receive the solid wastes, take into account the special characteristics of the
2879 wastes, the practical difficulties associated with applying requirements for other wastes to the
2880 wastes, and site specific characteristics, including the climate, geology, hydrology, and soil
2881 chemistry at the site, if the modified requirements assure protection of human health and the
2882 environment and are no more stringent than federal standards applicable to wastes:
2883 (a) solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, or processing of ores and minerals,
2884 including phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium;
2885 (b) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste
2886 generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels; and
2887 (c) cement kiln dust waste.
2888 (3) The board shall establish criteria for siting commercial hazardous waste treatment,
2889 storage, and disposal facilities, including commercial hazardous waste incinerators. Those
2890 criteria shall apply to any facility or incinerator for which plan approval is required under
2891 Section 19-6-108 .
2892 Section 51. Section 19-6-107 is amended to read:
2893 19-6-107. Director -- Appointment -- Powers.
2894 [
2895
2896
2897 (1) The executive director shall appoint the director. The director shall serve under the
2898 administrative direction of the executive director.
2899 (2) The director shall:
2900 (a) carry out inspections pursuant to Section 19-6-109 ;
2901 (b) require submittal of specifications or other information relating to hazardous waste
2902 plans for review, and approve, disapprove, revoke, or review the plans;
2903 [
2904 control within the state;
2905 [
2906 government, other states and interstate agencies, and with affected groups, political
2907 subdivisions, and industries in furtherance of the purposes of this part;
2908 (e) subject to the provisions of this part, enforce rules made or revised by the board
2909 through the issuance of orders;
2910 (f) review plans, specifications or other data relative to solid waste and hazardous
2911 waste control systems or any part of the systems as provided in this part;
2912 (g) under the direction of the executive director, represent the state in all matters
2913 pertaining to interstate solid waste and hazardous waste management and control including,
2914 under the direction of the board, entering into interstate compacts and other similar agreements;
2915 and
2916 (h) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this part, act as
2917 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
2918 (3) The director may:
2919 (a) subject to Subsection 19-6-104 (1)(f), settle or compromise any administrative or
2920 civil action initiated to compel compliance with this part and any rules adopted under this part;
2921 [
2922 [
2923 any employee or representative of the department to conduct inspections as permitted in this
2924 part;
2925 [
2926 demonstrations relating to solid waste and hazardous waste management and control necessary
2927 for the discharge of duties assigned under this part;
2928 [
2929 waste management control; and
2930 [
2931
2932
2933 [
2934
2935 [
2936 hazardous waste management and control[
2937 [
2938
2939
2940
2941 [
2942
2943 Section 52. Section 19-6-108 is amended to read:
2944 19-6-108. New nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste operation plans for
2945 facility or site -- Administrative and legislative approval required -- Exemptions from
2946 legislative and gubernatorial approval -- Time periods for review -- Information required
2947 -- Other conditions -- Revocation of approval -- Periodic review.
2948 (1) For purposes of this section, the following items shall be treated as submission of a
2949 new operation plan:
2950 (a) the submission of a revised operation plan specifying a different geographic site
2951 than a previously submitted plan;
2952 (b) an application for modification of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator if the
2953 construction or the modification would increase the hazardous waste incinerator capacity above
2954 the capacity specified in the operation plan as of January 1, 1990, or the capacity specified in
2955 the operation plan application as of January 1, 1990, if no operation plan approval has been
2956 issued as of January 1, 1990;
2957 (c) an application for modification of a commercial nonhazardous solid waste
2958 incinerator if the construction of the modification would cost 50% or more of the cost of
2959 construction of the original incinerator or the modification would result in an increase in the
2960 capacity or throughput of the incinerator of a cumulative total of 50% above the total capacity
2961 or throughput that was approved in the operation plan as of January 1, 1990, or the initial
2962 approved operation plan if the initial approval is subsequent to January 1, 1990;
2963 (d) an application for modification of a commercial nonhazardous solid or hazardous
2964 waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility, other than an incinerator, if the modification
2965 would be outside the boundaries of the property owned or controlled by the applicant, as shown
2966 in the application or approved operation plan as of January 1, 1990, or the initial approved
2967 operation plan if the initial approval is subsequent to January 1, 1990; or
2968 (e) a submission of an operation plan to construct a facility, if previous approvals of the
2969 operation plan to construct the facility have been revoked pursuant to Subsection (3)(c)(iii).
2970 (2) Capacity under Subsection (1)(b) shall be calculated based on the throughput
2971 tonnage specified for the trial burn in the operation plan or the operation plan application if no
2972 operation plan approval has been issued as of January 1, 1990, and on annual operations of
2973 7,000 hours.
2974 (3) (a) (i) No person may own, construct, modify, or operate any facility or site for the
2975 purpose of disposing of nonhazardous solid waste or treating, storing, or disposing of
2976 hazardous waste without first submitting and receiving the approval of the [
2977
2978 (ii) (A) A permittee who is the current owner of a facility or site that is subject to an
2979 operation plan may submit to the [
2980 other request for approval for a proposed activity under an operation plan:
2981 (I) after obtaining the consent of any other permittee who is a current owner of the
2982 facility or site; and
2983 (II) without obtaining the consent of any other permittee who is not a current owner of
2984 the facility or site.
2985 (B) The [
2986 (I) withhold an approval of an operation plan requested by a permittee who is a current
2987 owner of the facility or site on the grounds that another permittee who is not a current owner of
2988 the facility or site has not consented to the request; or
2989 (II) give an approval of an operation plan requested by a permittee who is not a current
2990 owner before receiving consent of the current owner of the facility or site.
2991 (b) (i) Except for facilities that receive the following wastes solely for the purpose of
2992 recycling, reuse, or reprocessing, no person may own, construct, modify, or operate any
2993 commercial facility that accepts for treatment or disposal, with the intent to make a profit, any
2994 of the wastes listed in Subsection (3)(b)(ii) without first submitting a request to and receiving
2995 the approval of the [
2996 (ii) Wastes referred to in Subsection (3)(b)(i) are:
2997 (A) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, or flue gas emission control waste
2998 generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
2999 (B) wastes from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals; or
3000 (C) cement kiln dust wastes.
3001 (c) (i) No person may construct a facility listed under Subsection (3)(c)(ii) until the
3002 person receives:
3003 (A) local government approval and the approval described in Subsection (3)(a);
3004 (B) approval from the Legislature; and
3005 (C) after receiving the approvals described in Subsections (3)(c)(i)(A) and (B),
3006 approval from the governor.
3007 (ii) A facility referred to in Subsection (3)(c)(i) is:
3008 (A) a commercial nonhazardous solid waste disposal facility;
3009 (B) except for facilities that receive the following wastes solely for the purpose of
3010 recycling, reuse, or reprocessing, any commercial facility that accepts for treatment or disposal,
3011 with the intent to make a profit: fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, or flue gas
3012 emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels;
3013 wastes from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals; or cement kiln
3014 dust wastes; or
3015 (C) a commercial hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility.
3016 (iii) The required approvals described in Subsection (3)(c)(i) for a facility described in
3017 Subsection (3)(c)(ii)(A) or (B) are automatically revoked if:
3018 (A) the governor's approval is received on or after May 10, 2011, and the facility is not
3019 operational within five years after the day on which the governor's approval is received; or
3020 (B) the governor's approval is received before May 10, 2011, and the facility is not
3021 operational on or before May 10, 2016.
3022 (iv) The required approvals described in Subsection (3)(c)(i) for a facility described in
3023 Subsection (3)(c)(ii)(A) or (B), including the approved operation plan, are not transferrable to
3024 another person for five years after the day on which the governor's approval is received.
3025 (d) No person need obtain gubernatorial or legislative approval for the construction of
3026 a hazardous waste facility for which an operating plan has been approved by or submitted for
3027 approval to the executive secretary of the board under this section before April 24, 1989, and
3028 which has been determined, on or before December 31, 1990, by the executive secretary of the
3029 board to be complete, in accordance with state and federal requirements for operating plans for
3030 hazardous waste facilities even if a different geographic site is subsequently submitted.
3031 (e) No person need obtain gubernatorial and legislative approval for the construction of
3032 a commercial nonhazardous solid waste disposal facility for which an operation plan has been
3033 approved by or submitted for approval to the executive secretary of the board under this section
3034 on or before January 1, 1990, and which, on or before December 31, 1990, the executive
3035 secretary of the board determines to be complete, in accordance with state and federal
3036 requirements applicable to operation plans for nonhazardous solid waste facilities.
3037 (f) Any person owning or operating a facility or site on or before November 19, 1980,
3038 who has given timely notification as required by Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation
3039 and Recovery Act of 1976, 42 U.S.C. Section 6921, et seq., and who has submitted a proposed
3040 hazardous waste plan under this section for that facility or site, may continue to operate that
3041 facility or site without violating this section until the plan is approved or disapproved under
3042 this section.
3043 (g) (i) The [
3044 applications for a commercial nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste facility upon a finding
3045 that the [
3046 facilities for permit compliance, monitoring, and enforcement.
3047 (ii) The [
3048 Resources, Agriculture, and Environment Interim Committee.
3049 (4) The [
3050 or hazardous waste operation plan to determine whether that plan complies with the provisions
3051 of this part and the applicable rules of the board.
3052 (5) (a) If the facility is a class I or class II facility, the [
3053 shall approve or disapprove that plan within 270 days from the date it is submitted.
3054 (b) Within 60 days after receipt of the plans, specifications, or other information
3055 required by this section for a class I or II facility, the [
3056 determine whether the plan is complete and contains all information necessary to process the
3057 plan for approval.
3058 (c) (i) If the plan for a class I or II facility is determined to be complete, the [
3059
3060 (ii) If the plan is determined by the [
3061 [
3062 information to be provided by the owner or operator to complete the plan.
3063 (d) The [
3064 a notice of deficiency within 30 days after receipt.
3065 (e) The following time periods may not be included in the 270 day plan review period
3066 for a class I or II facility:
3067 (i) time awaiting response from the owner or operator to requests for information
3068 issued by the [
3069 (ii) time required for public participation and hearings for issuance of plan approvals;
3070 and
3071 (iii) time for review of the permit by other federal or state government agencies.
3072 (6) (a) If the facility is a class III or class IV facility, the [
3073 shall approve or disapprove that plan within 365 days from the date it is submitted.
3074 (b) The following time periods may not be included in the 365 day review period:
3075 (i) time awaiting response from the owner or operator to requests for information
3076 issued by the [
3077 (ii) time required for public participation and hearings for issuance of plan approvals;
3078 and
3079 (iii) time for review of the permit by other federal or state government agencies.
3080 (7) If, within 365 days after receipt of a modification plan or closure plan for any
3081 facility, the [
3082 will not comply with applicable rules, the [
3083 prohibiting any action under the proposed plan for modification or closure in whole or in part.
3084 (8) Any person who owns or operates a facility or site required to have an approved
3085 hazardous waste operation plan under this section and who has pending a permit application
3086 before the United States Environmental Protection Agency shall be treated as having an
3087 approved plan until final administrative disposition of the permit application is made under this
3088 section, unless the [
3089 application has not been made because of the failure of the owner or operator to furnish any
3090 information requested, or the facility's interim status has terminated under Section 3005 (e) of
3091 the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C. Section 6925 (e).
3092 (9) No proposed nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste operation plan may be
3093 approved unless it contains the information that the board requires, including:
3094 (a) estimates of the composition, quantities, and concentrations of any hazardous waste
3095 identified under this part and the proposed treatment, storage, or disposal of it;
3096 (b) evidence that the disposal of nonhazardous solid waste or treatment, storage, or
3097 disposal of hazardous waste will not be done in a manner that may cause or significantly
3098 contribute to an increase in mortality, an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating
3099 reversible illness, or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the
3100 environment;
3101 (c) consistent with the degree and duration of risks associated with the disposal of
3102 nonhazardous solid waste or treatment, storage, or disposal of specified hazardous waste,
3103 evidence of financial responsibility in whatever form and amount that the [
3104 director determines is necessary to insure continuity of operation and that upon abandonment,
3105 cessation, or interruption of the operation of the facility or site, all reasonable measures
3106 consistent with the available knowledge will be taken to insure that the waste subsequent to
3107 being treated, stored, or disposed of at the site or facility will not present a hazard to the public
3108 or the environment;
3109 (d) evidence that the personnel employed at the facility or site have education and
3110 training for the safe and adequate handling of nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste;
3111 (e) plans, specifications, and other information that the [
3112 considers relevant to determine whether the proposed nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste
3113 operation plan will comply with this part and the rules of the board; and
3114 (f) compliance schedules, where applicable, including schedules for corrective action
3115 or other response measures for releases from any solid waste management unit at the facility,
3116 regardless of the time the waste was placed in the unit.
3117 (10) The [
3118 solid or hazardous waste operation plan that meets the requirements of Subsection (9) unless it
3119 contains the information required by the board, including:
3120 (a) evidence that the proposed commercial facility has a proven market of
3121 nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste, including:
3122 (i) information on the source, quantity, and price charged for treating, storing, and
3123 disposing of potential nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste in the state and regionally;
3124 (ii) a market analysis of the need for a commercial facility given existing and potential
3125 generation of nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste in the state and regionally; and
3126 (iii) a review of other existing and proposed commercial nonhazardous solid or
3127 hazardous waste facilities regionally and nationally that would compete for the treatment,
3128 storage, or disposal of the nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste;
3129 (b) a description of the public benefits of the proposed facility, including:
3130 (i) the need in the state for the additional capacity for the management of nonhazardous
3131 solid or hazardous waste;
3132 (ii) the energy and resources recoverable by the proposed facility;
3133 (iii) the reduction of nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste management methods,
3134 which are less suitable for the environment, that would be made possible by the proposed
3135 facility; and
3136 (iv) whether any other available site or method for the management of hazardous waste
3137 would be less detrimental to the public health or safety or to the quality of the environment;
3138 and
3139 (c) compliance history of an owner or operator of a proposed commercial
3140 nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility, which may be
3141 applied by the [
3142 operation plan decision, including any plan conditions.
3143 (11) The [
3144 solid or hazardous waste facility operation plan unless based on the application, and in addition
3145 to the determination required in Subsections (9) and (10), the [
3146 determines that:
3147 (a) the probable beneficial environmental effect of the facility to the state outweighs
3148 the probable adverse environmental effect; and
3149 (b) there is a need for the facility to serve industry within the state.
3150 (12) Approval of a nonhazardous solid or hazardous waste operation plan may be
3151 revoked, in whole or in part, if the person to whom approval of the plan has been given fails to
3152 comply with that plan.
3153 (13) The [
3154 and hazardous waste operation plans at least once every five years.
3155 (14) The provisions of Subsections (10) and (11) do not apply to hazardous waste
3156 facilities in existence or to applications filed or pending in the department prior to April 24,
3157 1989, that are determined by the executive secretary of the board on or before December 31,
3158 1990, to be complete, in accordance with state and federal requirements applicable to operation
3159 plans for hazardous waste facilities.
3160 (15) The provisions of Subsections (9), (10), and (11) do not apply to a nonhazardous
3161 solid waste facility in existence or to an application filed or pending in the department prior to
3162 January 1, 1990, that is determined by the [
3163 December 31, 1990, to be complete in accordance with state and federal requirements
3164 applicable to operation plans for nonhazardous solid waste facilities.
3165 (16) Nonhazardous solid waste generated outside of this state that is defined as
3166 hazardous waste in the state where it is generated and which is received for disposal in this
3167 state may not be disposed of at a nonhazardous waste disposal facility owned and operated by
3168 local government or a facility under contract with a local government solely for disposal of
3169 nonhazardous solid waste generated within the boundaries of the local government, unless
3170 disposal is approved by the [
3171 (17) This section may not be construed to exempt any facility from applicable
3172 regulation under the federal Atomic Energy Act, 42 U.S.C. Sections 2014 and 2021 through
3173 2114.
3174 Section 53. Section 19-6-108.3 is amended to read:
3175 19-6-108.3. Director to issue written assurances, make determinations, and
3176 partition operation plans -- Board to make rules.
3177 (1) Based upon risk to human health or the environment from potential exposure to
3178 hazardous waste, the [
3179 (a) even if corrective action is incomplete, issue an enforceable written assurance to a
3180 person acquiring an interest in real property covered by an operation plan that the person to
3181 whom the assurance is issued:
3182 (i) is not a permittee under the operation plan; and
3183 (ii) will not be subject to an enforcement action under this part for contamination that
3184 exists or for violations under this part that occurred before the person acquired the interest in
3185 the real property covered by the operation plan;
3186 (b) determine that corrective action to the real property covered by the operation plan
3187 is:
3188 (i) complete;
3189 (ii) incomplete;
3190 (iii) unnecessary with an environmental covenant; or
3191 (iv) unnecessary without an environmental covenant; and
3192 (c) partition from an operation plan a portion of real property subject to the operation
3193 plan after determining that corrective action for that portion of real property is:
3194 (i) complete;
3195 (ii) unnecessary with an environmental covenant; or
3196 (iii) unnecessary without an environmental covenant.
3197 (2) If the [
3198 necessary under Subsection (1)(b) or (c), the [
3199 real property be subject to an environmental covenant according to Title 57, Chapter 25,
3200 Uniform Environmental Covenants Act.
3201 (3) An assurance issued under Subsection (1) protects the person to whom the
3202 assurance is issued from any cost recovery and contribution action under state law.
3203 (4) By following the procedures and requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
3204 Administrative Rulemaking Act, the board may adopt rules to administer this section.
3205 Section 54. Section 19-6-109 is amended to read:
3206 19-6-109. Inspections authorized.
3207 Any duly authorized officer, employee, or representative of the [
3208 any reasonable time and upon presentation of appropriate credentials, enter upon and inspect
3209 any property, premise, or place on or at which solid or hazardous wastes are generated,
3210 transported, stored, treated, or disposed of, and have access to and the right to copy any records
3211 relating to the wastes, for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with this part and the rules of
3212 the board. Those persons referred to in this section may also inspect any waste and obtain
3213 waste samples, including samples from any vehicle in which wastes are being transported or
3214 samples of any containers or labels. Any person obtaining samples shall give to the owner,
3215 operator, or agent a receipt describing the sample obtained and, if requested, a portion of each
3216 sample of waste equal in volume or weight to the portion retained. If any analysis is made of
3217 those samples, a copy of the results of that analysis shall be furnished promptly to the owner,
3218 operator, or agent in charge.
3219 Section 55. Section 19-6-112 is amended to read:
3220 19-6-112. Notice of violations -- Order for correction -- Civil action to enforce.
3221 (1) Whenever the [
3222 applicable approved hazardous wastes operation plan or solid waste plan, the requirements of
3223 this part, or any of the board's rules, [
3224 to be served upon the alleged violator. The notice shall specify the provisions of the plan, this
3225 part or rule alleged to have been violated, and the facts alleged to constitute the violation.
3226 (2) The [
3227 (a) issue an order requiring that necessary corrective action be taken within a
3228 reasonable time; or
3229 (b) request the attorney general or the county attorney in the county in which the
3230 violation is taking place to bring a civil action for injunctive relief and enforcement of this part.
3231 (3) Pending promulgation of rules for corrective action under Section 19-6-105 , the
3232 [
3233 carry out the purposes of this part.
3234 Section 56. Section 19-6-117 is amended to read:
3235 19-6-117. Action against insurer or guarantor.
3236 (1) The state may assert a cause of action directly against an insurer or guarantor of an
3237 owner or operator if:
3238 (a) a cause of action exists against an owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or
3239 disposal facility, based upon conduct for which the [
3240 financial responsibility under Section 19-6-108 , and that owner or operator is in bankruptcy,
3241 reorganization, or arrangement pursuant to the federal Bankruptcy Code; or
3242 (b) jurisdiction over an owner or operator, who is likely to be solvent at the time of
3243 judgment, cannot be obtained in state or federal court.
3244 (2) In that action, the insurer or guarantor may assert all rights and defenses available
3245 to the owner or operator, in addition to rights and defenses that would be available to the
3246 insurer or guarantor in an action brought against him by the owner or operator.
3247 Section 57. Section 19-6-119 is amended to read:
3248 19-6-119. Nonhazardous solid waste disposal fees.
3249 (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (5), the owner or operator of a commercial
3250 nonhazardous solid waste disposal facility or incinerator shall pay the following fees for waste
3251 received for treatment or disposal at the facility if the facility or incinerator is required to have
3252 operation plan approval under Section 19-6-108 and primarily receives waste generated by
3253 off-site sources not owned, controlled, or operated by the facility or site owner or operator:
3254 (i) 13 cents per ton on all municipal waste and municipal incinerator ash;
3255 (ii) 50 cents per ton on the following wastes if the facility disposes of one or more of
3256 the following wastes in a cell exclusively designated for the waste being disposed:
3257 (A) construction waste or demolition waste;
3258 (B) yard waste, including vegetative matter resulting from landscaping, land
3259 maintenance, and land clearing operations;
3260 (C) dead animals;
3261 (D) waste tires and materials derived from waste tires disposed of in accordance with
3262 Title 19, Chapter 6, Part 8, Waste Tire Recycling Act; and
3263 (E) petroleum contaminated soils that are approved by the [
3264 director; and
3265 (iii) $2.50 per ton on:
3266 (A) all nonhazardous solid waste not described in Subsections (1)(a)(i) and (ii); and
3267 (B) (I) fly ash waste;
3268 (II) bottom ash waste;
3269 (III) slag waste;
3270 (IV) flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal
3271 or other fossil fuels;
3272 (V) waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals; and
3273 (VI) cement kiln dust wastes.
3274 (b) A commercial nonhazardous solid waste disposal facility or incinerator subject to
3275 the fees under Subsection (1)(a)(i) or (ii) is not subject to the fee under Subsection (1)(a)(iii)
3276 for those wastes described in Subsections (1)(a)(i) and (ii).
3277 (c) The owner or operator of a facility described in Subsection 19-6-102 (3)(b)(iii) shall
3278 pay a fee of 13 cents per ton on all municipal waste received for disposal at the facility.
3279 (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsections (2)(b) and (5), a waste facility that is owned
3280 by a political subdivision shall pay the following annual facility fee to the department by
3281 January 15 of each year:
3282 (i) $800 if the facility receives 5,000 or more but fewer than 10,000 tons of municipal
3283 waste each year;
3284 (ii) $1,450 if the facility receives 10,000 or more but fewer than 20,000 tons of
3285 municipal waste each year;
3286 (iii) $3,850 if the facility receives 20,000 or more but fewer than 50,000 tons of
3287 municipal waste each year;
3288 (iv) $12,250 if the facility receives 50,000 or more but fewer than 100,000 tons of
3289 municipal waste each year;
3290 (v) $14,700 if the facility receives 100,000 or more but fewer than 200,000 tons of
3291 municipal waste each year;
3292 (vi) $33,000 if the facility receives 200,000 or more but fewer than 500,000 tons of
3293 municipal waste each year; and
3294 (vii) $66,000 if the facility receives 500,000 or more tons of municipal waste each
3295 year.
3296 (b) Except as provided in Subsection (5), a waste facility that is owned by a political
3297 subdivision shall pay $2.50 per ton for:
3298 (i) nonhazardous solid waste that is not a waste described in Subsection (1)(a)(i) or (ii)
3299 received for disposal if the waste is:
3300 (A) generated outside the boundaries of the political subdivision; and
3301 (B) received from a single generator and exceeds 500 tons in a calendar year; and
3302 (ii) waste described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(B) received for disposal if the waste is:
3303 (A) generated outside the boundaries of the political subdivision; and
3304 (B) received from a single generator and exceeds 500 tons in a calendar year.
3305 (c) Waste received at a facility owned by a political subdivision under Subsection
3306 (2)(b) may not be counted as part of the total tonnage received by the facility under Subsection
3307 (2)(a).
3308 (3) (a) As used in this Subsection (3):
3309 (i) "Recycling center" means a facility that extracts valuable materials from a waste
3310 stream or transforms or remanufactures the material into a usable form that has demonstrated
3311 or potential market value.
3312 (ii) "Transfer station" means a permanent, fixed, supplemental collection and
3313 transportation facility that is used to deposit collected solid waste from off-site into a transfer
3314 vehicle for transport to a solid waste handling or disposal facility.
3315 (b) Except as provided in Subsection (5), the owner or operator of a transfer station or
3316 recycling center shall pay to the department the following fees on waste sent for disposal to a
3317 nonhazardous solid waste disposal or treatment facility that is not subject to a fee under this
3318 section:
3319 (i) $1.25 per ton on:
3320 (A) all nonhazardous solid waste; and
3321 (B) waste described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(B);
3322 (ii) 10 cents per ton on all construction and demolition waste; and
3323 (iii) 5 cents per ton on all municipal waste or municipal incinerator ash.
3324 (c) Wastes subject to fees under Subsection (3)(b)(ii) or (iii) are not subject to the fee
3325 required under Subsection (3)(b)(i).
3326 (4) If a facility required to pay fees under this section receives nonhazardous solid
3327 waste for treatment or disposal, and the fee required under this section is paid for that treatment
3328 or disposal, any subsequent treatment or disposal of the waste is not subject to additional fees
3329 under this section.
3330 (5) The owner or operator of a waste disposal facility that receives waste described in
3331 Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(B) is not required to pay any fee on those wastes if received solely for the
3332 purpose of recycling, reuse, or reprocessing.
3333 (6) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(a), a facility required to pay fees under this
3334 section shall:
3335 (a) calculate the fees by multiplying the total tonnage of waste received during the
3336 calendar month, computed to the first decimal place, by the required fee rate;
3337 (b) pay the fees imposed by this section to the department by the 15th day of the month
3338 following the month in which the fees accrued; and
3339 (c) with the fees required under Subsection (6)(b), submit to the department, on a form
3340 prescribed by the department, information that verifies the amount of waste received and the
3341 fees that the owner or operator is required to pay.
3342 (7) The department shall:
3343 (a) deposit all fees received under this section into the Environmental Quality
3344 Restricted Account created in Section 19-1-108 ; and
3345 (b) in preparing its budget for the governor and the Legislature, separately indicate the
3346 amount of the department's budget necessary to administer the solid and hazardous waste
3347 program established by this part.
3348 (8) The department may contract or agree with a county to assist in performing
3349 nonhazardous solid waste management activities, including agreements for:
3350 (a) the development of a solid waste management plan required under Section
3351 17-15-23 ; and
3352 (b) pass-through of available funding.
3353 (9) This section does not exempt any facility from applicable regulation under the
3354 Atomic Energy Act, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 2014 and 2021 through 2114.
3355 Section 58. Section 19-6-120 is amended to read:
3356 19-6-120. New hazardous waste operation plans -- Designation of hazardous
3357 waste facilities -- Fees for filing and plan review.
3358 (1) For purposes of this section, the following items shall be treated as submission of a
3359 new hazardous waste operation plan:
3360 (a) the submission of a revised hazardous waste operation plan specifying a different
3361 geographic site than a previously submitted plan;
3362 (b) an application for modification of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator if the
3363 construction or the modification would increase the commercial hazardous waste incinerator
3364 capacity above the capacity specified in the operation plan as of January 1, 1990, or the
3365 capacity specified in the operation plan application as of January 1, 1990, if no operation plan
3366 approval has been issued as of January 1, 1990; or
3367 (c) an application for modification of a commercial hazardous waste treatment, storage,
3368 or disposal facility, other than an incinerator, if the modification would be outside the
3369 boundaries of the property owned or controlled by the applicant, as shown in the application or
3370 approved operation plan as of January 1, 1990, or the initial approved operation plan if initial
3371 approval is subsequent to January 1, 1990.
3372 (2) Capacity under Subsection (1)(b) shall be calculated based on the throughput
3373 tonnage specified for the trial burn in the operation plan or the operation plan application if no
3374 operation plan approval has been issued as of January 1, 1990, and on annual operations of
3375 7,000 hours.
3376 (3) (a) Hazardous waste facilities that are subject to payment of fees under this section
3377 or Section 19-1-201 for plan reviews under Section 19-6-108 shall be designated by the
3378 department as either class I, class II, class III, or class IV facilities.
3379 (b) The department shall designate commercial hazardous waste facilities containing
3380 either landfills, surface impoundments, land treatment units, thermal treatment units,
3381 incinerators, or underground injection wells, which primarily receive wastes generated by
3382 off-site sources not owned, controlled, or operated by the facility owner or operator, as class I
3383 facilities.
3384 (4) The maximum fee for filing and review of each class I facility operation plan is
3385 $200,000, and is due and payable as follows:
3386 (a) The owner or operator of a class I facility shall, at the time of filing for plan review,
3387 pay to the department the nonrefundable sum of $50,000.
3388 (b) Upon issuance by the [
3389 under Section 19-6-108 , the owner or operator of the facility shall pay to the department an
3390 additional nonrefundable sum of $50,000.
3391 (c) The department shall bill the owner or operator of the facility for any additional
3392 actual costs of plan review, up to an additional $100,000.
3393 (5) (a) The department shall designate hazardous waste incinerators that primarily
3394 receive wastes generated by sources owned, controlled, or operated by the facility owner or
3395 operator as class II facilities.
3396 (b) The maximum fee for filing and review of each class II facility operation plan is
3397 $150,000, and shall be due and payable as follows:
3398 (i) The owner or operator of a class II facility shall, at the time of filing for plan review
3399 under Section 19-6-108 , pay to the department the nonrefundable sum of $50,000.
3400 (ii) The department shall bill the owner or operator of the facility for any additional
3401 actual costs of plan review, up to an additional $100,000.
3402 (6) (a) The department shall designate hazardous waste facilities containing either
3403 landfills, surface impoundments, land treatment units, thermal treatment units, or underground
3404 injection wells, that primarily receive wastes generated by sources owned, controlled, or
3405 operated by the facility owner or operator, as class III facilities.
3406 (b) The maximum fee for filing and review of each class III facility operation plan is
3407 $100,000 and is due and payable as follows:
3408 (i) The owner or operator shall, at the time of filing for plan review, pay to the
3409 department the nonrefundable sum of $1,000.
3410 (ii) The department shall bill the owner or operator of each class III facility for actual
3411 costs of operation plan review, up to an additional $99,000.
3412 (7) (a) All other hazardous waste facilities are designated as class IV facilities.
3413 (b) The maximum fee for filing and review of each class IV facility operation plan is
3414 $50,000 and is due and payable as follows:
3415 (i) The owner or operator shall, at the time of filing for plan review, pay to the
3416 department the nonrefundable sum of $1,000.
3417 (ii) The department shall bill the owner or operator of each class IV facility for actual
3418 costs of operation plan review, up to an additional $49,000.
3419 (8) (a) The maximum fee for filing and review of each major modification plan and
3420 major closure plan for a class I, class II, or class III facility is $50,000 and is due and payable as
3421 follows:
3422 (i) The owner or operator shall, at the time of filing for that review, pay to the
3423 department the nonrefundable sum of $1,000.
3424 (ii) The department shall bill the owner or operator of the hazardous waste facility for
3425 actual costs of the review, up to an additional $49,000.
3426 (b) The maximum fee for filing and review of each minor modification and minor
3427 closure plan for a class I, class II, or class III facility, and of any modification or closure plan
3428 for a class IV facility, is $20,000, and is due and payable as follows:
3429 (i) The owner or operator shall, at the time of filing for that review, pay to the
3430 department the nonrefundable sum of $1,000.
3431 (ii) The department shall bill the owner or operator of the hazardous waste facility for
3432 actual costs of review up to an additional $19,000.
3433 (c) The owner or operator of a thermal treatment unit shall submit a trial or test burn
3434 schedule 90 days prior to any planned trial or test burn. At the time the schedule is submitted,
3435 the owner or operator shall pay to the department the nonrefundable fee of $25,000. The
3436 department shall apply the fee to the costs of the review and processing of each trial or test
3437 burn plan, trial or test burn, and trial or test burn data report. The department shall bill the
3438 owner or operator of the facility for any additional actual costs of review and preparation.
3439 (9) (a) The owner or operator of a class III facility may obtain a plan review within the
3440 time periods for a class II facility operation plan by paying, at the time of filing for plan review,
3441 the maximum fee for a class II facility operation plan.
3442 (b) The owner or operator of a class IV facility may obtain a plan review within the
3443 time periods for a class II facility operation plan by paying, at the time of filing for plan review,
3444 the maximum fee for a class III facility operation plan.
3445 (c) An owner or operator of a class I, class II, or class III facility who submits a major
3446 modification plan or a major closure plan may obtain a plan review within the time periods for
3447 a class II facility operation plan by paying, at the time of filing for plan review, the maximum
3448 fee for a class II facility operation plan.
3449 (d) An owner or operator of a class I, class II, or class III facility who submits a minor
3450 modification plan or a minor closure plan, and an owner or operator of a class IV facility who
3451 submits a modification plan or a closure plan, may obtain a plan review within the time periods
3452 for a class II facility operation plan by paying, at the time of filing for plan review, the
3453 maximum fee for a class III facility operation plan.
3454 (10) All fees received by the department under this section shall be deposited in the
3455 General Fund as dedicated credits for hazardous waste plan reviews in accordance with
3456 Subsection (12) and Section 19-6-108 .
3457 (11) (a) (i) The [
3458 that separately accounts for fees paid by each owner or operator who submits a hazardous
3459 waste operation plan for approval under Section 19-6-108 and pays fees for hazardous waste
3460 plan reviews under this section or Section 19-1-201 .
3461 (ii) The [
3462 to that owner or operator.
3463 (iii) The [
3464 reviewing each operation plan and may only use the fees of each owner or operator for review
3465 of that owner or operator's plan.
3466 (b) If the costs actually incurred by the department in reviewing a hazardous waste
3467 operation plan of any facility are less than the nonrefundable fee paid by the owner or operator
3468 under this section, the department may, upon approval or disapproval of the plan by the board
3469 or upon withdrawal of the plan by the owner or operator, use any remaining funds that have
3470 been credited to that owner or operator for the purposes of administering provisions of the
3471 hazardous waste programs and activities authorized by this part.
3472 (12) (a) With regard to any review of a hazardous waste operation plan, modification
3473 plan, or closure plan that is pending on April 25, 1988, the [
3474 assess fees for that plan review.
3475 (b) The total amount of fees paid by an owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility
3476 whose plan review is affected by this subsection may not exceed the maximum fees allowable
3477 under this section for the appropriate class of facility.
3478 (13) (a) The department shall maintain accurate records of its actual costs for each plan
3479 review under this section.
3480 (b) Those records shall be available for public inspection.
3481 Section 59. Section 19-6-402 is amended to read:
3482 19-6-402. Definitions.
3483 As used in this part:
3484 (1) "Abatement action" means action taken to limit, reduce, mitigate, or eliminate a
3485 release from an underground storage tank or petroleum storage tank, or to limit or reduce,
3486 mitigate, or eliminate the damage caused by that release.
3487 (2) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created in Section
3488 19-1-106 .
3489 (3) "Bodily injury" means bodily harm, sickness, disease, or death sustained by any
3490 person.
3491 (4) "Certificate of compliance" means a certificate issued to a facility by the [
3492
3493 (a) demonstrating that an owner or operator of a facility containing one or more
3494 petroleum storage tanks has met the requirements of this part; and
3495 (b) listing all tanks at the facility, specifying which tanks may receive petroleum and
3496 which tanks have not met the requirements for compliance.
3497 (5) "Certificate of registration" means a certificate issued to a facility by the [
3498
3499 underground storage tanks has:
3500 (a) registered the tanks; and
3501 (b) paid the annual underground storage tank fee.
3502 (6) (a) "Certified underground storage tank consultant" means any person who:
3503 (i) meets the education and experience standards established by the board under
3504 Subsection 19-6-403 (1)(a)(vi) in order to provide or contract to provide information, opinions,
3505 or advice relating to underground storage tank management, release abatement, investigation,
3506 corrective action, or evaluation for a fee, or in connection with the services for which a fee is
3507 charged; and
3508 (ii) has submitted an application to the board and received a written statement of
3509 certification from the board.
3510 (b) "Certified underground storage tank consultant" does not include:
3511 (i) an employee of the owner or operator of the underground storage tank, or an
3512 employee of a business operation that has a business relationship with the owner or operator of
3513 the underground storage tank, and that markets petroleum products or manages underground
3514 storage tanks; or
3515 (ii) persons licensed to practice law in this state who offer only legal advice on
3516 underground storage tank management, release abatement, investigation, corrective action, or
3517 evaluation.
3518 (7) "Closed" means an underground storage tank no longer in use that has been:
3519 (a) emptied and cleaned to remove all liquids and accumulated sludges; and
3520 (b) either removed from the ground or filled with an inert solid material.
3521 (8) "Corrective action plan" means a plan for correcting a release from a petroleum
3522 storage tank that includes provisions for all or any of the following:
3523 (a) cleanup or removal of the release;
3524 (b) containment or isolation of the release;
3525 (c) treatment of the release;
3526 (d) correction of the cause of the release;
3527 (e) monitoring and maintenance of the site of the release;
3528 (f) provision of alternative water supplies to persons whose drinking water has become
3529 contaminated by the release; or
3530 (g) temporary or permanent relocation, whichever is determined by the [
3531
3532 by the [
3533 (9) "Costs" means any money expended for:
3534 (a) investigation;
3535 (b) abatement action;
3536 (c) corrective action;
3537 (d) judgments, awards, and settlements for bodily injury or property damage to third
3538 parties;
3539 (e) legal and claims adjusting costs incurred by the state in connection with judgments,
3540 awards, or settlements for bodily injury or property damage to third parties; or
3541 (f) costs incurred by the state risk manager in determining the actuarial soundness of
3542 the fund.
3543 (10) "Covered by the fund" means the requirements of Section 19-6-424 have been
3544 met.
3545 (11) "Director" means the director of the Division of Environmental Response and
3546 Remediation.
3547 (12) "Division" means the Division of Environmental Response and Remediation,
3548 created in Subsection 19-1-105 (1)(c).
3549 [
3550 there at night.
3551 [
3552 enforce orders established by Section 19-6-425 .
3553 [
3554 [
3555 property or on any property adjacent or contiguous to that parcel.
3556 [
3557 19-6-409 .
3558 [
3559 Section 19-6-405.3 .
3560 [
3561 basis for the maintenance of an underground storage tank that is in use for the storage, use, or
3562 dispensing of a regulated substance.
3563 [
3564 (a) in the case of an underground storage tank in use on or after November 8, 1984, any
3565 person who owns an underground storage tank used for the storage, use, or dispensing of a
3566 regulated substance; and
3567 (b) in the case of any underground storage tank in use before November 8, 1984, but
3568 not in use on or after November 8, 1984, any person who owned the tank immediately before
3569 the discontinuance of its use for the storage, use, or dispensing of a regulated substance.
3570 [
3571 60 degrees Fahrenheit and at a pressure of 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute.
3572 [
3573 (a) (i) is underground;
3574 (ii) is regulated under Subtitle I of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42
3575 U.S.C. Section 6991c, et seq.; and
3576 (iii) contains petroleum; or
3577 (b) is a tank that the owner or operator voluntarily submits for participation in the
3578 Petroleum Storage Tank Trust Fund under Section 19-6-415 .
3579 [
3580 Section 19-6-405.5 .
3581 [
3582 19-6-410.5 .
3583 [
3584 property including loss of use of that property.
3585 [
3586 comprised of a complex blend of hydrocarbons derived from crude oil through processes of
3587 separation, conversion, upgrading, and finishing, and includes motor fuels, jet fuels, distillate
3588 fuel oils, residual fuel oils, lubricants, petroleum solvents, and used oils.
3589 [
3590 leaching, or disposing from an underground storage tank or petroleum storage tank. The entire
3591 release is considered a single release.
3592 [
3593 (i) is the owner or operator of a facility;
3594 (ii) owns or has legal or equitable title in a facility or an underground storage tank;
3595 (iii) owned or had legal or equitable title in the facility at the time any petroleum was
3596 received or contained at the facility;
3597 (iv) operated or otherwise controlled activities at the facility at the time any petroleum
3598 was received or contained at the facility; or
3599 (v) is an underground storage tank installation company.
3600 (b) "Responsible party" as defined in Subsections [
3601 not include:
3602 (i) any person who is not an operator and, without participating in the management of a
3603 facility and otherwise not engaged in petroleum production, refining, and marketing, holds
3604 indicia of ownership:
3605 (A) primarily to protect his security interest in the facility; or
3606 (B) as a fiduciary or custodian under Title 75, Utah Uniform Probate Code, or under an
3607 employee benefit plan; or
3608 (ii) governmental ownership or control of property by involuntary transfers as provided
3609 in CERCLA Section 101(20)(D), 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(20)(D).
3610 (c) The exemption created by Subsection [
3611 taken by the state or its officials or agencies under this part.
3612 (d) The terms and activities "indicia of ownership," "primarily to protect a security
3613 interest," "participation in management," and "security interest" under this part are in
3614 accordance with 40 CFR Part 280, Subpart I, as amended, and 42 U.S.C. Sec. 6991b(h)(9).
3615 (e) The terms "participate in management" and "indicia of ownership" as defined in 40
3616 CFR Part 280, Subpart I, as amended, and 42 U.S.C. Sec. 6991b(h)(9) include and apply to the
3617 fiduciaries listed in Subsection [
3618 [
3619 presence of petroleum in soil.
3620 [
3621 Legislature to the department to fund the investigation, abatement, and corrective action
3622 regarding releases not covered by the fund.
3623 [
3624 Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 6991c, et seq., including:
3625 (a) a petroleum storage tank;
3626 (b) underground pipes and lines connected to a storage tank; and
3627 (c) any underground ancillary equipment and containment system.
3628 [
3629 partnership, corporation, governmental entity, association, or other organization who installs
3630 underground storage tanks.
3631 [
3632 issued to an underground storage tank installation company by the [
3633 director.
3634 [
3635 acting under the direct supervision of a certified underground storage tank consultant to assist
3636 in carrying out the functions described in Subsection (6)(a).
3637 Section 60. Section 19-6-403 is amended to read:
3638 19-6-403. Powers and duties of board.
3639 The board shall regulate an underground storage tank or petroleum storage tank by:
3640 (1) in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act,
3641 making rules that:
3642 (a) provide for the:
3643 (i) certification of an installer, inspector, tester, or remover;
3644 (ii) registration of a tank;
3645 (iii) administration of the petroleum storage tank program;
3646 (iv) format of and required information in a record kept by a tank owner or operator
3647 who is participating in the fund;
3648 (v) voluntary participation in the fund for:
3649 (A) an above ground petroleum storage tank; and
3650 (B) a tank:
3651 (I) exempt from regulation under 40 C.F.R., Part 280, Subpart (B); and
3652 (II) specified in Section 19-6-415 ; and
3653 (vi) certification of an underground storage tank consultant including:
3654 (A) a minimum education or experience requirement; and
3655 (B) a recognition of the educational requirement of a professional engineer licensed
3656 under Title 58, Chapter 22, Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors Licensing
3657 Act, as meeting the education requirement for certification;
3658 (b) adopt the requirements for an underground storage tank contained in:
3659 (i) the Solid Waste Disposal Act, Subchapter IX, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 6991, et seq., as may
3660 be amended in the future; and
3661 (ii) an applicable federal requirement authorized by the federal law referenced in
3662 Subsection (1)(b)(i); and
3663 (c) comply with the requirements of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, Subchapter IX, 42
3664 U.S.C. Sec. 6991c, et seq., as may be amended in the future, for the state's assumption of
3665 primacy in the regulation of an underground storage tank; and
3666 (2) [
3667 Section 61. Section 19-6-404 is amended to read:
3668 19-6-404. Powers and duties of director.
3669 (1) The [
3670 (a) administer the petroleum storage tank program established in this part[
3671 (b) as authorized by the board and subject to the provisions of this part, act as
3672 executive secretary of the board under the direction of the chairman of the board.
3673 (2) As necessary to meet the requirements or carry out the purposes of this part, the
3674 [
3675 (a) advise, consult, and cooperate with other persons;
3676 (b) employ persons;
3677 (c) authorize a certified employee or a certified representative of the department to
3678 conduct facility inspections and reviews of records required to be kept by this part and by rules
3679 made under this part;
3680 (d) encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, investigation, research, and
3681 demonstrations;
3682 (e) collect and disseminate information;
3683 (f) enforce rules made by the board and any requirement in this part by issuing notices
3684 and orders;
3685 (g) review plans, specifications, or other data;
3686 (h) under the direction of the executive director, represent the state in all matters
3687 pertaining to interstate underground storage tank management and control, including[
3688
3689 agreements;
3690 (i) enter into contracts or agreements with political subdivisions for the performance of
3691 any of the department's responsibilities under this part if:
3692 (i) the contract or agreement is not prohibited by state or federal law and will not result
3693 in a loss of federal funding; and
3694 (ii) the [
3695 (A) the political subdivision is willing and able to satisfactorily discharge its
3696 responsibilities under the contract or agreement; and
3697 (B) the contract or agreement will be practical and effective;
3698 (j) take any necessary enforcement action authorized under this part;
3699 (k) require an owner or operator of an underground storage tank to:
3700 (i) furnish information or records relating to the tank, its equipment, and contents;
3701 (ii) monitor, inspect, test, or sample the tank, its contents, and any surrounding soils,
3702 air, or water; or
3703 (iii) provide access to the tank at reasonable times;
3704 (l) take any abatement, investigative, or corrective action as authorized in this part;
3705 [
3706 (m) enter into agreements or issue orders to apportion percentages of liability of
3707 responsible parties under Section 19-6-424.5 .
3708 [
3709
3710 Section 62. Section 19-6-405.3 is amended to read:
3711 19-6-405.3. Creation of Petroleum Storage Tank Loan Fund -- Purposes -- Loan
3712 eligibility -- Loan restrictions -- Rulemaking.
3713 (1) There is created a revolving loan fund known as the Petroleum Storage Tank Loan
3714 Fund.
3715 (2) The sources of money for the loan fund are:
3716 (a) appropriations to the loan fund;
3717 (b) principal and interest received from the repayment of loans made by the [
3718
3719 (c) all investment income derived from money in the fund.
3720 (3) The [
3721 available in the loan fund to a person to be used for:
3722 (a) upgrading a petroleum storage tank;
3723 (b) replacing an underground storage tank; or
3724 (c) permanently closing an underground storage tank.
3725 (4) A person may apply to the [
3726 Subsection (3) if all tanks owned or operated by that person are in substantial compliance with
3727 all state and federal requirements or will be brought into substantial compliance using money
3728 from the loan fund.
3729 (5) The [
3730 (4) to meet the following objectives:
3731 (a) support availability of gasoline in rural parts of the state;
3732 (b) support small businesses; and
3733 (c) reduce the threat of a petroleum release endangering the environment.
3734 (6) Loans made under this section may not:
3735 (a) be for more than $150,000 for all tanks at any one facility;
3736 (b) be for more than $50,000 per tank;
3737 (c) be for more than 80% of the total cost of:
3738 (i) upgrading a tank;
3739 (ii) replacing the underground storage tank; or
3740 (iii) permanently closing the underground storage tank;
3741 (d) have a fixed annual interest rate of 3%;
3742 (e) have a term no longer than 10 years;
3743 (f) be made on the condition the loan applicant obtains adequate security for the loan as
3744 established by board rule under Subsection (7); and
3745 (g) comply with rules made by the board under Subsection (7).
3746 (7) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
3747 board shall make rules establishing:
3748 (a) form, content, and procedure for a loan application;
3749 (b) criteria and procedures for prioritizing a loan application;
3750 (c) requirements and procedures for securing a loan;
3751 (d) procedures for making a loan;
3752 (e) procedures for administering and ensuring repayment of a loan, including late
3753 payment penalties; and
3754 (f) procedures for recovering on a defaulted loan.
3755 (8) A decision by the [
3756 and otherwise administer the loan fund is not subject to Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative
3757 Procedures Act.
3758 (9) The Legislature shall appropriate money from the loan fund to the department for
3759 the administration of the loan.
3760 (10) The [
3761 or private organization to perform a task associated with administration of the loan fund.
3762 Section 63. Section 19-6-405.7 is amended to read:
3763 19-6-405.7. Petroleum Storage Tank Cleanup Fund -- Revenue and purposes.
3764 (1) There is created a private-purpose trust fund entitled the "Petroleum Storage Tank
3765 Cleanup Fund," which is referred to in this section as the cleanup fund.
3766 (2) The cleanup fund sources of revenue are:
3767 (a) any voluntary contributions received by the department for the cleanup of facilities;
3768 (b) legislative appropriations made to the cleanup fund; and
3769 (c) costs recovered under this part.
3770 (3) The cleanup fund shall earn interest, which shall be deposited in the cleanup fund.
3771 (4) The [
3772 administration, investigation, abatement action, and preparing and implementing a corrective
3773 action plan regarding releases not covered by the Petroleum Storage Tank Trust Fund created
3774 in Section 19-6-409 .
3775 Section 64. Section 19-6-407 is amended to read:
3776 19-6-407. Underground storage tank registration -- Change of ownership or
3777 operation -- Civil penalty.
3778 (1) (a) Each owner or operator of an underground storage tank shall register the tank
3779 with the [
3780 (i) is in use; or
3781 (ii) was closed after January 1, 1974.
3782 (b) If a new person assumes ownership or operational responsibilities for an
3783 underground storage tank, that person shall inform the executive secretary of the change within
3784 30 days after the change occurs.
3785 (c) Each installer of an underground storage tank shall notify the [
3786 director of the completed installation within 60 days following the installation of an
3787 underground storage tank.
3788 (2) The [
3789 civil penalty in the amount of $1,000 if an owner, operator, or installer, of a petroleum or
3790 underground storage tank fails to register the tank or provide notice as required in Subsection
3791 (1).
3792 (3) The penalties collected under authority of this section shall be deposited in the
3793 Petroleum Storage Tank Restricted Account created in Section 19-6-405.5 .
3794 Section 65. Section 19-6-408 is amended to read:
3795 19-6-408. Underground storage tank registration fee -- Processing fee for tanks
3796 not in the program.
3797 (1) The department may assess an annual underground storage tank registration fee
3798 against owners or operators of underground storage tanks that have not been closed. These fees
3799 shall be:
3800 (a) billed per facility;
3801 (b) due on July 1 annually;
3802 (c) deposited with the department as dedicated credits;
3803 (d) used by the department for the administration of the underground storage tank
3804 program outlined in this part; and
3805 (e) established under Section 63J-1-504 .
3806 (2) (a) In addition to the fee under Subsection (1), an owner or operator who elects to
3807 demonstrate financial assurance through a mechanism other than the Environmental Assurance
3808 Program shall pay a processing fee of:
3809 (i) for fiscal year 1997-98, $1,000 for each financial assurance mechanism document
3810 submitted to the division for review; and
3811 (ii) on and after July 1, 1998, a processing fee established under Section 63J-1-504 .
3812 (b) If a combination of financial assurance mechanisms is used to demonstrate
3813 financial assurance, the fee under Subsection (2)(a) shall be paid for each document submitted.
3814 (c) As used in this Subsection (2), "financial assurance mechanism document" may be
3815 a single document that covers more than one facility through a single financial assurance
3816 mechanism.
3817 (3) Any funds provided for administration of the underground storage tank program
3818 under this section that are not expended at the end of the fiscal year lapse into the Petroleum
3819 Storage Tank Restricted Account created in Section 19-6-405.5 .
3820 (4) The [
3821 annual underground storage tank registration fee a certificate of registration.
3822 (5) (a) The [
3823 a civil penalty of $1,000 per facility if an owner or operator of an underground storage tank
3824 facility fails to pay the required fee within 60 days after the July 1 due date.
3825 (b) The registration fee and late payment penalty accrue interest at 12% per annum.
3826 (c) If the registration fee, late payment penalty, and interest accrued under this
3827 Subsection (5) are not paid in full within 60 days after the July 1 due date any certificate of
3828 compliance issued prior to the July 1 due date lapses. The [
3829 not reissue the certificate of compliance until full payment under this Subsection (5) is made to
3830 the department.
3831 (d) The [
3832 Subsection (5) if no fuel has been dispensed from the tank on or after July 1, 1991.
3833 Section 66. Section 19-6-409 is amended to read:
3834 19-6-409. Petroleum Storage Tank Trust Fund created -- Source of revenues.
3835 (1) (a) There is created a private-purpose trust fund entitled the "Petroleum Storage
3836 Tank Trust Fund."
3837 (b) The sole sources of revenues for the fund are:
3838 (i) petroleum storage tank fees paid under Section 19-6-411 ;
3839 (ii) underground storage tank installation company permit fees paid under Section
3840 19-6-411 ;
3841 (iii) the environmental assurance fee and penalties paid under Section 19-6-410.5 ; and
3842 (iv) interest accrued on revenues listed in this Subsection (1)(b).
3843 (c) Interest earned on fund money is deposited into the fund.
3844 (2) The [
3845 (a) covered by the fund under Section 19-6-419 ;
3846 (b) of administering the:
3847 (i) fund; and
3848 (ii) environmental assurance program and fee under Section 19-6-410.5 ;
3849 (c) incurred by the state for a legal service or claim adjusting service provided in
3850 connection with a claim, judgment, award, or settlement for bodily injury or property damage
3851 to a third party;
3852 (d) incurred by the state risk manager in determining the actuarial soundness of the
3853 fund;
3854 (e) incurred by a third party claiming injury or damages from a release reported on or
3855 after May 11, 2010, for hiring a certified underground storage tank consultant:
3856 (i) to review an investigation or corrective action by a responsible party; and
3857 (ii) in accordance with Subsection (4); and
3858 (f) allowed under this part that are not listed under this Subsection (2).
3859 (3) Costs for the administration of the fund and the environmental assurance fee shall
3860 be appropriated by the Legislature.
3861 (4) The [
3862 (a) in paying costs under Subsection (2)(e):
3863 (i) determine a reasonable limit on costs paid based on the:
3864 (A) extent of the release;
3865 (B) impact of the release; and
3866 (C) services provided by the certified underground storage tank consultant;
3867 (ii) pay, per release, costs for one certified underground storage tank consultant agreed
3868 to by all third parties claiming damages or injury;
3869 (iii) include costs paid in the coverage limits allowed under Section 19-6-419 ; and
3870 (iv) not pay legal costs of third parties;
3871 (b) review and give careful consideration to reports and recommendations provided by
3872 a certified underground storage tank consultant hired by a third party; and
3873 (c) make reports and recommendations provided under Subsection (4)(b) available on
3874 the Division of Environmental Response and Remediation's website.
3875 Section 67. Section 19-6-411 is amended to read:
3876 19-6-411. Petroleum storage tank fee for program participants.
3877 (1) In addition to the underground storage tank registration fee paid in Section
3878 19-6-408 , the owner or operator of a petroleum storage tank who elects to participate in the
3879 environmental assurance program under Section 19-6-410.5 shall also pay an annual petroleum
3880 storage tank fee to the department for each facility as follows:
3881 (a) on and after July 1, 1990, through June 30, 1993, an annual fee of:
3882 (i) $250 for each tank:
3883 (A) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
3884 (B) with an annual monthly throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
3885 (ii) $125 for each tank:
3886 (A) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
3887 and
3888 (B) with an annual monthly throughput of 10,000 gallons or less;
3889 (b) on and after July 1, 1993, through June 30, 1994, an annual fee of:
3890 (i) $150 for each tank:
3891 (A) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
3892 (B) with an average monthly throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
3893 (ii) $75 for each tank:
3894 (A) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
3895 and
3896 (B) with an average monthly throughput of 10,000 gallons or less; and
3897 (c) on and after July 1, 1994, an annual fee of:
3898 (i) $50 for each tank in a facility with an annual facility throughput rate of 400,000
3899 gallons or less;
3900 (ii) $150 for each tank in a facility with an annual facility throughput rate of more than
3901 400,000 gallons; and
3902 (iii) $150 for each tank in a facility regarding which:
3903 (A) the facility's throughput rate is not reported to the department within 30 days after
3904 the date this throughput information is requested by the department; or
3905 (B) the owner or operator elects to pay the fee under this subsection, rather than report
3906 under Subsection (1)(c)(i) or (ii); and
3907 (d) on and after July 1, 1998, for any new tank:
3908 (i) which is installed to replace an existing tank at an existing facility, any annual
3909 petroleum storage tank fee paid for the current fiscal year for the existing tank is applicable to
3910 the new tank; and
3911 (ii) installed at a new facility or at an existing facility, which is not a replacement for
3912 another existing tank, the fees are as provided in Subsection (1)(c) of this section.
3913 (2) (a) As a condition of receiving a permit and being eligible for benefits under
3914 Section 19-6-419 from the Petroleum Storage Tank Trust Fund, each underground storage tank
3915 installation company shall pay to the department the following fees to be deposited in the fund:
3916 (i) an annual fee of:
3917 (A) $2,000 per underground storage tank installation company if the installation
3918 company has installed 15 or fewer underground storage tanks within the 12 months preceding
3919 the fee due date; or
3920 (B) $4,000 per underground storage tank installation company if the installation
3921 company has installed 16 or more underground storage tanks within the 12 months preceding
3922 the fee due date; and
3923 (ii) $200 for each underground storage tank installed in the state, to be paid prior to
3924 completion of installation.
3925 (b) The board shall make rules specifying which portions of an underground storage
3926 tank installation shall be subject to the permitting fees when less than a full underground
3927 storage tank system is installed.
3928 (3) (a) Fees under Subsection (1) are due on or before July 1 annually.
3929 (b) If the department does not receive the fee on or before July 1, the department shall
3930 impose a late penalty of $60 per facility.
3931 (c) (i) The fee and the late penalty accrue interest at 12% per annum.
3932 (ii) If the fee, the late penalty, and all accrued interest are not received by the
3933 department within 60 days after July 1, the eligibility of the owner or operator to receive
3934 payments for claims against the fund lapses on the 61st day after July 1.
3935 (iii) In order for the owner or operator to reinstate eligibility to receive payments for
3936 claims against the fund, the owner or operator shall meet the requirements of Subsection
3937 19-6-428 (3).
3938 (4) (a) (i) Fees under Subsection (2)(a)(i) are due on or before July 1 annually. If the
3939 department does not receive the fees on or before July 1, the department shall impose a late
3940 penalty of $60 per installation company. The fee and the late penalty accrue interest at 12% per
3941 annum.
3942 (ii) If the fee, late penalty, and all accrued interest due are not received by the
3943 department within 60 days after July 1, the underground storage tank installation company's
3944 permit and eligibility to receive payments for claims against the fund lapse on the 61st day after
3945 July 1.
3946 (b) (i) Fees under Subsection (2)(a)(ii) are due prior to completion of installation. If
3947 the department does not receive the fees prior to completion of installation, the department
3948 shall impose a late penalty of $60 per facility. The fee and the late penalty accrue interest at
3949 12% per annum.
3950 (ii) If the fee, late penalty, and all accrued interest are not received by the department
3951 within 60 days after the underground storage tank installation is completed, eligibility to
3952 receive payments for claims against the fund for that tank lapse on the 61st day after the tank
3953 installation is completed.
3954 (c) The [
3955 installation company permit until the fee, late penalty, and all accrued interest are received by
3956 the department.
3957 (5) If the state risk manager determines the fees established in Subsections (1) and (2)
3958 and the environmental assurance fee established in Section 19-6-410.5 are insufficient to
3959 maintain the fund on an actuarially sound basis, he shall petition the Legislature to increase the
3960 petroleum storage tank and underground storage tank installation company permit fees, and the
3961 environmental assurance fee to a level that will sustain the fund on an actuarially sound basis.
3962 (6) The [
3963 paid on or before May 5, 1997, for a petroleum storage tank under this section if no fuel has
3964 been dispensed from the tank on or after July 1, 1991.
3965 (7) (a) Each petroleum storage tank or underground storage tank, for which payment of
3966 fees has been made and other requirements have been met to qualify for a certificate of
3967 compliance under this part, shall be issued a form of identification, as determined by the board
3968 under Subsection (7)(b).
3969 (b) The board shall make rules providing for the identification, through a tag or other
3970 readily identifiable method, of petroleum storage tanks or underground storage tanks under
3971 Subsection (7)(a) that qualify for a certificate of compliance under this part.
3972 Section 68. Section 19-6-412 is amended to read:
3973 19-6-412. Petroleum storage tank -- Certificate of compliance.
3974 (1) (a) Beginning July 1, 1990, an owner or operator of a petroleum storage tank may
3975 obtain a certificate of compliance for the facility.
3976 (b) Effective July 1, 1991, each owner or operator of a petroleum storage tank shall
3977 have a certificate of compliance for the facility.
3978 (2) The [
3979 (a) the owner or operator has a certificate of registration;
3980 (b) the owner or operator demonstrates it is participating in the Environmental
3981 Assurance Program under Section 19-6-410.5 , or otherwise demonstrates compliance with
3982 financial assurance requirements as defined by rule;
3983 (c) all state and federal statutes, rules, and regulations have been substantially complied
3984 with; and
3985 (d) all tank test requirements of Section 19-6-413 have been met.
3986 (3) If the ownership of or responsibility for the petroleum storage tank changes, the
3987 certificate of compliance is still valid unless it has been revoked or has lapsed.
3988 (4) The [
3989 of less than one year to maintain an administrative schedule of certification.
3990 (5) The [
3991 owner or operator of an underground storage tank has complied with the requirements of
3992 Subsection (2).
3993 (6) If the owner or operator electing to participate in the program has a number of tanks
3994 in an area where the [
3995 determine which of the tanks may be the source of a release, the owner may only elect to place
3996 all of the tanks in the area in the program, but not just some of the tanks in the area.
3997 Section 69. Section 19-6-413 is amended to read:
3998 19-6-413. Tank tightness test -- Actions required after testing.
3999 (1) The owner or operator of any petroleum storage tank registered before July 1, 1991,
4000 shall submit to the [
4001 (a) on or after September 1, 1989, and before January 1, 1990, if the test meets
4002 requirements set by rule regarding tank tightness tests that were applicable during that period;
4003 or
4004 (b) on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 1991.
4005 (2) The owner or operator of any petroleum storage tank registered on or after July 1,
4006 1991, shall submit to the [
4007 conducted within the six months before the tank was registered or within 60 days after the date
4008 the tank was registered.
4009 (3) If the tank test performed under Subsection (1) or (2) shows no release of
4010 petroleum, the owner or operator of the petroleum storage tank shall submit a letter to the
4011 [
4012 stating that under customary business inventory practices standards, the owner or operator is
4013 not aware of any release of petroleum from the tank.
4014 (4) (a) If the tank test shows a release of petroleum from the petroleum storage tank,
4015 the owner or operator of the tank shall:
4016 (i) correct the problem; and
4017 (ii) submit evidence of the correction to the [
4018 (b) When the [
4019 operator of a petroleum storage tank that the problem with the tank has been corrected, the
4020 [
4021 (i) approve or disapprove the correction; and
4022 (ii) notify the owner or operator that the correction has been approved or disapproved.
4023 (5) The [
4024 to determine compliance with this part and any rules adopted under the authority of Section
4025 19-6-403 .
4026 (6) If the owner or operator of the tank is required by 40 C.F.R., Part 280, Subpart D,
4027 to perform release detection on the tank, the owner or operator shall submit the results of the
4028 tank tests in compliance with 40 C.F.R., Part 280, Subpart D.
4029 Section 70. Section 19-6-414 is amended to read:
4030 19-6-414. Grounds for revocation of certificate of compliance and ineligibility for
4031 payment of costs from fund.
4032 (1) If the [
4033 Subsection 19-6-412 (2) and Section 19-6-413 have not been met, the [
4034 director shall notify the owner or operator by certified mail that:
4035 (a) his certificate of compliance may be revoked;
4036 (b) if he is participating in the program, he is violating the eligibility requirements for
4037 the fund; and
4038 (c) he shall demonstrate his compliance with this part within 60 days after receipt of
4039 the notification or his certificate of compliance will be revoked and if participating in the
4040 program he will be ineligible to receive payment for claims against the fund.
4041 (2) If the [
4042 problems have not been resolved within 60 days after receipt of the notification in Subsection
4043 (1), the [
4044 owner's or operator's certificate of compliance is revoked and he is no longer eligible for
4045 payment of costs from the fund.
4046 (3) Revocation of certificates of compliance may be appealed to the executive director.
4047 Section 71. Section 19-6-416 is amended to read:
4048 19-6-416. Restrictions on delivery of petroleum -- Civil penalty.
4049 (1) After July 1, 1991, a person may not deliver petroleum to, place petroleum in, or
4050 accept petroleum for placement in a petroleum storage tank that is not identified in compliance
4051 with Subsection 19-6-411 (7).
4052 (2) Any person who delivers or accepts delivery of petroleum to a petroleum storage
4053 tank or places petroleum, including waste petroleum substances, in an underground storage
4054 tank in violation of Subsection (1) is subject to a civil penalty of not more than $500 for each
4055 occurrence.
4056 (3) The [
4057 civil penalty of not more than $500 against any person who delivers or accepts delivery of
4058 petroleum to a petroleum storage tank or places petroleum, including waste petroleum
4059 substances, in violation of Subsection (1) in a petroleum storage tank or underground storage
4060 tank.
4061 (4) A civil penalty may not be assessed under this section against any person who in
4062 good faith delivers or places petroleum in a petroleum storage tank or underground storage tank
4063 that is identified in compliance with Subsection 19-6-411 (7) and rules made under that
4064 subsection, whether or not the tank is in actual compliance with the other requirements of
4065 Section 19-6-411 .
4066 Section 72. Section 19-6-416.5 is amended to read:
4067 19-6-416.5. Restrictions on underground storage tank installation companies --
4068 Civil penalty.
4069 (1) After July 1, 1994, no individual or underground installation company may install
4070 an underground storage tank without having a valid underground storage tank installation
4071 company permit.
4072 (2) Any individual or underground storage tank installation company who installs an
4073 underground storage tank in violation of Subsection (1) is subject to a civil penalty of $500 per
4074 underground storage tank.
4075 (3) The [
4076 civil penalty of $500 against any underground storage tank installation company or person who
4077 installs an underground storage tank in violation of Subsection (1).
4078 Section 73. Section 19-6-417 is amended to read:
4079 19-6-417. Use of fund revenues to investigate certain releases from petroleum
4080 storage tank.
4081 If the [
4082 release or suspected release of petroleum, he may expend revenues from the fund to investigate
4083 the release or suspected release if he has reasonable cause to believe the release is from a tank
4084 that is covered by the fund.
4085 Section 74. Section 19-6-418 is amended to read:
4086 19-6-418. Recovery of costs by director.
4087 (1) The [
4088 (a) from a responsible party the proportionate share of costs the party is responsible for
4089 as determined under Section 19-6-424.5 ;
4090 (b) any amount required to be paid by the owner under this part which the owner has
4091 not paid; and
4092 (c) costs of collecting the amounts in Subsections (1)(a) and (1)(b).
4093 (2) The [
4094 other person if that person caused or substantially contributed to the release.
4095 (3) All costs recovered under this section shall be deposited in the Petroleum Storage
4096 Tank Cleanup Fund created in Section 19-6-405.7 .
4097 Section 75. Section 19-6-419 is amended to read:
4098 19-6-419. Costs covered by the fund -- Costs paid by owner or operator --
4099 Payments to third parties -- Apportionment of costs.
4100 (1) If all requirements of this part have been met and a release occurs from a tank that
4101 is covered by the fund, the costs per release are covered as provided under this section.
4102 (2) For releases reported before May 11, 2010, the responsible party shall pay:
4103 (a) the first $10,000 of costs; and
4104 (b) (i) all costs over $1,000,000, if the release was from a tank:
4105 (A) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
4106 (B) with an average monthly facility throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
4107 (ii) all costs over $500,000, if the release was from a tank:
4108 (A) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
4109 and
4110 (B) with an average monthly facility throughput of 10,000 gallons or less.
4111 (3) For releases reported before May 11, 2010, if money is available in the fund and the
4112 responsible party has paid costs of $10,000, the [
4113 from the fund in an amount not to exceed:
4114 (a) $990,000 if the release was from a tank:
4115 (i) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
4116 (ii) with an average monthly facility throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
4117 (b) $490,000 if the release was from a tank:
4118 (i) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
4119 and
4120 (ii) with an average monthly facility throughput of 10,000 gallons or less.
4121 (4) For a release reported on or after May 11, 2010, the responsible party shall pay:
4122 (a) the first $10,000 of costs; and
4123 (b) (i) all costs over $2,000,000, if the release was from a tank:
4124 (A) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
4125 (B) with an average monthly facility throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
4126 (ii) all costs over $1,000,000, if the release was from a tank:
4127 (A) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
4128 and
4129 (B) with an average monthly facility throughput of 10,000 gallons or less.
4130 (5) For a release reported on or after May 11, 2010, if money is available in the fund
4131 and the responsible party has paid costs of $10,000, the [
4132 costs from the fund in an amount not to exceed:
4133 (a) $1,990,000 if the release was from a tank:
4134 (i) located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing; or
4135 (ii) with an average monthly facility throughput of more than 10,000 gallons; and
4136 (b) $990,000 if the release was from a tank:
4137 (i) not located at a facility engaged in petroleum production, refining, or marketing;
4138 and
4139 (ii) with an average monthly facility throughput of 10,000 gallons or less.
4140 (6) The [
4141 the following amounts in a fiscal year:
4142 (a) $1,990,000 to a responsible party owning or operating less than 100 petroleum
4143 storage tanks; or
4144 (b) $3,990,000 to a responsible party owning or operating 100 or more petroleum
4145 storage tanks.
4146 (7) (a) In authorizing payments for costs from the fund, the [
4147 director shall apportion money:
4148 (i) first, to the following type of expenses incurred by the state:
4149 (A) legal;
4150 (B) adjusting; and
4151 (C) actuarial;
4152 (ii) second, to costs incurred for:
4153 (A) investigation;
4154 (B) abatement action; and
4155 (C) corrective action; and
4156 (iii) third, to payment of:
4157 (A) judgments;
4158 (B) awards; and
4159 (C) settlements to third parties for bodily injury or property damage.
4160 (b) The board shall make rules governing the apportionment of costs among third party
4161 claimants.
4162 Section 76. Section 19-6-420 is amended to read:
4163 19-6-420. Releases -- Abatement actions -- Corrective actions.
4164 (1) If the [
4165 storage tank has occurred, he shall:
4166 (a) identify and name as many of the responsible parties as reasonably possible; and
4167 (b) determine which responsible parties, if any, are covered by the fund regarding the
4168 release in question.
4169 (2) Regardless of whether the tank generating the release is covered by the fund, the
4170 [
4171 (a) order the owner or operator to take abatement, investigative, or corrective action,
4172 including the submission of a corrective action plan; and
4173 (b) if the owner or operator fails to take any of the abatement, investigative, or
4174 corrective action ordered by the [
4175 may take any one or more of the following actions:
4176 (i) subject to the conditions in this part, use money from the fund, if the tank involved
4177 is covered by the fund, state cleanup appropriation, or the Petroleum Storage Tank Cleanup
4178 Fund created under Section 19-6-405.7 to perform investigative, abatement, or corrective
4179 action;
4180 (ii) commence an enforcement proceeding;
4181 (iii) enter into agreements or issue orders as allowed by Section 19-6-424.5 ; or
4182 (iv) recover costs from responsible parties equal to their proportionate share of liability
4183 as determined by Section 19-6-424.5 .
4184 (3) (a) Subject to the limitations established in Section 19-6-419 , the [
4185
4186 generated by a tank covered by the fund if:
4187 (i) the owner or operator takes the abatement action ordered by the [
4188
4189 (ii) the [
4190 (b) If a release presents the possibility of imminent and substantial danger to the public
4191 health or the environment, the owner or operator may take immediate abatement action and
4192 petition the [
4193 abatement action. If the owner or operator can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the [
4194
4195 circumstances, the [
4196 associated with immediate abatement action, subject to the limitations established in Section
4197 19-6-419 .
4198 (c) The owner or operator shall notify the [
4199 of the abatement action taken.
4200 (4) (a) If the [
4201 the [
4202 plan to address the release.
4203 (b) If the owner or operator submits a corrective action plan, the [
4204 director shall review the corrective action plan and approve or disapprove the plan.
4205 (c) In reviewing the corrective action plan, the [
4206 consider the following:
4207 (i) the threat to public health;
4208 (ii) the threat to the environment; and
4209 (iii) the cost-effectiveness of alternative corrective actions.
4210 (5) If the [
4211 his own corrective action plan, he shall:
4212 (a) approve the estimated cost of implementing the corrective action plan;
4213 (b) order the owner or operator to implement the corrective action plan;
4214 (c) (i) if the release is covered by the fund, determine the amount of fund money to be
4215 allocated to an owner or operator to implement a corrective action plan; and
4216 (ii) subject to the limitations established in Section 19-6-419 , provide money from the
4217 fund to the owner or operator to implement the corrective action plan.
4218 (6) (a) The [
4219 for corrective action until the owner or operator obtains the [
4220 approval of the corrective action plan.
4221 (b) An owner or operator who begins corrective action without first obtaining approval
4222 from the [
4223 the costs of the corrective action, subject to the limitations established in Section 19-6-419 , if:
4224 (i) the owner or operator submits the corrective action plan to the [
4225 director within seven days after beginning corrective action; and
4226 (ii) the [
4227 (7) If the [
4228 corrective action plan from the owner or operator.
4229 (8) If the [
4230 or if the owner or operator fails to submit a second plan within a reasonable time, the
4231 [
4232 (a) develop his own corrective action plan; and
4233 (b) act as authorized under Subsections (2) and (5).
4234 (9) (a) When notified that the corrective action plan has been implemented, the
4235 [
4236 not the corrective action has been properly performed and completed.
4237 (b) If the [
4238 properly performed or completed, he may issue an order requiring the owner or operator to
4239 complete the corrective action within the time specified in the order.
4240 Section 77. Section 19-6-421 is amended to read:
4241 19-6-421. Third party payment restrictions and requirements.
4242 (1) If there are sufficient revenues in the fund, and subject to the provisions of Sections
4243 19-6-419 , 19-6-422 , and 19-6-423 , the [
4244 from the fund to third parties regarding a release covered by the fund as provided in Subsection
4245 (2) if:
4246 (a) (i) he is notified that a final judgment or award has been entered against the
4247 responsible party covered by the fund that determines liability for bodily injury or property
4248 damage to third parties caused by a release from the tank; or
4249 (ii) approved by the state risk manager, the responsible party has agreed to pay an
4250 amount in settlement of a claim arising from the release; and
4251 (b) the responsible party has failed to satisfy the judgment or award, or pay the amount
4252 agreed to.
4253 (2) The [
4254 amount of the judgment, award, or amount agreed to subject to the limitations established in
4255 Section 19-6-419 .
4256 Section 78. Section 19-6-423 is amended to read:
4257 19-6-423. Claim or suit against responsible parties -- Prerequisites for payment
4258 from fund to responsible parties or third parties -- Limitations of liability for third party
4259 claims.
4260 (1) (a) The [
4261 responsible party if the responsible party receives actual or constructive notice:
4262 (i) of a release likely to give rise to a claim; or
4263 (ii) that in connection with a release a:
4264 (A) suit has been filed; or
4265 (B) claim has been made against the responsible party for:
4266 (I) bodily injury; or
4267 (II) property damage.
4268 (b) A responsible party described in Subsection (1)(a) shall:
4269 (i) inform the state risk manager immediately of a release, suit, or claim described in
4270 Subsection (1)(a);
4271 (ii) allow the state risk manager and the state risk manager's legal counsel to participate
4272 with the responsible party and the responsible party's legal counsel in:
4273 (A) the defense of a suit;
4274 (B) determination of legal strategy;
4275 (C) other decisions affecting the defense of a suit; and
4276 (D) settlement negotiations; and
4277 (iii) conduct the defense of a suit or claim in good faith.
4278 (2) The [
4279 judgment or award to third parties if the state risk manager:
4280 (a) is allowed to participate in the defense of the suit as required under Subsection
4281 (1)(b); and
4282 (b) approves the settlement.
4283 (3) The [
4284 party pursuant to Section 19-6-421 or fund a corrective action plan pursuant to Section
4285 19-6-420 if the payment or funding does not impose a liability or make a payment for:
4286 (a) an obligation of a responsible party for:
4287 (i) workers' compensation benefits;
4288 (ii) disability benefits;
4289 (iii) unemployment compensation; or
4290 (iv) other benefits similar to benefits described in Subsections (3)(a)(i) through (iii);
4291 (b) a bodily injury award to:
4292 (i) a responsible party's employee arising from and in the course of the employee's
4293 employment; or
4294 (ii) the spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, heirs, or personal representatives of the
4295 employee described in Subsection (3)(b)(i);
4296 (c) bodily injury or property damage arising from the ownership, maintenance, use, or
4297 entrustment to others of an aircraft, motor vehicle, or watercraft;
4298 (d) property damage to a property owned by, occupied by, rented to, loaned to, bailed
4299 to, or otherwise in the care, custody, or control of a responsible party except to the extent
4300 necessary to complete a corrective action plan;
4301 (e) bodily injury or property damage for which a responsible party is obligated to pay
4302 damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract or agreement unless the
4303 responsible party entered into the contract or agreement to meet the financial responsibility
4304 requirements of:
4305 (i) Subtitle I of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 6991c et
4306 seq., or regulations issued under this act; or
4307 (ii) this part, or rules made under this part;
4308 (f) bodily injury or property damage for which a responsible party is liable to a third
4309 party solely on account of personal injury to the third party's spouse;
4310 (g) bodily injury, property damage, or the cost of corrective action caused by releases
4311 reported before May 11, 2010 that are covered by the fund if the total amount previously paid
4312 by the [
4313 plans for the releases equals:
4314 (i) $990,000 for a single release; and
4315 (ii) for all releases by a responsible party in a fiscal year:
4316 (A) $1,990,000 for a responsible party owning less than 100 petroleum storage tanks;
4317 and
4318 (B) $3,990,000 for a responsible party owning 100 or more petroleum storage tanks;
4319 and
4320 (h) bodily injury, property damage, or the cost of corrective action caused by releases
4321 reported on or after May 11, 2010, covered by the fund if the total amount previously paid by
4322 the [
4323 for the releases equals:
4324 (i) $1,990,000 for a single release; and
4325 (ii) for all releases by a responsible party in a fiscal year:
4326 (A) $1,990,000 for a responsible party owning less than 100 petroleum storage tanks;
4327 and
4328 (B) $3,990,000 for a responsible party owning 100 or more petroleum storage tanks.
4329 Section 79. Section 19-6-424 is amended to read:
4330 19-6-424. Claims not covered by fund.
4331 (1) The [
4332 unless:
4333 (a) the claim was based on a release occurring during a period for which that tank was
4334 covered by the fund;
4335 (b) the claim was made:
4336 (i) during a period for which that tank was covered by the fund; or
4337 (ii) (A) within one year after that fund-covered tank is closed; or
4338 (B) within six months after the end of the period during which the tank was covered by
4339 the fund; and
4340 (c) there are sufficient revenues in the fund.
4341 (2) The [
4342 underground storage tank installation company unless:
4343 (a) the claim was based on a release occurring during the period prior to the issuance of
4344 a certificate of compliance;
4345 (b) the claim was made within 12 months after the date the tank is issued a certificate
4346 of compliance for that tank; and
4347 (c) there are sufficient revenues in the fund.
4348 (3) The [
4349 information as necessary to demonstrate coverage by the fund at the time of submittal of the
4350 claim.
4351 (4) If the Legislature repeals or refuses to reauthorize the program for petroleum
4352 storage tanks established in this part, the [
4353 from the fund as provided in this part for claims made until the end of the time period
4354 established in Subsection (1) or (2) provided there are sufficient revenues in the fund.
4355 Section 80. Section 19-6-424.5 is amended to read:
4356 19-6-424.5. Apportionment of liability -- Liability agreements -- Legal remedies --
4357 Amounts recovered.
4358 (1) After providing notice and opportunity for comment to responsible parties
4359 identified and named under Section 19-6-420 , the [
4360 (a) issue written orders determining responsible parties;
4361 (b) issue written orders apportioning liability among responsible parties; and
4362 (c) take action, including legal action or issuing written orders, to recover costs from
4363 responsible parties, including costs of any investigation, abatement, and corrective action
4364 performed under this part.
4365 (2) (a) In any apportionment of liability, whether made by the [
4366 director or made in any administrative proceeding or judicial action, the following standards
4367 apply:
4368 (i) liability shall be apportioned among responsible parties in proportion to their
4369 respective contributions to the release; and
4370 (ii) the apportionment of liability shall be based on equitable factors, including the
4371 quantity, mobility, persistence, and toxicity of regulated substances contributed by a
4372 responsible party, and the comparative behavior of a responsible party in contributing to the
4373 release, relative to other responsible parties.
4374 (b) (i) The burden of proving proportionate contribution shall be borne by each
4375 responsible party.
4376 (ii) If a responsible party does not prove his proportionate contribution, the court, the
4377 board, or the [
4378 available evidence and the standards of Subsection (2)(a).
4379 (c) The court, the board, or the [
4380 several liability.
4381 (d) Each responsible party is strictly liable for his share of costs.
4382 (3) The failure of the [
4383 not a defense to an action under this section.
4384 (4) The [
4385 party regarding that party's proportionate share of liability or any action to be taken by that
4386 party.
4387 (5) The [
4388 agreement under this part unless all responsible parties named and identified under Subsection
4389 19-6-420 (1)(a):
4390 (a) have been notified in writing by either the [
4391 responsible party of the proposed agreement; and
4392 (b) have been given an opportunity to comment on the proposed agreement prior to the
4393 parties' entering into the agreement.
4394 (6) (a) Any party who incurs costs under this part in excess of his liability may seek
4395 contribution from any other party who is or may be liable under this part for the excess costs in
4396 the district court.
4397 (b) In resolving claims made under Subsection (6)(a), the court shall allocate costs
4398 using the standards in Subsection (2).
4399 (7) (a) A party who has resolved his liability under this part is not liable for claims for
4400 contribution regarding matters addressed in the agreement or order.
4401 (b) (i) An agreement or order determining liability under this part does not discharge
4402 any of the liability of responsible parties who are not parties to the agreement or order, unless
4403 the terms of the agreement or order expressly provide otherwise.
4404 (ii) An agreement or order determining liability made under this subsection reduces the
4405 potential liability of other responsible parties by the amount of the agreement or order.
4406 (8) (a) If the [
4407 party who has resolved his liability under this section, the [
4408 bring an action against any party who has not resolved his liability as determined in an order.
4409 (b) In apportioning liability, the standards of Subsection (2) apply.
4410 (c) A party who resolved his liability for some or all of the costs under this part may
4411 seek contribution from any person who is not a party to the agreement or order.
4412 (9) (a) An agreement or order determining liability under this part may provide that the
4413 [
4414 perform, but which the [
4415 the agreement or order.
4416 (b) If the [
4417 appropriation, he may recover the amount paid using the authority of Section 19-6-420 and this
4418 section or any other applicable authority.
4419 (c) Any amounts recovered under this section shall be deposited in the Petroleum
4420 Storage Tank Cleanup Fund created under Section 19-6-405.7 .
4421 Section 81. Section 19-6-425 is amended to read:
4422 19-6-425. Violation of part -- Civil penalty -- Suit in district court.
4423 (1) Except as provided in Section 19-6-407 , any person who violates any requirement
4424 of this part or any order issued or rule made under the authority of this part is subject to a civil
4425 penalty of not more than $10,000 per day for each day of violation.
4426 (2) The [
4427 order issued under this part by bringing a suit in the district court in the county where the
4428 underground storage tank or petroleum storage tank is located.
4429 (3) The department shall deposit the penalties collected under this part in the
4430 Petroleum Storage Tank Restricted Account created under Section 19-6-405.5 .
4431 Section 82. Section 19-6-428 is amended to read:
4432 19-6-428. Eligibility for participation in the fund.
4433 (1) Subject to the requirements of Section 19-6-410.5 , all owners and operators of
4434 existing petroleum storage tanks that were covered by the fund on May 5, 1997, may elect to
4435 continue to participate in the program by meeting the requirements of this part, including
4436 paying the tank fees and environmental assurance fee as provided in Sections 19-6-410.5 and
4437 19-6-411 .
4438 (2) Any new petroleum storage tanks that were installed after May 5, 1997, or tanks
4439 eligible under Section 19-6-415 , may elect to participate in the program by complying with the
4440 requirements of this part.
4441 (3) (a) All owners and operators of petroleum storage tanks who elect to not participate
4442 in the program, including by the use of an alternative financial assurance mechanism, shall, in
4443 order to subsequently participate in the program:
4444 (i) perform a tank tightness test;
4445 (ii) except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), perform a site check, including soil and,
4446 when applicable, groundwater samples, to demonstrate that no release of petroleum exists or
4447 that there has been adequate remediation of releases as required by board rules;
4448 (iii) provide the required tests and samples to the [
4449 (iv) comply with the requirements of this part.
4450 (b) A site check under Subsection (3)(a)(ii) is not required if the [
4451 director determines, with reasonable cause, that soil and groundwater samples are unnecessary
4452 to establish that no petroleum has been released.
4453 (4) The [
4454 Subsection (3)(a)(iii) to determine:
4455 (a) whether or not any release of the petroleum has occurred; or
4456 (b) if the remediation is adequate.
4457 Section 83. Section 19-6-601 is amended to read:
4458 19-6-601. Definitions.
4459 As used in this part[
4460 (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board appointed under
4461 Title 19, Chapter 6, Hazardous Substances.
4462 (2) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
4463 Section 84. Section 19-6-606 is amended to read:
4464 19-6-606. Enforcement.
4465 (1) The [
4466 of any place, building, or premise where lead acid batteries are sold to determine compliance
4467 with this part. The [
4468 funding is available within the department's current budget.
4469 (2) Local health departments established under Title 26A, Local Health Authorities,
4470 may enforce the provisions of this part.
4471 Section 85. Section 19-6-703 is amended to read:
4472 19-6-703. Definitions.
4473 (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created in Section
4474 19-1-106 .
4475 (2) "Commission" means the State Tax Commission.
4476 (3) "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality created in Title 19,
4477 Chapter 1, General Provisions.
4478 (4) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
4479 [
4480 [
4481 [
4482 [
4483 including maintenance of personal vehicles.
4484 [
4485 activities, including maintenance of personal vehicles.
4486 [
4487 aggregates and stores used oil collected only from DIYers.
4488 [
4489 (10) "Hazardous waste" means any substance defined as hazardous waste under Title
4490 19, Chapter 6, Hazardous Substances.
4491 (11) "Lubricating oil" means the fraction of crude oil or synthetic oil used to reduce
4492 friction in an industrial or mechanical device. Lubricating oil includes rerefined oil.
4493 (12) "Lubricating oil vendor" means the person making the first sale of a lubricating oil
4494 in Utah.
4495 (13) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the quantity and composition and
4496 the origin, routing, and destination of used oil during its transportation from the point of
4497 collection to the point of storage, processing, use, or disposal.
4498 (14) "Off-specification used oil" means used oil that exceeds levels of constituents and
4499 properties as specified by board rule and consistent with 40 CFR 279, Standards for the
4500 Management of Used Oil.
4501 (15) "On-specification used oil" means used oil that does not exceed levels of
4502 constituents and properties as specified by board rule and consistent with 40 CFR 279,
4503 Standards for the Management of Used Oil.
4504 (16) (a) "Processing" means chemical or physical operations under Subsection (16)(b)
4505 designed to produce from used oil, or to make used oil more amenable for production of:
4506 (i) gasoline, diesel, and other petroleum derived fuels;
4507 (ii) lubricants; or
4508 (iii) other products derived from used oil.
4509 (b) "Processing" includes:
4510 (i) blending used oil with virgin petroleum products;
4511 (ii) blending used oils to meet fuel specifications;
4512 (iii) filtration;
4513 (iv) simple distillation;
4514 (v) chemical or physical separation; and
4515 (vi) rerefining.
4516 (17) "Recycled oil" means oil reused for any purpose following its original use,
4517 including:
4518 (a) the purpose for which the oil was originally used; and
4519 (b) used oil processed or burned for energy recovery.
4520 (18) "Rerefining distillation bottoms" means the heavy fraction produced by vacuum
4521 distillation of filtered and dehydrated used oil. The composition varies with column operation
4522 and feedstock.
4523 (19) "Used oil" means any oil, refined from crude oil or a synthetic oil, that has been
4524 used and as a result of that use is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
4525 (20) (a) "Used oil aggregation point" means any site or facility that accepts, aggregates,
4526 or stores used oil collected only from other used oil generation sites owned or operated by the
4527 owner or operator of the aggregation point, from which used oil is transported to the
4528 aggregation point in shipments of no more than 55 gallons.
4529 (b) A used oil aggregation point may also accept oil from DIYers.
4530 (21) "Used oil burner" means a person who burns used oil for energy recovery.
4531 (22) "Used oil collection center" means any site or facility registered with the state to
4532 manage used oil and that accepts or aggregates and stores used oil collected from used oil
4533 generators, other than DIYers, who are regulated under this part and bring used oil to the
4534 collection center in shipments of no more than 55 gallons and under the provisions of this part.
4535 Used oil collection centers may accept DIYer used oil also.
4536 (23) "Used oil fuel marketer" means any person who:
4537 (a) directs a shipment of off-specification used oil from its facility to a used oil burner;
4538 or
4539 (b) first claims the used oil to be burned for energy recovery meets the used oil fuel
4540 specifications of 40 CFR 279, Standards for the Management of Used Oil, except when the oil
4541 is to be burned in accordance with rules for on-site burning in space heaters in accordance with
4542 40 CFR 279.
4543 (24) "Used oil generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces
4544 used oil or whose act first causes used oil to become subject to regulation.
4545 (25) "Used oil handler" means a person generating used oil, collecting used oil,
4546 transporting used oil, operating a transfer facility or aggregation point, processing or rerefining
4547 used oil, or marketing used oil.
4548 (26) "Used oil processor or rerefiner" means a facility that processes used oil.
4549 (27) "Used oil transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility, including
4550 loading docks, parking areas, storage areas, and other areas where shipments of used oil are
4551 held for more than 24 hours during the normal course of transportation and not longer than 35
4552 days.
4553 (28) (a) "Used oil transporter" means the following persons unless they are exempted
4554 under Subsection (28)(b):
4555 (i) any person who transports used oil;
4556 (ii) any person who collects used oil from more than one generator and transports the
4557 collected oil;
4558 (iii) except as exempted under Subsection (28)(b)(i), (ii), or (iii), any person who
4559 transports collected DIYer used oil from used oil generators, collection centers, aggregation
4560 points, or other facilities required to be permitted or registered under this part and where
4561 household DIYer used oil is collected; and
4562 (iv) owners and operators of used oil transfer facilities.
4563 (b) "Used oil transporter" does not include:
4564 (i) persons who transport oil on site;
4565 (ii) generators who transport shipments of used oil totalling 55 gallons or less from the
4566 generator to a used oil collection center as allowed under 40 CFR 279.24, Off-site Shipments;
4567 (iii) generators who transport shipments of used oil totalling 55 gallons or less from the
4568 generator to a used oil aggregation point owned or operated by the same generator as allowed
4569 under 40 CFR 279.24, Off-site Shipments;
4570 (iv) persons who transport used oil generated by DIYers from the initial generator to a
4571 used oil generator, used oil collection center, used oil aggregation point, used oil processor or
4572 rerefiner, or used oil burner subject to permitting or registration under this part; or
4573 (v) railroads that transport used oil and are regulated under 49 U.S.C. Subtitle V, Rail
4574 Programs, and 49 U.S.C. 5101 et seq., federal Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform
4575 Safety Act.
4576 Section 86. Section 19-6-704 is amended to read:
4577 19-6-704. Powers and duties of the board.
4578 (1) The board shall make rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
4579 Rulemaking Act, as necessary to administer this part and to comply with 40 CFR 279,
4580 Standards for the Management of Used Oil, to ensure the state's primacy to manage used oil
4581 under 40 CFR 279. For these purposes the board shall:
4582 [
4583
4584 [
4585
4586 [
4587
4588 [
4589 registration as a used oil collection center, used oil aggregation point, or DIYer used oil
4590 collection center;
4591 [
4592 oil are required to comply with used oil collection standards under this part, but are not
4593 required to be permitted or registered;
4594 [
4595 used oil transporters, used oil transfer facilities, used oil processors and rerefiners, and used oil
4596 fuel marketers;
4597 [
4598 responsibility the applicant shall have to qualify for a permit under Subsection (1)[
4599 [
4600 reclamation of any site or facility required to be permitted under this part;
4601 [
4602
4603 [
4604 used oil subject to regulation under this part, including:
4605 (i) manifests for handling and transferring used oil;
4606 (ii) analyses necessary to determine if used oil is on-specification or off-specification;
4607 (iii) records documenting date, quantities, and character of used oil transported,
4608 processed, transferred, or sold;
4609 (iv) records documenting persons between whom transactions under this subsection
4610 occurred; and
4611 (v) exemption of DIYer used oil collection centers from this subsection except as
4612 necessary to verify volumes of used oil picked up by a permitted transporter and the
4613 transporter's name and federal EPA identification number;
4614 [
4615 regulation under this part;
4616 [
4617 (i) used oil generators;
4618 (ii) used oil collection centers;
4619 (iii) DIYer used oil collection centers;
4620 (iv) aggregation points;
4621 (v) curbside used oil collection programs;
4622 (vi) used oil transporters;
4623 (vii) used oil transfer facilities;
4624 (viii) used oil burners;
4625 (ix) used oil processors and rerefiners; and
4626 (x) used oil marketers;
4627 [
4628 off-specification used oil and specified mixtures of used oil, subject to Section 19-6-707
4629 regarding rebuttable presumptions;
4630 [
4631 involving used oil; and
4632 [
4633 used oil collection centers.
4634 (2) The board may:
4635 (a) [
4636 or matter in the administration of this part [
4637
4638
4639 [
4640
4641 [
4642
4643 [
4644
4645 (b) require retention and submission of records required under this part; [
4646 (c) require audits of records and recordkeeping procedures required under this part and
4647 rules made under this part, except that audits of records regarding the fee imposed and
4648 collected by the commission under Sections 19-6-714 and 19-6-715 are the responsibility of the
4649 commission under Section 19-6-716 .
4650 Section 87. Section 19-6-705 is amended to read:
4651 19-6-705. Powers and duties of the director
4652 (1) The [
4653 (a) administer and enforce the rules and orders of the board;
4654 (b) issue and revoke registration numbers for DIYer used oil collection centers and
4655 used oil collection centers;
4656 (c) after public notice and opportunity for a public hearing:
4657 (i) issue or modify a permit under this part;
4658 (ii) deny a permit when the [
4659 complete; and
4660 (iii) revoke a permit issued under this section upon a finding the permit holder has
4661 failed to ensure compliance with this part;
4662 (d) (i) coordinate with federal, state, and local government, and other agencies,
4663 including entering into memoranda of understanding, to ensure effective regulation of used oil
4664 under this part, minimize duplication of regulation, and encourage responsible recycling of
4665 used oil; and
4666 (ii) as the department finds appropriate to the implementation of this part, enter into
4667 contracts with local health departments to carry out specified functions under this part and be
4668 reimbursed by the department in accordance with the contract;
4669 (e) require forms, analyses, documents, maps, and other records as the [
4670
4671 (f) establish a toll-free telephone line to provide information to the public regarding
4672 management of used oil and locations of used oil collection centers; and
4673 (g) accept, receive, and administer grants or other funds or gifts from public and
4674 private agencies, including the federal government, for the purpose of carrying out any of the
4675 functions of this part.
4676 (2) The [
4677 (a) authorize any employee of the division to enter any facility regulated under this part
4678 at reasonable times and upon presentation of credentials for the purpose of inspection, audit, or
4679 sampling of the used oil site or facility, records, operations, or product;
4680 (b) direct a person whose activities are regulated under this part to take samples for a
4681 stated purpose and cause them to be analyzed at that person's expense; and
4682 (c) [
4683 [
4684 Section 88. Section 19-6-706 is amended to read:
4685 19-6-706. Disposal of used oil -- Prohibitions.
4686 (1) (a) Except as authorized by the board or exempted in this section, a person may not
4687 place, discard, or otherwise dispose of used oil:
4688 (i) in any solid waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility operated by a political
4689 subdivision or a private entity, except as authorized for the disposal of used oil that is
4690 hazardous waste under state law;
4691 (ii) in sewers, drainage systems, septic tanks, surface or ground waters, watercourses,
4692 or any body of water; or
4693 (iii) on the ground.
4694 (b) A person who unknowingly disposes of used oil in violation of Subsection (1)(a)(i)
4695 is not guilty of a violation of this section.
4696 (2) (a) A person may dispose of an item or substance that contains de minimis amounts
4697 of oil in disposal facilities under Subsection (1)(a)(i) if:
4698 (i) to the extent reasonably possible all oil has been removed from the item or
4699 substance; and
4700 (ii) no free flowing oil remains in the item or substance.
4701 (b) (i) A nonterne plated used oil filter complies with this section if it is not mixed with
4702 hazardous waste and the oil filter has been gravity hot-drained by one of the following
4703 methods:
4704 (A) puncturing the filter antidrain back valve or the filter dome end and gravity
4705 hot-draining;
4706 (B) gravity hot-draining and crushing;
4707 (C) dismantling and gravity hot-draining; or
4708 (D) any other equivalent gravity hot-draining method that will remove used oil from
4709 the filter at least as effectively as the methods listed in this Subsection (2)(b)(i).
4710 (ii) As used in this Subsection (2), "gravity hot-drained" means drained for not less
4711 than 12 hours near operating temperature but above 60 degrees Fahrenheit.
4712 (3) A person may not mix or commingle used oil with the following substances, except
4713 as incidental to the normal course of processing, mechanical, or industrial operations:
4714 (a) solid waste that is to be disposed of in any solid waste treatment, storage, or
4715 disposal facility, except as authorized by the board under this chapter; or
4716 (b) any hazardous waste so the resulting mixture may not be recycled or used for other
4717 beneficial purpose as authorized under this part.
4718 (4) (a) This section does not apply to releases to land or water of de minimis quantities
4719 of used oil, except:
4720 (i) the release of de minimis quantities of used oil is subject to any regulation or
4721 prohibition under the authority of the department; and
4722 (ii) the release of de minimis quantities of used oil is subject to any rule made by the
4723 board under this part prohibiting the release of de minimis quantities of used oil to the land or
4724 water from tanks, pipes, or other equipment in which used oil is processed, stored, or otherwise
4725 managed by used oil handlers, except wastewater under Subsection 19-6-708 (2)(j).
4726 (b) As used in this Subsection (4), "de minimis quantities of used oil:"
4727 (i) means small spills, leaks, or drippings from pumps, machinery, pipes, and other
4728 similar equipment during normal operations; and
4729 (ii) does not include used oil discarded as a result of abnormal operations resulting in
4730 substantial leaks, spills, or other releases.
4731 (5) Used oil may not be used for road oiling, dust control, weed abatement, or other
4732 similar uses that have the potential to release used oil in the environment, except in compliance
4733 with Section 19-6-711 and board rule.
4734 (6) (a) (i) Facilities in existence on July 1, 1993, and subject to this section may apply
4735 to the [
4736 requirements of this section.
4737 (ii) The [
4738 1993, upon a finding of need under Subsection (6)(b) or (c).
4739 (iii) The total of all extensions of time granted to one applicant under this Subsection
4740 (6)(a) may not extend beyond January 1, 1995.
4741 (b) The [
4742 may request from the facility any information the [
4743 reasonably necessary to evaluate the need for an extension. This information may include:
4744 (i) why the facility is unable to comply with the requirements of this section on or
4745 before July 1, 1993;
4746 (ii) the processes or functions which prevent compliance on or before July 1, 1993;
4747 (iii) measures the facility has taken and will take to achieve compliance; and
4748 (iv) a proposed compliance schedule, including a proposed date for being in
4749 compliance with this section.
4750 (c) Additional extensions of time may be granted by the [
4751 upon application by the facility and a showing by the facility that:
4752 (i) the additional extension is reasonably necessary; and
4753 (ii) the facility has made a diligent and good faith effort to comply with this section
4754 within the time frame of the prior extension.
4755 Section 89. Section 19-6-710 is amended to read:
4756 19-6-710. Registration and permitting of used oil handlers.
4757 (1) (a) A person may not operate a DIYer used oil collection center or used oil
4758 collection center without holding a registration number issued by the [
4759 director.
4760 (b) The application for registration shall include the following information regarding
4761 the DIYer used oil collection center or used oil collection center:
4762 (i) the name and address of the operator;
4763 (ii) the location of the center;
4764 (iii) whether the center will accept DIYer used oil;
4765 (iv) the type of containment or storage to be used;
4766 (v) the status of business, zoning, and other applicable licenses and permits required by
4767 federal, state, and local governmental entities;
4768 (vi) emergency spill containment plan;
4769 (vii) proof of liability insurance or other means of financial responsibility in an amount
4770 determined by board rule for any liability that may be incurred in collecting or storing the used
4771 oil, unless waived by the board; and
4772 (viii) any other information the [
4773 the safe handling of used oil.
4774 (c) The owner or operator of the center shall notify the [
4775 writing of any changes in the information submitted to apply for registration within 20 days of
4776 the change.
4777 (d) To be reimbursed under Section 19-6-717 for collected DIYer used oil, the operator
4778 of the DIYer used oil collection center shall maintain and submit to the [
4779 director records of volumes of DIYer used oil picked up by a permitted used oil transporter, the
4780 dates of pickup, and the name and federal EPA identification number of the transporter.
4781 (2) (a) A person may not act as a used oil transporter or operate a transfer facility
4782 without holding a permit issued by the [
4783 (b) The application for a permit shall include the following information regarding
4784 acting as a transporter or operating a transfer facility:
4785 (i) the name and address of the operator;
4786 (ii) the location of the transporter's base of operations or the location of the transfer
4787 facility;
4788 (iii) maps of all transfer facilities;
4789 (iv) the methods to be used for collecting, storing, and delivering used oil;
4790 (v) the methods to be used to determine if used oil received by the transporter or
4791 facility is on-specification or off-specification;
4792 (vi) the type of containment or storage to be used;
4793 (vii) the methods of disposing of the waste by-products;
4794 (viii) the status of business, zoning, and other applicable licenses and permits required
4795 by federal, state, and local government entities;
4796 (ix) emergency spill containment plan;
4797 (x) proof of liability insurance or other means of financial responsibility in an amount
4798 determined by board rule for any liability that may be incurred in collecting, transporting, or
4799 storing the used oil;
4800 (xi) proof of form and amount of reclamation surety for any facility used in conjunction
4801 with transportation or storage of used oil; and
4802 (xii) any other information the [
4803 the safe handling of used oil.
4804 (c) The owner or operator of the facility shall notify the [
4805 in writing of any changes in the information submitted to apply for a permit within 20 days of
4806 the change.
4807 (3) (a) A person may not operate a used oil processing or rerefining facility without
4808 holding a permit issued by the [
4809 (b) The application for a permit shall include the following information regarding the
4810 used oil processing or rerefining facility:
4811 (i) the name and address of the operator;
4812 (ii) the location of the facility;
4813 (iii) a map of the facility;
4814 (iv) methods to be used to determine if used oil is on-specification or off-specification;
4815 (v) the type of containment or storage to be used;
4816 (vi) the grades of oil to be produced;
4817 (vii) the methods of disposing of the waste by-products;
4818 (viii) the status of business, zoning, and other applicable licenses and permits required
4819 by federal, state, and local governmental entities;
4820 (ix) emergency spill containment plan;
4821 (x) proof of liability insurance or other means of financial responsibility in an amount
4822 determined by board rule for any liability that may be incurred in processing or rerefining used
4823 oil;
4824 (xi) proof of form and amount of reclamation surety; and
4825 (xii) any other information the [
4826 the safe handling of used oil.
4827 (c) The owner or operator of the facility shall notify the [
4828 in writing of any changes in the information submitted to apply for a permit within 20 days of
4829 the change.
4830 (4) (a) A person may not act as a used oil fuel marketer without holding a registration
4831 number issued by the [
4832 (b) The application for a registration number shall include the following information
4833 regarding acting as a used oil fuel marketer:
4834 (i) the name and address of the marketer;
4835 (ii) the location of any facilities used by the marketer to collect, transport, process, or
4836 store used oil subject to separate permits under this part;
4837 (iii) the status of business, zoning, and other applicable licenses and permits required
4838 by federal, state, and local governmental entities, including any registrations or permits
4839 required under this part to collect, process, transport, or store used oil; and
4840 (iv) any other information the [
4841 the safe handling of used oil.
4842 (c) The owner or operator of the facility shall notify the [
4843 in writing of any changes in the information submitted to apply for a permit within 20 days of
4844 the change.
4845 (5) (a) Unless exempted under Subsection 19-6-708 (2), a person may not burn used oil
4846 for energy recovery without holding a permit issued by the [
4847 authorization from the department.
4848 (b) The application for a permit shall include the following information regarding the
4849 used oil burning facility:
4850 (i) the name and address of the operator;
4851 (ii) the location of the facility;
4852 (iii) methods to be used to determine if used oil is on-specification or off-specification;
4853 (iv) the type of containment or storage to be used;
4854 (v) the type of burner to be used;
4855 (vi) the methods of disposing of the waste by-products;
4856 (vii) the status of business, zoning, and other applicable licenses and permits required
4857 by federal, state, and local governmental entities;
4858 (viii) emergency spill containment plan;
4859 (ix) proof of liability insurance or other means of financial responsibility in an amount
4860 determined by board rule for any liability that may be incurred in processing or rerefining used
4861 oil;
4862 (x) proof of form and amount of reclamation surety for any facility receiving and
4863 burning used oil; and
4864 (xi) any other information the [
4865 the safe handling of used oil.
4866 (c) The owner or operator of the facility shall notify the [
4867 in writing of any changes in the information submitted to apply for a permit within 20 days of
4868 the change.
4869 Section 90. Section 19-6-711 is amended to read:
4870 19-6-711. Application of used oil to the land -- Limitations.
4871 (1) A person may not apply used oil to the land as a dust or weed suppressant or for
4872 other similar applications to the land unless the person has obtained:
4873 (a) written authorization as required under this chapter; and
4874 (b) a permit from the [
4875 (2) The applicant for a permit under this section shall demonstrate:
4876 (a) the used oil is not mixed with any hazardous waste;
4877 (b) the used oil does not exhibit any hazardous characteristic other than ignitability;
4878 and
4879 (c) how the applicant will minimize the impact on the environment of the use of used
4880 oil as a dust or weed suppressant or for other similar applications to the land.
4881 (3) Prior to acting on the application, the [
4882 public notice of the application and shall provide opportunity for public comment under
4883 Section 19-6-712 .
4884 Section 91. Section 19-6-712 is amended to read:
4885 19-6-712. Issuance of permits -- Public comments and hearing.
4886 (1) In considering permit applications under this part, the [
4887 shall:
4888 (a) ensure the application is complete prior to acting on it;
4889 (b) (i) publish notice of the permit application and the opportunity for public comment
4890 in:
4891 (A) a newspaper of general circulation in the state; and
4892 (B) a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the operation for which the
4893 application is submitted is located; and
4894 (ii) as required in Section 45-1-101 ;
4895 (c) allow the public to submit written comments to the [
4896 within 15 days after date of publication;
4897 (d) consider timely submitted public comments and the criteria established in this part
4898 and by rule in determining whether to grant the permit; and
4899 (e) send a written copy of the decision to the applicant and to persons submitting
4900 timely comments under Subsection (1)(c).
4901 (2) The [
4902 the board only within the 30 days after the day the decision is mailed to the applicant.
4903 Section 92. Section 19-6-717 is amended to read:
4904 19-6-717. Used oil collection incentive payment.
4905 (1) (a) The division shall pay a recycling incentive to registered DIYer used oil
4906 collection centers and curbside collection programs approved by the [
4907 director for each gallon of used oil collected from DIYer used oil generators on and after July
4908 1, 1994, and transported by a permitted used oil transporter to a permitted used oil processor,
4909 rerefiner, burner, or to another disposal method authorized by board rule.
4910 (b) Payment of the incentive is subject to Section 19-6-720 regarding priorities.
4911 (2) The board shall by rule establish the amount of the payment, which shall be $.16
4912 per gallon unless the board determines the incentive should be:
4913 (a) reduced to ensure adequate funds to meet priorities set in Section 19-6-720 and to
4914 reimburse all qualified operations under this section; or
4915 (b) increased to promote collection of used oil under this part and the funds are
4916 available in the account created under Section 19-6-719 after meeting the priorities set in
4917 Section 19-6-720 .
4918 Section 93. Section 19-6-718 is amended to read:
4919 19-6-718. Limitations on liability of operator of collection center.
4920 (1) Subject to Subsection (2), a person may not recover from the owner, operator, or
4921 lessor of a DIYer used oil collection center any costs of response actions at another location
4922 resulting from a release or threatened release of used oil collected at the center if the owner,
4923 operator, or lessor:
4924 (a) operates the DIYer used oil collection center in compliance with this part and rules
4925 made under this part and the [
4926 compliance with this part and rules made under this part;
4927 (b) does not mix any used oil collected with any hazardous waste or PCBs or with any
4928 material that would render the resulting mixture as a hazardous waste;
4929 (c) does not knowingly accept any used oil containing hazardous waste or PCBs;
4930 (d) ensures the used oil is transported from the center by a permitted used oil
4931 transporter; and
4932 (e) complies with Section 114(c) of the federal Comprehensive Environmental
4933 Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended.
4934 (2) (a) This section applies only to that portion of a used oil collection center used for
4935 the collection of DIYer used oil under this part.
4936 (b) This section does not apply to willful or grossly negligent activities of the owner,
4937 operator, or lessor in operating the DIYer used oil collection center.
4938 (c) This section does not affect or modify in any way the obligations or liability of any
4939 person other than the owner, operator, or lessor under any other provisions of state or federal
4940 law, including common law, for injury or damage resulting from a release of used oil or
4941 hazardous waste.
4942 (d) For the purposes of this section, the owner, operator, or lessor of a DIYer used oil
4943 collection center may presume a quantity of not more than five gallons, except under
4944 Subsection (2)(e), of used oil accepted from a member of the public is not mixed with a
4945 hazardous waste or PCBs if:
4946 (i) the oil is accepted in accordance with the inspection and identification procedures
4947 required by board rule; and
4948 (ii) the owner, operator, or lessor operates the DIYer used oil collection center in good
4949 faith and in compliance with this part and rules made under this part.
4950 (e) The owner, operator, or lessor of a DIYer used oil collection center may claim the
4951 presumption under Subsection (2)(d) for a quantity of more than five gallons but not more than
4952 55 gallons, if the quantity received is:
4953 (i) from a farmer exempted under Subsection 19-6-708 (1)(b);
4954 (ii) generated by farming equipment; and
4955 (iii) handled in accordance with all requirements of this section.
4956 (f) This section does not affect or modify the obligations or liability of any owner,
4957 operator, or lessor of a DIYer used oil collection center regarding that person's services or
4958 functions other than accepting DIYer used oil under this part.
4959 Section 94. Section 19-6-721 is amended to read:
4960 19-6-721. Violations -- Proceedings -- Orders.
4961 (1) A person who violates any provision of this part or any order, permit, rule, or other
4962 requirement issued or adopted under this part is subject in a civil proceeding to a penalty of not
4963 more than $10,000 per day for each day of violation, in addition to any fine otherwise imposed
4964 for violation of this part.
4965 (2) (a) The [
4966 person from continuing the violation and to require the person to perform necessary
4967 remediation.
4968 (b) Suit under Subsection (2)(a) may be brought in any court in the state having
4969 jurisdiction in the county of residence of the person charged or in the county where the
4970 violation is alleged to have occurred.
4971 (c) The court may grant prohibitory and mandatory injunctions, including temporary
4972 restraining orders.
4973 (3) When the [
4974 part that presents an immediate threat to the public health or welfare, the [
4975 director may issue an emergency order under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures
4976 Act.
4977 (4) All penalties collected under this section shall be deposited in the account created
4978 in Section 19-6-719 .
4979 Section 95. Section 19-6-803 is amended to read:
4980 19-6-803. Definitions.
4981 As used in this part:
4982 (1) "Abandoned waste tire pile" means a waste tire pile regarding which the local
4983 department of health has not been able to:
4984 (a) locate the persons responsible for the tire pile; or
4985 (b) cause the persons responsible for the tire pile to remove it.
4986 (2) (a) "Beneficial use" means the use of chipped tires in a manner that is not recycling,
4987 storage, or disposal, but that serves as a replacement for another product or material for specific
4988 purposes.
4989 (b) "Beneficial use" includes the use of chipped tires:
4990 (i) as daily landfill cover;
4991 (ii) for civil engineering purposes;
4992 (iii) as low-density, light-weight aggregate fill; or
4993 (iv) for septic or drain field construction.
4994 (c) "Beneficial use" does not include the use of waste tires or material derived from
4995 waste tires:
4996 (i) in the construction of fences; or
4997 (ii) as fill, other than low-density, light-weight aggregate fill.
4998 (3) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created under
4999 Section 19-1-106 .
5000 (4) "Chip" or "chipped tire" means a two inch square or smaller piece of a waste tire.
5001 (5) "Commission" means the Utah State Tax Commission.
5002 (6) (a) "Consumer" means a person who purchases a new tire to satisfy a direct need,
5003 rather than for resale.
5004 (b) "Consumer" includes a person who purchases a new tire for a motor vehicle to be
5005 rented or leased.
5006 (7) "Crumb rubber" means waste tires that have been ground, shredded, or otherwise
5007 reduced in size such that the particles are less than or equal to 3/8 inch in diameter and are 98%
5008 wire free by weight.
5009 (8) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
5010 [
5011 tire in or on any land or in any water in the state.
5012 [
5013 or on any land or in any water in the state.
5014 [
5015 [
5016 19-1-105 (1)(e).
5017 [
5018
5019 (12) "Fund" means the Waste Tire Recycling Fund created in Section 19-6-807 .
5020 (13) "Landfill waste tire pile" means a waste tire pile:
5021 (a) located within the permitted boundary of a landfill operated by a governmental
5022 entity; and
5023 (b) consisting solely of waste tires brought to a landfill for disposal and diverted from
5024 the landfill waste stream to the waste tire pile.
5025 (14) "Local health department" means the local health department, as defined in
5026 Section 26A-1-102 , with jurisdiction over the recycler.
5027 (15) "Materials derived from waste tires" means tire sections, tire chips, tire
5028 shreddings, rubber, steel, fabric, or other similar materials derived from waste tires.
5029 (16) "Mobile facility" means a mobile facility capable of cutting waste tires on site so
5030 the waste tires may be effectively disposed of by burial, such as in a landfill.
5031 (17) "New motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle which has never been titled or
5032 registered.
5033 (18) "Passenger tire equivalent" means a measure of mixed sizes of tires where each 25
5034 pounds of whole tires or material derived from waste tires is equal to one waste tire.
5035 (19) "Proceeds of the fee" means the money collected by the commission from
5036 payment of the recycling fee including interest and penalties on delinquent payments.
5037 (20) "Recycler" means a person who:
5038 (a) annually uses, or can reasonably be expected within the next year to use, a
5039 minimum of 100,000 waste tires generated in the state or 1,000 tons of waste tires generated in
5040 the state to recover energy or produce energy, crumb rubber, chipped tires, or an ultimate
5041 product; and
5042 (b) is registered as a recycler in accordance with Section 19-6-806 .
5043 (21) "Recycling fee" means the fee provided for in Section 19-6-805 .
5044 (22) "Shredded waste tires" means waste tires or material derived from waste tires that
5045 has been reduced to a six inch square or smaller.
5046 (23) (a) "Storage" means the placement of waste tires in a manner that does not
5047 constitute disposal of the waste tires.
5048 (b) "Storage" does not include:
5049 (i) the use of waste tires as ballast to maintain covers on agricultural materials or to
5050 maintain covers at a construction site; or
5051 (ii) the storage for five or fewer days of waste tires or material derived from waste tires
5052 that are to be recycled or applied to a beneficial use.
5053 (24) (a) "Store" means to place waste tires in a manner that does not constitute disposal
5054 of the waste tires.
5055 (b) "Store" does not include:
5056 (i) to use waste tires as ballast to maintain covers on agricultural materials or to
5057 maintain covers at a construction site; or
5058 (ii) to store for five or fewer days waste tires or material derived from waste tires that
5059 are to be recycled or applied to a beneficial use.
5060 (25) "Tire" means a pneumatic rubber covering designed to encircle the wheel of a
5061 vehicle in which a person or property is or may be transported or drawn upon a highway.
5062 (26) "Tire retailer" means any person engaged in the business of selling new tires either
5063 as replacement tires or as part of a new vehicle sale.
5064 (27) (a) "Ultimate product" means a product that has as a component materials derived
5065 from waste tires and that the [
5066 (b) "Ultimate product" includes pyrolized materials derived from:
5067 (i) waste tires; or
5068 (ii) chipped tires.
5069 (c) "Ultimate product" does not include a product regarding which a waste tire remains
5070 after the product is disposed of or disassembled.
5071 (28) "Waste tire" means a tire that is no longer suitable for its original intended
5072 purpose because of wear, damage, or defect.
5073 (29) "Waste tire pile" means a pile of 1,000 or more waste tires at one location.
5074 (30) (a) "Waste tire transporter" means a person or entity engaged in picking up or
5075 transporting at one time more than 10 whole waste tires, or the equivalent amount of material
5076 derived from waste tires, generated in Utah for the purpose of storage, processing, or disposal.
5077 (b) "Waste tire transporter" includes any person engaged in the business of collecting,
5078 hauling, or transporting waste tires or who performs these functions for another person, except
5079 as provided in Subsection (30)(c).
5080 (c) "Waste tire transporter" does not include:
5081 (i) a person transporting waste tires generated solely by:
5082 (A) that person's personal vehicles;
5083 (B) a commercial vehicle fleet owned or operated by that person or that person's
5084 employer;
5085 (C) vehicles sold, leased, or purchased by a motor vehicle dealership owned or
5086 operated by that person or that person's employer; or
5087 (D) a retail tire business owned or operated by that person or that person's employer;
5088 (ii) a solid waste collector operating under a license issued by a unit of local
5089 government as defined in Section 63M-5-103 , or a local health department;
5090 (iii) a recycler of waste tires;
5091 (iv) a person transporting tires by rail as a common carrier subject to federal regulation;
5092 or
5093 (v) a person transporting processed or chipped tires.
5094 Section 96. Section 19-6-804 is amended to read:
5095 19-6-804. Restrictions on disposal of tires -- Penalties.
5096 (1) (a) After January 1, 1994, an individual, including a waste tire transporter, may not
5097 dispose of more than four whole tires at one time in a landfill or any other location in the state
5098 authorized by the [
5099 authorized by board rule.
5100 (b) Tires are exempt from this Subsection (1) if the original tire has a rim diameter
5101 greater than 24.5 inches.
5102 (c) No person, including a waste tire transporter, may dispose of waste tires or store
5103 waste tires in any manner not allowed under this part or rules made under this part.
5104 (2) The operator of the landfill or other authorized location shall direct that the waste
5105 tires be disposed in a designated area to facilitate retrieval if a market becomes available for the
5106 disposed waste tires or material derived from waste tires.
5107 (3) An individual, including a waste tire transporter, may dispose of shredded waste
5108 tires in a landfill in accordance with Section 19-6-812 , and may also, without reimbursement,
5109 dispose in a landfill materials derived from waste tires that do not qualify for reimbursement
5110 under Section 19-6-812 , but the landfill shall dispose of the material in accordance with
5111 Section 19-6-812 .
5112 (4) (a) An individual, including a waste tire transporter, violating this section is subject
5113 to enforcement proceedings and a civil penalty of not more than $100 per waste tire or per
5114 passenger tire equivalent disposed of in violation of this section. A warning notice may be
5115 issued prior to taking further enforcement action under this Subsection (4).
5116 (b) A civil proceeding to enforce this section and collect penalties under this section
5117 may be brought in the district court where the violation occurred by the board, the local health
5118 department, or the county attorney having jurisdiction over the location where the tires were
5119 disposed in violation of this section.
5120 (c) Penalties collected under this section shall be deposited in the fund.
5121 Section 97. Section 19-6-806 is amended to read:
5122 19-6-806. Registration of waste tire transporters and recyclers.
5123 (1) (a) The [
5124 act as a waste tire transporter if the applicant meets the requirements of this section.
5125 (b) An applicant for registration as a waste tire transporter shall:
5126 (i) submit an application in a form prescribed by the [
5127 (ii) pay a fee as determined by the board under Section 63J-1-504 ;
5128 (iii) provide the name and business address of the operator;
5129 (iv) provide proof of liability insurance or other form of financial responsibility in an
5130 amount determined by board rule, but not more than $300,000, for any liability the waste tire
5131 transporter may incur in transporting waste tires; and
5132 (v) meet requirements established by board rule.
5133 (c) The holder of a registration under this section shall advise the [
5134 director in writing of any changes in application information provided to the [
5135
5136 (d) If the [
5137 disposed of tires other than as allowed under this part, the [
5138 conduct an investigation and, after complying with the procedural requirements of Title 63G,
5139 Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, may revoke the registration.
5140 (2) (a) The [
5141 act as a waste tire recycler if the applicant meets the requirements of this section.
5142 (b) An applicant for registration as a waste tire recycler shall:
5143 (i) submit an application in a form prescribed by the [
5144 (ii) pay a fee as determined by the board under Section 63J-1-504 ;
5145 (iii) provide the name and business address of the operator of the recycling business;
5146 (iv) provide proof of liability insurance or other form of financial responsibility in an
5147 amount determined by board rule, but not more than $300,000, for any liability the waste tire
5148 recycler may incur in storing and recycling waste tires;
5149 (v) engage in activities as described under the definition of recycler in Section
5150 19-6-803 ; and
5151 (vi) meet requirements established by board rule.
5152 (c) The holder of a registration under this section shall advise the [
5153 director in writing of any changes in application information provided to the [
5154
5155 (d) If the [
5156 falsified any information provided in an application for partial reimbursement under this
5157 section, the [
5158 requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, revoke the registration.
5159 (3) The board shall establish a uniform fee for registration which shall be imposed by
5160 any unit of local government or local health department that requires a registration fee as part
5161 of the registration of waste tire transporters or waste tire recyclers.
5162 Section 98. Section 19-6-811 is amended to read:
5163 19-6-811. Funding for management of certain landfill or abandoned waste tire
5164 piles -- Limitations.
5165 (1) (a) A county or municipality may apply to the [
5166 payment from the fund for costs of a waste tire transporter or recycler to remove waste tires
5167 from an abandoned waste tire pile or a landfill waste tire pile operated by a state or local
5168 governmental entity and deliver the waste tires to a recycler.
5169 (b) The [
5170 (i) 100% of a waste tire transporter's or recycler's costs allowed under Subsection (2) to
5171 remove waste tires from an abandoned waste tire pile or landfill waste tire pile and deliver the
5172 waste tires to a recycler, if no waste tires have been added to the abandoned waste tire pile or
5173 landfill waste tire pile on or after July 1, 2001; or
5174 (ii) 60% of a waste tire transporter's or recycler's costs allowed under Subsection (2) to
5175 remove waste tires from an abandoned waste tire pile or landfill waste tire pile and deliver the
5176 waste tires to a recycler, if waste tires have been added to the abandoned waste tire pile or
5177 landfill waste tire pile on or after July 1, 2001.
5178 (c) The [
5179 tire pile removal and delivery costs, if the [
5180 payment of the costs will result in there not being sufficient money in the fund to pay expected
5181 reimbursements for recycling or beneficial use under Section 19-6-809 during the next quarter.
5182 (2) (a) The maximum number of miles for which the [
5183 reimburse for transportation costs incurred by a waste tire transporter under this section, is the
5184 number of miles, one way, between the location of the waste tire pile and the State Capitol
5185 Building, in Salt Lake City, Utah, or to the recycler, whichever is less.
5186 (b) This maximum number of miles available for reimbursement applies regardless of
5187 the location of the recycler to which the waste tires are transported under this section.
5188 (c) The [
5189 bid under this section of the maximum number of miles available for reimbursement under this
5190 Subsection (2).
5191 (d) The cost under this Subsection (2) shall be calculated based on the cost to transport
5192 one ton of waste tires one mile.
5193 (3) (a) The county or municipality shall through a competitive bidding process make a
5194 good faith attempt to obtain a bid for the removal of the landfill or abandoned waste tire pile
5195 and transport to a recycler.
5196 (b) The county or municipality shall submit to the [
5197 (i) (A) (I) a statement from the local health department stating the landfill waste tire
5198 pile is operated by a state or local governmental entity and consists solely of waste tires
5199 diverted from the landfill waste stream;
5200 (II) a description of the size and location of the landfill waste tire pile; and
5201 (III) landfill records showing the origin of the waste tires; or
5202 (B) a statement from the local health department that the waste tire pile is abandoned;
5203 and
5204 (ii) (A) the bid selected by the county or municipality; or
5205 (B) if no bids were received, a statement to that fact.
5206 (4) (a) If a bid is submitted, the [
5207 is reasonable, taking into consideration:
5208 (i) the location and size of the landfill or abandoned waste tire pile;
5209 (ii) the number and size of any other landfill or abandoned waste tire piles in the area;
5210 and
5211 (iii) the current market for waste tires of the type in the landfill or abandoned waste tire
5212 pile.
5213 (b) The [
5214 days of receipt of the bid whether or not the bid is determined to be reasonable.
5215 (5) (a) If the bid is found to be reasonable, the county or municipality may proceed to
5216 have the landfill or abandoned waste tire pile removed pursuant to the bid.
5217 (b) The county or municipality shall advise the [
5218 landfill or abandoned waste tire pile has been removed.
5219 (6) The recycler or waste tire transporter that removed the landfill or abandoned waste
5220 tires pursuant to the bid shall submit to the [
5221 manifest, which shall state:
5222 (a) the number or tons of waste tires transported;
5223 (b) the location from which they were removed;
5224 (c) the recycler to which the waste tires were delivered; and
5225 (d) the amount charged by the transporter or recycler.
5226 (7) Upon receipt of the information required under Subsection (6), and determination
5227 that the information is complete, the [
5228 receipt authorize the Division of Finance to reimburse the waste tire transporter or recycler the
5229 amount established under this section.
5230 Section 99. Section 19-6-817 is amended to read:
5231 19-6-817. Administrative fees to local health departments -- Reporting by local
5232 health departments.
5233 (1) (a) The Division of Finance shall pay quarterly to the local health departments from
5234 the fund $5 per ton of tires for which a partial reimbursement is made under this part.
5235 (b) The payment under Subsection (1)(a) shall be allocated among the local health
5236 departments in accordance with recommendations of the Utah Association of Local Health
5237 Officers.
5238 (c) The recommendation shall be based on the efforts expended and the costs incurred
5239 by the local health departments in enforcing this part and rules made under this part.
5240 (2) (a) Each local health department shall track all waste tires removed from
5241 abandoned waste tire piles within its jurisdiction, to determine the amount of waste tires
5242 removed and the recycler to which they are transported.
5243 (b) The local health department shall report this information quarterly to the [
5244
5245 Section 100. Section 19-6-819 is amended to read:
5246 19-6-819. Powers and duties of the board.
5247 (1) The board shall make rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
5248 Rulemaking Act, as necessary to administer this part. For these purposes the board shall
5249 establish by rule:
5250 (a) conditions and procedures for acting to issue or revoke a registration as a waste tire
5251 recycler or transporter under Section 19-6-806 ;
5252 (b) the amount of liability insurance or other financial responsibility the applicant is
5253 required to have to qualify for registration under Section 19-6-806 , which amount may not be
5254 more than $300,000 for any liability the waste tire transporter or recycler may incur in
5255 recycling or transporting waste tires;
5256 (c) the form and amount of financial assurance required for a site or facility used to
5257 store waste tires, which amount shall be sufficient to ensure the cleanup or removal of waste
5258 tires from that site or facility;
5259 (d) standards and required documentation for tracking and record keeping of waste
5260 tires subject to regulation under this part, including:
5261 (i) manifests for handling and transferring waste tires;
5262 (ii) records documenting date, quantities, and size or type of waste tires transported,
5263 processed, transferred, or sold;
5264 (iii) records documenting persons between whom transactions under this Subsection
5265 (1)(d) occurred and the amounts of waste tires involved in those transactions; and
5266 (iv) requiring that documentation under this Subsection (1)(d) be submitted on a
5267 quarterly basis, and that this documentation be made available for public inspection;
5268 (e) authorize inspections and audits of waste tire recycling, transportation, or storage
5269 facilities and operations subject to this part;
5270 (f) standards for payments authorized under Sections 19-6-809 , 19-6-810 , 19-6-811 ,
5271 and 19-6-812 ;
5272 (g) regarding applications to the [
5273 under Section 19-6-811 , the content of the reimbursement application form and the procedure
5274 to apply for reimbursement;
5275 (h) requirements for the storage of waste tires, including permits for storage;
5276 (i) the types of energy recovery or other appropriate environmentally compatible uses
5277 eligible for reimbursement, which:
5278 (i) shall include pyrolization, but not retreading; and
5279 (ii) shall apply to all waste tire recycling and beneficial use reimbursements within the
5280 state;
5281 (j) the applications of waste tires that are not eligible for reimbursement;
5282 (k) the applications of waste tires that are considered to be the storage or disposal of
5283 waste tires; and
5284 (l) provisions governing the storage or disposal of waste tires, including the process for
5285 issuing permits for waste tire storage sites.
5286 (2) The board may:
5287 (a) require retention and submission of the records required under this part;
5288 (b) require audits of the records and record keeping procedures required under this part
5289 and rules made under this part, except that audits of records regarding the fee imposed and
5290 collected by the commission under Sections 19-6-805 and 19-6-808 are the responsibility of the
5291 commission; and
5292 (c) as necessary, make rules requiring additional information as the board determines
5293 necessary to effectively administer Section 19-6-812 , which rules may not place an undue
5294 burden on the operation of landfills.
5295 Section 101. Section 19-6-820 is amended to read:
5296 19-6-820. Powers and duties of the director.
5297 (1) The [
5298 (a) administer and enforce the rules and orders of the board;
5299 (b) issue and revoke registrations for waste tire recyclers and transporters; and
5300 (c) require forms, analyses, documents, maps, and other records as the [
5301
5302 (i) issue recycler and transporter registrations;
5303 (ii) authorize reimbursements under Section 19-6-811 ;
5304 (iii) inspect a site, facility, or activity regulated under this part; and
5305 (iv) issue permits for and inspect waste tire storage sites.
5306 (2) The [
5307 (a) authorize any division employee to enter any site or facility regulated under this
5308 part at reasonable times and upon presentation of credentials, for the purpose of inspection,
5309 audit, or sampling:
5310 (i) at the site or facility; or
5311 (ii) of the records, operations, or products;
5312 (b) as authorized by the board, enforce board rules by issuing orders which are
5313 subsequently subject to the board's amendment or revocation; and
5314 (c) coordinate with federal, state, and local governments, and other agencies, including
5315 entering into memoranda of understanding, to:
5316 (i) ensure effective regulation of waste tires under this part;
5317 (ii) minimize duplication of regulation; and
5318 (iii) encourage responsible recycling of waste tires.
5319 Section 102. Section 19-6-821 is amended to read:
5320 19-6-821. Violations -- Civil proceedings and penalties -- Orders.
5321 (1) A person who violates any provision of this part or any order, permit, plan
5322 approval, or rule issued or adopted under this part is subject to a civil penalty of not more than
5323 $10,000 per day for each day of violation as determined in a civil hearing under Title 63G,
5324 Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, except:
5325 (a) any violation of Subsection 19-6-804 (1) or (3), regarding landfills, is subject to the
5326 penalty under Subsection 19-6-804 (4) rather than the penalties under this section; and
5327 (b) any violation of Subsection 19-6-808 (1), (2), or (3) regarding payment of the
5328 recycling fee by the tire retailer is subject to penalties as provided in Subsection 19-6-808 (4)
5329 rather than the penalties under this section.
5330 (2) The [
5331 person from continuing a violation of this part and to require the person to perform necessary
5332 remediation regarding a violation of this part.
5333 (3) When the [
5334 part that presents an immediate threat to the public health or welfare, the [
5335 director may issue an emergency order under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures
5336 Act.
5337 (4) The [
5338 recycler or transporter who violates any provision of this part or any order, plan approval,
5339 permit, or rule issued or adopted under this part.
5340 (5) The [
5341 facility that is in violation of any provision of this part or any order, plan approval, permit, or
5342 rule issued or adopted under this part.
5343 (6) If a person has been convicted of violating a provision of this part prior to a finding
5344 by the [
5345 hearing, the [
5346 section for the same offense for which the conviction was obtained.
5347 (7) All penalties collected under this section shall be deposited in the fund.
5348 Section 103. Section 19-6-1002 is amended to read:
5349 19-6-1002. Definitions.
5350 (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created in Section
5351 [
5352 [
5353
5354 (2) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
5355 (3) "Division" means the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste, created in
5356 Subsection 19-1-105 (1)(e).
5357 [
5358 a vehicle.
5359 [
5360 convenience light switch assembly installed in a vehicle's hood or trunk.
5361 [
5362 corporation, the state, or a local government.
5363 [
5364 vehicles.
5365 [
5366 or sport utility vehicle that may contain one or more mercury switches.
5367 Section 104. Section 19-6-1003 is amended to read:
5368 19-6-1003. Board and director powers.
5369 (1) By following the procedures and requirements of Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
5370 Administrative Rulemaking Act, the board shall make rules:
5371 (a) governing administrative proceedings under this part;
5372 (b) specifying the terms and conditions under which the [
5373 shall approve, disapprove, revoke, or review a plan submitted by a manufacturer; and
5374 (c) governing reports and educational materials required by this part.
5375 (2) These rules shall include:
5376 (a) time requirements for plan submission, review, approval, and implementation;
5377 (b) a public notice and comment period for a proposed plan; and
5378 (c) safety standards for the collection, packaging, transportation, storage, recycling, and
5379 disposal of mercury switches.
5380 [
5381
5382
5383 [
5384 (3) The director may:
5385 (a) review and approve or disapprove plans, specifications, or other data related to
5386 mercury switch removal;
5387 (b) enforce a rule by issuing a notice, an order, or both[
5388
5389 (c) initiate an administrative action to compel compliance with this part and any rules
5390 adopted under this part[
5391 (d) request the attorney general to bring an action for injunctive relief and enforcement
5392 of this part, including imposition of the penalty described in Section 19-6-1006 .
5393 (5) The [
5394 review by following the procedures and requirements of Section 63J-1-504 .
5395 Section 105. Section 19-6-1004 is amended to read:
5396 19-6-1004. Mercury switch collection plan -- Reimbursement for mercury switch
5397 removal.
5398 (1) (a) Each manufacturer of any vehicle sold within this state, individually or in
5399 cooperation with other manufacturers, shall submit a plan, accompanied by a fee, to the
5400 [
5401 (b) If the [
5402 submit an amended plan within 90 days.
5403 (c) A manufacturer shall submit an updated plan within 90 days of any change in the
5404 information required by Subsection (2).
5405 (d) The [
5406 at any time upon finding that an approved plan as implemented has failed to meet the
5407 requirements of this part.
5408 (e) If the manufacturer does not know or is uncertain about whether or not a switch
5409 contains mercury, the plan shall presume that the switch contains mercury.
5410 (2) The plan shall include:
5411 (a) the make, model, and year of any vehicle, including current and anticipated future
5412 production models, sold by the manufacturer that may contain one or more mercury switches;
5413 (b) the description and location of each mercury switch for each make, model, and year
5414 of vehicle;
5415 (c) education materials that include:
5416 (i) safe and environmentally sound methods for mercury switch removal; and
5417 (ii) information about hazards related to mercury and the proper handling of mercury;
5418 (d) a method for storage and disposal of the mercury switches, including packaging and
5419 shipping of mercury switches to an authorized recycling, storage, or disposal facility;
5420 (e) a procedure for the transfer of information among persons involved with the plan to
5421 comply with reporting requirements; and
5422 (f) a method to implement and finance the plan, which shall include the prompt
5423 reimbursement by the manufacturer of costs incurred by a person removing and collecting
5424 mercury switches.
5425 (3) In order to ensure that the costs of removal and collection of mercury switches are
5426 not borne by any other person, the manufacturers of vehicles sold in the state shall pay:
5427 (a) a minimum of $5 for each mercury switch removed by a person as partial
5428 compensation for the labor and other costs incurred in removing the mercury switch;
5429 (b) the cost of packaging necessary to store or transport mercury switches to recycling,
5430 storage, or disposal facilities;
5431 (c) the cost of shipping mercury switches to recycling, storage, or disposal facilities;
5432 (d) the cost of recycling, storage, or disposal of mercury switches;
5433 (e) the cost of the preparation and distribution of educational materials; and
5434 (f) the cost of maintaining all appropriate record-keeping systems.
5435 (4) Manufacturers of vehicles sold within this state shall reimburse a person for each
5436 mercury switch removed and collected without regard to the date on which the mercury switch
5437 is removed and collected.
5438 (5) The manufacturer shall ensure that plan implementation occurs by July 1, 2007.
5439 Section 106. Section 19-6-1005 is amended to read:
5440 19-6-1005. Reporting requirements.
5441 (1) Each manufacturer that is required to implement a plan shall submit, either
5442 individually or in cooperation with other manufacturers, an annual report on the plan's
5443 implementation to the [
5444 date on which the manufacturer is required to begin plan implementation.
5445 (2) The report shall include:
5446 (a) the number of mercury switches collected;
5447 (b) the number of mercury switches for which the manufacturer has provided
5448 reimbursement;
5449 (c) a description of the successes and failures of the plan; and
5450 (d) a statement that details the costs required to implement the plan.
5451 Section 107. Section 19-6-1102 is amended to read:
5452 19-6-1102. Definitions.
5453 As used in this part:
5454 (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board created under
5455 Section 19-1-106 .
5456 [
5457 (2) "Director" means the director of the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste.
5458 (3) "Division" means the Division of Solid and Hazardous Waste, created in
5459 Subsection 19-1-105 (1)(e).
5460 [
5461 (i) inert construction debris;
5462 (ii) fly ash;
5463 (iii) bottom ash;
5464 (iv) slag;
5465 (v) flue gas emission control residuals generated primarily from the combustion of coal
5466 or other fossil fuel;
5467 (vi) residual from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of an ore or mineral;
5468 (vii) cement kiln dust; or
5469 (viii) contaminated soil extracted as a result of a corrective action subject to an
5470 operation plan under Part 1, Solid and Hazardous Waste Act.
5471 (b) "Industrial byproduct" does not include material that:
5472 (i) causes a public nuisance or public health hazard; or
5473 (ii) is a hazardous waste under Part 1, Solid and Hazardous Waste Act.
5474 [
5475 construct:
5476 (a) a highway or road;
5477 (b) a curb;
5478 (c) a gutter;
5479 (d) a walkway;
5480 (e) a parking facility;
5481 (f) a public transportation facility; or
5482 (g) a facility, infrastructure, or transportation improvement that benefits the public.
5483 [
5484 Section 108. Section 19-6-1104 is amended to read:
5485 19-6-1104. Applications for industrial byproduct reuse -- Approval by the
5486 director.
5487 (1) A person may submit to the [
5488 of an industrial byproduct from an inactive industrial site, as defined in Section 17C-1-102 .
5489 (2) The [
5490 Subsection (1) within 60 days of the day on which the [
5491 the application is complete.
5492 (3) The [
5493 Subsection (1) if the applicant shows:
5494 (a) the industrial byproduct meets the applicable health risk standard;
5495 (b) the industrial byproduct satisfies the applicable toxicity characteristic leaching
5496 procedure; and
5497 (c) the proposed method of installation and type of reuse meet the applicable health
5498 risk standard.
5499 Section 109. Section 19-8-106 is amended to read:
5500 19-8-106. Rejection of application -- Notice to applicant -- Resubmission
5501 procedure.
5502 (1) The executive director may in his sole discretion reject an application prior to
5503 accepting the application fee, and return the application fee to the applicant if:
5504 (a) the executive director has reason to believe that a working relationship with the
5505 applicant cannot be achieved; or
5506 (b) the application site is not eligible under Section 19-8-105 .
5507 (2) (a) The executive director may reject an application after processing the application
5508 if [
5509 (i) the application is not complete or is not accurate; or
5510 (ii) the applicant has not demonstrated financial capability to perform the voluntary
5511 cleanup.
5512 (b) The applicant is not entitled to refund of an application fee for an application
5513 rejected under this Subsection (2).
5514 (3) An application rejected under Subsection (1) or (2) shall be promptly returned to
5515 the applicant with a letter of explanation.
5516 (4) (a) If the executive director rejects an application because it is incomplete or
5517 inaccurate, the executive director shall, not later than 60 days after receipt of the application,
5518 provide to the applicant a list in writing of all information needed to make the application
5519 complete or accurate, as appropriate.
5520 (b) The applicant may submit for a second time an application rejected due to
5521 inaccuracy or incompleteness without submitting an additional application fee.
5522 Section 110. Section 19-8-119 is amended to read:
5523 19-8-119. Apportionment or contribution.
5524 (1) Any party who incurs costs under a voluntary agreement entered into under this part
5525 in excess of his liability may seek contribution in an action in district court from any other
5526 party who is or may be liable under Subsection 19-6-302 (21) or [
5527 for the excess costs after providing written notice to any other party that the party bringing the
5528 action has entered into a voluntary agreement and will incur costs.
5529 (2) In resolving claims made under Subsection (1), the court shall allocate costs using
5530 the standards in Subsection 19-6-310 (2).
5531 Section 111. Section 41-6a-1644 is amended to read:
5532 41-6a-1644. Diesel emissions program -- Implementation -- Monitoring --
5533 Exemptions.
5534 (1) The legislative body of each county required by the comprehensive plan for air
5535 pollution control developed by the [
5536 director of the Division of Air Quality in accordance with Subsection 19-2-107 (2)(a)(i) to use
5537 an emissions opacity inspection and maintenance program for diesel-powered motor vehicles
5538 shall:
5539 (a) make regulations or ordinances to implement and enforce the requirement
5540 established by the Air Quality Board;
5541 (b) collect information about and monitor the program; and
5542 (c) by August 1 of each year, supply written information to the Department of
5543 Environmental Quality to identify program status.
5544 (2) The following vehicles are exempt from an emissions opacity inspection and
5545 maintenance program for diesel-powered motor vehicles established by a legislative body of a
5546 county under Subsection (1):
5547 (a) an implement of husbandry; and
5548 (b) a motor vehicle that:
5549 (i) meets the definition of a farm truck under Section 41-1a-102 ; and
5550 (ii) has a gross vehicle weight rating of 12,001 pounds or more.
5551 (3) (a) The legislative body of a county identified in Subsection (1) shall exempt a
5552 pickup truck, as defined in Section 41-1a-102 , with a gross vehicle weight of 12,000 pounds or
5553 less from the emissions opacity inspection and maintenance program requirements of this
5554 section, if the registered owner of the pickup truck provides a signed statement to the
5555 legislative body stating the truck is used:
5556 (i) by the owner or operator of a farm located on property that qualifies as land in
5557 agricultural use under Sections 59-2-502 and 59-2-503 ; and
5558 (ii) exclusively for the following purposes in operating the farm:
5559 (A) for the transportation of farm products, including livestock and its products,
5560 poultry and its products, and floricultural and horticultural products; and
5561 (B) for the transportation of farm supplies, including tile, fence, and every other thing
5562 or commodity used in agricultural, floricultural, horticultural, livestock, and poultry production
5563 and maintenance.
5564 (b) The county shall provide to the registered owner who signs and submits a signed
5565 statement under this section a certificate of exemption from emissions opacity inspection and
5566 maintenance program requirements for purposes of registering the exempt vehicle.
5567 Section 112. Section 59-1-403 is amended to read:
5568 59-1-403. Confidentiality -- Exceptions -- Penalty -- Application to property tax.
5569 (1) (a) Any of the following may not divulge or make known in any manner any
5570 information gained by that person from any return filed with the commission:
5571 (i) a tax commissioner;
5572 (ii) an agent, clerk, or other officer or employee of the commission; or
5573 (iii) a representative, agent, clerk, or other officer or employee of any county, city, or
5574 town.
5575 (b) An official charged with the custody of a return filed with the commission is not
5576 required to produce the return or evidence of anything contained in the return in any action or
5577 proceeding in any court, except:
5578 (i) in accordance with judicial order;
5579 (ii) on behalf of the commission in any action or proceeding under:
5580 (A) this title; or
5581 (B) other law under which persons are required to file returns with the commission;
5582 (iii) on behalf of the commission in any action or proceeding to which the commission
5583 is a party; or
5584 (iv) on behalf of any party to any action or proceeding under this title if the report or
5585 facts shown by the return are directly involved in the action or proceeding.
5586 (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(b), a court may require the production of, and may
5587 admit in evidence, any portion of a return or of the facts shown by the return, as are specifically
5588 pertinent to the action or proceeding.
5589 (2) This section does not prohibit:
5590 (a) a person or that person's duly authorized representative from receiving a copy of
5591 any return or report filed in connection with that person's own tax;
5592 (b) the publication of statistics as long as the statistics are classified to prevent the
5593 identification of particular reports or returns; and
5594 (c) the inspection by the attorney general or other legal representative of the state of the
5595 report or return of any taxpayer:
5596 (i) who brings action to set aside or review a tax based on the report or return;
5597 (ii) against whom an action or proceeding is contemplated or has been instituted under
5598 this title; or
5599 (iii) against whom the state has an unsatisfied money judgment.
5600 (3) (a) Notwithstanding Subsection (1) and for purposes of administration, the
5601 commission may by rule, made in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
5602 Rulemaking Act, provide for a reciprocal exchange of information with:
5603 (i) the United States Internal Revenue Service; or
5604 (ii) the revenue service of any other state.
5605 (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (1) and for all taxes except individual income tax and
5606 corporate franchise tax, the commission may by rule, made in accordance with Title 63G,
5607 Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, share information gathered from returns and
5608 other written statements with the federal government, any other state, any of the political
5609 subdivisions of another state, or any political subdivision of this state, except as limited by
5610 Sections 59-12-209 and 59-12-210 , if the political subdivision, other state, or the federal
5611 government grant substantially similar privileges to this state.
5612 (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (1) and for all taxes except individual income tax and
5613 corporate franchise tax, the commission may by rule, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3,
5614 Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, provide for the issuance of information concerning the
5615 identity and other information of taxpayers who have failed to file tax returns or to pay any tax
5616 due.
5617 (d) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall provide to the [
5618
5619 Hazardous Waste, as defined in Section 19-6-102 , as requested by the [
5620 director of the division of Solid and Hazardous Waste, any records, returns, or other
5621 information filed with the commission under Chapter 13, Motor and Special Fuel Tax Act, or
5622 Section 19-6-410.5 regarding the environmental assurance program participation fee.
5623 (e) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), at the request of any person the commission shall
5624 provide that person sales and purchase volume data reported to the commission on a report,
5625 return, or other information filed with the commission under:
5626 (i) Chapter 13, Part 2, Motor Fuel; or
5627 (ii) Chapter 13, Part 4, Aviation Fuel.
5628 (f) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), upon request from a tobacco product manufacturer,
5629 as defined in Section 59-22-202 , the commission shall report to the manufacturer:
5630 (i) the quantity of cigarettes, as defined in Section 59-22-202 , produced by the
5631 manufacturer and reported to the commission for the previous calendar year under Section
5632 59-14-407 ; and
5633 (ii) the quantity of cigarettes, as defined in Section 59-22-202 , produced by the
5634 manufacturer for which a tax refund was granted during the previous calendar year under
5635 Section 59-14-401 and reported to the commission under Subsection 59-14-401 (1)(a)(v).
5636 (g) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall notify manufacturers,
5637 distributors, wholesalers, and retail dealers of a tobacco product manufacturer that is prohibited
5638 from selling cigarettes to consumers within the state under Subsection 59-14-210 (2).
5639 (h) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission may:
5640 (i) provide to the Division of Consumer Protection within the Department of
5641 Commerce and the attorney general data:
5642 (A) reported to the commission under Section 59-14-212 ; or
5643 (B) related to a violation under Section 59-14-211 ; and
5644 (ii) upon request, provide to any person data reported to the commission under
5645 Subsections 59-14-212 (1)(a) through (c) and Subsection 59-14-212 (1)(g).
5646 (i) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall, at the request of a committee
5647 of the Legislature, Office of the Legislative Fiscal Analyst, or Governor's Office of Planning
5648 and Budget, provide to the committee or office the total amount of revenues collected by the
5649 commission under Chapter 24, Radioactive Waste Facility Tax Act, for the time period
5650 specified by the committee or office.
5651 (j) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall make the directory required
5652 by Section 59-14-603 available for public inspection.
5653 (k) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission may share information with
5654 federal, state, or local agencies as provided in Subsection 59-14-606 (3).
5655 (l) (i) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall provide the Office of
5656 Recovery Services within the Department of Human Services any relevant information
5657 obtained from a return filed under Chapter 10, Individual Income Tax Act, regarding a taxpayer
5658 who has become obligated to the Office of Recovery Services.
5659 (ii) The information described in Subsection (3)(l)(i) may be provided by the Office of
5660 Recovery Services to any other state's child support collection agency involved in enforcing
5661 that support obligation.
5662 (m) (i) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), upon request from the state court
5663 administrator, the commission shall provide to the state court administrator, the name, address,
5664 telephone number, county of residence, and Social Security number on resident returns filed
5665 under Chapter 10, Individual Income Tax Act.
5666 (ii) The state court administrator may use the information described in Subsection
5667 (3)(m)(i) only as a source list for the master jury list described in Section 78B-1-106 .
5668 (n) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall at the request of a
5669 committee, commission, or task force of the Legislature provide to the committee, commission,
5670 or task force of the Legislature any information relating to a tax imposed under Chapter 9,
5671 Taxation of Admitted Insurers, relating to the study required by Section 59-9-101 .
5672 (o) (i) As used in this Subsection (3)(o), "office" means the:
5673 (A) Office of the Legislative Fiscal Analyst; or
5674 (B) Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel.
5675 (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (1) and except as provided in Subsection (3)(o)(iii),
5676 the commission shall at the request of an office provide to the office all information:
5677 (A) gained by the commission; and
5678 (B) required to be attached to or included in returns filed with the commission.
5679 (iii) (A) An office may not request and the commission may not provide to an office a
5680 person's:
5681 (I) address;
5682 (II) name;
5683 (III) Social Security number; or
5684 (IV) taxpayer identification number.
5685 (B) The commission shall in all instances protect the privacy of a person as required by
5686 Subsection (3)(o)(iii)(A).
5687 (iv) An office may provide information received from the commission in accordance
5688 with this Subsection (3)(o) only:
5689 (A) as:
5690 (I) a fiscal estimate;
5691 (II) fiscal note information; or
5692 (III) statistical information; and
5693 (B) if the information is classified to prevent the identification of a particular return.
5694 (v) (A) A person may not request information from an office under Title 63G, Chapter
5695 2, Government Records Access and Management Act, or this section, if that office received the
5696 information from the commission in accordance with this Subsection (3)(o).
5697 (B) An office may not provide to a person that requests information in accordance with
5698 Subsection (3)(o)(v)(A) any information other than the information the office provides in
5699 accordance with Subsection (3)(o)(iv).
5700 (p) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission may provide to the governing
5701 board of the agreement or a taxing official of another state, the District of Columbia, the United
5702 States, or a territory of the United States:
5703 (i) the following relating to an agreement sales and use tax:
5704 (A) information contained in a return filed with the commission;
5705 (B) information contained in a report filed with the commission;
5706 (C) a schedule related to Subsection (3)(p)(i)(A) or (B); or
5707 (D) a document filed with the commission; or
5708 (ii) a report of an audit or investigation made with respect to an agreement sales and
5709 use tax.
5710 (q) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission may provide information
5711 concerning a taxpayer's state income tax return or state income tax withholding information to
5712 the Driver License Division if the Driver License Division:
5713 (i) requests the information; and
5714 (ii) provides the commission with a signed release form from the taxpayer allowing the
5715 Driver License Division access to the information.
5716 (r) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall provide to the Utah 911
5717 Committee the information requested by the Utah 911 Committee under Subsection
5718 53-10-602 (3).
5719 (s) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission shall provide to the Utah
5720 Educational Savings Plan information related to a resident or nonresident individual's
5721 contribution to a Utah Educational Savings Plan account as designated on the resident or
5722 nonresident's individual income tax return as provided under Section 59-10-1313 .
5723 (t) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), for the purpose of verifying eligibility under
5724 Sections 26-18-2.5 and 26-40-105 , the commission shall provide an eligibility worker with the
5725 Department of Health or its designee with the adjusted gross income of an individual if:
5726 (i) an eligibility worker with the Department of Health or its designee requests the
5727 information from the commission; and
5728 (ii) the eligibility worker has complied with the identity verification and consent
5729 provisions of Sections 26-18-2.5 and 26-40-105 .
5730 (u) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), the commission may provide to a county, as
5731 determined by the commission, information declared on an individual income tax return in
5732 accordance with Section 59-10-103.1 that relates to eligibility to claim a residential exemption
5733 authorized under Section 59-2-103 .
5734 (4) (a) Each report and return shall be preserved for at least three years.
5735 (b) After the three-year period provided in Subsection (4)(a) the commission may
5736 destroy a report or return.
5737 (5) (a) Any person who violates this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
5738 (b) If the person described in Subsection (5)(a) is an officer or employee of the state,
5739 the person shall be dismissed from office and be disqualified from holding public office in this
5740 state for a period of five years thereafter.
5741 (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a) or (b), an office that requests information in
5742 accordance with Subsection (3)(o)(iii) or a person that requests information in accordance with
5743 Subsection (3)(o)(v):
5744 (i) is not guilty of a class A misdemeanor; and
5745 (ii) is not subject to:
5746 (A) dismissal from office in accordance with Subsection (5)(b); or
5747 (B) disqualification from holding public office in accordance with Subsection (5)(b).
5748 (6) Except as provided in Section 59-1-404 , this part does not apply to the property tax.
5749 Section 113. Section 72-6-106.5 is amended to read:
5750 72-6-106.5. Reuse of industrial byproducts.
5751 (1) As used in this section:
5752 (a) [
5753 19-6-1102 .
5754 (b) "Industrial byproduct" has the same meaning as defined in Section 19-6-1102 .
5755 (c) "Public project" has the same meaning as defined in Section 19-6-1102 .
5756 (d) "Reuse" has the same meaning as defined in Section 19-6-1102 .
5757 (2) Consistent with the protection of public health and the environment and generally
5758 accepted engineering practices, the department shall, to the maximum extent possible
5759 considering budgetary factors:
5760 (a) allow and encourage the reuse of an industrial byproduct in:
5761 (i) a plan, specification, and estimate for a public project; and
5762 (ii) advertising for a bid for a public project;
5763 (b) allow for the reuse of an industrial byproduct in, among other uses:
5764 (i) landscaping;
5765 (ii) a general geotechnical fill;
5766 (iii) a structural fill;
5767 (iv) concrete or asphalt;
5768 (v) a base or subbase; and
5769 (vi) geotechnical drainage materials; and
5770 (c) promulgate and apply public project specifications that allow reuse of an industrial
5771 byproduct based upon:
5772 (i) cost;
5773 (ii) performance; and
5774 (iii) engineered equivalency in lifespan, durability, and maintenance.
5775 (3) After the [
5776 and the department uses the industrial byproduct in compliance with the [
5777 director's approval:
5778 (a) the department is not responsible for further management of the industrial
5779 byproduct; and
5780 (b) the generator or originator of the industrial byproduct is not responsible for the
5781 industrial byproduct under Title 19, Environmental Quality Code.
5782 Section 114. Effective date.
5783 (1) Except as provided in Subsection (2), this bill takes effect on May 8, 2012.
5784 (2) The amendments to Sections 19-5-102 (Effective 07/01/12) and 19-5-104
5785 (Effective 07/01/12) take effect on July 1, 2012.
Legislative Review Note
as of 11-17-11 11:55 AM