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7 LONG TITLE
8 Committee Note:
9 The Transportation Interim Committee recommended this bill.
10 Legislative Vote: 15 voting for 0 voting against 3 absent
11 General Description:
12 This bill amends and enacts provisions related to advanced air mobility systems.
13 Highlighted Provisions:
14 This bill:
15 ▸ defines terms;
16 ▸ renumbers and amends provisions related to unmanned aircraft systems and
17 organizes those provisions with code related to the Division of Aeronautics;
18 ▸ amends the powers of the Division of Aeronautics to include oversight of vertiports
19 and other topics related to advanced air mobility systems;
20 ▸ requires registration of unmanned aircraft systems and advanced air mobility
21 systems;
22 ▸ grants rulemaking authority to the Department of Transportation to make rules
23 related to registration fees and registration requirements for unmanned aircraft
24 systems and advanced air mobility systems;
25 ▸ enacts and amends provisions related to preemption of local ordinances and
26 business licensing of advanced air mobility business; and
27 ▸ makes technical changes.
28 Money Appropriated in this Bill:
29 None
30 Other Special Clauses:
31 None
32 Utah Code Sections Affected:
33 AMENDS:
34 72-10-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapters 431, 479
35 72-10-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapter 431
36 72-10-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 436
37 72-10-110, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 436
38 76-2-106, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 93
39 76-9-308, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 99
40 RENUMBERS AND AMENDS:
41 72-10-701, (Renumbered from 72-14-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022,
42 Chapter 99)
43 72-10-702, (Renumbered from 72-14-104, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
44 364)
45 72-10-801, (Renumbered from 72-14-201, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
46 364)
47 72-10-802, (Renumbered from 72-14-202, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
48 364)
49 72-10-803, (Renumbered from 72-14-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022,
50 Chapter 64)
51 72-10-804, (Renumbered from 72-14-204, as renumbered and amended by Laws of
52 Utah 2017, Chapter 364)
53 72-10-805, (Renumbered from 72-14-205, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
54 364)
55 72-10-901, (Renumbered from 72-14-301, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
56 364)
57 72-10-902, (Renumbered from 72-14-302, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
58 364)
59 72-10-903, (Renumbered from 72-14-303, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
60 364)
61 72-10-1001, (Renumbered from 72-14-401, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
62 364)
63 72-10-1002, (Renumbered from 72-14-402, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
64 364)
65 72-10-1003, (Renumbered from 72-14-403, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter
66 364)
67 REPEALS:
68 72-14-101, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 364
69 72-14-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 99
70
71 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
72 Section 1. Section 72-10-102 is amended to read:
73 72-10-102. Definitions.
74 As used in this chapter:
75 (1) "Acrobatics" means the intentional maneuvers of an aircraft not necessary to air
76 navigation.
77 (2) (a) "Advanced air mobility system" means a system that transports individuals and
78 property using piloted and unpiloted aircraft, including electric aircraft and electric vertical
79 takeoff and landing aircraft, in controlled or uncontrolled airspace.
80 (b) "Advanced air mobility system" includes each component of a system described in
81 Subsection (2)(a), including:
82 (i) the aircraft, including payload;
83 (ii) communications equipment;
84 (iii) navigation equipment;
85 (iv) controllers;
86 (v) support equipment; and
87 (vi) remote and autonomous functions.
88 (3) "Aerial transit corridor" means an airspace volume defining a three-dimensional
89 route segment with performance requirements to operate within or to cross where tactical air
90 traffic control separation services are not provided.
91 [
92 repair, or maintenance of aircraft, and the design, operation, repair, or maintenance of airports,
93 or other air navigation facilities.
94 [
95 give instruction in aeronautics, flying, or ground subjects, either with or without:
96 (a) compensation or other reward;
97 (b) advertising the occupation;
98 (c) calling his facilities an air school, or any equivalent term; or
99 (d) employing or using other instructors.
100 [
101 or designed for navigation of or flight in the air.
102 [
103 aviation instructor or in any air school or flying club.
104 [
105 (a) is used or is made available for landing and takeoff;
106 (b) provides facilities for the shelter, supply, and repair of aircraft, and handling of
107 passengers and cargo;
108 (c) meets the minimum requirements established by the department as to size and
109 design, surface, marking, equipment, and operation; and
110 (d) includes all areas shown as part of the airport in the current airport layout plan as
111 approved by the Federal Aviation Administration.
112 [
113 county or municipality, that is authorized by statute to operate an airport.
114 [
115 owns or operates a commercial airport.
116 [
117 (i) all fees, charges, rents, or other payments received by or accruing to an airport
118 operator for any of the following reasons:
119 (A) revenue from air carriers, tenants, lessees, purchasers of airport properties, airport
120 permittees making use of airport property and services, and other parties;
121 (B) revenue received from the activities of others or the transfer of rights to others
122 relating to the airport, including revenue received:
123 (I) for the right to conduct an activity on the airport or to use or occupy airport
124 property;
125 (II) for the sale, transfer, or disposition of airport real or personal property, or any
126 interest in that property, including transfer through a condemnation proceeding;
127 (III) for the sale of, or the sale or lease of rights in, mineral, natural, or agricultural
128 products or water owned by the airport operator to be taken from the airport; and
129 (IV) for the right to conduct an activity on, or for the use or disposition of, real or
130 personal property or any interest in real or personal property owned or controlled by the airport
131 operator and used for an airport-related purpose but not located on the airport; or
132 (C) revenue received from activities conducted by the airport operator whether on or
133 off the airport, which is directly connected to the airport operator's ownership or operation of
134 the airport; and
135 (ii) state and local taxes on aviation fuel.
136 (b) "Airport revenue" does not include amounts received by an airport operator as
137 passenger facility fees pursuant to 49 U.S.C. Sec. 40117.
138 [
139 advertising, representing, or holding himself out as giving, with or without compensation or
140 other reward, instruction in aeronautics, flying, or ground subjects, or in more than one of these
141 subjects.
142 [
143 Federal Aviation Administration regarding the structure or functioning of aircraft, engine,
144 parts, or accessories.
145 [
146 [
147 [
148 may be used for commercial operations.
149 [
150 operations.
151 [
152 (a) any operations of an aircraft for compensation or hire or any services performed
153 incidental to the operation of any aircraft for which a fee is charged or compensation is
154 received, including the servicing, maintaining, and repairing of aircraft, the rental or charter of
155 aircraft, the operation of flight or ground schools, the operation of aircraft for the application or
156 distribution of chemicals or other substances, and the operation of aircraft for hunting and
157 fishing; or
158 (b) the brokering or selling of any of these services; but
159 (c) does not include any operations of aircraft as common carriers certificated by the
160 federal government or the services incidental to those operations.
161 (19) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
162 77-16b-102.
163 [
164 for demonstration purposes, or selling or exchanging aircraft, and who has an established place
165 of business.
166 [
167 (a) any aircraft designated by the Federal Aviation Administration or the military as
168 experimental and used solely for the purpose of experiments, or tests regarding the structure or
169 functioning of aircraft, engines, or their accessories; and
170 (b) any aircraft designated by the Federal Aviation Administration as:
171 (i) being custom or amateur built; and
172 (ii) used for recreational, educational, or display purposes.
173 [
174 [
175 own, lease, or use one or more aircraft for the purpose of instruction, pleasure, or both.
176 [
177 without a power plant.
178 [
179 overhauls aircraft, engines, or accessories.
180 [
181 jumping with a parachute from an aircraft, and has passed an examination showing that he
182 possesses the required physical and mental qualifications for the jumping.
183 [
184 packing, repairing, and maintaining parachutes.
185 [
186 addition to the pilot or crew, with or without their necessary personal belongings.
187 [
188 association of individuals.
189 [
190 in-flight.
191 [
192 one.
193 [
194 government or of any political subdivision, including the government of the United States, of
195 the District of Columbia, and of any state, territory, or insular possession of the United States,
196 but not including any government-owned aircraft engaged in carrying persons or goods for
197 commercial purposes.
198 [
199 or in a manner as to endanger the property, life, or body of any person, due regard being given
200 to the prevailing weather conditions, field conditions, and to the territory being flown over.
201 [
202 Administration to any aircraft, whether or not the number includes a letter or letters.
203 [
204 one and 16 to one, inclusive.
205 [
206 to one.
207 (37) "Unmanned aircraft" means an aircraft that is:
208 (a) capable of sustaining flight; and
209 (b) operated with no possible direct human intervention from on or within the aircraft.
210 (38) "Unmanned aircraft system" means the entire system used to operate an unmanned
211 aircraft, including:
212 (a) the unmanned aircraft, including payload;
213 (b) communications equipment;
214 (c) navigation equipment;
215 (d) controllers;
216 (e) support equipment; and
217 (f) autopilot functionality.
218 (39) "Unmanned aircraft system traffic management" means a traffic management
219 ecosystem for uncontrolled operations, including unmanned aircraft systems, that is separate
220 from, but complementary to, the Federal Aviation Administration's air traffic management
221 system.
222 (40) "Vertiport" means an area of land, or a structure, used or intended to be used for
223 electric, hydrogen, and hybrid vertical aircraft landings and takeoffs, including associated
224 buildings and facilities.
225 Section 2. Section 72-10-103 is amended to read:
226 72-10-103. Rulemaking requirement.
227 (1) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
228 department shall make rules:
229 (a) governing the establishment, location, and use of air navigation facilities;
230 (b) regulating the use, licensing, and supervision of all airports and vertiports in this
231 state;
232 (c) establishing minimum standards with which all air navigation facilities, flying
233 clubs, aircraft, gliders, pilots, and airports must comply; and
234 (d) safeguarding from accident and protecting the safety of persons operating or using
235 aircraft and persons and property on the ground.
236 (2) The rules may:
237 (a) require that any device or accessory that forms part of any aircraft or its equipment
238 be certified as complying with this chapter;
239 (b) limit the use of any device or accessory as necessary for safety; and
240 (c) develop and promote aeronautics within this state.
241 (3) (a) To avoid the danger of accident incident to confusion arising from conflicting
242 rules governing aeronautics, the rules shall conform as nearly as possible with federal
243 legislation, rules, regulations, and orders on aeronautics.
244 (b) The rules may not be inconsistent with paramount federal legislation, rules,
245 regulations, and orders on the subject.
246 (4) The department may not require any pilot, aircraft, or mechanic who has procured a
247 license under the Civil Aeronautics Authority of the United States to obtain a license from this
248 state, other than required by this chapter.
249 (5) The department may not make rules that conflict with the regulations of:
250 (a) the Civil Aeronautics Authority; or
251 (b) other federal agencies authorized to regulate the particular activity.
252 (6) The department shall comply with the procedures and requirements of Title 63G,
253 Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, in its adjudicative proceedings.
254 Section 3. Section 72-10-109 is amended to read:
255 72-10-109. Certificate of registration of aircraft required -- Exceptions.
256 (1) (a) A person may not operate, pilot, or navigate, or cause or authorize to be
257 operated, piloted, or navigated within this state any civil aircraft domiciled in this state unless
258 the aircraft has a current certificate of registration issued by the department.
259 (b) The restriction described in Subsection (1)(a) does not apply to aircraft licensed by
260 a foreign country with which the United States has a reciprocal agreement covering the
261 operations of the registered aircraft or to a non-passenger-carrying flight solely for inspection
262 or test purposes authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration to be made without the
263 certificate of registration.
264 (2) Aircraft centrally assessed by the State Tax Commission are exempt from the state
265 registration requirement under Subsection (1).
266 (3) Beginning on January 1, 2024, a person may not operate in this state an unmanned
267 aircraft system or an advanced air mobility aircraft for commercial operation for which
268 certification is required under 14 C.F.R. Part 107 or 135 unless the aircraft has a current
269 certificate of registration issued by the department.
270 [
271
272 Section 4. Section 72-10-110 is amended to read:
273 72-10-110. Aircraft registration information requirements -- Registration fee --
274 Administration -- Partial year registration.
275 (1) All applications for aircraft registration shall contain:
276 (a) a description of the aircraft, including:
277 (i) the manufacturer or builder;
278 (ii) the Federal Aviation Administration aircraft registration number, type, year of
279 manufacture, or if an experimental aircraft, the year the aircraft was completed and certified for
280 air worthiness by an inspector of the Federal Aviation Administration; and
281 (iii) gross weight;
282 (b) the name and address of the owner of the aircraft; and
283 (c) where the aircraft is located, or the address where the aircraft is usually used or
284 based.
285 (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3) or (4), at the time application is made for
286 registration or renewal of registration of an aircraft under this chapter, an annual registration
287 fee of 0.4% of the average wholesale value of the aircraft shall be paid.
288 (b) For purposes of calculating the average wholesale value of an aircraft under
289 Subsection (2)(a) or (3)(d), the department shall use the average wholesale value as stated in
290 the Aircraft Bluebook Price Digest.
291 (c) For an aircraft not listed in the Aircraft Bluebook Price Digest, the department shall
292 calculate the average wholesale value of the aircraft using common industry standards.
293 (d) (i) An owner of an aircraft may challenge the department's calculation of the
294 average wholesale value of the aircraft.
295 (ii) The department shall make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
296 Administrative Rulemaking Act, to establish a process for challenging the department's
297 calculation under Subsection (2)(d)(i).
298 (3) (a) An annual registration fee of $100 is imposed on an aircraft that is used:
299 (i) exclusively by an entity that is exempt from federal income taxation under Section
300 501(c)(3), Internal Revenue Code, and exempt from property taxation under Title 59, Chapter
301 2, Property Tax Act; and
302 (ii) for the emergency transportation of medical patients for at least 95% of its flight
303 time.
304 (b) An annual registration fee is imposed on an aircraft 60 years or older equal to the
305 lesser of:
306 (i) $100; or
307 (ii) the annual registration fee provided for under Subsection (2)(a).
308 (c) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(c)(iii), an owner of an aircraft shall apply
309 for a certificate of registration described in Section 72-10-109, if the aircraft:
310 (A) is in the manufacture, construction, fabrication, assembly, or repair process;
311 (B) is not complete; and
312 (C) does not have a valid airworthiness certificate.
313 (ii) An aircraft described in Subsection (3)(c)(i) is exempt from the annual registration
314 fee described in Subsection (2)(a).
315 (iii) The registration requirement described in Subsection (3)(c)(i) does not apply to an
316 aircraft that, in accordance with Section 59-12-104, is exempt from the taxes imposed under
317 Title 59, Chapter 12, Sales and Use Tax Act.
318 (d) An annual registration fee of .25% of the average wholesale value of the aircraft is
319 imposed on an aircraft if the aircraft is:
320 (i) used by an air charter service for air charter; and
321 (ii) owned by a person other than the air charter service.
322 (e) The annual registration fee required in this section is due on December 31 of each
323 year.
324 (4) (a) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act,
325 the department shall make rules to establish and administer a registration fee for an unmanned
326 aircraft system or an advanced air mobility system registered pursuant to Subsection
327 72-10-109(3).
328 (b) The rules made pursuant to Subsection (4)(a) regarding registration and applicable
329 fees for an unmanned aircraft system or an advanced air mobility system may include:
330 (i) a system for classifying unmanned aircraft systems or an advanced air mobility
331 systems;
332 (ii) technical guidance for complying with state and federal law;
333 (iii) criteria under which the department may suspend or revoke registration;
334 (iv) criteria under which the department may waive registration requirements for an
335 applicant currently holding a valid license or permit to operate unmanned aircraft systems
336 issued by another state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the United
337 States; and
338 (v) other rules regarding operation as determined by the department.
339 [
340 if:
341 (i) the owner complies with the registration requirements of this section; and
342 (ii) the owner of the aircraft states that the aircraft has a valid airworthiness certificate.
343 (b) An owner of an aircraft shall carry the registration card in the registered aircraft.
344 [
345 department to be distributed as provided in Subsection [
346 [
347 chapter, the department shall deposit all remaining aircraft registration fees [
348 Aeronautics Restricted Account created by Section 72-2-126.
349 [
350 calendar year shall be charged a registration fee which is reduced in proportion to the fraction
351 of the calendar year during which the aircraft is registered in this state.
352 [
353 an aircraft that is hangared, tied down, or parked at an owner's airport for a plurality of the year.
354 (b) Semi-annually, an owner or operator of an airport open to public use, or of an
355 airport that receives grant funding from the state, shall provide a list of all aircraft based at the
356 owner's airport to the department.
357 [
358 within the state.
359 [
360 determines that the required fee has not been paid and the fee is not paid upon reasonable
361 notice and demand.
362 Section 5. Section 72-10-701, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-103 is
363 renumbered and amended to read:
364 [
365 licensing.
366 (1) As used in this section, "advanced air mobility business" means a business that
367 operates an unmanned aircraft system or an advanced air mobility system for a commercial
368 purpose that is required to obtain a certificate pursuant to 14 C.F.R. Part 107 or 135.
369 [
370 of the state, may not enact a law, ordinance, or rule governing the private use of an unmanned
371 aircraft or the private use of an advanced air mobility system, unless:
372 (a) authorized by this chapter; or
373 (b) the political subdivision or entity is an airport operator that enacts the law, rule, or
374 ordinance to govern:
375 (i) the operation of an unmanned aircraft or an advanced air mobility system within the
376 geographic boundaries of the airport over which the airport operator has authority; or
377 (ii) the takeoff or landing of an unmanned aircraft or an aircraft operated as part of an
378 advanced air mobility system at the airport over which the airport operator has authority.
379 (3) (a) Subject to the provisions of this chapter, a political subdivision may require an
380 advanced air mobility business to obtain a business license if the advanced air mobility
381 business does not hold a current business license in good standing from another political
382 subdivision in the state.
383 (b) A political subdivision may only charge a licensing fee to an advanced air mobility
384 business in an amount that reimburses the political subdivision for the actual cost of processing
385 the business license.
386 (4) A political subdivision may not:
387 (a) require an advanced air mobility business to:
388 (i) obtain a separate business license beyond the initial business license described in
389 Subsection (3)(a);
390 (ii) pay a fee other than the fee for the initial business license described in Subsection
391 (3); or
392 (iii) pay a fee for each employee the advanced air mobility business employs; or
393 (b) regulate or restrict the size of an advanced air mobility business.
394 (5) A political subdivision shall recognize as valid within the political subdivision the
395 business license of an advanced air mobility business obtained in another political subdivision
396 within the state, if the business license is current and in good standing.
397 [
398 subdivision of the state before July 1, [
399 Section 6. Section 72-10-702, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-104 is
400 renumbered and amended to read:
401 [
402 This chapter does not apply to a person or business entity:
403 (1) using an unmanned aircraft for legitimate educational or business purposes; and
404 (2) operating the unmanned aircraft system in a manner consistent with applicable
405 Federal Aviation Administration rules, exemptions, or other authorizations.
406 Section 7. Section 72-10-801, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-201 is
407 renumbered and amended to read:
408
409 [
410 This part is known as "Law Enforcement Use of Unmanned Aircraft."
411 Section 8. Section 72-10-802, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-202 is
412 renumbered and amended to read:
413 [
414 As used in this part:
415 (1) "Civilian" means a person that is not a law enforcement officer.
416 (2) "Law enforcement agency" means the same as that term is defined in Section
417 53-3-102.
418 (3) "Law enforcement officer" means the same as that term is defined in Section
419 53-13-103.
420 (4) "Target" means a person upon whom, or an object, structure, or area upon which,
421 another person:
422 (a) has intentionally collected or attempted to collect information through the operation
423 of an unmanned aircraft system; or
424 (b) intends to collect or to attempt to collect information through the operation of an
425 unmanned aircraft system.
426 Section 9. Section 72-10-803, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-203 is
427 renumbered and amended to read:
428 [
429 Exceptions.
430 (1) A law enforcement agency or officer may not obtain, receive, or use data acquired
431 through an unmanned aircraft system unless the data is obtained:
432 (a) pursuant to a search warrant;
433 (b) in accordance with judicially recognized exceptions to warrant requirements;
434 (c) subject to Subsection (2), from a person who is a nongovernment actor;
435 (d) to locate a lost or missing person in an area in which a person has no reasonable
436 expectation of privacy; or
437 (e) for purposes unrelated to a criminal investigation.
438 (2) A law enforcement officer or agency may only use for law enforcement purposes
439 data obtained from a nongovernment actor if:
440 (a) the data appears to pertain to the commission of a crime; or
441 (b) the law enforcement agency or officer believes, in good faith, that:
442 (i) the data pertains to an imminent or ongoing emergency involving danger of death or
443 serious bodily injury to an individual; and
444 (ii) disclosing the data would assist in remedying the emergency.
445 (3) A law enforcement agency or officer that obtains, receives, or uses data acquired
446 through the use of an unmanned aircraft system or through Subsection (2) shall destroy the data
447 as soon as reasonably possible after the law enforcement agency or officer obtains, receives, or
448 uses the data subject to an applicable retention schedule under Title 63G, Chapter 2,
449 Government Records Access and Management Act, or a federal, state, or local law.
450 (4) This section applies to any imaging surveillance device, as defined in Section
451 77-23d-102, when used in conjunction with an unmanned aircraft system.
452 Section 10. Section 72-10-804, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-204 is
453 renumbered and amended to read:
454 [
455 (1) Except as provided in this section, a law enforcement agency:
456 (a) may not use, copy, or disclose data collected by an unmanned aircraft system on a
457 person, structure, or area that is not a target; and
458 (b) in accordance with applicable federal, state, and local laws, shall ensure that data
459 described in Subsection (1)(a) is destroyed as soon as reasonably possible after the law
460 enforcement agency collects or receives the data.
461 (2) A law enforcement agency is not required to comply with Subsection (1) if:
462 (a) deleting the data would also require the deletion of data that:
463 (i) relates to the target of the operation; and
464 (ii) is requisite for the success of the operation;
465 (b) the law enforcement agency receives the data:
466 (i) through a court order that:
467 (A) requires a person to release the data to the law enforcement agency; or
468 (B) prohibits the destruction of the data; or
469 (ii) from a person who is a nongovernment actor;
470 (c) (i) the data was collected inadvertently; and
471 (ii) the data appears to pertain to the commission of a crime;
472 (d) (i) the law enforcement agency reasonably determines that the data pertains to an
473 emergency situation; and
474 (ii) using or disclosing the data would assist in remedying the emergency; or
475 (e) the data was collected through the operation of an unmanned aircraft system over
476 public lands outside of municipal boundaries.
477 Section 11. Section 72-10-805, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-205 is
478 renumbered and amended to read:
479 [
480 (1) As used in this section, "law enforcement encounter" means the same as that term is
481 defined in Section 77-7a-103.
482 (2) A law enforcement officer or agency that operates an unmanned aircraft system
483 while on duty or acting in the law enforcement officer's or agency's official capacity, or obtains
484 or receives data in accordance with Section [
485 following in any report or other official record of the law enforcement encounter:
486 (a) the presence and use of the unmanned aircraft;
487 (b) any data acquired; and
488 (c) if applicable, the person from whom data was received in accordance with
489 Subsection [
490 Section 12. Section 72-10-901, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-301 is
491 renumbered and amended to read:
492
493 [
494 This part is known as "Unlawful Use of Unmanned Aircraft."
495 Section 13. Section 72-10-902, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-302 is
496 renumbered and amended to read:
497 [
498 [
499 (1) a firearm as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501; or
500 (2) an object that in the manner of the object's use or intended use is capable of causing
501 death, bodily injury, or damage to property, as determined according to the following factors:
502 (a) the location and circumstances in which the object is used or possessed;
503 (b) the primary purpose for which the object is made;
504 (c) the character of the damage, if any, the object is likely to cause;
505 (d) the manner in which the object is used;
506 (e) whether the manner in which the object is used or possessed constitutes a potential
507 imminent threat to public safety; and
508 (f) the lawful purposes for which the object may be used.
509 Section 14. Section 72-10-903, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-303 is
510 renumbered and amended to read:
511 [
512 Penalties.
513 [
514 [
515 [
516
517
518 [
519 [
520 [
521 [
522 [
523
524 [
525 [
526 unmanned aircraft that carries a weapon or to which a weapon is attached.
527 (b) A person that violates Subsection [
528 [
529 weapon is attached if the person:
530 (a) (i) obtains a certificate of authorization, or other written approval, from the Federal
531 Aviation Administration authorizing the person to fly the unmanned aircraft that carries the
532 weapon or to which the weapon is attached; and
533 (ii) operates the unmanned aircraft in accordance with the certificate of authorization or
534 other written approval;
535 (b) (i) obtains a contract with the state or the federal government permitting the person
536 to fly the unmanned aircraft that carries the weapon or to which the weapon is attached; and
537 (ii) operates the unmanned aircraft in accordance with the contract; or
538 (c) operates the unmanned aircraft that carries the weapon or to which the weapon is
539 attached in airspace controlled by the United States Department of Defense, with the
540 permission of the United States Department of Defense.
541 Section 15. Section 72-10-1001, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-401 is
542 renumbered and amended to read:
543
544 [
545 This part is known as "Safe Use of Unmanned Aircraft."
546 Section 16. Section 72-10-1002, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-402 is
547 renumbered and amended to read:
548 [
549 Reserved.
550 Section 17. Section 72-10-1003, which is renumbered from Section 72-14-403 is
551 renumbered and amended to read:
552 [
553 (1) An individual who operates an unmanned aircraft system to fly an unmanned
554 aircraft for recreational purposes shall comply with this section or 14 C.F.R. Sec. 101, Subpart
555 E.
556 (2) An individual operating an unmanned aircraft shall:
557 (a) maintain visual line of sight of the unmanned aircraft in order to:
558 (i) know the location of the unmanned aircraft;
559 (ii) determine the attitude, altitude, and direction of flight;
560 (iii) observe the airspace for other air traffic or hazards; and
561 (iv) determine that the unmanned aircraft does not endanger the life or property of
562 another person;
563 (b) ensure that the ability described in Subsection (2)(a)(i) is exercised by either:
564 (i) the operator of the unmanned aircraft; or
565 (ii) a visual observer.
566 (3) An individual may not operate an unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, or Class
567 D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated
568 for an airport unless the operator of the unmanned aircraft has prior authorization from air
569 traffic control.
570 (4) An individual may not operate an unmanned aircraft in a manner that interferes
571 with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, heliport, or seaplane base.
572 (5) An individual may not operate an unmanned aircraft system:
573 (a) from a public transit rail platform or station; or
574 (b) (i) under a height of 50 feet within a public transit fixed guideway right-of-way;
575 and
576 (ii) directly above any overhead electric lines used to power a public transit rail
577 vehicle.
578 (6) An individual may not operate an unmanned aircraft in violation of a notice to
579 airmen described in 14 C.F.R. Sec. 107.47.
580 (7) An individual may not operate an unmanned aircraft at an altitude that is higher
581 than 400 feet above ground level unless the unmanned aircraft:
582 (a) is flown within a 400-foot radius of a structure; and
583 (b) does not fly higher than 400 feet above the structure's immediate uppermost limit.
584 (8) (a) An individual who violates this section is liable for any damages that may result
585 from the violation.
586 (b) A law enforcement officer shall issue a written warning to an individual who
587 violates this section who has not previously received a written warning for a violation of this
588 section.
589 (c) Except as provided in Subsection (8)(d), an individual who violates this section
590 after receiving a written warning for a previous violation of this section is guilty of an
591 infraction.
592 (d) An individual who violates this section is guilty of a class B misdemeanor for each
593 conviction of a violation of this section after the individual is convicted of an infraction or a
594 misdemeanor for a previous violation of this section.
595 Section 18. Section 76-2-106 is amended to read:
596 76-2-106. Commission of offense with aid of unmanned aircraft system.
597 (1) As used in this section:
598 (a) "Unmanned aircraft" means the same as that term is defined in Section [
599 72-10-102.
600 (b) "Unmanned aircraft system" means the same as that term is defined in Section
601 [
602 (2) An actor may be found guilty of an offense if:
603 (a) the actor commits the offense with the aid of an unmanned aircraft; and
604 (b) the unmanned aircraft system for the unmanned aircraft is under the actor's control
605 at the time of the offense.
606 Section 19. Section 76-9-308 is amended to read:
607 76-9-308. Harassment of livestock.
608 (1) As used in this section:
609 (a) "Livestock" has the same meaning as that term is defined in Subsection
610 76-9-301(1).
611 (b) "Unmanned aircraft system" means the same as that term is defined in Section
612 [
613 (2) Except as provided in Subsection (3), a person is guilty of harassment of livestock
614 if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly chases, with the intent of causing distress,
615 or harms livestock through the use of:
616 (a) a motorized vehicle or all-terrain vehicle;
617 (b) a dog; or
618 (c) an unmanned aircraft system.
619 (3) A person is not guilty of harassment of livestock if:
620 (a) the person is:
621 (i) the owner of the livestock;
622 (ii) an employee or agent of the owner, or otherwise acting under the owner's general
623 direction or with the owner's permission;
624 (iii) acting in an emergency situation to prevent damage to the livestock or property; or
625 (iv) an employee or agent of the state or a political subdivision and acting in the
626 employee or agent's official capacity; or
627 (b) the action is in line with generally accepted animal husbandry practices.
628 (4) A person who violates this section is guilty of:
629 (a) a class B misdemeanor if the violation is a first offense and:
630 (i) no livestock is seriously injured or killed as a result of the person's actions; or
631 (ii) the person's actions cause the livestock to be displaced onto property where the
632 livestock is not legally entitled to be; and
633 (b) a class A misdemeanor if:
634 (i) the person has previously been convicted of harassment of livestock under this
635 section;
636 (ii) livestock is seriously injured or killed as a result of the person's actions; or
637 (iii) livestock or property suffered damage in excess of $1,000, including money spent
638 in recovering the livestock, as a result of the person's actions.
639 Section 20. Repealer.
640 This bill repeals:
641 Section 72-14-101, Title.
642 Section 72-14-102, Definitions.