1     
CHILD WELFARE AMENDMENTS

2     
2018 GENERAL SESSION

3     
STATE OF UTAH

4     
Chief Sponsor: Wayne A. Harper

5     
House Sponsor: Paul Ray

6     

7     LONG TITLE
8     General Description:
9          This bill amends provisions relating to child welfare.
10     Highlighted Provisions:
11          This bill:
12          ▸     amends and defines terms;
13          ▸     prohibits the Department of Human Services from maintaining child pornography
14     and requires the department to transfer specified child pornography to law
15     enforcement;
16          ▸     prohibits access to child pornography transferred by the department to law
17     enforcement, subject to certain exceptions;
18          ▸     exempts a Department of Human Services employee acting in the employee's
19     professional capacity from criminal and civil liability due to the employee's
20     necessary viewing or transferring of child pornography;
21          ▸     removes child pornography from the definition of "record" in the Government
22     Records Access and Management Act;
23          ▸     clarifies the requirement for school personnel to report child abuse or neglect,
24     including educational neglect, to the Division of Child and Family Services;
25          ▸     makes requirements for how a court, the division, and law enforcement respond
26     when a child who is in the custody of the division is missing, has been abducted, or
27     has run away; and
28          ▸     makes technical changes.
29     Money Appropriated in this Bill:

30          None
31     Other Special Clauses:
32          This bill provides a special effective date.
33     Utah Code Sections Affected:
34     AMENDS:
35          26-36a-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 32
36          26-36b-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2016, Chapter 279
37          53E-9-308, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 1
38          53G-6-202, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 3
39          62A-4a-206, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 214
40          62A-4a-209, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 181
41          63G-2-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapters 196 and 441
42          63G-2-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapters 374, 382, and 415
43          76-5b-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2016, Chapter 116
44          77-7a-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 415
45          78A-6-105, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapters 181, 330, and 401
46          78A-6-106, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
47          78A-6-113 (Superseded 07/01/18), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 38
48          78A-6-113 (Effective 07/01/18), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 330
49          78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/18), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2016, Chapter
50     418
51          78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/18), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 330
52          78A-6-307, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 142
53          78A-6-318, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 17 and renumbered and
54     amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
55     ENACTS:
56          53G-9-209, Utah Code Annotated 1953
57          62A-1-121, Utah Code Annotated 1953

58          62A-4a-206.5, Utah Code Annotated 1953
59     

60     Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
61          Section 1. Section 26-36a-103 is amended to read:
62          26-36a-103. Definitions.
63          As used in this chapter:
64          (1) "Accountable care organization" means a managed care organization, as defined in
65     42 C.F.R. Sec. 438, that contracts with the department under the provisions of Section
66     26-18-405.
67          (2) "Assessment" means the Medicaid hospital provider assessment established by this
68     chapter.
69          (3) "Discharges" means the number of total hospital discharges reported on worksheet
70     S-3 Part I, column 15, lines 12, 14, and 14.01 of the 2552-96 Medicare Cost Report or on
71     Worksheet S-3 Part I, column 15, lines 14, 16, and 17 of the 2552-10 Medicare Cost Report for
72     the applicable assessment year.
73          (4) "Division" means the Division of Health Care Financing of the department.
74          (5) "Hospital":
75          (a) means a privately owned:
76          (i) general acute hospital operating in the state as defined in Section 26-21-2; and
77          (ii) specialty hospital operating in the state, which shall include a privately owned
78     hospital whose inpatient admissions are predominantly:
79          (A) rehabilitation;
80          (B) psychiatric;
81          (C) chemical dependency; or
82          (D) long-term acute care services; and
83          (b) does not include:
84          (i) a [residential care or treatment facility] human services program as defined in
85     Section 62A-2-101;

86          (ii) a hospital owned by the federal government, including the Veterans Administration
87     Hospital; or
88          (iii) a hospital that is owned by the state government, a state agency, or a political
89     subdivision of the state, including:
90          (A) a state-owned teaching hospital; and
91          (B) the Utah State Hospital.
92          (6) "Medicare cost report" means CMS-2552-96 or CMS-2552-10, the cost report for
93     electronic filing of hospitals.
94          (7) "State plan amendment" means a change or update to the state Medicaid plan.
95          Section 2. Section 26-36b-103 is amended to read:
96          26-36b-103. Definitions.
97          As used in this chapter:
98          (1) "Assessment" means the inpatient hospital assessment established by this chapter.
99          (2) "CMS" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26-18-411.
100          (3) "Discharges" means the number of total hospital discharges reported on:
101          (a) Worksheet S-3 Part I, column 15, lines 14, 16, and 17 of the 2552-10 Medicare cost
102     report for the applicable assessment year; or
103          (b) a similar report adopted by the department by administrative rule, if the report
104     under Subsection (3)(a) is no longer available.
105          (4) "Division" means the Division of Health Care Financing within the department.
106          (5) "Medicare cost report" means CMS-2552-10, the cost report for electronic filing of
107     hospitals.
108          (6) "Non-state government hospital":
109          (a) means a hospital owned by a non-state government entity; and
110          (b) does not include:
111          (i) the Utah State Hospital; or
112          (ii) a hospital owned by the federal government, including the Veterans Administration
113     Hospital.

114          (7) "Private hospital":
115          (a) means:
116          (i) a privately owned general acute hospital operating in the state as defined in Section
117     26-21-2; and
118          (ii) a privately owned specialty hospital operating in the state, which shall include a
119     privately owned hospital whose inpatient admissions are predominantly:
120          (A) rehabilitation;
121          (B) psychiatric;
122          (C) chemical dependency; or
123          (D) long-term acute care services; and
124          (b) does not include a [residential care or treatment facility] recovery residence or a
125     human services program as defined in Section 62A-2-101.
126          (8) "State teaching hospital" means a state owned teaching hospital that is part of an
127     institution of higher education.
128          Section 3. Section 53E-9-308 is amended to read:
129          53E-9-308. Sharing student data -- Prohibition -- Requirements for student data
130     manager.
131          (1) An education entity shall comply with this section beginning with the 2017-18
132     school year.
133          (2) An education entity may not share a student's personally identifiable student data if
134     the personally identifiable student data is not shared in accordance with:
135          (a) the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act and related provisions under 20
136     U.S.C. Secs. 1232g and 1232h; and
137          (b) this part.
138          (3) A student data manager shall:
139          (a) authorize and manage the sharing, outside of the education entity, of personally
140     identifiable student data from a cumulative record for the education entity as described in this
141     section; and

142          (b) act as the primary local point of contact for the state student data officer described
143     in Section 53E-9-302.
144          (4) (a) Except as provided in this section or required by federal law, a student data
145     manager may not share, outside of the education entity, personally identifiable student data
146     from a cumulative record without a data authorization.
147          (b) A student data manager may share the personally identifiable student data of a
148     student with the student and the student's parent.
149          (5) A student data manager may share a student's personally identifiable student data
150     from a cumulative record with:
151          (a) a school official;
152          (b) as described in Subsection (6), an authorized caseworker or other representative of
153     the Department of Human Services; or
154          (c) a person to whom the student data manager's education entity has outsourced a
155     service or function:
156          (i) to research the effectiveness of a program's implementation; or
157          (ii) that the education entity's employees would typically perform.
158          (6) A student data manager may share a student's personally identifiable student data
159     from a cumulative record with a caseworker or representative of the Department of Human
160     Services if:
161          (a) the Department of Human Services is:
162          (i) legally responsible for the care and protection of the student, including the
163     responsibility to investigate a report of educational neglect, as provided in Subsection
164     62A-4a-409(5); or
165          (ii) providing services to the student;
166          (b) the student's personally identifiable student data is not shared with a person who is
167     not authorized:
168          (i) to address the student's education needs; or
169          (ii) by the Department of Human Services to receive the student's personally

170     identifiable student data; and
171          (c) the Department of Human Services maintains and protects the student's personally
172     identifiable student data.
173          (7) The Department of Human Services, a school official, or the Utah Juvenile Court
174     may share education information, including a student's personally identifiable student data, to
175     improve education outcomes for youth:
176          (a) in the custody of, or under the guardianship of, the Department of Human Services;
177          (b) receiving services from the Division of Juvenile Justice Services;
178          (c) in the custody of the Division of Child and Family Services;
179          (d) receiving services from the Division of Services for People with Disabilities; or
180          (e) under the jurisdiction of the Utah Juvenile Court.
181          (8) Subject to Subsection (9), a student data manager may share aggregate data.
182          (9) (a) If a student data manager receives a request to share data for the purpose of
183     external research or evaluation, the student data manager shall:
184          (i) submit the request to the education entity's external research review process; and
185          (ii) fulfill the instructions that result from the review process.
186          (b) A student data manager may not share personally identifiable student data for the
187     purpose of external research or evaluation.
188          (10) (a) A student data manager may share personally identifiable student data in
189     response to a subpoena issued by a court.
190          (b) A person who receives personally identifiable student data under Subsection (10)(a)
191     may not use the personally identifiable student data outside of the use described in the
192     subpoena.
193          (11) (a) In accordance with board rule, a student data manager may share personally
194     identifiable information that is directory information.
195          (b) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
196     board shall make rules to:
197          (i) define directory information; and

198          (ii) determine how a student data manager may share personally identifiable
199     information that is directory information.
200          Section 4. Section 53G-6-202 is amended to read:
201          53G-6-202. Compulsory education.
202          (1) For purposes of this section:
203          (a) "Intentionally" is as defined in Section 76-2-103.
204          (b) "Recklessly" is as defined in Section 76-2-103.
205          (c) "Remainder of the school year" means the portion of the school year beginning on
206     the day after the day on which the notice of compulsory education violation described in
207     Subsection (3) is served and ending on the last day of the school year.
208          (d) "School-age child" means a school-age minor under the age of 14.
209          (2) Except as provided in Section 53G-6-204 or 53G-6-702, the parent of a school-age
210     minor shall enroll and send the school-age minor to a public or regularly established private
211     school.
212          (3) A school administrator, a designee of a school administrator, a law enforcement
213     officer acting as a school resource officer, or a truancy specialist may issue a notice of
214     compulsory education violation to a parent of a school-age child if the school-age child is
215     absent without a valid excuse at least five times during the school year.
216          (4) The notice of compulsory education violation, described in Subsection (3):
217          (a) shall direct the parent of the school-age child to:
218          (i) meet with school authorities to discuss the school-age child's school attendance
219     problems; and
220          (ii) cooperate with the school board, local charter board, or school district in securing
221     regular attendance by the school-age child;
222          (b) shall designate the school authorities with whom the parent is required to meet;
223          (c) shall state that it is a class B misdemeanor for the parent of the school-age child to
224     intentionally or recklessly:
225          (i) fail to meet with the designated school authorities to discuss the school-age child's

226     school attendance problems; or
227          (ii) fail to prevent the school-age child from being absent without a valid excuse five or
228     more times during the remainder of the school year;
229          (d) shall be served on the school-age child's parent by personal service or certified
230     mail; and
231          (e) may not be issued unless the school-age child has been truant at least five times
232     during the school year.
233          (5) It is a class B misdemeanor for a parent of a school-age minor to intentionally or
234     recklessly fail to enroll the school-age minor in school, unless the school-age minor is exempt
235     from enrollment under Section 53G-6-204 or 53G-6-702.
236          (6) It is a class B misdemeanor for a parent of a school-age child to, after being served
237     with a notice of compulsory education violation in accordance with Subsections (3) and (4),
238     intentionally or recklessly:
239          (a) fail to meet with the school authorities designated in the notice of compulsory
240     education violation to discuss the school-age child's school attendance problems; or
241          (b) fail to prevent the school-age child from being absent without a valid excuse five or
242     more times during the remainder of the school year.
243          (7) A local school board, local charter board, or school district shall report violations of
244     this section to the appropriate county or district attorney.
245          (8) If school personnel have reason to believe that, after a notice of compulsory
246     education violation is issued, the parent or guardian has failed to make a good faith effort to
247     ensure that the child receives an appropriate education, the issuer of the compulsory education
248     violation shall report to the Division of Child and Family Services:
249          (a) identifying information of the child and the child's parent or guardian who received
250     the notice of compulsory education violation;
251          (b) information regarding the longest number of consecutive school days the
252     school-age minor has been absent from school and the percentage of school days the child has
253     been absent during each relevant school term;

254          (c) whether the child has made adequate educational progress;
255          (d) whether the requirements of Section 53G-6-206 have been met;
256          (e) whether the child is two or more years behind the local public school's age group
257     expectations in one or more basic skills; and
258          (f) whether the child is receiving special education services or systematic remediation
259     efforts.
260          Section 5. Section 53G-9-209 is enacted to read:
261          53G-9-209. Child abuse or neglect reporting requirement.
262          (1) As used in this section:
263          (a) "Educational neglect" means the same as that term is defined in Section 78A-6-105.
264          (b) "School personnel" means the same as that term is defined in Section 53G-9-203.
265          (2) School personnel shall comply with the child abuse and neglect reporting
266     requirements described in Section 62A-4a-403.
267          (3) When school personnel have reason to believe that a child may be subject to
268     educational neglect, school personnel shall submit the report described in Subsection
269     53G-6-202(8) to the Division of Child and Family Services.
270          (4) When school personnel have reason to believe that a child is subject to both
271     educational neglect and another form of neglect or abuse, school personnel may not wait to
272     report the other form of neglect or abuse pending preparation of a report regarding educational
273     neglect.
274          (5) School personnel shall cooperate with the Division of Child and Family Services
275     and share all information with the division that is relevant to the division's investigation of an
276     allegation of abuse or neglect.
277          Section 6. Section 62A-1-121 is enacted to read:
278          62A-1-121. Child pornography.
279          (1) "Child pornography" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-5b-103.
280          (2) The department or a division within the department may not retain child
281     pornography longer than is necessary to comply with the requirements of this section.

282          (3) When the department or a division within the department obtains child
283     pornography as a result of an employee unlawfully viewing child pornography, the department
284     or division shall consult with and follow the guidance of the Department of Human Resource
285     Management and local law enforcement regarding retention of the child pornography.
286          (4) When the department or a division within the department obtains child
287     pornography as a result of a report or an investigation, the department or division shall:
288          (a) document a written description of the child pornography in the appropriate case file;
289     and
290          (b) securely transfer the child pornography to the law enforcement office that has
291     jurisdiction over the area where the division's case is located.
292          (5) When the department or a division within the department transfers child
293     pornography to law enforcement, the law enforcement office shall:
294          (a) seize and retain the child pornography as evidence, in accordance with Section
295     24-2-103;
296          (b) prohibit the distribution, release, or display of the child pornography, except to the
297     following:
298          (i) an individual to whom a court has granted access by court order, as described in
299     Subsection (6);
300          (ii) a department or division investigator, a supervisor of a department, or division
301     investigator or an investigator authorized under Section 62A-4a-202.6, if necessary for the
302     investigation;
303          (iii) an administrative law judge employed by the Department of Human Services, if
304     necessary for an adjudication;
305          (iv) an office of the city attorney, county attorney, district attorney, or attorney general,
306     if necessary for prosecution;
307          (v) a law enforcement agency, if necessary for an investigation; or
308          (vi) the guardian ad litem for the child who is the subject of the child pornography; and
309          (c) when the department determines that the child pornography no longer needs to be

310     held as evidence, dispose of the child pornography under Subsection 24-3-103(6)(a)(iii).
311          (6) A court order described in Subsection (5)(b)(i):
312          (a) shall describe with particularity the individual to whom the child pornography may
313     be released; and
314          (b) may impose reasonable restrictions on access to the child pornography to protect
315     the privacy of the child victim.
316          Section 7. Section 62A-4a-206 is amended to read:
317          62A-4a-206. Process for removal of a child from foster family -- Procedural due
318     process.
319          (1) (a) The Legislature finds that, except with regard to a child's natural parent or legal
320     guardian, a foster family has a very limited but recognized interest in its familial relationship
321     with a foster child who has been in the care and custody of that family. In making
322     determinations regarding removal of a child from a foster home, the division may not dismiss
323     the foster family as a mere collection of unrelated individuals.
324          (b) The Legislature finds that children in the temporary custody and custody of the
325     division are experiencing multiple changes in foster care placements with little or no
326     documentation, and that numerous studies of child growth and development emphasize the
327     importance of stability in foster care living arrangements.
328          (c) For the reasons described in Subsections (1)(a) and (b), the division shall provide
329     procedural due process for a foster family prior to removal of a foster child from their home,
330     regardless of the length of time the child has been in that home, unless removal is for the
331     purpose of:
332          (i) returning the child to the child's natural parent or legal guardian;
333          (ii) immediately placing the child in an approved adoptive home;
334          (iii) placing the child with a relative, as defined in Subsection 78A-6-307(1)[(c)], who
335     obtained custody or asserted an interest in the child within the preference period described in
336     Subsection 78A-6-307(18)(a); or
337          (iv) placing an Indian child in accordance with preplacement preferences and other

338     requirements described in the Indian Child Welfare Act, 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1915.
339          (2) (a) The division shall maintain and utilize due process procedures for removal of a
340     foster child from a foster home, in accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title
341     63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
342          (b) Those procedures shall include requirements for:
343          (i) personal communication with, and a written explanation of the reasons for the
344     removal to, the foster parents prior to removal of the child; and
345          (ii) an opportunity for foster parents to present their information and concerns to the
346     division and to:
347          (A) request a review, to be held before removal of the child, by a third party neutral
348     fact finder; or
349          (B) if the child has been placed with the foster parents for a period of at least two years,
350     request a review, to be held before removal of the child, by:
351          (I) the juvenile court judge currently assigned to the child's case; or
352          (II) if the juvenile court judge currently assigned to the child's case is not available,
353     another juvenile court judge.
354          (c) If the division determines that there is a reasonable basis to believe that the child is
355     in danger or that there is a substantial threat of danger to the health or welfare of the child, it
356     shall place the child in emergency foster care during the pendency of the procedures described
357     in this subsection, instead of making another foster care placement.
358          (3) If the division removes a child from a foster home based upon the child's statement
359     alone, the division shall initiate and expedite the processes described in Subsection (2). The
360     division may take no formal action with regard to that foster parent's license until after those
361     processes, in addition to any other procedure or hearing required by law, have been completed.
362          (4) When a complaint is made to the division by a foster child against a foster parent,
363     the division shall, within 30 business days, provide the foster parent with information regarding
364     the specific nature of the complaint, the time and place of the alleged incident, and who was
365     alleged to have been involved.

366          (5) Whenever the division places a child in a foster home, it shall provide the foster
367     parents with:
368          (a) notification of the requirements of this section;
369          (b) a written description of the procedures enacted by the division pursuant to
370     Subsection (2) and how to access those processes; and
371          (c) written notification of the foster parents' ability to petition the juvenile court
372     directly for review of a decision to remove a foster child who has been in their custody for 12
373     months or longer, in accordance with the limitations and requirements of Section 78A-6-318.
374          (6) The requirements of this section do not apply to the removal of a child based on a
375     foster parent's request for that removal.
376          (7) It is unlawful for a person, with the intent to avoid compliance with the
377     requirements of this section, to:
378          (a) take action, or encourage another to take action, against the license of a foster
379     parent; or
380          (b) remove a child from a foster home before the child has been placed with the foster
381     parents for two years.
382          (8) The division may not remove a foster child from a foster parent who is a relative, as
383     defined in Subsection 78A-6-307(1)[(c)], of the child on the basis of the age or health of the
384     foster parent without determining by:
385          (a) clear and convincing evidence that the foster parent is incapable of caring for the
386     foster child, if the alternative foster parent would not be another relative of the child; or
387          (b) a preponderance of the evidence that the foster parent is incapable of caring for the
388     foster child, if the alternative foster parent would be another relative of the child.
389          Section 8. Section 62A-4a-206.5 is enacted to read:
390          62A-4a-206.5. Child missing from state custody.
391          (1) When the division receives information that a child in the custody of the division is
392     missing, has been abducted, or has run away, the division shall:
393          (a) within 24 hours after the time when the division has reason to believe that the

394     information is accurate, notify the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children; and
395          (b) pursue a warrant under Subsection 78A-6-106(6).
396          (2) When the division locates a child described in Subsection (1), the division shall:
397          (a) determine the primary factors that caused or contributed to the child's absence from
398     care;
399          (b) determine the child's experiences while absent from care, including screening the
400     child to determine if the child is a sex trafficking victim;
401          (c) to the extent possible, select a placement for the child that accommodates the
402     child's needs and takes into consideration the factors and experiences described in Subsections
403     (2)(a) and (b); and
404          (d) follow the requirements in Section 78A-6-307.5 for determining an ongoing
405     placement of the child.
406          Section 9. Section 62A-4a-209 is amended to read:
407          62A-4a-209. Emergency placement.
408          (1) As used in this section:
409          (a) "Friend" means the same as that term is defined in Subsection 78A-6-307(1)[(a)].
410          (b) "Nonrelative" means an individual, other than a noncustodial parent or a relative.
411          (c) "Relative" means the same as that term is defined in Subsection 78A-6-307(1)[(c)].
412          (2) The division may use an emergency placement under Subsection
413     62A-4a-202.1(4)(b)(ii) when:
414          (a) the case worker has made the determination that:
415          (i) the child's home is unsafe;
416          (ii) removal is necessary under the provisions of Section 62A-4a-202.1; and
417          (iii) the child's custodial parent or guardian will agree to not remove the child from the
418     home of the person that serves as the placement and not have any contact with the child until
419     after the shelter hearing required by Section 78A-6-306;
420          (b) a person, with preference being given in accordance with Subsection (4), can be
421     identified who has the ability and is willing to provide care for the child who would otherwise

422     be placed in shelter care, including:
423          (i) taking the child to medical, mental health, dental, and educational appointments at
424     the request of the division; and
425          (ii) making the child available to division services and the guardian ad litem; and
426          (c) the person described in Subsection (2)(b) agrees to care for the child on an
427     emergency basis under the following conditions:
428          (i) the person meets the criteria for an emergency placement under Subsection (3);
429          (ii) the person agrees to not allow the custodial parent or guardian to have any contact
430     with the child until after the shelter hearing unless authorized by the division in writing;
431          (iii) the person agrees to contact law enforcement and the division if the custodial
432     parent or guardian attempts to make unauthorized contact with the child;
433          (iv) the person agrees to allow the division and the child's guardian ad litem to have
434     access to the child;
435          (v) the person has been informed and understands that the division may continue to
436     search for other possible placements for long-term care, if needed;
437          (vi) the person is willing to assist the custodial parent or guardian in reunification
438     efforts at the request of the division, and to follow all court orders; and
439          (vii) the child is comfortable with the person.
440          (3) Except as otherwise provided in Subsection (5), before the division places a child
441     in an emergency placement, the division:
442          (a) may request the name of a reference and may contact the reference to determine the
443     answer to the following questions:
444          (i) would the person identified as a reference place a child in the home of the
445     emergency placement; and
446          (ii) are there any other relatives or friends to consider as a possible emergency or
447     long-term placement for the child;
448          (b) shall have the custodial parent or guardian sign an emergency placement agreement
449     form during the investigation;

450          (c) (i) if the emergency placement will be with a relative of the child, shall comply with
451     the background check provisions described in Subsection (7); or
452          (ii) if the emergency placement will be with a person other than a noncustodial parent
453     or a relative, shall comply with the background check provisions described in Subsection (8)
454     for adults living in the household where the child will be placed;
455          (d) shall complete a limited home inspection of the home where the emergency
456     placement is made; and
457          (e) shall have the emergency placement approved by a family service specialist.
458          (4) (a) The following order of preference shall be applied when determining the person
459     with whom a child will be placed in an emergency placement described in this section,
460     provided that the person is willing, and has the ability, to care for the child:
461          (i) a noncustodial parent of the child in accordance with Section 78A-6-307;
462          (ii) a relative of the child;
463          (iii) subject to Subsection (4)(b), a friend designated by the custodial parent or
464     guardian of the child; and
465          (iv) a shelter facility, former foster placement, or other foster placement designated by
466     the division.
467          (b) Unless the division agrees otherwise, the custodial parent or guardian described in
468     Subsection (4)(a)(iii) may designate up to two friends as a potential emergency placement.
469          (5) (a) The division may, pending the outcome of the investigation described in
470     Subsections (5)(b) and (c), place a child in emergency placement with the child's noncustodial
471     parent if, based on a limited investigation, prior to making the emergency placement, the
472     division:
473          (i) determines that the noncustodial parent has regular, unsupervised visitation with the
474     child that is not prohibited by law or court order;
475          (ii) determines that there is not reason to believe that the child's health or safety will be
476     endangered during the emergency placement; and
477          (iii) has the custodial parent or guardian sign an emergency placement agreement.

478          (b) Either before or after making an emergency placement with the noncustodial parent
479     of the child, the division may conduct the investigation described in Subsection (3)(a) in
480     relation to the noncustodial parent.
481          (c) Before, or within one day, excluding weekends and holidays, after a child is placed
482     in an emergency placement with the noncustodial parent of the child, the division shall conduct
483     a limited:
484          (i) background check of the noncustodial parent, pursuant to Subsection (7); and
485          (ii) inspection of the home where the emergency placement is made.
486          (6) After an emergency placement, the division caseworker must:
487          (a) respond to the emergency placement's calls within one hour if the custodial parents
488     or guardians attempt to make unauthorized contact with the child or attempt to remove the
489     child;
490          (b) complete all removal paperwork, including the notice provided to the custodial
491     parents and guardians under Section 78A-6-306;
492          (c) contact the attorney general to schedule a shelter hearing;
493          (d) complete the placement procedures required in Section 78A-6-307; and
494          (e) continue to search for other relatives as a possible long-term placement, if needed.
495          (7) (a) The background check described in Subsection (3)(c)(i) shall include
496     completion of:
497          (i) a name-based, Utah Bureau of Criminal Identification background check; and
498          (ii) a search of the Management Information System described in Section
499     62A-4a-1003.
500          (b) The division shall determine whether a person passes the background check
501     described in this Subsection (7) pursuant to the provisions of Subsection 62A-2-120(14).
502          (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (7)(b), the division may not place a child with an
503     individual who is prohibited by court order from having access to that child.
504          (8) (a) The background check described in Subsection (3)(c)(ii) shall include
505     completion of:

506          (i) a name-based, Utah Bureau of Criminal Identification background check;
507          (ii) a federal name-based criminal background check; and
508          (iii) a search of the Management Information System described in Section
509     62A-4a-1003.
510          (b) The division shall determine whether a person passes the background checks
511     described in this Subsection (8) pursuant to the provisions of Subsection 62A-2-120.
512          (c) If the division denies placement of a child as a result of a name-based criminal
513     background check described in Subsection (8)(a), and the person contests that denial, the
514     person shall submit a complete set of fingerprints with written permission to the Utah Bureau
515     of Criminal Identification for submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a
516     fingerprint-based criminal background check.
517          (d) (i) Within 15 calendar days of the name-based background checks, the division
518     shall require a person to provide a complete set of fingerprints with written permission to the
519     Utah Bureau of Criminal Identification for submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation
520     for a fingerprint-based criminal background check.
521          (ii) If a person fails to provide the fingerprints and written permission described in
522     Subsection (8)(d)(i), the child shall immediately be removed from the home.
523          Section 10. Section 63G-2-103 is amended to read:
524          63G-2-103. Definitions.
525          As used in this chapter:
526          (1) "Audit" means:
527          (a) a systematic examination of financial, management, program, and related records
528     for the purpose of determining the fair presentation of financial statements, adequacy of
529     internal controls, or compliance with laws and regulations; or
530          (b) a systematic examination of program procedures and operations for the purpose of
531     determining their effectiveness, economy, efficiency, and compliance with statutes and
532     regulations.
533          (2) "Chronological logs" mean the regular and customary summary records of law

534     enforcement agencies and other public safety agencies that show:
535          (a) the time and general nature of police, fire, and paramedic calls made to the agency;
536     and
537          (b) any arrests or jail bookings made by the agency.
538          (3) "Classification," "classify," and their derivative forms mean determining whether a
539     record series, record, or information within a record is public, private, controlled, protected, or
540     exempt from disclosure under Subsection 63G-2-201(3)(b).
541          (4) (a) "Computer program" means:
542          (i) a series of instructions or statements that permit the functioning of a computer
543     system in a manner designed to provide storage, retrieval, and manipulation of data from the
544     computer system; and
545          (ii) any associated documentation and source material that explain how to operate the
546     computer program.
547          (b) "Computer program" does not mean:
548          (i) the original data, including numbers, text, voice, graphics, and images;
549          (ii) analysis, compilation, and other manipulated forms of the original data produced by
550     use of the program; or
551          (iii) the mathematical or statistical formulas, excluding the underlying mathematical
552     algorithms contained in the program, that would be used if the manipulated forms of the
553     original data were to be produced manually.
554          (5) (a) "Contractor" means:
555          (i) any person who contracts with a governmental entity to provide goods or services
556     directly to a governmental entity; or
557          (ii) any private, nonprofit organization that receives funds from a governmental entity.
558          (b) "Contractor" does not mean a private provider.
559          (6) "Controlled record" means a record containing data on individuals that is controlled
560     as provided by Section 63G-2-304.
561          (7) "Designation," "designate," and their derivative forms mean indicating, based on a

562     governmental entity's familiarity with a record series or based on a governmental entity's
563     review of a reasonable sample of a record series, the primary classification that a majority of
564     records in a record series would be given if classified and the classification that other records
565     typically present in the record series would be given if classified.
566          (8) "Elected official" means each person elected to a state office, county office,
567     municipal office, school board or school district office, local district office, or special service
568     district office, but does not include judges.
569          (9) "Explosive" means a chemical compound, device, or mixture:
570          (a) commonly used or intended for the purpose of producing an explosion; and
571          (b) that contains oxidizing or combustive units or other ingredients in proportions,
572     quantities, or packing so that:
573          (i) an ignition by fire, friction, concussion, percussion, or detonator of any part of the
574     compound or mixture may cause a sudden generation of highly heated gases; and
575          (ii) the resultant gaseous pressures are capable of:
576          (A) producing destructive effects on contiguous objects; or
577          (B) causing death or serious bodily injury.
578          (10) "Government audit agency" means any governmental entity that conducts an audit.
579          (11) (a) "Governmental entity" means:
580          (i) executive department agencies of the state, the offices of the governor, lieutenant
581     governor, state auditor, attorney general, and state treasurer, the Board of Pardons and Parole,
582     the Board of Examiners, the National Guard, the Career Service Review Office, the State
583     Board of Education, the State Board of Regents, and the State Archives;
584          (ii) the Office of the Legislative Auditor General, Office of the Legislative Fiscal
585     Analyst, Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel, the Legislature, and legislative
586     committees, except any political party, group, caucus, or rules or sifting committee of the
587     Legislature;
588          (iii) courts, the Judicial Council, the Office of the Court Administrator, and similar
589     administrative units in the judicial branch;

590          (iv) any state-funded institution of higher education or public education; or
591          (v) any political subdivision of the state, but, if a political subdivision has adopted an
592     ordinance or a policy relating to information practices pursuant to Section 63G-2-701, this
593     chapter shall apply to the political subdivision to the extent specified in Section 63G-2-701 or
594     as specified in any other section of this chapter that specifically refers to political subdivisions.
595          (b) "Governmental entity" also means:
596          (i) every office, agency, board, bureau, committee, department, advisory board, or
597     commission of an entity listed in Subsection (11)(a) that is funded or established by the
598     government to carry out the public's business;
599          (ii) as defined in Section 11-13-103, an interlocal entity or joint or cooperative
600     undertaking;
601          (iii) as defined in Section 11-13a-102, a governmental nonprofit corporation; and
602          (iv) an association as defined in Section 53A-1-1601.
603          (c) "Governmental entity" does not include the Utah Educational Savings Plan created
604     in Section 53B-8a-103.
605          (12) "Gross compensation" means every form of remuneration payable for a given
606     period to an individual for services provided including salaries, commissions, vacation pay,
607     severance pay, bonuses, and any board, rent, housing, lodging, payments in kind, and any
608     similar benefit received from the individual's employer.
609          (13) "Individual" means a human being.
610          (14) (a) "Initial contact report" means an initial written or recorded report, however
611     titled, prepared by peace officers engaged in public patrol or response duties describing official
612     actions initially taken in response to either a public complaint about or the discovery of an
613     apparent violation of law, which report may describe:
614          (i) the date, time, location, and nature of the complaint, the incident, or offense;
615          (ii) names of victims;
616          (iii) the nature or general scope of the agency's initial actions taken in response to the
617     incident;

618          (iv) the general nature of any injuries or estimate of damages sustained in the incident;
619          (v) the name, address, and other identifying information about any person arrested or
620     charged in connection with the incident; or
621          (vi) the identity of the public safety personnel, except undercover personnel, or
622     prosecuting attorney involved in responding to the initial incident.
623          (b) Initial contact reports do not include follow-up or investigative reports prepared
624     after the initial contact report. However, if the information specified in Subsection (14)(a)
625     appears in follow-up or investigative reports, it may only be treated confidentially if it is
626     private, controlled, protected, or exempt from disclosure under Subsection 63G-2-201(3)(b).
627          (15) "Legislative body" means the Legislature.
628          (16) "Notice of compliance" means a statement confirming that a governmental entity
629     has complied with a records committee order.
630          (17) "Person" means:
631          (a) an individual;
632          (b) a nonprofit or profit corporation;
633          (c) a partnership;
634          (d) a sole proprietorship;
635          (e) other type of business organization; or
636          (f) any combination acting in concert with one another.
637          (18) "Private provider" means any person who contracts with a governmental entity to
638     provide services directly to the public.
639          (19) "Private record" means a record containing data on individuals that is private as
640     provided by Section 63G-2-302.
641          (20) "Protected record" means a record that is classified protected as provided by
642     Section 63G-2-305.
643          (21) "Public record" means a record that is not private, controlled, or protected and that
644     is not exempt from disclosure as provided in Subsection 63G-2-201(3)(b).
645          (22) (a) "Record" means a book, letter, document, paper, map, plan, photograph, film,

646     card, tape, recording, electronic data, or other documentary material regardless of physical form
647     or characteristics:
648          (i) that is prepared, owned, received, or retained by a governmental entity or political
649     subdivision; and
650          (ii) where all of the information in the original is reproducible by photocopy or other
651     mechanical or electronic means.
652          (b) "Record" does not mean:
653          (i) a personal note or personal communication prepared or received by an employee or
654     officer of a governmental entity:
655          (A) in a capacity other than the employee's or officer's governmental capacity; or
656          (B) that is unrelated to the conduct of the public's business;
657          (ii) a temporary draft or similar material prepared for the originator's personal use or
658     prepared by the originator for the personal use of an individual for whom the originator is
659     working;
660          (iii) material that is legally owned by an individual in the individual's private capacity;
661          (iv) material to which access is limited by the laws of copyright or patent unless the
662     copyright or patent is owned by a governmental entity or political subdivision;
663          (v) proprietary software;
664          (vi) junk mail or a commercial publication received by a governmental entity or an
665     official or employee of a governmental entity;
666          (vii) a book that is cataloged, indexed, or inventoried and contained in the collections
667     of a library open to the public;
668          (viii) material that is cataloged, indexed, or inventoried and contained in the collections
669     of a library open to the public, regardless of physical form or characteristics of the material;
670          (ix) a daily calendar or other personal note prepared by the originator for the
671     originator's personal use or for the personal use of an individual for whom the originator is
672     working;
673          (x) a computer program that is developed or purchased by or for any governmental

674     entity for its own use;
675          (xi) a note or internal memorandum prepared as part of the deliberative process by:
676          (A) a member of the judiciary;
677          (B) an administrative law judge;
678          (C) a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole; or
679          (D) a member of any other body, other than an association or appeals panel as defined
680     in Section 53A-1-1601, charged by law with performing a quasi-judicial function;
681          (xii) a telephone number or similar code used to access a mobile communication
682     device that is used by an employee or officer of a governmental entity, provided that the
683     employee or officer of the governmental entity has designated at least one business telephone
684     number that is a public record as provided in Section 63G-2-301;
685          (xiii) information provided by the Public Employees' Benefit and Insurance Program,
686     created in Section 49-20-103, to a county to enable the county to calculate the amount to be
687     paid to a health care provider under Subsection 17-50-319(2)(e)(ii);
688          (xiv) information that an owner of unimproved property provides to a local entity as
689     provided in Section 11-42-205; [or]
690          (xv) a video or audio recording of an interview, or a transcript of the video or audio
691     recording, that is conducted at a Children's Justice Center established under Section
692     67-5b-102[.]; or
693          (xvi) child pornography, as defined by Section 76-5b-103.
694          (23) "Record series" means a group of records that may be treated as a unit for
695     purposes of designation, description, management, or disposition.
696          (24) "Records committee" means the State Records Committee created in Section
697     63G-2-501.
698          (25) "Records officer" means the individual appointed by the chief administrative
699     officer of each governmental entity, or the political subdivision to work with state archives in
700     the care, maintenance, scheduling, designation, classification, disposal, and preservation of
701     records.

702          (26) "Schedule," "scheduling," and their derivative forms mean the process of
703     specifying the length of time each record series should be retained by a governmental entity for
704     administrative, legal, fiscal, or historical purposes and when each record series should be
705     transferred to the state archives or destroyed.
706          (27) "Sponsored research" means research, training, and other sponsored activities as
707     defined by the federal Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget:
708          (a) conducted:
709          (i) by an institution within the state system of higher education defined in Section
710     53B-1-102; and
711          (ii) through an office responsible for sponsored projects or programs; and
712          (b) funded or otherwise supported by an external:
713          (i) person that is not created or controlled by the institution within the state system of
714     higher education; or
715          (ii) federal, state, or local governmental entity.
716          (28) "State archives" means the Division of Archives and Records Service created in
717     Section 63A-12-101.
718          (29) "State archivist" means the director of the state archives.
719          (30) "Summary data" means statistical records and compilations that contain data
720     derived from private, controlled, or protected information but that do not disclose private,
721     controlled, or protected information.
722          Section 11. Section 63G-2-305 is amended to read:
723          63G-2-305. Protected records.
724          The following records are protected if properly classified by a governmental entity:
725          (1) trade secrets as defined in Section 13-24-2 if the person submitting the trade secret
726     has provided the governmental entity with the information specified in Section 63G-2-309;
727          (2) commercial information or nonindividual financial information obtained from a
728     person if:
729          (a) disclosure of the information could reasonably be expected to result in unfair

730     competitive injury to the person submitting the information or would impair the ability of the
731     governmental entity to obtain necessary information in the future;
732          (b) the person submitting the information has a greater interest in prohibiting access
733     than the public in obtaining access; and
734          (c) the person submitting the information has provided the governmental entity with
735     the information specified in Section 63G-2-309;
736          (3) commercial or financial information acquired or prepared by a governmental entity
737     to the extent that disclosure would lead to financial speculations in currencies, securities, or
738     commodities that will interfere with a planned transaction by the governmental entity or cause
739     substantial financial injury to the governmental entity or state economy;
740          (4) records, the disclosure of which could cause commercial injury to, or confer a
741     competitive advantage upon a potential or actual competitor of, a commercial project entity as
742     defined in Subsection 11-13-103(4);
743          (5) test questions and answers to be used in future license, certification, registration,
744     employment, or academic examinations;
745          (6) records, the disclosure of which would impair governmental procurement
746     proceedings or give an unfair advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contract or
747     agreement with a governmental entity, except, subject to Subsections (1) and (2), that this
748     Subsection (6) does not restrict the right of a person to have access to, after the contract or
749     grant has been awarded and signed by all parties, a bid, proposal, application, or other
750     information submitted to or by a governmental entity in response to:
751          (a) an invitation for bids;
752          (b) a request for proposals;
753          (c) a request for quotes;
754          (d) a grant; or
755          (e) other similar document;
756          (7) information submitted to or by a governmental entity in response to a request for
757     information, except, subject to Subsections (1) and (2), that this Subsection (7) does not restrict

758     the right of a person to have access to the information, after:
759          (a) a contract directly relating to the subject of the request for information has been
760     awarded and signed by all parties; or
761          (b) (i) a final determination is made not to enter into a contract that relates to the
762     subject of the request for information; and
763          (ii) at least two years have passed after the day on which the request for information is
764     issued;
765          (8) records that would identify real property or the appraisal or estimated value of real
766     or personal property, including intellectual property, under consideration for public acquisition
767     before any rights to the property are acquired unless:
768          (a) public interest in obtaining access to the information is greater than or equal to the
769     governmental entity's need to acquire the property on the best terms possible;
770          (b) the information has already been disclosed to persons not employed by or under a
771     duty of confidentiality to the entity;
772          (c) in the case of records that would identify property, potential sellers of the described
773     property have already learned of the governmental entity's plans to acquire the property;
774          (d) in the case of records that would identify the appraisal or estimated value of
775     property, the potential sellers have already learned of the governmental entity's estimated value
776     of the property; or
777          (e) the property under consideration for public acquisition is a single family residence
778     and the governmental entity seeking to acquire the property has initiated negotiations to acquire
779     the property as required under Section 78B-6-505;
780          (9) records prepared in contemplation of sale, exchange, lease, rental, or other
781     compensated transaction of real or personal property including intellectual property, which, if
782     disclosed prior to completion of the transaction, would reveal the appraisal or estimated value
783     of the subject property, unless:
784          (a) the public interest in access is greater than or equal to the interests in restricting
785     access, including the governmental entity's interest in maximizing the financial benefit of the

786     transaction; or
787          (b) when prepared by or on behalf of a governmental entity, appraisals or estimates of
788     the value of the subject property have already been disclosed to persons not employed by or
789     under a duty of confidentiality to the entity;
790          (10) records created or maintained for civil, criminal, or administrative enforcement
791     purposes or audit purposes, or for discipline, licensing, certification, or registration purposes, if
792     release of the records:
793          (a) reasonably could be expected to interfere with investigations undertaken for
794     enforcement, discipline, licensing, certification, or registration purposes;
795          (b) reasonably could be expected to interfere with audits, disciplinary, or enforcement
796     proceedings;
797          (c) would create a danger of depriving a person of a right to a fair trial or impartial
798     hearing;
799          (d) reasonably could be expected to disclose the identity of a source who is not
800     generally known outside of government and, in the case of a record compiled in the course of
801     an investigation, disclose information furnished by a source not generally known outside of
802     government if disclosure would compromise the source; or
803          (e) reasonably could be expected to disclose investigative or audit techniques,
804     procedures, policies, or orders not generally known outside of government if disclosure would
805     interfere with enforcement or audit efforts;
806          (11) records the disclosure of which would jeopardize the life or safety of an
807     individual;
808          (12) records the disclosure of which would jeopardize the security of governmental
809     property, governmental programs, or governmental recordkeeping systems from damage, theft,
810     or other appropriation or use contrary to law or public policy;
811          (13) records that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security or safety of a correctional
812     facility, or records relating to incarceration, treatment, probation, or parole, that would interfere
813     with the control and supervision of an offender's incarceration, treatment, probation, or parole;

814          (14) records that, if disclosed, would reveal recommendations made to the Board of
815     Pardons and Parole by an employee of or contractor for the Department of Corrections, the
816     Board of Pardons and Parole, or the Department of Human Services that are based on the
817     employee's or contractor's supervision, diagnosis, or treatment of any person within the board's
818     jurisdiction;
819          (15) records and audit workpapers that identify audit, collection, and operational
820     procedures and methods used by the State Tax Commission, if disclosure would interfere with
821     audits or collections;
822          (16) records of a governmental audit agency relating to an ongoing or planned audit
823     until the final audit is released;
824          (17) records that are subject to the attorney client privilege;
825          (18) records prepared for or by an attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer,
826     employee, or agent of a governmental entity for, or in anticipation of, litigation or a judicial,
827     quasi-judicial, or administrative proceeding;
828          (19) (a) (i) personal files of a state legislator, including personal correspondence to or
829     from a member of the Legislature; and
830          (ii) notwithstanding Subsection (19)(a)(i), correspondence that gives notice of
831     legislative action or policy may not be classified as protected under this section; and
832          (b) (i) an internal communication that is part of the deliberative process in connection
833     with the preparation of legislation between:
834          (A) members of a legislative body;
835          (B) a member of a legislative body and a member of the legislative body's staff; or
836          (C) members of a legislative body's staff; and
837          (ii) notwithstanding Subsection (19)(b)(i), a communication that gives notice of
838     legislative action or policy may not be classified as protected under this section;
839          (20) (a) records in the custody or control of the Office of Legislative Research and
840     General Counsel, that, if disclosed, would reveal a particular legislator's contemplated
841     legislation or contemplated course of action before the legislator has elected to support the

842     legislation or course of action, or made the legislation or course of action public; and
843          (b) notwithstanding Subsection (20)(a), the form to request legislation submitted to the
844     Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel is a public document unless a legislator
845     asks that the records requesting the legislation be maintained as protected records until such
846     time as the legislator elects to make the legislation or course of action public;
847          (21) research requests from legislators to the Office of Legislative Research and
848     General Counsel or the Office of the Legislative Fiscal Analyst and research findings prepared
849     in response to these requests;
850          (22) drafts, unless otherwise classified as public;
851          (23) records concerning a governmental entity's strategy about:
852          (a) collective bargaining; or
853          (b) imminent or pending litigation;
854          (24) records of investigations of loss occurrences and analyses of loss occurrences that
855     may be covered by the Risk Management Fund, the Employers' Reinsurance Fund, the
856     Uninsured Employers' Fund, or similar divisions in other governmental entities;
857          (25) records, other than personnel evaluations, that contain a personal recommendation
858     concerning an individual if disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of
859     personal privacy, or disclosure is not in the public interest;
860          (26) records that reveal the location of historic, prehistoric, paleontological, or
861     biological resources that if known would jeopardize the security of those resources or of
862     valuable historic, scientific, educational, or cultural information;
863          (27) records of independent state agencies if the disclosure of the records would
864     conflict with the fiduciary obligations of the agency;
865          (28) records of an institution within the state system of higher education defined in
866     Section 53B-1-102 regarding tenure evaluations, appointments, applications for admissions,
867     retention decisions, and promotions, which could be properly discussed in a meeting closed in
868     accordance with Title 52, Chapter 4, Open and Public Meetings Act, provided that records of
869     the final decisions about tenure, appointments, retention, promotions, or those students

870     admitted, may not be classified as protected under this section;
871          (29) records of the governor's office, including budget recommendations, legislative
872     proposals, and policy statements, that if disclosed would reveal the governor's contemplated
873     policies or contemplated courses of action before the governor has implemented or rejected
874     those policies or courses of action or made them public;
875          (30) records of the Office of the Legislative Fiscal Analyst relating to budget analysis,
876     revenue estimates, and fiscal notes of proposed legislation before issuance of the final
877     recommendations in these areas;
878          (31) records provided by the United States or by a government entity outside the state
879     that are given to the governmental entity with a requirement that they be managed as protected
880     records if the providing entity certifies that the record would not be subject to public disclosure
881     if retained by it;
882          (32) transcripts, minutes, or reports of the closed portion of a meeting of a public body
883     except as provided in Section 52-4-206;
884          (33) records that would reveal the contents of settlement negotiations but not including
885     final settlements or empirical data to the extent that they are not otherwise exempt from
886     disclosure;
887          (34) memoranda prepared by staff and used in the decision-making process by an
888     administrative law judge, a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole, or a member of any
889     other body charged by law with performing a quasi-judicial function;
890          (35) records that would reveal negotiations regarding assistance or incentives offered
891     by or requested from a governmental entity for the purpose of encouraging a person to expand
892     or locate a business in Utah, but only if disclosure would result in actual economic harm to the
893     person or place the governmental entity at a competitive disadvantage, but this section may not
894     be used to restrict access to a record evidencing a final contract;
895          (36) materials to which access must be limited for purposes of securing or maintaining
896     the governmental entity's proprietary protection of intellectual property rights including patents,
897     copyrights, and trade secrets;

898          (37) the name of a donor or a prospective donor to a governmental entity, including an
899     institution within the state system of higher education defined in Section 53B-1-102, and other
900     information concerning the donation that could reasonably be expected to reveal the identity of
901     the donor, provided that:
902          (a) the donor requests anonymity in writing;
903          (b) any terms, conditions, restrictions, or privileges relating to the donation may not be
904     classified protected by the governmental entity under this Subsection (37); and
905          (c) except for an institution within the state system of higher education defined in
906     Section 53B-1-102, the governmental unit to which the donation is made is primarily engaged
907     in educational, charitable, or artistic endeavors, and has no regulatory or legislative authority
908     over the donor, a member of the donor's immediate family, or any entity owned or controlled
909     by the donor or the donor's immediate family;
910          (38) accident reports, except as provided in Sections 41-6a-404, 41-12a-202, and
911     73-18-13;
912          (39) a notification of workers' compensation insurance coverage described in Section
913     34A-2-205;
914          (40) (a) the following records of an institution within the state system of higher
915     education defined in Section 53B-1-102, which have been developed, discovered, disclosed to,
916     or received by or on behalf of faculty, staff, employees, or students of the institution:
917          (i) unpublished lecture notes;
918          (ii) unpublished notes, data, and information:
919          (A) relating to research; and
920          (B) of:
921          (I) the institution within the state system of higher education defined in Section
922     53B-1-102; or
923          (II) a sponsor of sponsored research;
924          (iii) unpublished manuscripts;
925          (iv) creative works in process;

926          (v) scholarly correspondence; and
927          (vi) confidential information contained in research proposals;
928          (b) Subsection (40)(a) may not be construed to prohibit disclosure of public
929     information required pursuant to Subsection 53B-16-302(2)(a) or (b); and
930          (c) Subsection (40)(a) may not be construed to affect the ownership of a record;
931          (41) (a) records in the custody or control of the Office of Legislative Auditor General
932     that would reveal the name of a particular legislator who requests a legislative audit prior to the
933     date that audit is completed and made public; and
934          (b) notwithstanding Subsection (41)(a), a request for a legislative audit submitted to the
935     Office of the Legislative Auditor General is a public document unless the legislator asks that
936     the records in the custody or control of the Office of Legislative Auditor General that would
937     reveal the name of a particular legislator who requests a legislative audit be maintained as
938     protected records until the audit is completed and made public;
939          (42) records that provide detail as to the location of an explosive, including a map or
940     other document that indicates the location of:
941          (a) a production facility; or
942          (b) a magazine;
943          (43) information:
944          (a) contained in the statewide database of the Division of Aging and Adult Services
945     created by Section 62A-3-311.1; or
946          (b) received or maintained in relation to the Identity Theft Reporting Information
947     System (IRIS) established under Section 67-5-22;
948          (44) information contained in the Management Information System and Licensing
949     Information System described in Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Child and Family Services;
950          (45) information regarding National Guard operations or activities in support of the
951     National Guard's federal mission;
952          (46) records provided by any pawn or secondhand business to a law enforcement
953     agency or to the central database in compliance with Title 13, Chapter 32a, Pawnshop and

954     Secondhand Merchandise Transaction Information Act;
955          (47) information regarding food security, risk, and vulnerability assessments performed
956     by the Department of Agriculture and Food;
957          (48) except to the extent that the record is exempt from this chapter pursuant to Section
958     63G-2-106, records related to an emergency plan or program, a copy of which is provided to or
959     prepared or maintained by the Division of Emergency Management, and the disclosure of
960     which would jeopardize:
961          (a) the safety of the general public; or
962          (b) the security of:
963          (i) governmental property;
964          (ii) governmental programs; or
965          (iii) the property of a private person who provides the Division of Emergency
966     Management information;
967          (49) records of the Department of Agriculture and Food that provides for the
968     identification, tracing, or control of livestock diseases, including any program established under
969     Title 4, Chapter 24, Utah Livestock Brand and Anti-Theft Act, or Title 4, Chapter 31, Control
970     of Animal Disease;
971          (50) as provided in Section 26-39-501:
972          (a) information or records held by the Department of Health related to a complaint
973     regarding a child care program or residential child care which the department is unable to
974     substantiate; and
975          (b) information or records related to a complaint received by the Department of Health
976     from an anonymous complainant regarding a child care program or residential child care;
977          (51) unless otherwise classified as public under Section 63G-2-301 and except as
978     provided under Section 41-1a-116, an individual's home address, home telephone number, or
979     personal mobile phone number, if:
980          (a) the individual is required to provide the information in order to comply with a law,
981     ordinance, rule, or order of a government entity; and

982          (b) the subject of the record has a reasonable expectation that this information will be
983     kept confidential due to:
984          (i) the nature of the law, ordinance, rule, or order; and
985          (ii) the individual complying with the law, ordinance, rule, or order;
986          (52) the name, home address, work addresses, and telephone numbers of an individual
987     that is engaged in, or that provides goods or services for, medical or scientific research that is:
988          (a) conducted within the state system of higher education, as defined in Section
989     53B-1-102; and
990          (b) conducted using animals;
991          (53) an initial proposal under Title 63N, Chapter 13, Part 2, Government Procurement
992     Private Proposal Program, to the extent not made public by rules made under that chapter;
993          (54) in accordance with Section 78A-12-203, any record of the Judicial Performance
994     Evaluation Commission concerning an individual commissioner's vote on whether or not to
995     recommend that the voters retain a judge including information disclosed under Subsection
996     78A-12-203(5)(e);
997          (55) information collected and a report prepared by the Judicial Performance
998     Evaluation Commission concerning a judge, unless Section 20A-7-702 or Title 78A, Chapter
999     12, Judicial Performance Evaluation Commission Act, requires disclosure of, or makes public,
1000     the information or report;
1001          (56) records contained in the Management Information System created in Section
1002     62A-4a-1003;
1003          (57) records provided or received by the Public Lands Policy Coordinating Office in
1004     furtherance of any contract or other agreement made in accordance with Section 63J-4-603;
1005          (58) information requested by and provided to the 911 Division under Section
1006     63H-7a-302;
1007          (59) in accordance with Section 73-10-33:
1008          (a) a management plan for a water conveyance facility in the possession of the Division
1009     of Water Resources or the Board of Water Resources; or

1010          (b) an outline of an emergency response plan in possession of the state or a county or
1011     municipality;
1012          (60) the following records in the custody or control of the Office of Inspector General
1013     of Medicaid Services, created in Section 63A-13-201:
1014          (a) records that would disclose information relating to allegations of personal
1015     misconduct, gross mismanagement, or illegal activity of a person if the information or
1016     allegation cannot be corroborated by the Office of Inspector General of Medicaid Services
1017     through other documents or evidence, and the records relating to the allegation are not relied
1018     upon by the Office of Inspector General of Medicaid Services in preparing a final investigation
1019     report or final audit report;
1020          (b) records and audit workpapers to the extent they would disclose the identity of a
1021     person who, during the course of an investigation or audit, communicated the existence of any
1022     Medicaid fraud, waste, or abuse, or a violation or suspected violation of a law, rule, or
1023     regulation adopted under the laws of this state, a political subdivision of the state, or any
1024     recognized entity of the United States, if the information was disclosed on the condition that
1025     the identity of the person be protected;
1026          (c) before the time that an investigation or audit is completed and the final
1027     investigation or final audit report is released, records or drafts circulated to a person who is not
1028     an employee or head of a governmental entity for the person's response or information;
1029          (d) records that would disclose an outline or part of any investigation, audit survey
1030     plan, or audit program; or
1031          (e) requests for an investigation or audit, if disclosure would risk circumvention of an
1032     investigation or audit;
1033          (61) records that reveal methods used by the Office of Inspector General of Medicaid
1034     Services, the fraud unit, or the Department of Health, to discover Medicaid fraud, waste, or
1035     abuse;
1036          (62) information provided to the Department of Health or the Division of Occupational
1037     and Professional Licensing under Subsection 58-68-304(3) or (4);

1038          (63) a record described in Section 63G-12-210;
1039          (64) captured plate data that is obtained through an automatic license plate reader
1040     system used by a governmental entity as authorized in Section 41-6a-2003;
1041          (65) any record in the custody of the Utah Office for Victims of Crime relating to a
1042     victim, including:
1043          (a) a victim's application or request for benefits;
1044          (b) a victim's receipt or denial of benefits; and
1045          (c) any administrative notes or records made or created for the purpose of, or used to,
1046     evaluate or communicate a victim's eligibility for or denial of benefits from the Crime Victim
1047     Reparations Fund;
1048          (66) an audio or video recording created by a body-worn camera, as that term is
1049     defined in Section 77-7a-103, that records sound or images inside a hospital or health care
1050     facility as those terms are defined in Section 78B-3-403, inside a clinic of a health care
1051     provider, as that term is defined in Section 78B-3-403, or inside a human service program as
1052     that term is defined in Subsection 62A-2-101[(19)(a)(vi)](20), except for recordings that:
1053          (a) depict the commission of an alleged crime;
1054          (b) record any encounter between a law enforcement officer and a person that results in
1055     death or bodily injury, or includes an instance when an officer fires a weapon;
1056          (c) record any encounter that is the subject of a complaint or a legal proceeding against
1057     a law enforcement officer or law enforcement agency;
1058          (d) contain an officer involved critical incident as defined in Subsection
1059     76-2-408(1)(d); or
1060          (e) have been requested for reclassification as a public record by a subject or
1061     authorized agent of a subject featured in the recording; and
1062          (67) a record pertaining to the search process for a president of an institution of higher
1063     education described in Section 53B-2-102, except for application materials for a publicly
1064     announced finalist.
1065          Section 12. Section 76-5b-201 is amended to read:

1066          76-5b-201. Sexual exploitation of a minor -- Offenses.
1067          (1) A person is guilty of sexual exploitation of a minor:
1068          (a) when the person:
1069          (i) knowingly produces, possesses, or possesses with intent to distribute child
1070     pornography; or
1071          (ii) intentionally distributes or views child pornography; or
1072          (b) if the person is a minor's parent or legal guardian and knowingly consents to or
1073     permits the minor to be sexually exploited as described in Subsection (1)(a).
1074          (2) Sexual exploitation of a minor is a second degree felony.
1075          (3) It is a separate offense under this section:
1076          (a) for each minor depicted in the child pornography; and
1077          (b) for each time the same minor is depicted in different child pornography.
1078          (4) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of violating this section that no person under
1079     18 years of age was actually depicted in the visual depiction or used in producing or advertising
1080     the visual depiction.
1081          (5) In proving a violation of this section in relation to an identifiable minor, proof of
1082     the actual identity of the identifiable minor is not required.
1083          (6) This section may not be construed to impose criminal or civil liability on:
1084          (a) [any] an entity or an employee, director, officer, or agent of an entity when acting
1085     within the scope of employment, for the good faith performance of:
1086          (i) reporting or data preservation duties required under any federal or state law; or
1087          (ii) implementing a policy of attempting to prevent the presence of child pornography
1088     on any tangible or intangible property, or of detecting and reporting the presence of child
1089     pornography on the property;
1090          (b) [any] a law enforcement officer acting within the scope of a criminal investigation;
1091          (c) [any] an employee of a court who may be required to view child pornography
1092     during the course of and within the scope of the employee's employment;
1093          (d) [any] a juror who may be required to view child pornography during the course of

1094     the [person's] individual's service as a juror; [or]
1095          (e) [any] an attorney or employee of an attorney who is required to view child
1096     pornography during the course of a judicial process and while acting within the scope of
1097     employment[.];
1098          (f) an employee of the Department of Human Services who is required to view child
1099     pornography within the scope of the employee's employment; or
1100          (g) an attorney who is required to view child pornography within the scope of the
1101     attorney's responsibility to represent the Department of Human Services, including the
1102     divisions and offices within the Department of Human Services.
1103          Section 13. Section 77-7a-104 is amended to read:
1104          77-7a-104. Activation and use of body-worn cameras.
1105          (1) An officer using a body-worn camera shall verify that the equipment is properly
1106     functioning as is reasonably within the officer's ability.
1107          (2) An officer shall report any malfunctioning equipment to the officer's supervisor if:
1108          (a) the body-worn camera issued to the officer is not functioning properly upon initial
1109     inspection; or
1110          (b) an officer determines that the officer's body-worn camera is not functioning
1111     properly at any time while the officer is on duty.
1112          (3) An officer shall wear the body-worn camera so that it is clearly visible to the person
1113     being recorded.
1114          (4) An officer shall activate the body-worn camera prior to any law enforcement
1115     encounter, or as soon as reasonably possible.
1116          (5) An officer shall record in an uninterrupted manner until after the conclusion of a
1117     law enforcement encounter, except as an interruption of a recording is allowed under this
1118     section.
1119          (6) When going on duty and off duty, an officer who is issued a body-worn camera
1120     shall record the officer's name, identification number, and the current time and date, unless the
1121     information is already available due to the functionality of the body-worn camera.

1122          (7) If a body-worn camera was present during a law enforcement encounter, the officer
1123     shall document the presence of the body-worn camera in any report or other official record of a
1124     contact.
1125          (8) When a body-worn camera has been activated, the officer may not deactivate the
1126     body-worn camera until the officer's direct participation in the law enforcement encounter is
1127     complete, except as provided in Subsection (9).
1128          (9) An officer may deactivate a body-worn camera:
1129          (a) to consult with a supervisor or another officer;
1130          (b) during a significant period of inactivity; and
1131          (c) during a conversation with a sensitive victim of crime, a witness of a crime, or an
1132     individual who wishes to report or discuss criminal activity if:
1133          (i) the individual who is the subject of the recording requests that the officer deactivate
1134     the officer's body-worn camera; and
1135          (ii) the officer believes that the value of the information outweighs the value of the
1136     potential recording and records the request by the individual to deactivate the body-worn
1137     camera.
1138          (10) If an officer deactivates a body-worn camera, the officer shall document the
1139     reason for deactivating a body-worn camera in a written report.
1140          (11) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (11):
1141          (i) "Health care facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 78B-3-403.
1142          (ii) "Health care provider" means the same as that term is defined in Section
1143     78B-3-403.
1144          (iii) "Hospital" means the same as that term is defined in Section 78B-3-403.
1145          (iv) "Human service program" means the same as that term is defined in [Subsection]
1146     Section 62A-2-101[(20)(a)(vi)].
1147          (b) An officer may not activate a body-worn camera in a hospital, health care facility,
1148     human service program, or the clinic of a health care provider, except during a law
1149     enforcement encounter, and with notice under Section 77-7a-105.

1150          Section 14. Section 78A-6-105 is amended to read:
1151          78A-6-105. Definitions.
1152          As used in this chapter:
1153          (1) (a) "Abuse" means:
1154          (i) (A) nonaccidental harm of a child;
1155          (B) threatened harm of a child;
1156          (C) sexual exploitation;
1157          (D) sexual abuse; or
1158          (E) human trafficking of a child in violation of Section 76-5-308.5; or
1159          (ii) that a child's natural parent:
1160          (A) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes the death of another parent of the
1161     child;
1162          (B) is identified by a law enforcement agency as the primary suspect in an investigation
1163     for intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causing the death of another parent of the child; or
1164          (C) is being prosecuted for or has been convicted of intentionally, knowingly, or
1165     recklessly causing the death of another parent of the child.
1166          (b) "Abuse" does not include:
1167          (i) reasonable discipline or management of a child, including withholding privileges;
1168          (ii) conduct described in Section 76-2-401; or
1169          (iii) the use of reasonable and necessary physical restraint or force on a child:
1170          (A) in self-defense;
1171          (B) in defense of others;
1172          (C) to protect the child; or
1173          (D) to remove a weapon in the possession of a child for any of the reasons described in
1174     Subsections (1)(b)(iii)(A) through (C).
1175          (2) "Abused child" means a child who has been subjected to abuse.
1176          (3) "Adjudication" means a finding by the court, incorporated in a decree, that the facts
1177     alleged in the petition have been proved. A finding of not competent to proceed pursuant to

1178     Section 78A-6-1302 is not an adjudication.
1179          (4) "Adult" means a person 18 years of age or over, except that a person 18 years or
1180     over under the continuing jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 78A-6-120 shall
1181     be referred to as a minor.
1182          (5) "Board" means the Board of Juvenile Court Judges.
1183          (6) "Child" means a person under 18 years of age.
1184          (7) "Child placement agency" means:
1185          (a) a private agency licensed to receive a child for placement or adoption under this
1186     code; or
1187          (b) a private agency that receives a child for placement or adoption in another state,
1188     which agency is licensed or approved where such license or approval is required by law.
1189          (8) "Clandestine laboratory operation" means the same as that term is defined in
1190     Section 58-37d-3.
1191          (9) "Commit" means, unless specified otherwise:
1192          (a) with respect to a child, to transfer legal custody; and
1193          (b) with respect to a minor who is at least 18 years of age, to transfer custody.
1194          (10) "Court" means the juvenile court.
1195          (11) "Criminogenic risk factors" means evidence-based factors that are associated with
1196     a minor's likelihood of reoffending.
1197          (12) "Delinquent act" means an act that would constitute a felony or misdemeanor if
1198     committed by an adult.
1199          (13) "Dependent child" includes a child who is homeless or without proper care
1200     through no fault of the child's parent, guardian, or custodian.
1201          (14) "Deprivation of custody" means transfer of legal custody by the court from a
1202     parent or the parents or a previous legal custodian to another person, agency, or institution.
1203          (15) "Detention" means home detention and secure detention as defined in Section
1204     62A-7-101 for the temporary care of a minor who requires secure custody in a physically
1205     restricting facility:

1206          (a) pending court disposition or transfer to another jurisdiction; or
1207          (b) while under the continuing jurisdiction of the court.
1208          (16) "Detention risk assessment tool" means an evidence-based tool established under
1209     Section 78A-6-124, on and after July 1, 2018, that assesses a minor's risk of failing to appear in
1210     court or reoffending pre-adjudication and designed to assist in making detention
1211     determinations.
1212          (17) "Division" means the Division of Child and Family Services.
1213          (18) "Educational neglect" means that, after receiving a notice of compulsory education
1214     violation under Section 53G-6-202, the parent or guardian fails to make a good faith effort to
1215     ensure that the child receives an appropriate education.
1216          [(18)] (19) "Evidence-based" means a program or practice that has had multiple
1217     randomized control studies or a meta-analysis demonstrating that the program or practice is
1218     effective for a specific population or has been rated as effective by a standardized program
1219     evaluation tool.
1220          [(19)] (20) "Formal probation" means a minor is under field supervision by the
1221     probation department or other agency designated by the court and subject to return to the court
1222     in accordance with Section 78A-6-123 on and after July 1, 2018.
1223          [(20)] (21) "Formal referral" means a written report from a peace officer or other
1224     person informing the court that a minor is or appears to be within the court's jurisdiction and
1225     that a case must be reviewed.
1226          [(21)] (22) "Group rehabilitation therapy" means psychological and social counseling
1227     of one or more persons in the group, depending upon the recommendation of the therapist.
1228          [(22)] (23) "Guardianship of the person" includes the authority to consent to:
1229          (a) marriage;
1230          (b) enlistment in the armed forces;
1231          (c) major medical, surgical, or psychiatric treatment; or
1232          (d) legal custody, if legal custody is not vested in another person, agency, or institution.
1233          [(23)] (24) "Habitual truant" means the same as that term is defined in Section

1234     53A-11-101.
1235          [(24)] (25) "Harm" means:
1236          (a) physical or developmental injury or damage;
1237          (b) emotional damage that results in a serious impairment in the child's growth,
1238     development, behavior, or psychological functioning;
1239          (c) sexual abuse; or
1240          (d) sexual exploitation.
1241          [(25)] (26) (a) "Incest" means engaging in sexual intercourse with a person whom the
1242     perpetrator knows to be the perpetrator's ancestor, descendant, brother, sister, uncle, aunt,
1243     nephew, niece, or first cousin.
1244          (b) The relationships described in Subsection [(25)] (26)(a) include:
1245          (i) blood relationships of the whole or half blood, without regard to legitimacy;
1246          (ii) relationships of parent and child by adoption; and
1247          (iii) relationships of stepparent and stepchild while the marriage creating the
1248     relationship of a stepparent and stepchild exists.
1249          [(26)] (27) "Intake probation" means a period of court monitoring that does not include
1250     field supervision, but is overseen by a juvenile probation officer, during which a minor is
1251     subject to return to the court in accordance with Section 78A-6-123 on and after July 1, 2018.
1252          [(27)] (28) "Intellectual disability" means:
1253          (a) significantly subaverage intellectual functioning, an IQ of approximately 70 or
1254     below on an individually administered IQ test, for infants, a clinical judgment of significantly
1255     subaverage intellectual functioning;
1256          (b) concurrent deficits or impairments in present adaptive functioning, the person's
1257     effectiveness in meeting the standards expected for the person's age by the person's cultural
1258     group, in at least two of the following areas: communication, self-care, home living,
1259     social/interpersonal skills, use of community resources, self-direction, functional academic
1260     skills, work, leisure, health, and safety; and
1261          (c) the onset is before the person reaches the age of 18 years.

1262          [(28)] (29) "Legal custody" means a relationship embodying the following rights and
1263     duties:
1264          (a) the right to physical custody of the minor;
1265          (b) the right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the minor;
1266          (c) the duty to provide the minor with food, clothing, shelter, education, and ordinary
1267     medical care;
1268          (d) the right to determine where and with whom the minor shall live; and
1269          (e) the right, in an emergency, to authorize surgery or other extraordinary care.
1270          [(29)] (30) "Material loss" means an uninsured:
1271          (a) property loss;
1272          (b) out-of-pocket monetary loss;
1273          (c) lost wages; or
1274          (d) medical expenses.
1275          [(30)] (31) "Mental disorder" means a serious emotional and mental disturbance that
1276     severely limits a minor's development and welfare over a significant period of time.
1277          [(31)] (32) "Minor" means:
1278          (a) a child; or
1279          (b) a person who is:
1280          (i) at least 18 years of age and younger than 21 years of age; and
1281          (ii) under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
1282          [(32)] (33) "Mobile crisis outreach team" means a crisis intervention service for minors
1283     or families of minors experiencing behavioral health or psychiatric emergencies.
1284          [(33)] (34) "Molestation" means that a person, with the intent to arouse or gratify the
1285     sexual desire of any person:
1286          (a) touches the anus or any part of the genitals of a child;
1287          (b) takes indecent liberties with a child; or
1288          (c) causes a child to take indecent liberties with the perpetrator or another.
1289          [(34)] (35) "Natural parent" means a minor's biological or adoptive parent, and

1290     includes the minor's noncustodial parent.
1291          [(35)] (36) (a) "Neglect" means action or inaction causing:
1292          (i) abandonment of a child, except as provided in Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Part 8, Safe
1293     Relinquishment of a Newborn Child;
1294          (ii) lack of proper parental care of a child by reason of the fault or habits of the parent,
1295     guardian, or custodian;
1296          (iii) failure or refusal of a parent, guardian, or custodian to provide proper or necessary
1297     subsistence[, education,] or medical care, or any other care necessary for the child's health,
1298     safety, morals, or well-being;
1299          (iv) a child to be at risk of being neglected or abused because another child in the same
1300     home is neglected or abused; [or]
1301          (v) abandonment of a child through an unregulated custody transfer[.]; or
1302          (vi) educational neglect.
1303          [(b) The aspect of neglect relating to education, described in Subsection (35)(a)(iii),
1304     means that, after receiving a notice of compulsory education violation under Section
1305     53A-11-101.5, the parent or guardian fails to make a good faith effort to ensure that the child
1306     receives an appropriate education.]
1307          [(c)] (b) A parent or guardian legitimately practicing religious beliefs and who, for that
1308     reason, does not provide specified medical treatment for a child, is not guilty of neglect.
1309          [(d)] (c) (i) Notwithstanding Subsection [(35)] (36)(a), a health care decision made for
1310     a child by the child's parent or guardian does not constitute neglect unless the state or other
1311     party to the proceeding shows, by clear and convincing evidence, that the health care decision
1312     is not reasonable and informed.
1313          (ii) Nothing in Subsection [(35)(d)] (36)(c)(i) may prohibit a parent or guardian from
1314     exercising the right to obtain a second health care opinion and from pursuing care and
1315     treatment pursuant to the second health care opinion, as described in Section 78A-6-301.5.
1316          [(36)] (37) "Neglected child" means a child who has been subjected to neglect.
1317          [(37)] (38) "Nonjudicial adjustment" means closure of the case by the assigned

1318     probation officer without judicial determination upon the consent in writing of:
1319          (a) the assigned probation officer; and
1320          (b) (i) the minor; or
1321          (ii) the minor and the minor's parent, legal guardian, or custodian.
1322          [(38)] (39) "Not competent to proceed" means that a minor, due to a mental disorder,
1323     intellectual disability, or related condition as defined, lacks the ability to:
1324          (a) understand the nature of the proceedings against them or of the potential disposition
1325     for the offense charged; or
1326          (b) consult with counsel and participate in the proceedings against them with a
1327     reasonable degree of rational understanding.
1328          [(39)] (40) "Physical abuse" means abuse that results in physical injury or damage to a
1329     child.
1330          [(40)] (41) "Probation" means a legal status created by court order following an
1331     adjudication on the ground of a violation of law or under Section 78A-6-103, whereby the
1332     minor is permitted to remain in the minor's home under prescribed conditions.
1333          [(41)] (42) "Protective supervision" means a legal status created by court order
1334     following an adjudication on the ground of abuse, neglect, or dependency, whereby the minor
1335     is permitted to remain in the minor's home, and supervision and assistance to correct the abuse,
1336     neglect, or dependency is provided by the probation department or other agency designated by
1337     the court.
1338          [(42)] (43) "Related condition" means a condition closely related to intellectual
1339     disability in accordance with 42 C.F.R. Part 435.1010 and further defined in Rule R539-1-3,
1340     Utah Administrative Code.
1341          [(43)] (44) (a) "Residual parental rights and duties" means those rights and duties
1342     remaining with the parent after legal custody or guardianship, or both, have been vested in
1343     another person or agency, including:
1344          (i) the responsibility for support;
1345          (ii) the right to consent to adoption;

1346          (iii) the right to determine the child's religious affiliation; and
1347          (iv) the right to reasonable parent-time unless restricted by the court.
1348          (b) If no guardian has been appointed, "residual parental rights and duties" also include
1349     the right to consent to:
1350          (i) marriage;
1351          (ii) enlistment; and
1352          (iii) major medical, surgical, or psychiatric treatment.
1353          [(44)] (45) "Secure facility" means any facility operated by or under contract with the
1354     Division of Juvenile Justice Services, that provides 24-hour supervision and confinement for
1355     youth offenders committed to the division for custody and rehabilitation pursuant to Subsection
1356     78A-6-117(2)(d).
1357          [(45)] (46) "Severe abuse" means abuse that causes or threatens to cause serious harm
1358     to a child.
1359          [(46)] (47) "Severe neglect" means neglect that causes or threatens to cause serious
1360     harm to a child.
1361          [(47)] (48) "Sexual abuse" means:
1362          (a) an act or attempted act of sexual intercourse, sodomy, incest, or molestation by an
1363     adult directed towards a child;
1364          (b) an act or attempted act of sexual intercourse, sodomy, incest, or molestation
1365     committed by a child towards another child if:
1366          (i) there is an indication of force or coercion;
1367          (ii) the children are related, as described in Subsection [(25)] (26);
1368          (iii) there have been repeated incidents of sexual contact between the two children,
1369     unless the children are 14 years of age or older; or
1370          (iv) there is a disparity in chronological age of four or more years between the two
1371     children; or
1372          (c) engaging in any conduct with a child that would constitute an offense under any of
1373     the following, regardless of whether the person who engages in the conduct is actually charged

1374     with, or convicted of, the offense:
1375          (i) Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses, except for Section 76-5-401, if the
1376     alleged perpetrator of an offense described in Section 76-5-401 is a minor;
1377          (ii) child bigamy, Section 76-7-101.5;
1378          (iii) incest, Section 76-7-102;
1379          (iv) lewdness, Section 76-9-702;
1380          (v) sexual battery, Section 76-9-702.1;
1381          (vi) lewdness involving a child, Section 76-9-702.5; or
1382          (vii) voyeurism, Section 76-9-702.7.
1383          [(48)] (49) "Sexual exploitation" means knowingly:
1384          (a) employing, using, persuading, inducing, enticing, or coercing any child to:
1385          (i) pose in the nude for the purpose of sexual arousal of any person; or
1386          (ii) engage in any sexual or simulated sexual conduct for the purpose of photographing,
1387     filming, recording, or displaying in any way the sexual or simulated sexual conduct;
1388          (b) displaying, distributing, possessing for the purpose of distribution, or selling
1389     material depicting a child:
1390          (i) in the nude, for the purpose of sexual arousal of any person; or
1391          (ii) engaging in sexual or simulated sexual conduct; or
1392          (c) engaging in any conduct that would constitute an offense under Section 76-5b-201,
1393     sexual exploitation of a minor, regardless of whether the person who engages in the conduct is
1394     actually charged with, or convicted of, the offense.
1395          [(49)] (50) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a child in a physically unrestricted
1396     facility pending court disposition or transfer to another jurisdiction.
1397          [(50)] (51) "Status offense" means a violation of the law that would not be a violation
1398     but for the age of the offender.
1399          [(51)] (52) "Substance abuse" means the misuse or excessive use of alcohol or other
1400     drugs or substances.
1401          [(52)] (53) "Substantiated" means the same as that term is defined in Section

1402     62A-4a-101.
1403          [(53)] (54) "Supported" means the same as that term is defined in Section 62A-4a-101.
1404          [(54)] (55) "Termination of parental rights" means the permanent elimination of all
1405     parental rights and duties, including residual parental rights and duties, by court order.
1406          [(55)] (56) "Therapist" means:
1407          (a) a person employed by a state division or agency for the purpose of conducting
1408     psychological treatment and counseling of a minor in its custody; or
1409          (b) any other person licensed or approved by the state for the purpose of conducting
1410     psychological treatment and counseling.
1411          [(56)] (57) "Unregulated custody transfer" means the placement of a child:
1412          (a) with a person who is not the child's parent, step-parent, grandparent, adult sibling,
1413     adult uncle or aunt, or legal guardian, or a friend of the family who is an adult and with whom
1414     the child is familiar, or a member of the child's federally recognized tribe;
1415          (b) with the intent of severing the child's existing parent-child or guardian-child
1416     relationship; and
1417          (c) without taking:
1418          (i) reasonable steps to ensure the safety of the child and permanency of the placement;
1419     and
1420          (ii) the necessary steps to transfer the legal rights and responsibilities of parenthood or
1421     guardianship to the person taking custody of the child.
1422          [(57)] (58) "Unsubstantiated" means the same as that term is defined in Section
1423     62A-4a-101.
1424          [(58)] (59) "Validated risk and needs assessment" means an evidence-based tool that
1425     assesses a minor's risk of reoffending and a minor's criminogenic needs.
1426          [(59)] (60) "Without merit" means the same as that term is defined in Section
1427     62A-4a-101.
1428          Section 15. Section 78A-6-106 is amended to read:
1429          78A-6-106. Search warrants and subpoenas -- Authority to issue -- Protective

1430     custody -- Expedited hearing.
1431          (1) The court has authority to issue search warrants, subpoenas, or investigative
1432     subpoenas in criminal cases, delinquency, and abuse, neglect, and dependency proceedings for
1433     the same purposes, in the same manner and pursuant to the same procedures set forth in the
1434     code of criminal procedure for the issuance of search warrants, subpoenas, or investigative
1435     subpoenas in other trial courts in the state.
1436          (2) A peace officer or child welfare worker may not enter the home of a child who is
1437     not under the jurisdiction of the court, remove a child from the child's home or school, or take a
1438     child into protective custody unless:
1439          (a) there exist exigent circumstances sufficient to relieve the peace officer or child
1440     welfare worker of the requirement to obtain a warrant;
1441          (b) the peace officer or child welfare worker obtains a search warrant under Subsection
1442     (3) or (6);
1443          (c) the peace officer or child welfare worker obtains a court order after the parent or
1444     guardian of the child is given notice and an opportunity to be heard; or
1445          (d) the peace officer or child welfare worker obtains the consent of the child's parent or
1446     guardian.
1447          (3) (a) The court may issue a warrant authorizing a child protective services worker or
1448     peace officer to search for a child and take the child into protective custody if it appears to the
1449     court upon a verified petition, recorded sworn testimony or an affidavit sworn to by a peace
1450     officer or any other person, and upon the examination of other witnesses, if required by the
1451     judge, that there is probable cause to believe that:
1452          (i) there is a threat of substantial harm to the child's health or safety;
1453          (ii) it is necessary to take the child into protective custody to avoid the harm described
1454     in Subsection (3)(a)(i); and
1455          (iii) it is likely that the child will suffer substantial harm if the parent or guardian of the
1456     child is given notice and an opportunity to be heard before the child is taken into protective
1457     custody.

1458          (b) Pursuant to Section 77-23-210, a peace officer making the search may enter a house
1459     or premises by force, if necessary, in order to remove the child.
1460          (c) The person executing the warrant shall [then] take the child to the place of shelter
1461     designated by the court or the division.
1462          (4) (a) Consistent with Subsection (5), the court shall hold an expedited hearing to
1463     determine whether a child should be placed in protective custody if:
1464          (i) a person files a petition under Section 78A-6-304;
1465          (ii) a party to the proceeding files a "Motion for Expedited Placement in Temporary
1466     Custody"; and
1467          (iii) notice of the hearing described in this Subsection (4)(a) is served consistent with
1468     the requirements for notice of a shelter hearing under Section 78A-6-306.
1469          (b) The hearing described in Subsection (4)(a):
1470          (i) shall be held within 72 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, of the filing of the
1471     motion described in Subsection (4)(a)(ii); and
1472          (ii) shall be considered a shelter hearing under Section 78A-6-306 and Utah Rules of
1473     Juvenile Procedure, Rule 13.
1474          (5) (a) The hearing and notice described in Subsection (4) are subject to:
1475          (i) Section 78A-6-306;
1476          (ii) Section 78A-6-307; and
1477          (iii) the Utah Rules of Juvenile Procedure.
1478          (b) After the hearing described in Subsection (4), a court may order a child placed in
1479     the temporary custody of the division.
1480          (6) Upon a motion filed for a warrant to search for a child who is missing, has been
1481     abducted, or has run away, a court shall issue a warrant authorizing a child welfare worker or a
1482     peace officer to search for the child and take the child into custody if the court determines that:
1483          (a) the child is in the legal custody of the division; and
1484          (b) the child is missing, has been abducted, or has run away.
1485          (7) When a court issues a warrant under Subsection (6):

1486          (a) the division shall notify the child's parent or guardian who has a right to parent-time
1487     with the child;
1488          (b) the court shall order:
1489          (i) the law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over the location from which the
1490     child ran away to enter a record of the warrant into the National Crime Information Center
1491     database within 24 hours after the time when the law enforcement agency receives a copy of
1492     the warrant; and
1493          (ii) the division to notify the law enforcement agency described in Subsection (7)(b)(i)
1494     of the order described in Subsection (7)(b)(i); and
1495          (c) the court shall specify the location to which the child welfare worker or peace
1496     officer shall transport the child.
1497          (8) On the sole basis of a child's absence from placement, a court may not hold in
1498     contempt a child who:
1499          (a) is in the legal custody of the division; and
1500          (b) is missing, has been abducted, or has run away.
1501          [(6)] (9) When notice to a parent or guardian is required by this section:
1502          (a) the parent or guardian to be notified must be:
1503          (i) the child's primary caregiver; or
1504          (ii) the parent or guardian who has custody of the child[,] when the order is sought; and
1505          (b) the person required to provide notice shall make a good faith effort to provide
1506     notice to a parent or guardian who:
1507          (i) is not required to be notified under Subsection [(6)] (9)(a); and
1508          (ii) has [the] a right to parent-time with the child.
1509          Section 16. Section 78A-6-113 (Superseded 07/01/18) is amended to read:
1510          78A-6-113 (Superseded 07/01/18). Placement of minor in detention or shelter
1511     facility -- Grounds -- Detention hearings -- Period of detention -- Notice -- Confinement
1512     for criminal proceedings -- Bail laws inapplicable -- Exception.
1513          (1) (a) A minor may not be placed or kept in a secure detention facility pending court

1514     proceedings unless it is unsafe for the public to leave the minor with the minor's parents,
1515     guardian, or custodian and the minor is detainable based on guidelines promulgated by the
1516     Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
1517          (b) A child who must be taken from the child's home but who does not require physical
1518     restriction shall be given temporary care in a shelter facility and may not be placed in a
1519     detention facility.
1520          (c) A child may not be placed or kept in a shelter facility pending court proceedings
1521     unless it is unsafe to leave the child with the child's parents, guardian, or custodian.
1522          (d) (i) A court may temporarily place in a detention facility, as provided in Subsection
1523     (4), a child who is taken into custody based upon a warrant issued under Subsection
1524     78A-6-106(6), if the court finds that detention is the least restrictive placement available to
1525     ensure the immediate safety of the child.
1526          (ii) A child placed in detention under Subsection (1)(d)(i) may not be held in detention
1527     longer than is necessary for the division to identify a less restrictive, available, and appropriate
1528     placement for the child.
1529          (2) After admission of a child to a detention facility pursuant to the guidelines
1530     established by the Division of Juvenile Justice Services and immediate investigation by an
1531     authorized officer of the court, the judge or the officer shall order the release of the child to the
1532     child's parents, guardian, or custodian if it is found the child can be safely returned to their care,
1533     either upon written promise to bring the child to the court at a time set or without restriction.
1534          (a) If a child's parent, guardian, or custodian fails to retrieve the child from a facility
1535     within 24 hours after notification of release, the parent, guardian, or custodian is responsible
1536     for the cost of care for the time the child remains in the facility.
1537          (b) The facility shall determine the cost of care.
1538          (c) Any money collected under this Subsection (2) shall be retained by the Division of
1539     Juvenile Justice Services to recover the cost of care for the time the child remains in the
1540     facility.
1541          (3) (a) When a child is detained in a detention or shelter facility, the parents or

1542     guardian shall be informed by the person in charge of the facility that they have the right to a
1543     prompt hearing in court to determine whether the child is to be further detained or released.
1544          (b) When a minor is detained in a detention facility, the minor shall be informed by the
1545     person in charge of the facility that the minor has the right to a prompt hearing in court to
1546     determine whether the minor is to be further detained or released.
1547          (c) Detention hearings shall be held by the judge or by a commissioner.
1548          (d) The court may, at any time, order the release of the minor, whether a detention
1549     hearing is held or not.
1550          (e) If a child is released, and the child remains in the facility, because the parents,
1551     guardian, or custodian fails to retrieve the child, the parents, guardian, or custodian shall be
1552     responsible for the cost of care as provided in Subsections (2)(a), (b), and (c).
1553          (4) (a) A minor may not be held in a detention facility longer than 48 hours prior to a
1554     detention hearing, excluding weekends and holidays, unless the court has entered an order for
1555     continued detention.
1556          (b) A child may not be held in a shelter facility longer than 48 hours prior to a shelter
1557     hearing, excluding weekends and holidays, unless a court order for extended shelter has been
1558     entered by the court after notice to all parties described in Section 78A-6-306.
1559          (c) A hearing for detention or shelter may not be waived. Detention staff shall provide
1560     the court with all information received from the person who brought the minor to the detention
1561     facility.
1562          (d) If the court finds at a detention hearing that it is not safe to release the minor, the
1563     judge or commissioner may order the minor to be held in the facility or be placed in another
1564     appropriate facility, subject to further order of the court.
1565          (e) (i) After a detention hearing has been held, only the court may release a minor from
1566     detention. If a minor remains in a detention facility, periodic reviews shall be held pursuant to
1567     the Utah State Juvenile Court Rules of Practice and Procedure to ensure that continued
1568     detention is necessary.
1569          (ii) After a detention hearing for a violent felony, as defined in Section 76-3-203.5, or

1570     an offense in violation of Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, the court shall direct that
1571     notice of its decision, including any disposition, order, or no contact orders, be provided to
1572     designated persons in the appropriate local law enforcement agency and district superintendent
1573     or the school or transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons
1574     may receive the information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety.
1575          (iii) Any employee of the local law enforcement agency, school district, and the school
1576     that the minor attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
1577          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
1578     provided in Section 63G-7-202; and
1579          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when disclosure constitutes a knowing violation
1580     of Section 63G-2-801.
1581          (5) A minor may not be held in a detention facility, following a dispositional order of
1582     the court for nonsecure substitute care as defined in Section 62A-4a-101, or for
1583     community-based placement under Section 62A-7-101 for longer than 72 hours, excluding
1584     weekends and holidays. The period of detention may be extended by the court for one period
1585     of seven calendar days if:
1586          (a) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services or another agency responsible for
1587     placement files a written petition with the court requesting the extension and setting forth good
1588     cause; and
1589          (b) the court enters a written finding that it is in the best interests of both the minor and
1590     the community to extend the period of detention.
1591          (6) The agency requesting an extension shall promptly notify the detention facility that
1592     a written petition has been filed.
1593          (7) The court shall promptly notify the detention facility regarding its initial disposition
1594     and any ruling on a petition for an extension, whether granted or denied.
1595          (8) (a) A child under 16 years of age may not be held in a jail, lockup, or other place
1596     for adult detention except as provided by Section 62A-7-201 or unless certified as an adult
1597     pursuant to Section 78A-6-703. The provisions of Section 62A-7-201 regarding confinement

1598     facilities apply to this Subsection (8).
1599          (b) A child 16 years of age or older whose conduct or condition endangers the safety or
1600     welfare of others in the detention facility for children may, by court order that specifies the
1601     reasons, be detained in another place of confinement considered appropriate by the court,
1602     including a jail or other place of confinement for adults. However, a secure youth corrections
1603     facility is not an appropriate place of confinement for detention purposes under this section.
1604          (9) A sheriff, warden, or other official in charge of a jail or other facility for the
1605     detention of adult offenders or persons charged with crime shall immediately notify the
1606     juvenile court when a person who is or appears to be under 18 years of age is received at the
1607     facility and shall make arrangements for the transfer of the person to a detention facility, unless
1608     otherwise ordered by the juvenile court.
1609          (10) This section does not apply to a minor who is brought to the adult facility under
1610     charges pursuant to Section 78A-6-701 or by order of the juvenile court to be held for criminal
1611     proceedings in the district court under Section 78A-6-702 or 78A-6-703.
1612          (11) A minor held for criminal proceedings under Section 78A-6-701, 78A-6-702, or
1613     78A-6-703 may be detained in a jail or other place of detention used for adults charged with
1614     crime.
1615          (12) Provisions of law regarding bail are not applicable to minors detained or taken
1616     into custody under this chapter, except that bail may be allowed:
1617          (a) if a minor who need not be detained lives outside this state; or
1618          (b) when a minor who need not be detained comes within one of the classes in
1619     Subsection 78A-6-603(11).
1620          (13) Section 76-8-418 is applicable to a child who willfully and intentionally commits
1621     an act against a jail or other place of confinement, including a Division of Juvenile Justice
1622     Services detention, shelter, or secure confinement facility which would be a third degree felony
1623     if committed by an adult.
1624          Section 17. Section 78A-6-113 (Effective 07/01/18) is amended to read:
1625          78A-6-113 (Effective 07/01/18). Placement of minor in detention or shelter facility

1626     -- Grounds -- Detention hearings -- Period of detention -- Notice -- Confinement for
1627     criminal proceedings -- Bail laws inapplicable -- Exception.
1628          (1) (a) A minor may not be placed or kept in a secure detention facility pending court
1629     proceedings except in accordance with Section 78A-6-112.
1630          (b) A child may not be placed or kept in a shelter facility pending court proceedings
1631     unless it is unsafe to leave the child with the child's parents, guardian, or custodian.
1632          (c) (i) A court may temporarily place in a detention facility, as provided in Subsection
1633     (4), a child who is taken into custody based upon a warrant issued under Subsection
1634     78A-6-106(6), if the court finds that detention is the least restrictive placement available to
1635     ensure the immediate safety of the child.
1636          (ii) A child placed in detention under Subsection (1)(c)(i) may not be held in detention
1637     longer than is necessary for the division to identify a less restrictive, available, and appropriate
1638     placement for the child.
1639          (2) After admission of a child to a detention facility pursuant to Section 78A-6-112 and
1640     immediate investigation by an authorized officer of the court, the judge or the officer shall
1641     order the release of the child to the child's parents, guardian, or custodian if it is found the child
1642     can be safely returned to their care, either upon written promise to bring the child to the court at
1643     a time set or without restriction.
1644          (a) If a child's parent, guardian, or custodian fails to retrieve the child from a facility
1645     within 24 hours after notification of release, the parent, guardian, or custodian is responsible
1646     for the cost of care for the time the child remains in the facility.
1647          (b) The facility shall determine the cost of care.
1648          (c) Any money collected under this Subsection (2) shall be retained by the Division of
1649     Juvenile Justice Services to recover the cost of care for the time the child remains in the
1650     facility.
1651          (3) (a) When a child is detained in a detention or shelter facility, the parents or
1652     guardian shall be informed by the person in charge of the facility that the parent's or guardian's
1653     child has the right to a prompt hearing in court to determine whether the child is to be further

1654     detained or released.
1655          (b) When a minor is detained in a detention facility, the minor shall be informed by the
1656     person in charge of the facility that the minor has the right to a prompt hearing in court to
1657     determine whether the minor is to be further detained or released.
1658          (c) Detention hearings shall be held by the judge or by a commissioner.
1659          (d) The court may, at any time, order the release of the minor, whether a detention
1660     hearing is held or not.
1661          (e) If a child is released, and the child remains in the facility, because the parents,
1662     guardian, or custodian fails to retrieve the child, the parents, guardian, or custodian shall be
1663     responsible for the cost of care as provided in Subsections (2)(a), (b), and (c).
1664          (4) (a) A minor may not be held in a detention facility longer than 48 hours before a
1665     detention hearing, excluding weekends and holidays, unless the court has entered an order for
1666     continued detention.
1667          (b) A child may not be held in a shelter facility longer than 48 hours before a shelter
1668     hearing, excluding weekends and holidays, unless a court order for extended shelter has been
1669     entered by the court after notice to all parties described in Section 78A-6-306.
1670          (c) A hearing for detention or shelter may not be waived. Detention staff shall provide
1671     the court with all information received from the person who brought the minor to the detention
1672     facility.
1673          (d) The judge or commissioner may only order a minor to be held in the facility or be
1674     placed in another appropriate facility, subject to further order of the court, if the court finds at a
1675     detention hearing that:
1676          (i) releasing the minor to the minor's parent, guardian, or custodian presents an
1677     unreasonable risk to public safety;
1678          (ii) less restrictive nonresidential alternatives to detention have been considered and,
1679     where appropriate, attempted; and
1680          (iii) the minor is eligible for detention under the division guidelines for detention
1681     admissions established by the Division of Juvenile Justice Services, under Section 62A-7-202

1682     and under Section 78A-6-112.
1683          (e) (i) After a detention hearing has been held, only the court may release a minor from
1684     detention. If a minor remains in a detention facility, periodic reviews shall be held pursuant to
1685     the Utah State Juvenile Court Rules of Practice and Procedure to ensure that continued
1686     detention is necessary.
1687          (ii) After a detention hearing for a violent felony, as defined in Section 76-3-203.5, or
1688     an offense in violation of Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, the court shall direct that
1689     notice of its decision, including any disposition, order, or no contact orders, be provided to
1690     designated persons in the appropriate local law enforcement agency and district superintendent
1691     or the school or transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons
1692     may receive the information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety.
1693          (iii) Any employee of the local law enforcement agency, school district, and the school
1694     that the minor attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
1695          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
1696     provided in Section 63G-7-202; and
1697          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when disclosure constitutes a knowing violation
1698     of Section 63G-2-801.
1699          (5) A minor may not be held in a detention facility, following a dispositional order of
1700     the court for nonsecure substitute care as defined in Section 62A-4a-101, or for
1701     community-based placement under Section 62A-7-101.
1702          (6) (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a minor may not be held in a
1703     detention facility following a disposition order of the court for longer than 72 hours, excluding
1704     weekends and holidays.
1705          (b) The period of detention may be extended by the court for a cumulative total of
1706     seven calendar days if:
1707          (i) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services or another agency responsible for
1708     placement files a written petition with the court requesting the extension and setting forth good
1709     cause; and

1710          (ii) the court enters a written finding that it is in the best interests of both the minor and
1711     the community to extend the period of detention.
1712          (c) The court may extend the period of detention beyond the seven calendar days if the
1713     court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
1714          (i) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services or another agency responsible for
1715     placement does not have space for the minor; and
1716          (ii) the safety of the minor and community requires an extension of the period of
1717     detention.
1718          (d) The Division of Juvenile Justice Services shall report to the court every 48 hours,
1719     excluding weekends and holidays, regarding the status of whether the Division of Juvenile
1720     Justice Services or another agency responsible for placement has space for the minor.
1721          (7) The agency requesting an extension shall promptly notify the detention facility that
1722     a written petition has been filed.
1723          (8) The court shall promptly notify the detention facility regarding its initial disposition
1724     and any ruling on a petition for an extension, whether granted or denied.
1725          (9) (a) A child under 16 years of age may not be held in a jail, lockup, or other place
1726     for adult detention except as provided by Section 62A-7-201 or unless certified as an adult
1727     pursuant to Section 78A-6-703. Section 62A-7-201 regarding confinement facilities applies to
1728     this Subsection (9).
1729          (b) A child 16 years of age or older whose conduct or condition endangers the safety or
1730     welfare of others in the detention facility for children may, by court order that specifies the
1731     reasons, be detained in another place of confinement considered appropriate by the court,
1732     including a jail or other place of confinement for adults. However, a secure facility is not an
1733     appropriate place of confinement for detention purposes under this section.
1734          (10) A sheriff, warden, or other official in charge of a jail or other facility for the
1735     detention of adult offenders or persons charged with crime shall immediately notify the
1736     juvenile court when a person who is or appears to be under 18 years of age is received at the
1737     facility and shall make arrangements for the transfer of the person to a detention facility, unless

1738     otherwise ordered by the juvenile court.
1739          (11) This section does not apply to a minor who is brought to the adult facility under
1740     charges pursuant to Section 78A-6-701 or by order of the juvenile court to be held for criminal
1741     proceedings in the district court under Section 78A-6-702 or 78A-6-703.
1742          (12) A minor held for criminal proceedings under Section 78A-6-701, 78A-6-702, or
1743     78A-6-703 may be detained in a jail or other place of detention used for adults charged with
1744     crime.
1745          (13) Provisions of law regarding bail are not applicable to minors detained or taken
1746     into custody under this chapter, except that bail may be allowed:
1747          (a) if a minor who need not be detained lives outside this state; or
1748          (b) when a minor who need not be detained comes within one of the classes in
1749     Subsection 78A-6-603(11).
1750          (14) Section 76-8-418 is applicable to a child who willfully and intentionally commits
1751     an act against a jail or other place of confinement, including a Division of Juvenile Justice
1752     Services detention, shelter, or secure confinement facility which would be a third degree felony
1753     if committed by an adult.
1754          Section 18. Section 78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/18) is amended to read:
1755          78A-6-117 (Superseded 07/01/18). Adjudication of jurisdiction of juvenile court --
1756     Disposition of cases -- Enumeration of possible court orders -- Considerations of court --
1757     Obtaining DNA sample.
1758          (1) (a) When a minor is found to come within the provisions of Section 78A-6-103, the
1759     court shall so adjudicate. The court shall make a finding of the facts upon which it bases its
1760     jurisdiction over the minor. However, in cases within the provisions of Subsection
1761     78A-6-103(1), findings of fact are not necessary.
1762          (b) If the court adjudicates a minor for a crime of violence or an offense in violation of
1763     Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, it shall order that notice of the adjudication be provided
1764     to the school superintendent of the district in which the minor resides or attends school. Notice
1765     shall be made to the district superintendent within three days of the adjudication and shall

1766     include:
1767          (i) the specific offenses for which the minor was adjudicated; and
1768          (ii) if available, if the victim:
1769          (A) resides in the same school district as the minor; or
1770          (B) attends the same school as the minor.
1771          (2) Upon adjudication the court may make the following dispositions by court order:
1772          (a) (i) The court may place the minor on probation or under protective supervision in
1773     the minor's own home and upon conditions determined by the court, including compensatory
1774     service as provided in Subsection (2)(m)(iii).
1775          (ii) The court may place the minor in state supervision with the probation department
1776     of the court, under the legal custody of:
1777          (A) the minor's parent or guardian;
1778          (B) the Division of Juvenile Justice Services; or
1779          (C) the Division of Child and Family Services.
1780          (iii) If the court orders probation or state supervision, the court shall direct that notice
1781     of its order be provided to designated persons in the local law enforcement agency and the
1782     school or transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons may
1783     receive the information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety.
1784          (iv) Any employee of the local law enforcement agency and the school that the minor
1785     attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
1786          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
1787     provided in Section 63G-7-202; and
1788          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when the disclosure constitutes a knowing
1789     violation of Section 63G-2-801.
1790          (b) The court may place the minor in the legal custody of a relative or other suitable
1791     person, with or without probation or [protective supervision] other court-specified child
1792     welfare services, but the juvenile court may not assume the function of developing foster home
1793     services.

1794          (c) (i) The court may:
1795          (A) vest legal custody of the minor in the Division of Child and Family Services,
1796     Division of Juvenile Justice Services, or the Division of Substance Abuse and Mental Health;
1797     and
1798          (B) order the Department of Human Services to provide dispositional
1799     recommendations and services.
1800          (ii) For minors who may qualify for services from two or more divisions within the
1801     Department of Human Services, the court may vest legal custody with the department.
1802          (iii) (A) A minor who is committed to the custody of the Division of Child and Family
1803     Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect is subject to the provisions of Title 78A,
1804     Chapter 6, Part 4, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect, and Title 62A,
1805     Chapter 4a, Part 2a, Minors in Custody on Grounds Other than Abuse or Neglect.
1806          (B) Before the court entering an order to place a minor in the custody of the Division of
1807     Child and Family Services on grounds other than abuse or neglect, the court shall provide the
1808     division with notice of the hearing no later than five days before the time specified for the
1809     hearing so the division may attend the hearing.
1810          (C) Before committing a child to the custody of the Division of Child and Family
1811     Services, the court shall make a finding as to what reasonable efforts have been attempted to
1812     prevent the child's removal from the child's home.
1813          (iv) (A) A minor who is 18 years old or older, but younger than 21 years old, may
1814     petition the court to express the minor's desire to be removed from the jurisdiction of the
1815     juvenile court and from the custody of the Division of Child and Family Services if the minor
1816     is in the division's custody on grounds of abuse, neglect, or dependency.
1817          (B) If the minor's parent's rights have not been terminated in accordance with Part 5,
1818     Termination of Parental Rights Act, the minor's petition shall contain a statement from the
1819     minor's parent or guardian agreeing that the minor should be removed from the custody of the
1820     Division of Child and Family Services.
1821          (C) The minor and the minor's parent or guardian shall sign the petition.

1822          (D) The court shall review the petition within 14 days.
1823          (E) The court shall remove the minor from the custody of the Division of Child and
1824     Family Services if the minor and the minor's parent or guardian have met the requirements
1825     described in Subsections (2)(c)(iv)(B) and (C) and if the court finds, based on input from the
1826     Division of Child and Family Services, the minor's guardian ad litem, and the Office of the
1827     Attorney General, that the minor does not pose an imminent threat to self or others.
1828          (F) A minor removed from custody under Subsection (2)(c)(iv)(E) may, within 90 days
1829     of the date of removal, petition the court to re-enter custody of the Division of Child and
1830     Family Services.
1831          (G) Upon receiving a petition under Subsection (2)(c)(iv)(F), the court shall order the
1832     Division of Child and Family Services to take custody of the minor based on the findings the
1833     court entered when the court originally vested custody in the Division of Child and Family
1834     Services.
1835          (d) (i) The court may commit a minor to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services for
1836     secure confinement.
1837          (ii) A minor under the jurisdiction of the court solely on the ground of abuse, neglect,
1838     or dependency under Subsection 78A-6-103(1)(c) may not be committed to the Division of
1839     Juvenile Justice Services.
1840          (e) The court may commit a minor, subject to the court retaining continuing
1841     jurisdiction over the minor, to the temporary custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice
1842     Services for observation and evaluation for a period not to exceed 45 days, which period may
1843     be extended up to 15 days at the request of the director of the Division of Juvenile Justice
1844     Services.
1845          (f) (i) The court may commit a minor to a place of detention or an alternative to
1846     detention for a period not to exceed 30 days subject to the court retaining continuing
1847     jurisdiction over the minor. This commitment may be stayed or suspended upon conditions
1848     ordered by the court.
1849          (ii) This Subsection (2)(f) applies only to a minor adjudicated for:

1850          (A) an act which if committed by an adult would be a criminal offense; or
1851          (B) contempt of court under Section 78A-6-1101.
1852          (g) The court may vest legal custody of an abused, neglected, or dependent minor in
1853     the Division of Child and Family Services or any other appropriate person in accordance with
1854     the requirements and procedures of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and
1855     Dependency Proceedings.
1856          (h) The court may place a minor on a ranch or forestry camp, or similar facility for care
1857     and also for work, if possible, if the person, agency, or association operating the facility has
1858     been approved or has otherwise complied with all applicable state and local laws. A minor
1859     placed in a forestry camp or similar facility may be required to work on fire prevention,
1860     forestation and reforestation, recreational works, forest roads, and on other works on or off the
1861     grounds of the facility and may be paid wages, subject to the approval of and under conditions
1862     set by the court.
1863          (i) (i) The court may order a minor to repair, replace, or otherwise make restitution for
1864     damage or loss caused by the minor's wrongful act, including costs of treatment as stated in
1865     Section 78A-6-321 and impose fines in limited amounts.
1866          (ii) The court may also require a minor to reimburse an individual, entity, or
1867     governmental agency who offered and paid a reward to a person or persons for providing
1868     information resulting in a court adjudication that the minor is within the jurisdiction of the
1869     juvenile court due to the commission of a criminal offense.
1870          (iii) If a minor is returned to this state under the Interstate Compact on Juveniles, the
1871     court may order the minor to make restitution for costs expended by any governmental entity
1872     for the return.
1873          (j) The court may issue orders necessary for the collection of restitution and fines
1874     ordered by the court, including garnishments, wage withholdings, and executions.
1875          (k) (i) The court may through its probation department encourage the development of
1876     employment or work programs to enable minors to fulfill their obligations under Subsection
1877     (2)(i) and for other purposes considered desirable by the court.

1878          (ii) Consistent with the order of the court, the probation officer may permit a minor
1879     found to be within the jurisdiction of the court to participate in a program of work restitution or
1880     compensatory service in lieu of paying part or all of the fine imposed by the court.
1881          (l) (i) In violations of traffic laws within the court's jurisdiction, the court may, in
1882     addition to any other disposition authorized by this section:
1883          (A) restrain the minor from driving for periods of time the court considers necessary;
1884     and
1885          (B) take possession of the minor's driver license.
1886          (ii) The court may enter any other disposition under Subsection (2)(l)(i). However, the
1887     suspension of driving privileges for an offense under Section 78A-6-606 is governed only by
1888     Section 78A-6-606.
1889          (m) (i) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under
1890     Section 78A-6-103 because of violating Section 58-37-8, Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug
1891     Paraphernalia Act, or Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances Act, the court
1892     shall, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed, order that the minor perform a
1893     minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours, of compensatory service. Satisfactory
1894     completion of an approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited
1895     by the court as compensatory service hours.
1896          (ii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
1897     78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 32B-4-409 or Subsection 76-9-701(1), the court
1898     may, upon the first adjudication, and shall, upon a second or subsequent adjudication, order
1899     that the minor perform a minimum of 20 hours, but no more than 100 hours of compensatory
1900     service, in addition to any fines or fees otherwise imposed. Satisfactory completion of an
1901     approved substance abuse prevention or treatment program may be credited by the court as
1902     compensatory service hours.
1903          (iii) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
1904     78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 76-6-106 or 76-6-206 using graffiti, the court may
1905     order the minor to clean up graffiti created by the minor or any other person at a time and place

1906     within the jurisdiction of the court. Compensatory service required under this section may be
1907     performed in the presence and under the direct supervision of the minor's parent or legal
1908     guardian. The parent or legal guardian shall report completion of the order to the court. The
1909     minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, if applicable, shall be responsible for removal
1910     costs as determined under Section 76-6-107, unless waived by the court for good cause. The
1911     court may also require the minor to perform other alternative forms of restitution or repair to
1912     the damaged property pursuant to Subsection 77-18-1(8).
1913          (A) For a first adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
1914     less than eight hours.
1915          (B) For a second adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for
1916     not less than 16 hours.
1917          (C) For a third adjudication, the court may require the minor to clean up graffiti for not
1918     less than 24 hours.
1919          (n) (i) Subject to Subsection (2)(n)(iii), the court may order that a minor:
1920          (A) be examined or treated by a physician, surgeon, psychiatrist, or psychologist; or
1921          (B) receive other special care.
1922          (ii) For purposes of receiving the examination, treatment, or care described in
1923     Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court may place the minor in a hospital or other suitable facility.
1924          (iii) In determining whether to order the examination, treatment, or care described in
1925     Subsection (2)(n)(i), the court shall consider:
1926          (A) the desires of the minor;
1927          (B) if the minor is under the age of 18, the desires of the parents or guardian of the
1928     minor; and
1929          (C) whether the potential benefits of the examination, treatment, or care outweigh the
1930     potential risks and side-effects, including behavioral disturbances, suicidal ideation, brain
1931     function impairment, or emotional or physical harm resulting from the compulsory nature of
1932     the examination, treatment, or care.
1933          (iv) The Division of Child and Family Services shall take reasonable measures to

1934     notify a parent or guardian of any non-emergency health treatment or care scheduled for a
1935     child, shall include the parent or guardian as fully as possible in making health care decisions
1936     for the child, and shall defer to the parent's or guardian's reasonable and informed decisions
1937     regarding the child's health care to the extent that the child's health and well being are not
1938     unreasonably compromised by the parent's or guardian's decision.
1939          (v) The Division of Child and Family Services shall notify the parent or guardian of a
1940     child within five business days after a child in the custody of the Division of Child and Family
1941     Services receives emergency health care or treatment.
1942          (vi) The Division of Child and Family Services shall use the least restrictive means to
1943     accomplish a compelling interest in the care and treatment of a child described in this
1944     Subsection (2)(n).
1945          (o) (i) The court may appoint a guardian for the minor if it appears necessary in the
1946     interest of the minor, and may appoint as guardian a public or private institution or agency in
1947     which legal custody of the minor is vested.
1948          (ii) In placing a minor under the guardianship or legal custody of an individual or of a
1949     private agency or institution, the court shall give primary consideration to the welfare of the
1950     minor. When practicable, the court may take into consideration the religious preferences of the
1951     minor and of a child's parents.
1952          (p) (i) In support of a decree under Section 78A-6-103, the court may order reasonable
1953     conditions to be complied with by a minor's parents or guardian, a minor, a minor's custodian,
1954     or any other person who has been made a party to the proceedings. Conditions may include:
1955          (A) parent-time by the parents or one parent;
1956          (B) restrictions on the minor's associates;
1957          (C) restrictions on the minor's occupation and other activities; and
1958          (D) requirements to be observed by the parents or custodian.
1959          (ii) A minor whose parents or guardians successfully complete a family or other
1960     counseling program may be credited by the court for detention, confinement, or probation time.
1961          (q) The court may order the child to be committed to the physical custody of a local

1962     mental health authority, in accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title 62A,
1963     Chapter 15, Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and
1964     Mental Health.
1965          (r) (i) The court may make an order committing a minor within the court's jurisdiction
1966     to the Utah State Developmental Center if the minor has an intellectual disability in accordance
1967     with the provisions of Title 62A, Chapter 5, Part 3, Admission to an Intermediate Care Facility
1968     for People with an Intellectual Disability.
1969          (ii) The court shall follow the procedure applicable in the district courts with respect to
1970     judicial commitments to the Utah State Developmental Center when ordering a commitment
1971     under Subsection (2)(r)(i).
1972          (s) The court may terminate all parental rights upon a finding of compliance with the
1973     provisions of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 5, Termination of Parental Rights Act.
1974          (t) The court may make any other reasonable orders for the best interest of the minor or
1975     as required for the protection of the public, except that a child may not be committed to jail or
1976     prison.
1977          (u) The court may combine the dispositions listed in this section if they are compatible.
1978          (v) Before depriving any parent of custody, the court shall give due consideration to the
1979     rights of parents concerning their child. The court may transfer custody of a minor to another
1980     person, agency, or institution in accordance with the requirements and procedures of Title 78A,
1981     Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and Dependency Proceedings.
1982          (w) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(y)(i), an order under this section for
1983     probation or placement of a minor with an individual or an agency shall include a date certain
1984     for a review of the case by the court. A new date shall be set upon each review.
1985          (x) In reviewing foster home placements, special attention shall be given to making
1986     adoptable children available for adoption without delay.
1987          (y) (i) The juvenile court may enter an order of permanent custody and guardianship
1988     with an individual or relative of a child where the court has previously acquired jurisdiction as
1989     a result of an adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency. The juvenile court may enter an

1990     order for child support on behalf of the child against the natural or adoptive parents of the
1991     child.
1992          (ii) Orders under Subsection (2)(y)(i):
1993          (A) shall remain in effect until the child reaches majority;
1994          (B) are not subject to review under Section 78A-6-118; and
1995          (C) may be modified by petition or motion as provided in Section 78A-6-1103.
1996          (iii) Orders permanently terminating the rights of a parent, guardian, or custodian and
1997     permanent orders of custody and guardianship do not expire with a termination of jurisdiction
1998     of the juvenile court.
1999          (3) In addition to the dispositions described in Subsection (2), when a minor comes
2000     within the court's jurisdiction, the minor may be given a choice by the court to serve in the
2001     National Guard in lieu of other sanctions, provided:
2002          (a) the minor meets the current entrance qualifications for service in the National
2003     Guard as determined by a recruiter, whose determination is final;
2004          (b) the minor is not under the jurisdiction of the court for any act that:
2005          (i) would be a felony if committed by an adult;
2006          (ii) is a violation of Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act; or
2007          (iii) was committed with a weapon; and
2008          (c) the court retains jurisdiction over the minor under conditions set by the court and
2009     agreed upon by the recruiter or the unit commander to which the minor is eventually assigned.
2010          (4) (a) A DNA specimen shall be obtained from a minor who is under the jurisdiction
2011     of the court as described in Subsection 53-10-403(3). The specimen shall be obtained by
2012     designated employees of the court or, if the minor is in the legal custody of the Division of
2013     Juvenile Justice Services, then by designated employees of the division under Subsection
2014     53-10-404(5)(b).
2015          (b) The responsible agency shall ensure that employees designated to collect the saliva
2016     DNA specimens receive appropriate training and that the specimens are obtained in accordance
2017     with accepted protocol.

2018          (c) Reimbursements paid under Subsection 53-10-404(2)(a) shall be placed in the DNA
2019     Specimen Restricted Account created in Section 53-10-407.
2020          (d) Payment of the reimbursement is second in priority to payments the minor is
2021     ordered to make for restitution under this section and treatment under Section 78A-6-321.
2022          Section 19. Section 78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/18) is amended to read:
2023          78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/18). Adjudication of jurisdiction of juvenile court --
2024     Disposition of cases -- Enumeration of possible court orders -- Considerations of court.
2025          (1) (a) When a minor is found to come within Section 78A-6-103, the court shall so
2026     adjudicate. The court shall make a finding of the facts upon which it bases its jurisdiction over
2027     the minor. However, in cases within Subsection 78A-6-103(1), findings of fact are not
2028     necessary.
2029          (b) If the court adjudicates a minor for a crime of violence or an offense in violation of
2030     Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, it shall order that notice of the adjudication be provided
2031     to the school superintendent of the district in which the minor resides or attends school. Notice
2032     shall be made to the district superintendent within three days of the adjudication and shall
2033     include:
2034          (i) the specific offenses for which the minor was adjudicated; and
2035          (ii) if available, if the victim:
2036          (A) resides in the same school district as the minor; or
2037          (B) attends the same school as the minor.
2038          (c) An adjudicated minor shall undergo a risk screening or, if indicated, a validated risk
2039     and needs assessment. Results of the screening or assessment shall be used to inform
2040     disposition decisions and case planning. Assessment results, if available, may not be shared
2041     with the court before adjudication.
2042          (2) Upon adjudication the court may make the following dispositions by court order:
2043          (a) (i) the court may place the minor on probation or under protective supervision in
2044     the minor's own home and upon conditions determined by the court, including compensatory
2045     service;

2046          (ii) a condition ordered by the court under Subsection (2)(a)(i):
2047          (A) shall be individualized and address a specific risk or need;
2048          (B) shall be based on information provided to the court, including the results of a
2049     validated risk and needs assessment conducted under Subsection (1)(c); and
2050          (C) if the court orders treatment, be based on a validated risk and needs assessment
2051     conducted under Subsection (1)(c);
2052          (iii) a court may not issue a standard order that contains control-oriented conditions;
2053          (iv) prohibitions on weapon possession, where appropriate, shall be specific to the
2054     minor and not the minor's family;
2055          (v) if the court orders probation, the court may direct that notice of the court's order be
2056     provided to designated persons in the local law enforcement agency and the school or
2057     transferee school, if applicable, that the minor attends. The designated persons may receive the
2058     information for purposes of the minor's supervision and student safety; and
2059          (vi) an employee of the local law enforcement agency and the school that the minor
2060     attends who discloses the court's order of probation is not:
2061          (A) civilly liable except when the disclosure constitutes fraud or willful misconduct as
2062     provided in Section 63G-7-202; and
2063          (B) civilly or criminally liable except when the disclosure constitutes a knowing
2064     violation of Section 63G-2-801.
2065          (b) The court may place the minor in the legal custody of a relative or other suitable
2066     person, with or without probation or [protective supervision] other court-specified child
2067     welfare services, but the juvenile court may not assume the function of developing foster home
2068     services.
2069          (c) (i) The court shall only vest legal custody of the minor in the Division of Juvenile
2070     Justice Services and order the Division of Juvenile Justice Services to provide dispositional
2071     recommendations and services if:
2072          (A) nonresidential treatment options have been exhausted or nonresidential treatment
2073     options are not appropriate; and

2074          (B) the minor is adjudicated under this section for a felony offense, a misdemeanor
2075     when the minor has five prior misdemeanors or felony adjudications arising from separate
2076     criminal episodes, or a misdemeanor involving the use of a dangerous weapon as defined in
2077     Section 76-1-601.
2078          (ii) The court may not vest legal custody of a minor in the Division of Juvenile Justice
2079     Services for:
2080          (A) contempt of court except to the extent permitted under Section 78A-6-1101;
2081          (B) a violation of probation;
2082          (C) failure to pay a fine, fee, restitution, or other financial obligation;
2083          (D) unfinished compensatory or community service hours;
2084          (E) an infraction; or
2085          (F) a status offense.
2086          (iii) (A) A minor who is 18 years old or older, but younger than 21 years old, may
2087     petition the court to express the minor's desire to be removed from the jurisdiction of the
2088     juvenile court and from the custody of the Division of Child and Family Services if the minor
2089     is in the division's custody on grounds of abuse, neglect, or dependency.
2090          (B) If the minor's parent's rights have not been terminated in accordance with Part 5,
2091     Termination of Parental Rights Act, the minor's petition shall contain a statement from the
2092     minor's parent or guardian agreeing that the minor should be removed from the custody of the
2093     Division of Child and Family Services.
2094          (C) The minor and the minor's parent or guardian shall sign the petition.
2095          (D) The court shall review the petition within 14 days.
2096          (E) The court shall remove the minor from the custody of the Division of Child and
2097     Family Services if the minor and the minor's parent or guardian have met the requirements
2098     described in Subsections (2)(c)(iv)(B) and (C) and if the court finds, based on input from the
2099     Division of Child and Family Services, the minor's guardian ad litem, and the Office of the
2100     Attorney General, that the minor does not pose an imminent threat to self or others.
2101          (F) A minor removed from custody under Subsection (2)(c)(iv)(E) may, within 90 days

2102     of the date of removal, petition the court to re-enter custody of the Division of Child and
2103     Family Services.
2104          (G) Upon receiving a petition under Subsection (2)(c)(iv)(F), the court shall order the
2105     Division of Child and Family Services to take custody of the minor based on the findings the
2106     court entered when the court originally vested custody in the Division of Child and Family
2107     Services.
2108          (d) (i) The court shall only commit a minor to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services
2109     for secure confinement if the court finds that the minor poses a risk of harm to others and is
2110     adjudicated under this section for:
2111          (A) a felony offense;
2112          (B) a misdemeanor if the minor has five prior misdemeanor or felony adjudications
2113     arising from separate criminal episodes; or
2114          (C) a misdemeanor involving use of a dangerous weapon as defined in Section
2115     76-1-601.
2116          (ii) A minor under the jurisdiction of the court solely on the ground of abuse, neglect,
2117     or dependency under Subsection 78A-6-103(1)(b) may not be committed to the Division of
2118     Juvenile Justice Services.
2119          (iii) The court may not commit a minor to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services for
2120     secure confinement for:
2121          (A) contempt of court;
2122          (B) a violation of probation;
2123          (C) failure to pay a fine, fee, restitution, or other financial obligation;
2124          (D) unfinished compensatory or community service hours;
2125          (E) an infraction; or
2126          (F) a status offense.
2127          (e) The court may order nonresidential, diagnostic assessment, including substance use
2128     disorder, mental health, psychological, or sexual behavior risk assessment.
2129          (f) (i) The court may commit a minor to a place of detention or an alternative to

2130     detention for a period not to exceed 30 cumulative days per adjudication subject to the court
2131     retaining continuing jurisdiction over the minor. This commitment may not be suspended upon
2132     conditions ordered by the court.
2133          (ii) This Subsection (2)(f) applies only to a minor adjudicated for:
2134          (A) an act which if committed by an adult would be a criminal offense; or
2135          (B) contempt of court under Section 78A-6-1101.
2136          (iii) The court may not commit a minor to a place of detention for:
2137          (A) contempt of court except to the extent allowed under Section 78A-6-1101;
2138          (B) a violation of probation;
2139          (C) failure to pay a fine, fee, restitution, or other financial obligation;
2140          (D) unfinished compensatory or community service hours;
2141          (E) an infraction; or
2142          (F) a status offense.
2143          (iv) (A) Time spent in detention pre-adjudication shall be credited toward the 30
2144     cumulative days eligible as a disposition under Subsection (2)(f)(i). If the minor spent more
2145     than 30 days in a place of detention before disposition, the court may not commit a minor to
2146     detention under this section.
2147          (B) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(f)(iv)(A), the court may commit a minor for a
2148     maximum of seven days while a minor is awaiting placement under Subsection (2)(c)(i). Only
2149     the seven days under this Subsection (2)(f)(iv)(B) may be combined with a nonsecure
2150     placement.
2151          (v) Notwithstanding Subsection (2)(t), no more than seven days of detention may be
2152     ordered in combination with an order under Subsection (2)(c)(i).
2153          (g) The court may vest legal custody of an abused, neglected, or dependent minor in
2154     the Division of Child and Family Services or any other appropriate person in accordance with
2155     the requirements and procedures of Title 78A, Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and
2156     Dependency Proceedings.
2157          (h) (i) The court may order a minor to repair, replace, or otherwise make restitution for

2158     material loss caused by the minor's wrongful act or for conduct for which the minor agrees to
2159     make restitution.
2160          (ii) A victim has the meaning defined under Subsection 77-38a-102(14). A victim of an
2161     offense that involves as an element a scheme, a conspiracy, or a pattern of criminal activity,
2162     includes any person directly harmed by the minor's delinquency conduct in the course of the
2163     scheme, conspiracy, or pattern.
2164          (iii) If the victim and the minor agree to participate, the court may refer the case to a
2165     restorative justice program such as victim offender mediation to address how loss resulting
2166     from the adjudicated act may be addressed.
2167          (iv) For the purpose of determining whether and how much restitution is appropriate,
2168     the court shall consider the following:
2169          (A) restitution shall only be ordered for the victim's material loss;
2170          (B) restitution may not be ordered if the court finds that the minor is unable to pay or
2171     acquire the means to pay; and
2172          (C) any amount paid by the minor to the victim in civil penalty shall be credited against
2173     restitution owed.
2174          (v) Any amount paid to the victim in restitution shall be credited against liability in a
2175     civil suit.
2176          (vi) The court may also require a minor to reimburse an individual, entity, or
2177     governmental agency who offered and paid a reward to a person or persons for providing
2178     information resulting in a court adjudication that the minor is within the jurisdiction of the
2179     juvenile court due to the commission of a criminal offense.
2180          (vii) If a minor is returned to this state under the Interstate Compact on Juveniles, the
2181     court may order the minor to make restitution for costs expended by any governmental entity
2182     for the return.
2183          (viii) The prosecutor shall submit a request for restitution to the court at the time of
2184     disposition, if feasible, otherwise within three months after disposition.
2185          (ix) A financial disposition ordered shall prioritize the payment of restitution.

2186          (i) The court may issue orders necessary for the collection of restitution and fines
2187     ordered by the court, including garnishments, wage withholdings, and executions, except for an
2188     order that changes the custody of the minor, including detention or other secure or nonsecure
2189     residential placements.
2190          (j) (i) The court may through its probation department encourage the development of
2191     nonresidential employment or work programs to enable minors to fulfill their obligations under
2192     Subsection (2)(h) and for other purposes considered desirable by the court.
2193          (ii) Consistent with the order of the court, the probation officer may permit a minor
2194     found to be within the jurisdiction of the court to participate in a program of work restitution or
2195     compensatory service in lieu of paying part or all of the fine imposed by the court.
2196          (iii) The court may order the minor to:
2197          (A) pay a fine, fee, restitution, or other cost; or
2198          (B) complete service hours.
2199          (iv) If the court orders a minor to pay a fine, fee, restitution, or other cost, or to
2200     complete service hours, those dispositions shall be considered collectively to ensure that the
2201     order is reasonable and prioritizes restitution.
2202          (v) If the court orders a minor to pay a fine, fee, or other cost, or complete service
2203     hours, the cumulative order shall be limited per criminal episode as follows:
2204          (A) for children under age 16 at adjudication, the court may impose up to $180 or up to
2205     24 hours of service; and
2206          (B) for minors 16 and older at adjudication, the court may impose up to $270 or up to
2207     36 hours of service.
2208          (vi) The cumulative order under Subsection (2)(j)(v) does not include restitution.
2209          (vii) If the court converts a fine, fee, or restitution amount to service hours, the rate of
2210     conversion shall be no less than the minimum wage.
2211          (k) (i) In violations of traffic laws within the court's jurisdiction, when the court finds
2212     that as part of the commission of the violation the minor was in actual physical control of a
2213     motor vehicle, the court may, in addition to any other disposition authorized by this section:

2214          (A) restrain the minor from driving for periods of time the court considers necessary;
2215     and
2216          (B) take possession of the minor's driver license.
2217          (ii) The court may enter any other eligible disposition under Subsection (2)(k)(i) except
2218     for a disposition under Subsection (2)(c), (d), or (f). However, the suspension of driving
2219     privileges for an offense under Section 78A-6-606 is governed only by Section 78A-6-606.
2220          (l) (i) The court may order a minor to complete community or compensatory service
2221     hours in accordance with Subsections (2)(j)(iv) and (v).
2222          (ii) When community service is ordered, the presumptive service order shall include
2223     between five and 10 hours of service.
2224          (iii) Satisfactory completion of an approved substance use disorder prevention or
2225     treatment program or other court-ordered condition may be credited by the court as
2226     compensatory service hours.
2227          (iv) When a minor is found within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section
2228     78A-6-103 because of a violation of Section 76-6-106 or 76-6-206 using graffiti, the court may
2229     order the minor to clean up graffiti created by the minor or any other person at a time and place
2230     within the jurisdiction of the court. Compensatory service ordered under this section may be
2231     performed in the presence and under the direct supervision of the minor's parent or legal
2232     guardian. The parent or legal guardian shall report completion of the order to the court. The
2233     court may also require the minor to perform other alternative forms of restitution or repair to
2234     the damaged property pursuant to Subsection (2)(h).
2235          (m) (i) Subject to Subsection (2)(m)(iii), the court may order that a minor:
2236          (A) be examined or treated by a physician, surgeon, psychiatrist, or psychologist; or
2237          (B) receive other special care.
2238          (ii) For purposes of receiving the examination, treatment, or care described in
2239     Subsection (2)(m)(i), the court may place the minor in a hospital or other suitable facility that is
2240     not a secure facility or secure detention.
2241          (iii) In determining whether to order the examination, treatment, or care described in

2242     Subsection (2)(m)(i), the court shall consider:
2243          (A) the desires of the minor;
2244          (B) if the minor is under the age of 18, the desires of the parents or guardian of the
2245     minor; and
2246          (C) whether the potential benefits of the examination, treatment, or care outweigh the
2247     potential risks and side-effects, including behavioral disturbances, suicidal ideation, brain
2248     function impairment, or emotional or physical harm resulting from the compulsory nature of
2249     the examination, treatment, or care.
2250          (iv) The Division of Child and Family Services shall take reasonable measures to
2251     notify a parent or guardian of any non-emergency health treatment or care scheduled for a
2252     child, shall include the parent or guardian as fully as possible in making health care decisions
2253     for the child, and shall defer to the parent's or guardian's reasonable and informed decisions
2254     regarding the child's health care to the extent that the child's health and well being are not
2255     unreasonably compromised by the parent's or guardian's decision.
2256          (v) The Division of Child and Family Services shall notify the parent or guardian of a
2257     child within five business days after a child in the custody of the Division of Child and Family
2258     Services receives emergency health care or treatment.
2259          (vi) The Division of Child and Family Services shall use the least restrictive means to
2260     accomplish a compelling interest in the care and treatment of a child described in this
2261     Subsection (2)(m).
2262          (n) (i) The court may appoint a guardian for the minor if it appears necessary in the
2263     interest of the minor, and may appoint as guardian a public or private institution or agency, but
2264     not a nonsecure residential placement provider, in which legal custody of the minor is vested.
2265          (ii) In placing a minor under the guardianship or legal custody of an individual or of a
2266     private agency or institution, the court shall give primary consideration to the welfare of the
2267     minor. When practicable, the court may take into consideration the religious preferences of the
2268     minor and of a child's parents.
2269          (o) (i) In support of a decree under Section 78A-6-103, the court may order reasonable

2270     conditions to be complied with by a minor's parents or guardian, a minor's custodian, or any
2271     other person who has been made a party to the proceedings. Conditions may include:
2272          (A) parent-time by the parents or one parent;
2273          (B) restrictions on the minor's associates;
2274          (C) restrictions on the minor's occupation and other activities; and
2275          (D) requirements to be observed by the parents or custodian.
2276          (ii) A minor whose parents or guardians successfully complete a family or other
2277     counseling program may be credited by the court for detention, confinement, or probation time.
2278          (p) The court may order the child to be committed to the physical custody of a local
2279     mental health authority, in accordance with the procedures and requirements of Title 62A,
2280     Chapter 15, Part 7, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18 to Division of Substance Abuse and
2281     Mental Health.
2282          (q) (i) The court may make an order committing a minor within the court's jurisdiction
2283     to the Utah State Developmental Center if the minor has an intellectual disability in accordance
2284     with Title 62A, Chapter 5, Part 3, Admission to an Intermediate Care Facility for People with
2285     an Intellectual Disability.
2286          (ii) The court shall follow the procedure applicable in the district courts with respect to
2287     judicial commitments to the Utah State Developmental Center when ordering a commitment
2288     under Subsection (2)(q)(i).
2289          (r) The court may terminate all parental rights upon a finding of compliance with Title
2290     78A, Chapter 6, Part 5, Termination of Parental Rights Act.
2291          (s) The court may make other reasonable orders for the best interest of the minor and as
2292     required for the protection of the public, except that a child may not be committed to jail,
2293     prison, secure detention, or the custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice Services under
2294     Subsections (2)(c) and (d).
2295          (t) The court may combine the dispositions listed in this section if it is permissible and
2296     they are compatible.
2297          (u) Before depriving any parent of custody, the court shall give due consideration to the

2298     rights of parents concerning their child. The court may transfer custody of a minor to another
2299     person, agency, or institution in accordance with the requirements and procedures of Title 78A,
2300     Chapter 6, Part 3, Abuse, Neglect, and Dependency Proceedings.
2301          (v) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(x)(i), an order under this section for probation
2302     or placement of a minor with an individual or an agency shall include a date certain for a
2303     review and presumptive termination of the case by the court in accordance with Subsection (6)
2304     and Section 62A-7-404. A new date shall be set upon each review.
2305          (w) In reviewing foster home placements, special attention shall be given to making
2306     adoptable children available for adoption without delay.
2307          (x) (i) The juvenile court may enter an order of permanent custody and guardianship
2308     with an individual or relative of a child where the court has previously acquired jurisdiction as
2309     a result of an adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency. The juvenile court may enter an
2310     order for child support on behalf of the child against the natural or adoptive parents of the
2311     child.
2312          (ii) Orders under Subsection (2)(x)(i):
2313          (A) shall remain in effect until the child reaches majority;
2314          (B) are not subject to review under Section 78A-6-118; and
2315          (C) may be modified by petition or motion as provided in Section 78A-6-1103.
2316          (iii) Orders permanently terminating the rights of a parent, guardian, or custodian and
2317     permanent orders of custody and guardianship do not expire with a termination of jurisdiction
2318     of the juvenile court.
2319          (3) In addition to the dispositions described in Subsection (2), when a minor comes
2320     within the court's jurisdiction, the minor may be given a choice by the court to serve in the
2321     National Guard in lieu of other sanctions, provided:
2322          (a) the minor meets the current entrance qualifications for service in the National
2323     Guard as determined by a recruiter, whose determination is final;
2324          (b) the minor is not under the jurisdiction of the court for any act that:
2325          (i) would be a felony if committed by an adult;

2326          (ii) is a violation of Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act; or
2327          (iii) was committed with a weapon; and
2328          (c) the court retains jurisdiction over the minor under conditions set by the court and
2329     agreed upon by the recruiter or the unit commander to which the minor is eventually assigned.
2330          (4) (a) A DNA specimen shall be obtained from a minor who is under the jurisdiction
2331     of the court as described in Subsection 53-10-403(3). The specimen shall be obtained by
2332     designated employees of the court or, if the minor is in the legal custody of the Division of
2333     Juvenile Justice Services, then by designated employees of the division under Subsection
2334     53-10-404(5)(b).
2335          (b) The responsible agency shall ensure that employees designated to collect the saliva
2336     DNA specimens receive appropriate training and that the specimens are obtained in accordance
2337     with accepted protocol.
2338          (c) Reimbursements paid under Subsection 53-10-404(2)(a) shall be placed in the DNA
2339     Specimen Restricted Account created in Section 53-10-407.
2340          (d) Payment of the reimbursement is second in priority to payments the minor is
2341     ordered to make for restitution under this section and treatment under Section 78A-6-321.
2342          (5) (a) A disposition made by the court pursuant to this section may not be suspended,
2343     except for the following:
2344          (i) If a minor qualifies for commitment to the Division of Juvenile Justice Services
2345     under Subsection (2)(c) or (d), the court may suspend a custody order pursuant to Subsection
2346     (2)(c) or (d) in lieu of immediate commitment, upon the condition that the minor commit no
2347     new misdemeanor or felony offense during the three months following the day of disposition.
2348          (ii) The duration of a suspended custody order made under Subsection (5)(a)(i) may not
2349     exceed three months post-disposition and may not be extended under any circumstance.
2350          (iii) The court may only impose a custody order suspended under Subsection (5)(a)(i)
2351     following adjudication of a new misdemeanor or felony offense committed by the minor during
2352     the period of suspension set out under Subsection (5)(a)(ii).
2353          (b) The court pursuant to Subsection (5)(a) shall terminate jurisdiction over the minor

2354     at the end of the presumptive time frame unless at least one the following circumstances exists:
2355          (i) termination pursuant to Subsection (6)(a)(ii) would interrupt the completion of a
2356     program determined to be necessary by the results of a validated risk and needs assessment
2357     with completion found by the court after considering the recommendation of a licensed service
2358     provider on the basis of the minor completing the goals of the necessary treatment program;
2359          (ii) the minor commits a new misdemeanor or felony offense;
2360          (iii) service hours have not been completed; or
2361          (iv) there is an outstanding fine.
2362          (6) When the court places a minor on probation under Subsection (2)(a) or vests legal
2363     custody of the minor in the Division of Juvenile Justice Services under Subsection (2)(c), the
2364     court shall do so for a defined period of time pursuant to this section.
2365          (a) For the purposes of placing a minor on probation under Subsection (2)(a), the court
2366     shall establish a presumptive term of probation as specified in this Subsection (6):
2367          (i) the presumptive maximum length of intake probation may not exceed three months;
2368     and
2369          (ii) the presumptive maximum length of formal probation may not exceed four to six
2370     months.
2371          (b) For the purposes of vesting legal custody of the minor in the Division of Juvenile
2372     Justice Services under Subsection (2)(c), the court shall establish a maximum term of custody
2373     and a maximum term of aftercare as specified in this Subsection (6):
2374          (i) the presumptive maximum length of out-of-home placement may not exceed three
2375     to six months; and
2376          (ii) the presumptive maximum length of aftercare supervision, for those previously
2377     placed out-of-home, may not exceed three to four months, and minors may serve the term of
2378     aftercare in the home of a qualifying relative or guardian or at an independent living program
2379     contracted or operated by the Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
2380          (c) The court pursuant to Subsections (6)(a) and (b), and the Youth Parole Authority
2381     pursuant to Subsection (6)(b), shall terminate jurisdiction over the minor at the end of the

2382     presumptive time frame unless at least one of the following circumstances exists:
2383          (i) termination pursuant to Subsection (6)(a)(ii) would interrupt the completion of a
2384     court ordered program determined to be necessary by the results of a validated assessment, with
2385     completion found by the court after considering the recommendations of a licensed service
2386     provider on the basis of the minor completing the goals of the necessary treatment program;
2387          (ii) termination pursuant to Subsection (6)(a)(i) or (6)(b) would interrupt the
2388     completion of a program determined to be necessary by the results of a validated assessment,
2389     with completion determined on the basis of whether the minor has regularly and consistently
2390     attended the treatment program and completed the goals of the necessary treatment program as
2391     determined by the Youth Parole Authority after considering the recommendation of a licensed
2392     service provider;
2393          (iii) the minor commits a new misdemeanor or felony offense;
2394          (iv) service hours have not been completed; or
2395          (v) there is an outstanding fine.
2396          (d) (i) Subject to Subsection (6)(g), if one of the circumstances under Subsection
2397     (6)(c)(i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) exists, the court may extend jurisdiction for the time needed to
2398     address the specific circumstance.
2399          (ii) Subject to Subsection (6)(g), if one of the circumstances under Subsection (6)(c)(i),
2400     (ii), (iii), or (iv) exists, and the Youth Parole Authority has jurisdiction, the Youth Parole
2401     Authority may extend jurisdiction for the time needed to address the specific circumstance.
2402          (e) If the circumstance under Subsection (6)(c)(iv) exists, the court, or the Youth
2403     Parole Authority if the Youth Parole Authority has jurisdiction, may extend jurisdiction one
2404     time for up to three months.
2405          (f) Grounds for extension of the presumptive length of supervision or placement and
2406     the length of any extension shall be recorded in the court record or records of the Youth Parole
2407     Authority if the Youth Parole Authority has jurisdiction, and tracked in the data system used by
2408     the Administrative Office of the Courts and the Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
2409          (g) (i) For a minor who is under the supervision of the juvenile court and whose

2410     supervision is extended to complete service hours under Subsection (6)(c)(iv), jurisdiction may
2411     only be continued under the supervision of intake probation.
2412          (ii) For a minor who is under the jurisdiction of the Youth Parole Authority whose
2413     supervision is extended to complete service hours under Subsection (6)(c)(iv), jurisdiction may
2414     only be continued on parole and not in secure confinement.
2415          (h) In the event of an unauthorized leave lasting more than 24 hours, the supervision
2416     period shall toll until the minor returns.
2417          (7) Subsection (6) does not apply to any minor adjudicated under this section for:
2418          (a) Section 76-5-103, aggravated assault resulting in serious bodily injury to another;
2419          (b) Section 76-5-202, attempted aggravated murder;
2420          (c) Section 76-5-203, murder or attempted murder;
2421          (d) Section 76-5-302, aggravated kidnapping;
2422          (e) Section 76-5-405, aggravated sexual assault;
2423          (f) a felony violation of Section 76-6-103, aggravated arson;
2424          (g) Section 76-6-203, aggravated burglary;
2425          (h) Section 76-6-302, aggravated robbery;
2426          (i) Section 76-10-508.1, felony discharge of a firearm; or
2427          (j) an offense other than those listed in Subsections (7)(a) through (i) involving the use
2428     of a dangerous weapon, as defined in Section 76-1-601, that is a felony, and the minor has been
2429     previously adjudicated or convicted of an offense involving the use of a dangerous weapon.
2430          Section 20. Section 78A-6-307 is amended to read:
2431          78A-6-307. Shelter hearing -- Placement -- DCFS custody.
2432          (1) As used in this section:
2433          (a) "Friend" means an adult the child knows and is comfortable with but who is not a
2434     natural parent or relative.
2435          (b) (i) "Natural parent," notwithstanding the provisions of Section 78A-6-105, means:
2436          (A) a biological or adoptive mother;
2437          (B) an adoptive father; or

2438          (C) a biological father who:
2439          (I) was married to the child's biological mother at the time the child was conceived or
2440     born; or
2441          (II) has strictly complied with the provisions of Sections 78B-6-120 through
2442     78B-6-122, prior to removal of the child or voluntary surrender of the child by the custodial
2443     parent.
2444          (ii) The definition of "natural parent" described in Subsection (1)(b)(i) applies
2445     regardless of whether the child has been or will be placed with adoptive parents or whether
2446     adoption has been or will be considered as a long-term goal for the child.
2447          (c) "Relative" means:
2448          (i) an adult who is a grandparent, great grandparent, aunt, great aunt, uncle, great uncle,
2449     brother-in-law, sister-in-law, stepparent, first cousin, stepsibling, sibling of a child, or a first
2450     cousin of the child's parent;
2451          (ii) an adult who is an adoptive parent of the child's sibling; or
2452          (iii) in the case of a child defined as an "Indian" under the Indian Child Welfare Act, 25
2453     U.S.C. Sec. 1903, "relative" also means an "extended family member" as defined by that
2454     statute.
2455          (2) (a) At the shelter hearing, when the court orders that a child be removed from the
2456     custody of the child's parent in accordance with the requirements of Section 78A-6-306, the
2457     court shall first determine whether there is another natural parent with whom the child was not
2458     residing at the time the events or conditions that brought the child within the court's jurisdiction
2459     occurred, who desires to assume custody of the child.
2460          (b) If another natural parent requests custody under Subsection (2)(a), the court shall
2461     place the child with that parent unless it finds that the placement would be unsafe or otherwise
2462     detrimental to the child.
2463          (c) The provisions of this Subsection (2) are limited by the provisions of Subsection
2464     (18)(b).
2465          (d) (i) The court shall make a specific finding regarding the fitness of the parent

2466     described in Subsection (2)(b) to assume custody, and the safety and appropriateness of the
2467     placement.
2468          (ii) The court shall, at a minimum, order the division to visit the parent's home, comply
2469     with the criminal background check provisions described in Section 78A-6-308, and check the
2470     division's management information system for any previous reports of abuse or neglect
2471     received by the division regarding the parent at issue.
2472          (iii) The court may order the division to conduct any further investigation regarding the
2473     safety and appropriateness of the placement.
2474          (iv) The division shall report its findings in writing to the court.
2475          (v) The court may place the child in the temporary custody of the division, pending its
2476     determination regarding that placement.
2477          (3) If the court orders placement with a parent under Subsection (2):
2478          (a) the child and the parent are under the continuing jurisdiction of the court;
2479          (b) the court may order:
2480          (i) that the parent assume custody subject to the supervision of the court; and
2481          (ii) that services be provided to the parent from whose custody the child was removed,
2482     the parent who has assumed custody, or both; and
2483          (c) the court shall order reasonable parent-time with the parent from whose custody the
2484     child was removed, unless parent-time is not in the best interest of the child.
2485          (4) The court shall periodically review an order described in Subsection (3) to
2486     determine whether:
2487          (a) placement with the parent continues to be in the child's best interest;
2488          (b) the child should be returned to the original custodial parent;
2489          (c) the child should be placed in the custody of a relative, pursuant to Subsections (7)
2490     through (12); or
2491          (d) the child should be placed in the custody of the division.
2492          (5) The time limitations described in Section 78A-6-312 with regard to reunification
2493     efforts, apply to children placed with a previously noncustodial parent in accordance with

2494     Subsection (2).
2495          (6) Legal custody of the child is not affected by an order entered under Subsection (2)
2496     or (3). In order to affect a previous court order regarding legal custody, the party must petition
2497     that court for modification of the order.
2498          (7) If, at the time of the shelter hearing, a child is removed from the custody of the
2499     child's parent and is not placed in the custody of the child's other parent, the court:
2500          (a) shall, at that time, determine whether, subject to Subsections (18)(c) through (e),
2501     there is a relative of the child or a friend of a parent of the child who is able and willing to care
2502     for the child;
2503          (b) may order the division to conduct a reasonable search to determine whether, subject
2504     to Subsections (18)(c) through (e), there are relatives of the child or friends of a parent of the
2505     child who are willing and appropriate, in accordance with the requirements of this part and
2506     Title 62A, Chapter 4a, Part 2, Child Welfare Services, for placement of the child;
2507          (c) shall order the parents to cooperate with the division, within five working days, to,
2508     subject to Subsections (18)(c) through (e), provide information regarding relatives of the child
2509     or friends who may be able and willing to care for the child; and
2510          (d) may order that the child be placed in the custody of the division pending the
2511     determination under Subsection (7)(a).
2512          (8) This section may not be construed as a guarantee that an identified relative or friend
2513     will receive custody of the child.
2514          (9) Subject to Subsections (18)(c) through (e), preferential consideration shall be given
2515     to a relative's or a friend's request for placement of the child, if it is in the best interest of the
2516     child, and the provisions of this section are satisfied.
2517          (10) (a) If a willing relative or friend is identified under Subsection (7)(a), the court
2518     shall make a specific finding regarding:
2519          (i) the fitness of that relative or friend as a placement for the child; and
2520          (ii) the safety and appropriateness of placement with that relative or friend.
2521          (b) In order to be considered a "willing relative or friend" under this section, the

2522     relative or friend shall be willing to cooperate with the child's permanency goal.
2523          (11) (a) In making the finding described in Subsection (10)(a), the court shall, at a
2524     minimum, order the division to:
2525          (i) if the child may be placed with a relative of the child, conduct a background check
2526     that includes:
2527          (A) completion of a nonfingerprint-based, Utah Bureau of Criminal Identification
2528     background check of the relative;
2529          (B) a completed search, relating to the relative, of the Management Information System
2530     described in Section 62A-4a-1003; and
2531          (C) a background check that complies with the criminal background check provisions
2532     described in Section 78A-6-308, of each nonrelative, as defined in Subsection
2533     62A-4a-209(1)(b), of the child who resides in the household where the child may be placed;
2534          (ii) if the child will be placed with a noncustodial parent of the child, complete a
2535     background check that includes:
2536          (A) the background check requirements applicable to an emergency placement with a
2537     noncustodial parent that are described in Subsections 62A-4a-209(5) and (7);
2538          (B) a completed search, relating to the noncustodial parent of the child, of the
2539     Management Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1003; and
2540          (C) a background check that complies with the criminal background check provisions
2541     described in Section 78A-6-308, of each nonrelative, as defined in Subsection
2542     62A-4a-209(1)(b), of the child who resides in the household where the child may be placed;
2543          (iii) if the child may be placed with an individual other than a noncustodial parent or a
2544     relative of the child, conduct a criminal background check of the individual, and each adult that
2545     resides in the household where the child may be placed, that complies with the criminal
2546     background check provisions described in Section 78A-6-308;
2547          (iv) visit the relative's or friend's home;
2548          (v) check the division's management information system for any previous reports of
2549     abuse or neglect regarding the relative or friend at issue;

2550          (vi) report the division's findings in writing to the court; and
2551          (vii) provide sufficient information so that the court may determine whether:
2552          (A) the relative or friend has any history of abusive or neglectful behavior toward other
2553     children that may indicate or present a danger to this child;
2554          (B) the child is comfortable with the relative or friend;
2555          (C) the relative or friend recognizes the parent's history of abuse and is committed to
2556     protect the child;
2557          (D) the relative or friend is strong enough to resist inappropriate requests by the parent
2558     for access to the child, in accordance with court orders;
2559          (E) the relative or friend is committed to caring for the child as long as necessary; and
2560          (F) the relative or friend can provide a secure and stable environment for the child.
2561          (b) The division may determine to conduct, or the court may order the division to
2562     conduct, any further investigation regarding the safety and appropriateness of the placement.
2563          (c) The division shall complete and file its assessment regarding placement with a
2564     relative or friend as soon as practicable, in an effort to facilitate placement of the child with a
2565     relative or friend.
2566          (12) (a) The court may place a child described in Subsection (2)(a) in the temporary
2567     custody of the division, pending the division's investigation pursuant to Subsections (10) and
2568     (11), and the court's determination regarding the appropriateness of that placement.
2569          (b) The court shall ultimately base its determination regarding the appropriateness of a
2570     placement with a relative or friend on the best interest of the child.
2571          (13) When [the court awards custody and guardianship of a child with a relative or
2572     friend] a court places a child described in Subsection (7) in the custody of the child's relative or
2573     friend:
2574          (a) the court [shall order that]:
2575          (i) shall order the relative or friend assume custody, subject to the continuing
2576     supervision of the court; and
2577          (ii) [any necessary services be provided to the child and the relative or friend] may

2578     order the division provide necessary services to the child and the child's relative or friend,
2579     including the monitoring of the child's safety and well-being;
2580          (b) the child and [any] the relative or friend [with whom] in whose custody the child is
2581     placed are under the continuing jurisdiction of the court;
2582          (c) the court may enter any order that it considers necessary for the protection and best
2583     interest of the child;
2584          (d) the court shall provide for reasonable parent-time with the parent or parents from
2585     whose custody the child was removed, unless parent-time is not in the best interest of the child;
2586     and
2587          (e) the court shall conduct a periodic review no less often than every six months, to
2588     determine whether:
2589          (i) placement with the relative or friend continues to be in the child's best interest;
2590          (ii) the child should be returned home; or
2591          (iii) the child should be placed in the custody of the division.
2592          (14) No later than 12 months after placement with a relative or friend, the court shall
2593     schedule a hearing for the purpose of entering a permanent order in accordance with the best
2594     interest of the child.
2595          (15) The time limitations described in Section 78A-6-312, with regard to reunification
2596     efforts, apply to children placed with a relative or friend pursuant to Subsection (7).
2597          (16) (a) If the court awards custody of a child to the division, and the division places
2598     the child with a relative, the division shall:
2599          (i) conduct a criminal background check of the relative that complies with the criminal
2600     background check provisions described in Section 78A-6-308; and
2601          (ii) if the results of the criminal background check described in Subsection (16)(a)(i)
2602     would prohibit the relative from having direct access to the child under Section 62A-2-120, the
2603     division shall:
2604          (A) take the child into physical custody; and
2605          (B) within three days, excluding weekends and holidays, after taking the child into

2606     physical custody under Subsection (16)(a)(ii)(A), give written notice to the court, and all
2607     parties to the proceedings, of the division's action.
2608          (b) Nothing in Subsection (16)(a) prohibits the division from placing a child with a
2609     relative, pending the results of the background check described in Subsection (16)(a) on the
2610     relative.
2611          (17) When the court orders that a child be removed from the custody of the child's
2612     parent and does not award custody and guardianship to another parent, relative, or friend under
2613     this section, the court shall order that the child be placed in the temporary custody of the
2614     Division of Child and Family Services, to proceed to adjudication and disposition and to be
2615     provided with care and services in accordance with this chapter and Title 62A, Chapter 4a,
2616     Child and Family Services.
2617          (18) (a) Any preferential consideration that a relative or friend is initially granted
2618     pursuant to Subsection (9) expires 120 days from the date of the shelter hearing. After that
2619     time period has expired, a relative or friend who has not obtained custody or asserted an
2620     interest in a child, may not be granted preferential consideration by the division or the court.
2621          (b) When the time period described in Subsection (18)(a) has expired, the preferential
2622     consideration, which is initially granted to a natural parent in accordance with Subsection (2),
2623     is limited. After that time the court shall base its custody decision on the best interest of the
2624     child.
2625          (c) Prior to the expiration of the 120-day period described in Subsection (18)(a), the
2626     following order of preference shall be applied when determining the person with whom a child
2627     will be placed, provided that the person is willing, and has the ability, to care for the child:
2628          (i) a noncustodial parent of the child;
2629          (ii) a relative of the child;
2630          (iii) subject to Subsection (18)(d), a friend of a parent of the child, if the friend is a
2631     licensed foster parent; and
2632          (iv) other placements that are consistent with the requirements of law.
2633          (d) In determining whether a friend is a willing and appropriate placement for a child,

2634     neither the court, nor the division, is required to consider more than one friend designated by
2635     each parent of the child.
2636          (e) If a parent of the child is not able to designate a friend who is a licensed foster
2637     parent for placement of the child, but is able to identify a friend who is willing to become
2638     licensed as a foster parent:
2639          (i) the department shall fully cooperate to expedite the licensing process for the friend;
2640     and
2641          (ii) if the friend becomes licensed as a foster parent within the time frame described in
2642     Subsection (18)(a), the court shall determine whether it is in the best interests of the child to
2643     place the child with the friend.
2644          (19) If, following the shelter hearing, the child is placed with a person who is not a
2645     parent of the child, a relative of the child, a friend of a parent of the child, or a former foster
2646     parent of the child, priority shall be given to a foster placement with a man and a woman who
2647     are married to each other, unless it is in the best interests of the child to place the child with a
2648     single foster parent.
2649          (20) In determining the placement of a child, neither the court, nor the division, may
2650     take into account, or discriminate against, the religion of a person with whom the child may be
2651     placed, unless the purpose of taking religion into account is to place the child with a person or
2652     family of the same religion as the child.
2653          Section 21. Section 78A-6-318 is amended to read:
2654          78A-6-318. Review of foster care removal -- Foster parent's standing.
2655          (1) With regard to a child in the custody of the Division of Child and Family Services
2656     who is the subject of a petition alleging abuse, neglect, or dependency, and who has been
2657     placed in foster care with a foster family, the Legislature finds that:
2658          (a) except with regard to the child's natural parents, a foster family has a very limited
2659     but recognized interest in its familial relationship with the child; and
2660          (b) children in the custody of the division are experiencing multiple changes in foster
2661     care placements with little or no documentation, and that numerous studies of child growth and

2662     development emphasize the importance of stability in foster care living arrangements.
2663          (2) For the reasons described in Subsection (1), the Legislature finds that, except with
2664     regard to the child's natural parents, procedural due process protections must be provided to a
2665     foster family prior to removal of a foster child from the foster home.
2666          (3) (a) A foster parent who has had a foster child in the foster parent's home for 12
2667     months or longer may petition the juvenile court for a review and determination of the
2668     appropriateness of a decision by the Division of Child and Family Services to remove the child
2669     from the foster home, unless the removal was for the purpose of:
2670          (i) returning the child to the child's natural parent or legal guardian;
2671          (ii) immediately placing the child in an approved adoptive home;
2672          (iii) placing the child with a relative, as defined in Subsection 78A-6-307(1)[(c)], who
2673     obtained custody or asserted an interest in the child within the preference period described in
2674     Subsection 78A-6-307(18)(a); or
2675          (iv) placing an Indian child in accordance with preplacement preferences and other
2676     requirements described in the Indian Child Welfare Act, 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1915.
2677          (b) The foster parent may petition the court under this section without exhausting
2678     administrative remedies within the division.
2679          (c) The court may order the division to place the child in a specified home, and shall
2680     base its determination on the best interest of the child.
2681          (4) The requirements of this section do not apply to the removal of a child based on a
2682     foster parent's request for that removal.
2683          Section 22. Effective date.
2684          This bill takes effect on May 8, 2018, except that the amendments to Sections
2685     78A-6-113 (Effective 07/01/18) and 78A-6-117 (Effective 07/01/18) take effect on July 1,
2686     2018.