1     
CRIMINAL CODE RECODIFICATION AND CROSS

2     
REFERENCES

3     
2024 GENERAL SESSION

4     
STATE OF UTAH

5     
Chief Sponsor: Matthew H. Gwynn

6     
Senate Sponsor: Keith Grover

7     

8     LONG TITLE
9     Committee Note:
10          The Law Enforcement and Criminal Justice Interim Committee recommended this bill.
11               Legislative Vote:     12 voting for     0 voting against     6 absent
12     General Description:
13          This bill modifies criminal provisions in Title 76, Utah Criminal Code, by redrafting
14     offense statutes into a new structure and clarifying existing law.
15     Highlighted Provisions:
16          This bill:
17          ▸     reorders language into a standardized format and clarifies existing law, including
18     the offenses in Title 76, Chapter 8, Offenses Against the Administration of
19     Government;
20          ▸     for clarity, makes technical corrections to certain statutes resulting from the 2022
21     criminal code recodification:
22               •     in Title 76, Chapter 1, General Provisions, to reflect separation of aggravated
23     human trafficking and aggravated human smuggling into separate statutes; and
24               •     in Title 76, Chapter 3, Punishments, to reflect mandatory imprisonment for
25     sexual abuse of a child;
26          ▸     makes technical corrections to certain statutes resulting from the 2023 criminal code
27     recodification:

28               •     in Title 76, Chapter 6, Offenses Against Property, regarding erroneous inclusion
29     of penalty provision in offense concerning unlawful dealing of property by a
30     fiduciary; and
31               •     in Title 77, Chapter 36, Cohabitant Abuse Procedures Act, to reflect separation
32     of criminal mischief statute into two separate offenses;
33          ▸     for clarity, creates new definition of "harm" for definitions section of Title 76,
34     Chapter 8, Offenses Against the Administration of Government, based upon
35     existing definitions in chapter and revises relevant offenses to reflect change;
36          ▸     reorganizes the following offenses to enact an embedded offense as a stand-alone
37     statute:
38               •     offense concerning receiving bribe or bribery for endorsement of person as
39     public servant;
40               •     offense of interference with public servant; and
41               •     offense concerning obstruction of justice in a criminal investigation or
42     proceeding;
43          ▸     reorganizes and clarifies existing language in offense of escape and enacts
44     embedded offense of aggravated escape as stand-alone statute;
45          ▸     reorganizes existing statutes concerning secure areas, including enacting a number
46     of statutes to reflect separate stand-alone offenses;
47          ▸     reorganizes the offense of threatening an elected official;
48          ▸     reorganizes offenses concerning influencing, impeding, or retaliating against a judge
49     or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or a family member and enacts
50     several stand-alone statutes to reflect separate embedded offenses;
51          ▸     for clarity, revises offense concerning refusal to comply with an order to evacuate or
52     another order issued in a local or state emergency;
53          ▸     for clarity, reorganizes and revises offenses concerning aiding or concealing an
54     adjudicated minor and trespass of a secure care facility;
55          ▸     for clarity, revises statutes concerning misusing public money or public property;
56          ▸     reorganizes offenses concerning refusing to give tax assessor or tax or license
57     collector a list of, or denying access to, employees to enact embedded offense as a
58     stand-alone statute;

59          ▸     for clarity, revises language in offense concerning stealing, destroying, or mutilating
60     public records by a custodian;
61          ▸     reorganizes offenses concerning taking a toll or maintaining road, bridge, or ferry
62     without authority to enact an embedded offense as a stand-alone statute;
63          ▸     for clarity, revises statutes concerning false or inconsistent statements;
64          ▸     reorganizes offenses concerning tampering with a witness and receiving or
65     soliciting a bribe to enact embedded offense as a stand-alone statute;
66          ▸     reorganizes offenses concerning a wrongful attachment by a justice court to enact
67     embedded offense as a stand-alone statute;
68          ▸     for clarity, removes provisions from Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 7, Colleges and
69     Universities, and places them in Title 53B, State System of Higher Education;
70          ▸     for clarity, revises and reorganizes offenses:
71               •     concerning criminal trespass upon an institution of higher education and willful
72     interference with lawful activities of students or faculty; and
73               •     contained in Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 8, Sabotage Prevention;
74          ▸     for clarity, repeals duplicative language concerning criminal offenses and penalties
75     relating to revenue and taxation;
76          ▸     for clarity, revises and reorganizes offenses in:
77               •     Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 12, Public Assistance Fraud; and
78               •     Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 13, Unemployment Insurance Fraud; and
79          ▸     makes technical and conforming changes.
80     Money Appropriated in this Bill:
81          None
82     Other Special Clauses:
83          None
84     Utah Code Sections Affected:
85     AMENDS:
86          17-22-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 301
87          26B-6-205, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
88          35A-3-603, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 328
89          35A-3-604, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 221

90          35A-4-304, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 15
91          35A-4-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 15
92          35A-4-312, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2016, Chapter 296
93          53-10-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapters 328, 457
94          53B-3-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2021, First Special Session, Chapter 7
95          59-1-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 471
96          63G-12-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapters 328, 370
97          64-13-14.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 412
98          76-1-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 181
99          76-3-203.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 111
100          76-3-203.3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 111
101          76-3-203.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 111
102          76-3-406, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 184
103          76-5-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 181
104          76-6-513, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 111
105          76-8-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapter 211
106          76-8-102, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
107          76-8-103, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 92
108          76-8-104, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 215
109          76-8-105, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 92
110          76-8-106, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
111          76-8-107, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1974, Chapter 32
112          76-8-108, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1985, Chapter 21
113          76-8-110, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 128
114          76-8-201, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
115          76-8-202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 241
116          76-8-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 336
117          76-8-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 165
118          76-8-301.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapter 411
119          76-8-302, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
120          76-8-303, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196

121          76-8-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 312
122          76-8-305.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 133
123          76-8-306, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2021, Chapter 262
124          76-8-306.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 155
125          76-8-307, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
126          76-8-308, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 241
127          76-8-309, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 181
128          76-8-311.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 330
129          76-8-311.3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 330
130          76-8-312, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1974, Chapter 32
131          76-8-313, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 45
132          76-8-316, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 181
133          76-8-317, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 295
134          76-8-318, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapters 181, 335
135          76-8-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 61
136          76-8-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 61
137          76-8-405, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
138          76-8-406, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
139          76-8-407, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
140          76-8-408, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
141          76-8-409, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1991, Chapter 5
142          76-8-410, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
143          76-8-411, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
144          76-8-412, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
145          76-8-413, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
146          76-8-414, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
147          76-8-415, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
148          76-8-416, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
149          76-8-417, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
150          76-8-418, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 335
151          76-8-419, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 166

152          76-8-420, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 229
153          76-8-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 298
154          76-8-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 324
155          76-8-503, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2014, Chapter 167
156          76-8-504, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapter 328
157          76-8-504.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1999, Chapter 215
158          76-8-504.6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 131
159          76-8-506, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 92
160          76-8-507, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2002, Chapter 42
161          76-8-508, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 140
162          76-8-508.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 140
163          76-8-508.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 219
164          76-8-509, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
165          76-8-510.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2014, Chapter 167
166          76-8-511, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 238
167          76-8-512, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, First Special Session, Chapter 4
168          76-8-513, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
169          76-8-515, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 179
170          76-8-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 3
171          76-8-602, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1990, Chapter 59
172          76-8-603, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1990, Chapter 59
173          76-8-703, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 257
174          76-8-705, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 257
175          76-8-802, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
176          76-8-803, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
177          76-8-804, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
178          76-8-805, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
179          76-8-807, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
180          76-8-809, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 435
181          76-8-810, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
182          76-8-811, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1995, Chapter 20

183          76-8-901, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
184          76-8-902, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
185          76-8-903, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
186          76-8-904, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
187          76-8-1201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 221
188          76-8-1203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 94
189          76-8-1207, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 48
190          76-8-1301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 193
191          76-8-1402, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 107
192          76-8-1403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2018, Chapter 133
193          76-9-802, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2021, Chapter 64
194          76-9-902, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 394
195          76-9-1008, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 278
196          76-10-306, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 61
197          76-10-1602, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapters 34, 111, 139, and 330
198          77-23a-8, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 111
199          77-36-1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2022, Chapters 185, 430
200          77-36-1.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapters 111, 184
201          77-37-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 448
202     ENACTS:
203          53B-20-107, Utah Code Annotated 1953
204          76-8-106.1, Utah Code Annotated 1953
205          76-8-301.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
206          76-8-309.1, Utah Code Annotated 1953
207          76-8-309.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
208          76-8-311.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
209          76-8-311.4, Utah Code Annotated 1953
210          76-8-311.6, Utah Code Annotated 1953
211          76-8-311.7, Utah Code Annotated 1953
212          76-8-311.8, Utah Code Annotated 1953
213          76-8-311.9, Utah Code Annotated 1953

214          76-8-311.10, Utah Code Annotated 1953
215          76-8-316.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
216          76-8-316.4, Utah Code Annotated 1953
217          76-8-316.6, Utah Code Annotated 1953
218          76-8-320, Utah Code Annotated 1953
219          76-8-409.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
220          76-8-416.2, Utah Code Annotated 1953
221          76-8-508.7, Utah Code Annotated 1953
222          76-8-604, Utah Code Annotated 1953
223          76-8-1203.1, Utah Code Annotated 1953
224          76-8-1203.3, Utah Code Annotated 1953
225          76-8-1203.5, Utah Code Annotated 1953
226          76-8-1203.7, Utah Code Annotated 1953
227          76-8-1302, Utah Code Annotated 1953
228          76-8-1303, Utah Code Annotated 1953
229          76-8-1304, Utah Code Annotated 1953
230     RENUMBERS AND AMENDS:
231          76-8-319, (Renumbered from 76-8-311.5, as renumbered and amended by Laws of
232     Utah 2021, Chapter 261)
233     REPEALS:
234          76-8-314, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 45
235          76-8-315, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1983, Chapter 330
236          76-8-404, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 61
237          76-8-505, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 324
238          76-8-701, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapters 10, 257
239          76-8-702, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 257
240          76-8-707, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 234
241          76-8-709, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 257
242          76-8-716, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
243          76-8-717, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2013, Chapter 257
244          76-8-801, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196

245          76-8-806, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1997, Chapter 296
246          76-8-808, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
247          76-8-1101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2014, Chapter 52
248          76-8-1202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 330
249          76-8-1204, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 48
250          76-8-1205, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2015, Chapter 221
251          76-8-1206, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 41
252          76-8-1401, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 107
253     

254     Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
255          Section 1. Section 17-22-5 is amended to read:
256          17-22-5. Sheriff's classification of jail inmates -- Classification criteria --
257     Alternative incarceration programs -- Limitation.
258          (1) Except as provided in Subsection (4), the sheriff shall adopt and implement written
259     policies for admission of prisoners to the county jail and the classification of persons
260     incarcerated in the jail which shall provide for the separation of prisoners by gender and by
261     such other factors as may reasonably provide for the safety and well-being of inmates and the
262     community. To the extent authorized by law, any written admission policies shall be applied
263     equally to all entities using the county correctional facilities.
264          (2) Except as provided in Subsection (4), each county sheriff shall assign prisoners to a
265     facility or section of a facility based on classification criteria that the sheriff develops and
266     maintains.
267          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a county sheriff may develop and
268     implement alternative incarceration programs that may or may not involve housing a prisoner
269     in a jail facility.
270          (b) A prisoner housed under an alternative incarceration program under Subsection
271     (3)(a) shall be considered to be in the full custody and control of the sheriff for purposes of
272     [Section] Sections 76-8-309 and 76-8-309.1.
273          (c) A prisoner may not be placed in an alternative incarceration program under
274     Subsection (3)(a) unless:
275          (i) the jail facility is at maximum operating capacity, as established under Subsection

276     17-22-5.5(2); or
277          (ii) ordered by the court.
278          (4) This section may not be construed to authorize a sheriff to modify provisions of a
279     contract with the Department of Corrections to house in a county jail persons sentenced to the
280     Department of Corrections.
281          Section 2. Section 26B-6-205 is amended to read:
282          26B-6-205. Reporting requirements -- Investigation -- Exceptions -- Immunity --
283     Penalties -- Nonmedical healing.
284          (1) Except as provided in Subsection (4), if an individual has reason to believe that a
285     vulnerable adult is, or has been, the subject of abuse, neglect, or exploitation, the individual
286     shall immediately report the suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation to Adult Protective
287     Services or to the nearest peace officer or law enforcement agency.
288          (2) (a) If a peace officer or a law enforcement agency receives a report under
289     Subsection (1), the peace officer or the law enforcement agency shall immediately notify Adult
290     Protective Services.
291          (b) Adult Protective Services and the peace officer or the law enforcement agency shall
292     coordinate, as appropriate, efforts to investigate the report under Subsection (1) and to provide
293     protection to the vulnerable adult.
294          (3) When a report under Subsection (1), or a subsequent investigation by Adult
295     Protective Services, indicates that a criminal offense may have occurred against a vulnerable
296     adult:
297          (a) Adult Protective Services shall notify the nearest local law enforcement agency
298     regarding the potential offense; and
299          (b) the law enforcement agency shall initiate an investigation in cooperation with Adult
300     Protective Services.
301          (4) Subject to Subsection (5), the reporting requirement described in Subsection (1)
302     does not apply to:
303          (a) a member of the clergy, with regard to any confession made to the member of the
304     clergy while functioning in the ministerial capacity of the member of the clergy and without the
305     consent of the individual making the confession, if:
306          (i) the perpetrator made the confession directly to the member of the clergy; and

307          (ii) the member of the clergy is, under canon law or church doctrine or practice, bound
308     to maintain the confidentiality of that confession; or
309          (b) an attorney, or an individual employed by the attorney, if knowledge of the
310     suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult arises from the representation of
311     a client, unless the attorney is permitted to reveal the suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation
312     of the vulnerable adult to prevent reasonably certain death or substantial bodily harm in
313     accordance with Utah Rules of Professional Conduct, Rule 1.6.
314          (5) (a) When a member of the clergy receives information about abuse, neglect, or
315     exploitation of a vulnerable adult from any source other than confession of the perpetrator, the
316     member of the clergy is required to report that information even though the member of the
317     clergy may have also received information about abuse, neglect, or exploitation from the
318     confession of the perpetrator.
319          (b) Exemption of the reporting requirement for an individual described in Subsection
320     (4) does not exempt the individual from any other efforts required by law to prevent further
321     abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult by the perpetrator.
322          (6) (a) As used in this Subsection (6), "physician" means an individual licensed to
323     practice as a physician or osteopath in this state under Title 58, Chapter 67, Utah Medical
324     Practice Act, or Title 58, Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act.
325          (b) The physician-patient privilege does not:
326          (i) excuse a physician from reporting suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a
327     vulnerable adult under Subsection (1); or
328          (ii) constitute grounds for excluding evidence regarding a vulnerable adult's injuries, or
329     the cause of the vulnerable adult's injuries, in any judicial or administrative proceeding
330     resulting from a report under Subsection (1).
331          (7) (a) An individual who in good faith makes a report under Subsection (1), or who
332     otherwise notifies Adult Protective Services or a peace officer or law enforcement agency, is
333     immune from civil and criminal liability in connection with the report or notification.
334          (b) A covered provider or covered contractor, as defined in Section 26B-2-238, that
335     knowingly fails to report suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult to
336     Adult Protective Services, or to the nearest peace officer or law enforcement agency, under
337     Subsection (1), is subject to a private right of action and liability for the abuse, neglect, or

338     exploitation of a vulnerable adult that is committed by the individual who was not reported to
339     Adult Protective Services or to the nearest peace officer or law enforcement agency.
340          (c) This Subsection (7) does not provide immunity with respect to acts or omissions of
341     a governmental employee except as provided in Title 63G, Chapter 7, Governmental Immunity
342     Act of Utah.
343          (8) If Adult Protective Services has substantial grounds to believe that an individual
344     has knowingly failed to report suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult in
345     accordance with this section, Adult Protective Services shall file a complaint with:
346          (a) the Division of Professional Licensing if the individual is a health care provider, as
347     defined in Section 80-2-603, or a mental health therapist, as defined in Section 58-60-102;
348          (b) the appropriate law enforcement agency if the individual is a law enforcement
349     officer, as defined in Section 53-13-103; and
350          (c) the State Board of Education if the individual is an educator, as defined in Section
351     53E-6-102.
352          (9) (a) An individual is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if the individual willfully fails
353     to report suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult to Adult Protective
354     Services, or to the nearest peace officer or law enforcement agency under Subsection (1).
355          (b) If an individual is convicted under Subsection (9)(a), the court may order the
356     individual, in addition to any other sentence the court imposes, to:
357          (i) complete community service hours; or
358          (ii) complete a program on preventing abuse, neglect, and exploitation of vulnerable
359     adults.
360          (c) In determining whether it would be appropriate to charge an individual with a
361     violation of Subsection (9)(a), the prosecuting attorney shall take into account whether a
362     reasonable individual would not have reported suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a
363     vulnerable adult because reporting would have placed the individual in immediate danger of
364     death or serious bodily injury.
365          (d) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of law, a prosecuting attorney may not use
366     an individual's violation of Subsection (9)(a) as the basis for charging the individual with
367     another offense.
368          (e) A prosecution for failure to report under Subsection (9)(a) shall be commenced

369     within two years after the day on which the individual had knowledge of the suspected abuse,
370     neglect, or exploitation and willfully failed to report.
371          (10) Under circumstances not amounting to a violation of Section 76-8-508 or
372     76-8-508.7, an individual is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if the individual threatens,
373     intimidates, or attempts to intimidate a vulnerable adult who is the subject of a report under
374     Subsection (1), the individual who made the report under Subsection (1), a witness, or any
375     other person cooperating with an investigation conducted in accordance with this chapter.
376          (11) An adult is not considered abused, neglected, or a vulnerable adult for the reason
377     that the adult has chosen to rely solely upon religious, nonmedical forms of healing in lieu of
378     medical care.
379          Section 3. Section 35A-3-603 is amended to read:
380          35A-3-603. Civil liability for overpayment.
381          (1) A provider, recipient, or other person who receives an overpayment shall,
382     regardless of fault, return the overpayment or repay its value to the department immediately:
383          (a) upon receiving written notice of the overpayment from the department; or
384          (b) upon discovering the overpayment, if that occurs before receiving notice.
385          (2) (a) Except as provided under Subsection (2)(b), interest on the unreturned balance
386     of the overpayment shall accrue at the rate of 1% a month.
387          (b) If the overpayment was not the fault of the person receiving it, that person is not
388     liable for interest on the unreturned balance.
389          (c) In accordance with federal law and rules made by the department in accordance
390     with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, an overpayment may be
391     recovered through deductions from cash assistance, General Assistance, SNAP benefits, other
392     cash-related assistance provided to a recipient under this chapter, or other means provided by
393     federal law.
394          (3) A person who knowingly assists a recipient, provider, or other person in obtaining
395     an overpayment is jointly and severally liable for the overpayment.
396          (4) (a) In proving civil liability for overpayment under this section, or Section
397     35A-3-605, when fault is alleged, the department shall prove by clear and convincing evidence
398     that the overpayment was obtained intentionally, knowingly, recklessly as "intentionally,
399     knowingly, and recklessly" are defined in Section 76-2-103, by false statement,

400     misrepresentation, impersonation, or other fraudulent means, including committing any of the
401     acts or omissions described in Sections [76-8-1203, 76-8-1204, or 76-8-1205] 76-8-1203.1,
402     76-8-1203.3, 76-8-1203.5, or 76-8-1203.7.
403          (b) If fault is established under Subsection (4)(a), Section 35A-3-605, or Title 76,
404     Chapter 8, Part 12, Public Assistance Fraud, a person who obtained or helped another obtain an
405     overpayment is subject to:
406          (i) a civil penalty of 10% of the amount of the overpayment, except for overpayments
407     related to assistance for child care services;
408          (ii) a civil penalty of 50% of the amount of the overpayment for overpayments related
409     to assistance for child care services;
410          (iii) disqualification from receiving cash assistance from the Family Employment
411     Program created in Section 35A-3-302 and the General Assistance program under Section
412     35A-3-401, if the overpayment was obtained from either of those programs, for the period
413     described in Subsection (4)(c); and
414          (iv) disqualification from SNAP, if the overpayment was received from SNAP, for the
415     period described in Subsection (4)(c).
416          (c) Unless otherwise provided by federal law, the period of a disqualification under
417     Subsections (4)(b)(iii) and (iv) is for:
418          (i) 12 months for a first offense;
419          (ii) 24 months for a second offense; and
420          (iii) permanently for a third offense.
421          (5) (a) Except as provided under Subsection (5)(b), if an action is filed, the department
422     may recover, in addition to the principal sum plus interest, reasonable attorney fees and costs.
423          (b) If the repayment obligation arose from an administrative error by the department,
424     the department may not recover attorney fees and costs.
425          (6) If a court finds that funds or benefits were secured, in whole or part, by fraud by the
426     person from whom repayment is sought, the court shall assess an additional sum as considered
427     appropriate as punitive damages up to the amount of repayment being sought.
428          (7) A criminal action for public assistance fraud is governed by Title 76, Chapter 8,
429     Part 12, Public Assistance Fraud.
430          (8) Jurisdiction over benefits is continuous.

431          (9) This chapter does not preclude the Department of Health and Human Services from
432     carrying out its responsibilities under Title 26B, Chapter 3, Part 10, Medical Benefits
433     Recovery, and Title 26B, Chapter 3, Part 11, Utah False Claims Act.
434          Section 4. Section 35A-3-604 is amended to read:
435          35A-3-604. Obligor presumed to have notice of department's rights -- Authority
436     to administer oaths, issue subpoenas, and compel witnesses and production of documents
437     -- Recovery of attorney fees, costs, and interest -- Rulemaking authority -- Administrative
438     procedures.
439          (1) An obligor is presumed to have received notice of the rights of the department
440     under this part upon engaging in this state in any of the acts described in Subsections
441     35A-3-603(3) and (4) or Section [76-8-1203, 76-8-1204, or 76-8-1205] 76-8-1203.1,
442     76-8-1203.3, 76-8-1203.5, or 76-8-1203.7.
443          (2) For the purposes of this part, the department may administer oaths and certify
444     official acts, issue subpoenas, and compel witnesses and the production of business records,
445     documents, and evidence.
446          (3) (a) Except when an overpayment results from administrative error, the department
447     may recover from the obligor:
448          (i) reasonable [attorneys'] attorney fees;
449          (ii) costs incurred in pursuing administrative remedies under this part; and
450          (iii) interest at the rate of 1% a month accruing from the date an administrative or
451     judicial order is issued determining the amount due under this part.
452          (b) The department may recover interest, attorney fees, and costs, if notice of the
453     assessment has been included in a notice of agency action issued in compliance with Title 63G,
454     Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
455          (4) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
456     department may make, amend, and enforce rules to carry out the provisions of this part.
457          (5) Service of all notices and orders under this part shall comply with:
458          (a) Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act;
459          (b) Utah Rules of Civil Procedure; or
460          (c) rules made by the department under this part in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter
461     3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, that meet standards required by due process.

462          Section 5. Section 35A-4-304 is amended to read:
463          35A-4-304. Special provisions regarding transfers of unemployment experience
464     and assignment rates.
465          (1) As used in this section:
466          (a) "Knowingly" means having actual knowledge of or acting with deliberate ignorance
467     or reckless disregard for the prohibition involved.
468          (b) "Person" has the meaning given that term by Section 7701(a)(1) of the Internal
469     Revenue Code of 1986.
470          (c) "Trade or business" includes the employer's workforce.
471          (d) "Violate or attempt to violate" includes intent to evade, misrepresentation, or
472     willful nondisclosure.
473          (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, Subsections (3) and (4) shall
474     apply regarding assignment of rates and transfers of unemployment experience.
475          (3) (a) If an employer transfers its trade or business, or a portion of its trade or
476     business, to another employer and, at the time of the transfer, there is common ownership,
477     management, or control of the employers, then the unemployment experience attributable to
478     each employer shall be combined into a common experience rate calculation.
479          (b) The contribution rates of the employers shall be recalculated and made effective
480     upon the date of the transfer of trade or business as determined by division rule in accordance
481     with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
482          (c) (i) If one or more of the employers is a qualified employer at the time of the
483     transfer, then all employing units that are party to a transfer described in Subsection (3)(a) of
484     this section shall be assigned an overall contribution rate under Subsection 35A-4-303(4),
485     using combined unemployment experience rating factors, for the rate year during which the
486     transfer occurred and for the subsequent three rate years.
487          (ii) If none of the employing units is a qualified employer at the time of the transfer,
488     then all employing units that are party to the transfer described in Subsection (3)(a) shall be
489     assigned the highest overall contribution rate applicable at the time of the transfer to any
490     employer who is party to the acquisition for the rate year during which the transfer occurred
491     and for subsequent rate years until the time when one or more of the employing units is a
492     qualified employer.

493          (iii) Once one or more employing units described in Subsection (3)(c)(ii) is a qualified
494     employer, all the employing units shall be assigned an overall rate under Subsection
495     35A-4-303(4), using combined unemployment experience rating factors for subsequent rate
496     years, not to exceed three years following the year of the transfer.
497          (d) The transfer of some or all of an employer's workforce to another employer shall be
498     considered a transfer of its trade or business when, as the result of the transfer, the transferring
499     employer no longer performs trade or business with respect to the transferred workforce, and
500     the trade or business is now performed by the employer to whom the workforce is transferred.
501          (4) (a) Whenever a person is not an employer under this chapter at the time it acquires
502     the trade or business of an employer, the unemployment experience of the acquired business
503     may not be transferred to that person if the division finds that the person acquired the business
504     solely or primarily for the purpose of obtaining a lower rate of contributions.
505          (b) The person shall be assigned the applicable new employer rate under Subsection
506     35A-4-303(5).
507          (c) In determining whether the business was acquired solely or primarily for the
508     purpose of obtaining a lower rate of contributions, the division shall use objective factors
509     which may include:
510          (i) the cost of acquiring the business;
511          (ii) whether the person continued the business enterprise of the acquired business;
512          (iii) how long the business enterprise was continued; or
513          (iv) whether a substantial number of new employees were hired for performance of
514     duties unrelated to the business activity conducted prior to acquisition.
515          (5) (a) If a person knowingly violates or attempts to violate Subsection (3) or (4) or any
516     other provision of this chapter related to determining the assignment of a contribution rate, or if
517     a person knowingly advises another person in a way that results in a violation of any of those
518     subsections or provisions, the person is subject to the following penalties:
519          (i) (A) If the person is an employer, then the employer shall be assigned an overall
520     contribution rate of 5.4% for the rate year during which the violation or attempted violation
521     occurred and for the subsequent rate year.
522          (B) If the person's business is already at 5.4% for any year, or if the amount of increase
523     in the person's rate would be less than 2% for that year, then a penalty surcharge of

524     contributions of 2% of taxable wages shall be imposed for the rate year during which the
525     violation or attempted violation occurred and for the subsequent rate year.
526          (ii) (A) If the person is not an employer, the person shall be subject to a civil penalty of
527     not more than $5,000.
528          (B) The fine shall be deposited in the penalty and interest account established under
529     Section 35A-4-506.
530          (b) (i) In addition to the penalty imposed by Subsection (5)(a), a violation of this
531     section may be prosecuted as unemployment insurance fraud.
532          (ii) The determination of the degree of an offense shall be measured by the total value
533     of all contributions avoided or reduced or contributions sought to be avoided or reduced by the
534     unlawful conduct as applied to the degrees listed under [Subsection 76-8-1301(2)(a)] Section
535     76-8-1302 or 76-8-1303.
536          (6) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
537     division shall make rules to identify the transfer or acquisition of a business for purposes of this
538     section.
539          (7) This section shall be interpreted and applied in a manner that meets the minimum
540     requirements contained in any guidance or regulations issued by the United States Department
541     of Labor.
542          Section 6. Section 35A-4-305 is amended to read:
543          35A-4-305. Collection of contributions -- Unpaid contributions to bear interest --
544     Offer to compromise.
545          (1) (a) Contributions unpaid on the date on which they are due and payable, as
546     prescribed by the division, shall bear interest at the rate of 1% per month from and after that
547     date until payment plus accrued interest is received by the division.
548          (b) (i) Contribution reports not made and filed by the date on which they are due as
549     prescribed by the division are subject to a penalty to be assessed and collected in the same
550     manner as contributions due under this section equal to 5% of the contribution due if the failure
551     to file on time was not more than 15 days, with an additional 5% for each additional 15 days or
552     fraction thereof during which the failure continued, but not to exceed 25% in the aggregate and
553     not less than $25 with respect to each reporting period.
554          (ii) If a report is filed after the required time and it is shown to the satisfaction of the

555     division or its authorized representative that the failure to file was due to a reasonable cause
556     and not to willful neglect, no addition shall be made to the contribution.
557          (c) (i) If contributions are unpaid after 10 days from the date of the mailing or personal
558     delivery by the division or its authorized representative, of a written demand for payment, there
559     shall attach to the contribution, to be assessed and collected in the same manner as
560     contributions due under this section, a penalty equal to 5% of the contribution due.
561          (ii) A penalty may not attach if within 10 days after the mailing or personal delivery,
562     arrangements for payment have been made with the division, or its authorized representative,
563     and payment is made in accordance with those arrangements.
564          (d) The division shall assess as a penalty a service charge, in addition to any other
565     penalties that may apply, in an amount not to exceed the service charge imposed by Section
566     7-15-1 for dishonored instruments if:
567          (i) any amount due the division for contributions, interest, other penalties or benefit
568     overpayments is paid by check, draft, order, or other instrument; and
569          (ii) the instrument is dishonored or not paid by the institution against which it is drawn.
570          (e) Except for benefit overpayments under Subsection 35A-4-405(5), benefit
571     overpayments, contributions, interest, penalties, and assessed costs, uncollected three years
572     after they become due, may be charged as uncollectible and removed from the records of the
573     division if:
574          (i) no assets belonging to the liable person and subject to attachment can be found; and
575          (ii) in the opinion of the division there is no likelihood of collection at a future date.
576          (f) Interest and penalties collected in accordance with this section shall be paid into the
577     Special Administrative Expense Account created by Section 35A-4-506.
578          (g) Action required for the collection of sums due under this chapter is subject to the
579     applicable limitations of actions under Title 78B, Chapter 2, Statutes of Limitations.
580          (2) (a) If an employer fails to file a report when prescribed by the division for the
581     purpose of determining the amount of the employer's contribution due under this chapter, or if
582     the report when filed is incorrect or insufficient or is not satisfactory to the division, the
583     division may determine the amount of wages paid for employment during the period or periods
584     with respect to which the reports were or should have been made and the amount of
585     contribution due from the employer on the basis of any information it may be able to obtain.

586          (b) The division shall give written notice of the determination to the employer.
587          (c) The determination is considered correct unless:
588          (i) the employer, within 10 days after mailing or personal delivery of notice of the
589     determination, applies to the division for a review of the determination as provided in Section
590     35A-4-508; or
591          (ii) unless the division or its authorized representative of its own motion reviews the
592     determination.
593          (d) The amount of contribution determined under Subsection (2)(a) is subject to
594     penalties and interest as provided in Subsection (1).
595          (3) (a) If, after due notice, an employer defaults in the payment of contributions,
596     interest, or penalties on the contributions, or a claimant defaults in a repayment of benefit
597     overpayments and penalties on the overpayments, the amount due shall be collectible by civil
598     action in the name of the division, and the employer adjudged in default shall pay the costs of
599     the action.
600          (b) Civil actions brought under this section to collect contributions, interest, or
601     penalties from an employer, or benefit overpayments and penalties from a claimant shall be:
602          (i) heard by the court at the earliest possible date; and
603          (ii) entitled to preference upon the calendar of the court over all other civil actions
604     except:
605          (A) petitions for judicial review under this chapter; and
606          (B) cases arising under the workers' compensation law of this state.
607          (c) (i) (A) To collect contributions, interest, or penalties, or benefit overpayments and
608     penalties due from employers or claimants located outside Utah, the division may employ
609     private collectors providing debt collection services outside Utah.
610          (B) Accounts may be placed with private collectors only after the employer or claimant
611     has been given a final notice that the division intends to place the account with a private
612     collector for further collection action.
613          (C) The notice shall advise the employer or claimant of the employer's or claimant's
614     rights under this chapter and the applicable rules of the department.
615          (ii) (A) A private collector may receive as compensation up to 25% of the lesser of the
616     amount collected or the amount due, plus the costs and fees of any civil action or postjudgment

617     remedy instituted by the private collector with the approval of the division.
618          (B) The employer or claimant shall be liable to pay the compensation of the collector,
619     costs, and fees in addition to the original amount due.
620          (iii) A private collector is subject to the federal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15
621     U.S.C. Sec. 1692 et seq.
622          (iv) (A) A civil action may not be maintained by a private collector without specific
623     prior written approval of the division.
624          (B) When division approval is given for civil action against an employer or claimant,
625     the division may cooperate with the private collector to the extent necessary to effect the civil
626     action.
627          (d) (i) Notwithstanding Section 35A-4-312, the division may disclose the contribution,
628     interest, penalties or benefit overpayments and penalties, costs due, the name of the employer
629     or claimant, and the employer's or claimant's address and telephone number when any
630     collection matter is referred to a private collector under Subsection (3)(c).
631          (ii) A private collector is subject to the confidentiality requirements and penalty
632     provisions provided in [Section] Sections 35A-4-312 and [Subsection 76-8-1301(4)]
633     76-8-1304, except to the extent disclosure is necessary in a civil action to enforce collection of
634     the amounts due.
635          (e) An action taken by the division under this section may not be construed to be an
636     election to forego other collection procedures by the division.
637          (4) (a) In the event of a distribution of an employer's assets under an order of a court
638     under the laws of Utah, including a receivership, assignment for benefits of creditors,
639     adjudicated insolvency, composition, or similar proceedings, contributions then or thereafter
640     due shall be paid in full prior to all other claims except taxes and claims for wages of not more
641     than $400 to each claimant, earned within five months of the commencement of the
642     proceeding.
643          (b) If an employer commences a proceeding in the Federal Bankruptcy Court under a
644     chapter of 11 U.S.C. 101 et seq., as amended by the Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and
645     Consumer Protection Act of 2005, contributions, interest, and penalties then or thereafter due
646     shall be entitled to the priority provided for taxes, interest, and penalties in the Bankruptcy
647     Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act of 2005.

648          (5) (a) In addition and as an alternative to any other remedy provided by this chapter
649     and provided that no appeal or other proceeding for review provided by this chapter is then
650     pending and the time for taking it has expired, the division may issue a warrant in duplicate,
651     under its official seal, directed to the sheriff of any county of the state, commanding the sheriff
652     to levy upon and sell the real and personal property of a delinquent employer or claimant found
653     within the sheriff's county for the payment of the contributions due, with the added penalties,
654     interest, or benefit overpayment and penalties, and costs, and to return the warrant to the
655     division and pay into the fund the money collected by virtue of the warrant by a time to be
656     specified in the warrant, not more than 60 days from the date of the warrant.
657          (b) (i) Immediately upon receipt of the warrant in duplicate, the sheriff shall file the
658     duplicate with the clerk of the district court in the sheriff's county.
659          (ii) The clerk shall enter in the judgment docket, in the column for judgment debtors,
660     the name of the delinquent employer or claimant mentioned in the warrant, and in appropriate
661     columns the amount of the contribution, penalties, interest, or benefit overpayment and
662     penalties, and costs, for which the warrant is issued and the date when the duplicate is filed.
663          (c) The amount of the docketed warrant shall:
664          (i) have the force and effect of an execution against all personal property of the
665     delinquent employer; and
666          (ii) become a lien upon the real property of the delinquent employer or claimant in the
667     same manner and to the same extent as a judgment duly rendered by a district court and
668     docketed in the office of the clerk.
669          (d) After docketing, the sheriff shall:
670          (i) proceed in the same manner as is prescribed by law with respect to execution issued
671     against property upon judgments of a court of record; and
672          (ii) be entitled to the same fees for the sheriff's services in executing the warrant, to be
673     collected in the same manner.
674          (6) (a) Contributions imposed by this chapter are a lien upon the property of an
675     employer liable for the contribution required to be collected under this section who shall sell
676     out the employer's business or stock of goods or shall quit business, if the employer fails to
677     make a final report and payment on the date subsequent to the date of selling or quitting
678     business on which they are due and payable as prescribed by rule.

679          (b) (i) An employer's successor, successors, or assigns, if any, are required to withhold
680     sufficient of the purchase money to cover the amount of the contributions and interest or
681     penalties due and payable until the former owner produces a receipt from the division showing
682     that they have been paid or a certificate stating that no amount is due.
683          (ii) If the purchaser of a business or stock of goods fails to withhold sufficient purchase
684     money, the purchaser is personally liable for the payment of the amount of the contributions
685     required to be paid by the former owner, interest and penalties accrued and unpaid by the
686     former owner, owners, or assignors.
687          (7) (a) If an employer is delinquent in the payment of a contribution, the division may
688     give notice of the amount of the delinquency by registered mail to all persons having in their
689     possession or under their control, any credits or other personal property belonging to the
690     employer, or owing any debts to the employer at the time of the receipt by them of the notice.
691          (b) A person notified under Subsection (7)(a) shall neither transfer nor make any other
692     disposition of the credits, other personal property, or debts until:
693          (i) the division has consented to a transfer or disposition; or
694          (ii) 20 days after the receipt of the notice.
695          (c) All persons notified under Subsection (7)(a) shall, within five days after receipt of
696     the notice, advise the division of credits, other personal property, or other debts in their
697     possession, under their control or owing by them, as the case may be.
698          (8) (a) (i) Each employer shall furnish the division necessary information for the proper
699     administration of this chapter and shall include wage information for each employee, for each
700     calendar quarter.
701          (ii) The information shall be furnished at a time, in the form, and to those individuals
702     as the department may by rule require.
703          (b) (i) Each employer shall furnish each individual worker who is separated that
704     information as the department may by rule require, and shall furnish within 48 hours of the
705     receipt of a request from the division a report of the earnings of any individual during the
706     individual's base-period.
707          (ii) The report shall be on a form prescribed by the division and contain all information
708     prescribed by the division.
709          (c) (i) For each failure by an employer to conform to this Subsection (8) the division

710     shall, unless good cause is shown, assess a $50 penalty if the filing was not more than 15 days
711     late.
712          (ii) If the filing is more than 15 days late, the division shall assess an additional penalty
713     of $50 for each 15 days, or a fraction of the 15 days that the filing is late, not to exceed $250
714     per filing.
715          (iii) The penalty is to be collected in the same manner as contributions due under this
716     chapter.
717          (d) (i) The division shall prescribe rules providing standards for determining which
718     contribution reports shall be filed on magnetic or electronic media or in other machine-readable
719     form.
720          (ii) In prescribing these rules, the division:
721          (A) may not require an employer to file contribution reports on magnetic or electronic
722     media unless the employer is required to file wage data on at least 250 employees during any
723     calendar quarter or is an authorized employer representative who files quarterly tax reports on
724     behalf of 100 or more employers during any calendar quarter;
725          (B) shall take into account, among other relevant factors, the ability of the employer to
726     comply at reasonable cost with the requirements of the rules; and
727          (C) may require an employer to post a bond for failure to comply with the rules
728     required by this Subsection (8)(d).
729          (9) (a) (i) An employer liable for payments in lieu of contributions shall file
730     Reimbursable Employment and Wage Reports.
731          (ii) The reports are due on the last day of the month that follows the end of each
732     calendar quarter unless the division, after giving notice, changes the due date.
733          (iii) A report postmarked on or before the due date is considered timely.
734          (b) (i) Unless the employer can show good cause, the division shall assess a $50
735     penalty against an employer who does not file Reimbursable Employment and Wage Reports
736     within the time limits set out in Subsection (9)(a) if the filing was not more than 15 days late.
737          (ii) If the filing is more than 15 days late, the division shall assess an additional penalty
738     of $50 for each 15 days, or a fraction of the 15 days that the filing is late, not to exceed $250
739     per filing.
740          (iii) The division shall assess and collect the penalties referred to in this Subsection

741     (9)(b) in the same manner as prescribed in Sections 35A-4-309 and 35A-4-311.
742          (10) If a person liable to pay a contribution or benefit overpayment imposed by this
743     chapter neglects or refuses to pay it after demand, the amount, including any interest, additional
744     amount, addition to contributions, or assessable penalty, together with any additional accruable
745     costs, shall be a lien in favor of the division upon all property and rights to property, whether
746     real or personal belonging to the person.
747          (11) (a) The lien imposed by Subsection (10) arises at the time the assessment, as
748     defined in the department rules, is made and continues until the liability for the amount
749     assessed, or a judgment against the taxpayer arising out of the liability, is satisfied.
750          (b) (i) The lien imposed by Subsection (10) is not valid as against a purchaser, holder
751     of a security interest, mechanics' lien holder, or judgment lien creditor until the division files a
752     warrant with the clerk of the district court.
753          (ii) For the purposes of this Subsection (11)(b):
754          (A) "Judgment lien creditor" means a person who obtains a valid judgment of a court
755     of record for recovery of specific property or a sum certain of money, and who in the case of a
756     recovery of money, has a perfected lien under the judgment on the property involved. A
757     judgment lien does not include inchoate liens such as attachment or garnishment liens until
758     they ripen into a judgment. A judgment lien does not include the determination or assessment
759     of a quasi-judicial authority, such as a state or federal taxing authority.
760          (B) "Mechanics' lien holder" means any person who has a lien on real property, or on
761     the proceeds of a contract relating to real property, for services, labor, or materials furnished in
762     connection with the construction or improvement of the property. A person has a lien on the
763     earliest date the lien becomes valid against subsequent purchasers without actual notice, but not
764     before the person begins to furnish the services, labor, or materials.
765          (C) "Person" means:
766          (I) an individual;
767          (II) a trust;
768          (III) an estate;
769          (IV) a partnership;
770          (V) an association;
771          (VI) a company;

772          (VII) a limited liability company;
773          (VIII) a limited liability partnership; or
774          (IX) a corporation.
775          (D) "Purchaser" means a person who, for adequate and full consideration in money or
776     money's worth, acquires an interest, other than a lien or security interest, in property which is
777     valid under state law against subsequent purchasers without actual notice.
778          (E) "Security interest" means any interest in property acquired by contract for the
779     purpose of securing payment or performance of an obligation or indemnifying against loss or
780     liability. A security interest exists at any time:
781          (I) the property is in existence and the interest has become protected under the law
782     against a subsequent judgment lien arising out of an unsecured obligation; and
783          (II) to the extent that, at that time, the holder has parted with money or money's worth.
784          (12) (a) Except in cases involving a violation of unemployment compensation
785     provisions under Section 76-8-1301, 76-8-1302, 76-8-1303, 76-8-1304, Subsection
786     35A-4-304(5), or Subsection 35A-4-405(5), and at the discretion of the division, the division
787     may accept an offer in compromise from an employer or claimant to reduce past due debt
788     arising from contributions or benefit overpayments imposed under this chapter.
789          (b) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
790     division shall make rules for allowing an offer in compromise provided under Subsection
791     (12)(a).
792          Section 7. Section 35A-4-312 is amended to read:
793          35A-4-312. Records.
794          (1) (a) An employing unit shall keep true and accurate work records containing
795     information the department may prescribe by rule.
796          (b) A record shall be open to inspection and subject to being copied by the division or
797     its authorized representatives at a reasonable time and as often as necessary.
798          (c) An employing unit shall make a record available in the state for three years after the
799     calendar year in which the services are rendered.
800          (2) The division may require from an employing unit a sworn or unsworn report with
801     respect to a person employed by the employing unit that the division considers necessary for
802     the effective administration of this chapter.

803          (3) Except as provided in this section or in Sections 35A-4-103 and 35A-4-106,
804     information obtained under this chapter or obtained from an individual may not be published or
805     open to public inspection in a manner revealing the employing unit's or individual's identity.
806          (4) (a) The information obtained by the division under this section may not be used in
807     court or admitted into evidence in an action or proceeding, except:
808          (i) in an action or proceeding arising out of this chapter;
809          (ii) if the Labor Commission enters into a written agreement with the division under
810     Subsection (6)(b), in an action or proceeding by the Labor Commission to enforce:
811          (A) Title 34, Chapter 23, Employment of Minors;
812          (B) Title 34, Chapter 28, Payment of Wages;
813          (C) Title 34, Chapter 40, Utah Minimum Wage Act; or
814          (D) Title 34A, Utah Labor Code;
815          (iii) under the terms of a court order obtained under Subsection 63G-2-202(7) and
816     Section 63G-2-207; or
817          (iv) under the terms of a written agreement between the Office of State Debt Collection
818     and the division as provided in Subsection (5).
819          (b) The information obtained by the division under this section shall be disclosed to:
820          (i) a party to an unemployment insurance hearing before an administrative law judge of
821     the department or a review by the Workforce Appeals Board to the extent necessary for the
822     proper presentation of the party's case; or
823          (ii) an employer, upon request in writing for information concerning a claim for a
824     benefit with respect to a former employee of the employer.
825          (5) The information obtained by the division under this section may be disclosed to:
826          (a) an employee of the department in the performance of the employee's duties in
827     administering this chapter or other programs of the department;
828          (b) an employee of the Labor Commission for the purpose of carrying out the programs
829     administered by the Labor Commission;
830          (c) an employee of the Department of Commerce for the purpose of carrying out the
831     programs administered by the Department of Commerce;
832          (d) an employee of the governor's office or another state governmental agency
833     administratively responsible for statewide economic development, to the extent necessary for

834     economic development policy analysis and formulation;
835          (e) an employee of another governmental agency that is specifically identified and
836     authorized by federal or state law to receive the information for the purposes stated in the law
837     authorizing the employee of the agency to receive the information;
838          (f) an employee of a governmental agency or workers' compensation insurer to the
839     extent the information will aid in:
840          (i) the detection or avoidance of duplicate, inconsistent, or fraudulent claims against:
841          (A) a workers' compensation program; or
842          (B) public assistance funds; or
843          (ii) the recovery of overpayments of workers' compensation or public assistance funds;
844          (g) an employee of a law enforcement agency to the extent the disclosure is necessary
845     to avoid a significant risk to public safety or in aid of a felony criminal investigation;
846          (h) an employee of the State Tax Commission or the Internal Revenue Service for the
847     purposes of:
848          (i) audit verification or simplification;
849          (ii) state or federal tax compliance;
850          (iii) verification of a code or classification of the:
851          (A) 1987 Standard Industrial Classification Manual of the federal Executive Office of
852     the President, Office of Management and Budget; or
853          (B) 2002 North American Industry Classification System of the federal Executive
854     Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget; and
855          (iv) statistics;
856          (i) an employee or contractor of the department or an educational institution, or other
857     governmental entity engaged in workforce investment and development activities under the
858     Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act, 29 U.S.C. Sec. 3101 et seq., for the purpose of:
859          (i) coordinating services with the department;
860          (ii) evaluating the effectiveness of those activities; and
861          (iii) measuring performance;
862          (j) an employee of the Governor's Office of Economic Opportunity, for the purpose of
863     periodically publishing in the Directory of Business and Industry, the name, address, telephone
864     number, number of employees by range, code or classification of an employer, and type of

865     ownership of Utah employers;
866          (k) the public for any purpose following a written waiver by all interested parties of
867     their rights to nondisclosure;
868          (l) an individual whose wage data is submitted to the department by an employer, if no
869     information other than the individual's wage data and the identity of the employer who
870     submitted the information is provided to the individual;
871          (m) an employee of the Insurance Department for the purpose of administering Title
872     31A, Chapter 40, Professional Employer Organization Licensing Act;
873          (n) an employee of the Office of State Debt Collection for the purpose of collecting
874     state accounts receivable as provided in Section 63A-3-502; or
875          (o) a creditor, under a court order, to collect on a judgment as provided in Section
876     35A-4-314.
877          (6) Disclosure of private information under Subsection (4)(a)(ii) or Subsection (5),
878     with the exception of Subsections (5)(a), (g), and (o), may be made if:
879          (a) the division determines that the disclosure will not have a negative effect on:
880          (i) the willingness of employers to report wage and employment information; or
881          (ii) the willingness of individuals to file claims for unemployment benefits; and
882          (b) the agency enters into a written agreement with the division in accordance with
883     rules made by the department.
884          (7) (a) The employees of a division of the department other than the Workforce
885     Research and Analysis Division and the Unemployment Insurance Division or an agency
886     receiving private information from the division under this chapter are subject to the same
887     requirements of privacy and confidentiality and to the same penalties for misuse or improper
888     disclosure of the information as employees of the division.
889          (b) Use of private information obtained from the department by a person or for a
890     purpose other than one authorized in Subsection (4) or (5) violates [Subsection 76-8-1301(4)]
891     Section 76-8-1304.
892          Section 8. Section 53-10-403 is amended to read:
893          53-10-403. DNA specimen analysis -- Application to offenders, including minors.
894          (1) Sections 53-10-403.6, 53-10-404, 53-10-404.5, 53-10-405, and 53-10-406 apply to
895     any person who:

896          (a) has pled guilty to or has been convicted of any of the offenses under Subsection
897     (2)(a) or (b) on or after July 1, 2002;
898          (b) has pled guilty to or has been convicted by any other state or by the United States
899     government of an offense which if committed in this state would be punishable as one or more
900     of the offenses listed in Subsection (2)(a) or (b) on or after July 1, 2003;
901          (c) has been booked on or after January 1, 2011, through December 31, 2014, for any
902     offense under Subsection (2)(c);
903          (d) has been booked:
904          (i) by a law enforcement agency that is obtaining a DNA specimen on or after May 13,
905     2014, through December 31, 2014, under Subsection 53-10-404(4)(b) for any felony offense; or
906          (ii) on or after January 1, 2015, for any felony offense; or
907          (e) is a minor under Subsection (3).
908          (2) Offenses referred to in Subsection (1) are:
909          (a) any felony or class A misdemeanor under the Utah Code;
910          (b) any offense under Subsection (2)(a):
911          (i) for which the court enters a judgment for conviction to a lower degree of offense
912     under Section 76-3-402; or
913          (ii) regarding which the court allows the defendant to enter a plea in abeyance as
914     defined in Section 77-2a-1; or
915          (c) (i) any violent felony as defined in Section 53-10-403.5;
916          (ii) sale or use of body parts, Section 26B-8-315;
917          (iii) failure to stop at an accident that resulted in death, Section 41-6a-401.5;
918          (iv) operating a motor vehicle with any amount of a controlled substance in an
919     individual's body and causing serious bodily injury or death, as codified before May 4, 2022,
920     Laws of Utah 2021, Chapter 236, Section 1, Subsection 58-37-8(2)(g);
921          (v) a felony violation of enticing a minor, Section 76-4-401;
922          (vi) negligently operating a vehicle resulting in injury, Subsection 76-5-102.1(2)(b);
923          (vii) a felony violation of propelling a substance or object at a correctional officer, a
924     peace officer, or an employee or a volunteer, including health care providers, Section
925     76-5-102.6;
926          (viii) negligently operating a vehicle resulting in death, Subsection 76-5-207(2)(b);

927          (ix) aggravated human trafficking, Section 76-5-310, and aggravated human
928     smuggling, Section 76-5-310.1;
929          (x) a felony violation of unlawful sexual activity with a minor, Section 76-5-401;
930          (xi) a felony violation of sexual abuse of a minor, Section 76-5-401.1;
931          (xii) unlawful sexual contact with a 16 or 17-year old, Section 76-5-401.2;
932          (xiii) sale of a child, Section 76-7-203;
933          (xiv) aggravated escape, [Subsection 76-8-309(2)] Section 76-8-309.1;
934          (xv) a felony violation of [assault on an elected official] threatened or attempted assault
935     on an elected official, Section [76-8-315] 76-8-313;
936          (xvi) [influencing, impeding, or retaliating against a judge or member of the Board of
937     Pardons and Parole] threat with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a
938     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a
939     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole, Section 76-8-316;
940          (xvii) assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a judge or
941     a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a judge or a
942     member of the Board of Pardons and Parole, Section 76-8-316.2;
943          (xviii) aggravated assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate
944     against a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family
945     member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole, Section 76-8-316.4;
946          (xix) attempted murder with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against
947     a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a
948     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole, Section 76-8-316.6;
949          [(xvii)] (xx) advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage, Section 76-8-902;
950          [(xviii)] (xxi) [assembly] assembling for advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage,
951     Section 76-8-903;
952          [(xix)] (xxii) a felony violation of sexual battery, Section 76-9-702.1;
953          [(xx)] (xxiii) a felony violation of lewdness involving a child, Section 76-9-702.5;
954          [(xxi)] (xxiv) a felony violation of abuse or desecration of a dead human body, Section
955     76-9-704;
956          [(xxii)] (xxv) manufacture, possession, sale, or use of a weapon of mass destruction,
957     Section 76-10-402;

958          [(xxiii)] (xxvi) manufacture, possession, sale, or use of a hoax weapon of mass
959     destruction, Section 76-10-403;
960          [(xxiv)] (xxvii) possession of a concealed firearm in the commission of a violent
961     felony, Subsection 76-10-504(4);
962          [(xxv)] (xxviii) assault with the intent to commit bus hijacking with a dangerous
963     weapon, Subsection 76-10-1504(3);
964          [(xxvi)] (xxix) commercial obstruction, Subsection 76-10-2402(2);
965          [(xxvii)] (xxx) a felony violation of failure to register as a sex or kidnap offender,
966     Section 77-41-107;
967          [(xxviii)] (xxxi) repeat violation of a protective order, Subsection 77-36-1.1(4); or
968          [(xxix)] (xxxii) violation of condition for release after arrest under Section 78B-7-802.
969          (3) A minor under Subsection (1) is a minor 14 years old or older who is adjudicated
970     by the juvenile court due to the commission of any offense described in Subsection (2), and
971     who:
972          (a) committed an offense under Subsection (2) within the jurisdiction of the juvenile
973     court on or after July 1, 2002; or
974          (b) is in the legal custody of the Division of Juvenile Justice and Youth Services on or
975     after July 1, 2002, for an offense under Subsection (2).
976          Section 9. Section 53B-3-103 is amended to read:
977          53B-3-103. Power of board to adopt rules and enact regulations.
978          (1) The board may enact regulations governing the conduct of university and college
979     students, faculty, and employees.
980          (2) (a) The board may:
981          (i) enact and authorize higher education institutions to enact traffic, parking, and
982     related regulations governing all individuals on campuses and other facilities owned or
983     controlled by the institutions or the board; and
984          (ii) acknowledging that the Legislature has the authority to regulate, by law, firearms at
985     higher education institutions:
986          (A) authorize higher education institutions to establish no more than one secure area at
987     each institution as a hearing room as prescribed in Section 76-8-311.1, but not otherwise
988     restrict the lawful possession or carrying of firearms; and

989          (B) authorize a higher education institution to make a rule that allows a resident of a
990     dormitory located at the institution to request only roommates who are not licensed to carry a
991     concealed firearm under Section 53-5-704 or 53-5-705.
992          (b) In addition to the requirements and penalty prescribed in [Subsections
993     76-8-311.1(3), (4), (5), and (6)] Sections 76-8-311.1 and 76-8-311.2, the board shall make rules
994     to ensure that:
995          (i) reasonable means such as mechanical, electronic, x-ray, or similar devices are used
996     to detect firearms, ammunition, or dangerous weapons contained in the personal property of or
997     on the person of any individual attempting to enter a secure area hearing room;
998          (ii) an individual required or requested to attend a hearing in a secure area hearing
999     room is notified in writing of the requirements related to entering a secured area hearing room
1000     under this Subsection (2)(b) and Section 76-8-311.1;
1001          (iii) the restriction of firearms, ammunition, or dangerous weapons in the secure area
1002     hearing room is in effect only during the time the secure area hearing room is in use for
1003     hearings and for a reasonable time before and after its use; and
1004          (iv) reasonable space limitations are applied to the secure area hearing room as
1005     warranted by the number of individuals involved in a typical hearing.
1006          (c) (i) The board may not require proof of vaccination as a condition for enrollment or
1007     attendance within the system of higher education unless the board allows for the following
1008     exemptions:
1009          (A) a medical exemption if the student provides to the institution a statement that the
1010     claimed exemption is for a medical reason; and
1011          (B) a personal exemption if the student provides to the institution a statement that the
1012     claimed exemption is for a personal or religious belief.
1013          (ii) An institution that offers both remote and in-person learning options may not deny
1014     a student who is exempt from a requirement to receive a vaccine under Subsection (2)(c)(i) to
1015     participate in an in-person learning option based upon the student's vaccination status.
1016          (iii) Subsections (2)(c)(i) and (ii) do not apply to a student studying in a medical setting
1017     at an institution of higher education.
1018          (iv) Nothing in this section restricts a state or local health department from acting
1019     under applicable law to contain the spread of an infectious disease.

1020          (d) (i) For purposes of this Subsection (2)(d), "face covering" means the same as that
1021     term is defined in Section 53G-9-210.
1022          (ii) The board may not require an individual to wear a face covering as a condition of
1023     attendance for in-person instruction, institution-sponsored athletics, institution-sponsored
1024     extracurricular activities, in dormitories, or in any other place on a campus of an institution
1025     within the system of higher education at any time after the end of the spring semester in 2021.
1026          (iii) Subsection (2)(d)(ii) does not apply to an individual in a medical setting at an
1027     institution of higher education.
1028          (3) The board shall enact regulations that require all testimony be given under oath
1029     during an employee grievance hearing for a non-faculty employee of an institution of higher
1030     education if the grievance hearing relates to the non-faculty employee's:
1031          (a) demotion; or
1032          (b) termination.
1033          (4) The board and institutions may enforce these rules and regulations in any
1034     reasonable manner, including the assessment of fees, fines, and forfeitures, the collection of
1035     which may be by withholding from money owed the violator, the imposition of probation,
1036     suspension, or expulsion from the institution, the revocation of privileges, the refusal to issue
1037     certificates, degrees, and diplomas, through judicial process or any reasonable combination of
1038     these alternatives.
1039          Section 10. Section 53B-20-107 is enacted to read:
1040          53B-20-107. Powers of chief administrative officer to order individuals off an
1041     institution of higher education's property.
1042          (1) As used in this section:
1043          (a) "Chief administrative officer" means the president of an institution or an individual
1044     designated by the president.
1045          (b) "Institution of higher education" means:
1046          (i) a state institution of higher education as defined in Section 53B-3-102; or
1047          (ii) a private institution of higher education in the state accredited by a regional or
1048     national accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education.
1049          (2) It is the purpose of this section to:
1050          (a) supplement and clarify the power vested in the governing board of each institution

1051     of higher education; and
1052          (b) regulate, conduct, and enforce law and order on property owned, operated, or
1053     controlled by each institution of higher education.
1054          (3) A chief administrative officer may order an individual to leave property that is
1055     owned, operated, or controlled by an institution of higher education if:
1056          (a) the individual acts, or if the chief administrative officer has reasonable cause to
1057     believe that the individual intends to act, to:
1058          (i) cause injury to an individual;
1059          (ii) cause damage to property;
1060          (iii) commit a crime;
1061          (iv) interfere with the peaceful conduct of the activities of the institution of higher
1062     education;
1063          (v) violate a rule or regulation of the institution of higher education if that rule or
1064     regulation is not in conflict with state law; or
1065          (vi) disrupt the institution of higher education, the institution's pupils, or the institution
1066     of higher education's activities; or
1067          (b) the individual is reckless as to whether the individual's actions will cause fear for
1068     the safety of another individual.
1069          (4) (a) If a law enforcement agency or security department of an institution of higher
1070     education lacks sufficient manpower to deal effectively with a condition of unrest existing or
1071     developing on a campus or related facility of the institution of higher education in the judgment
1072     of the chief administrative officer, the chief administrative officer may call for assistance from
1073     the county sheriff of the county, a city law enforcement agency, or the Department of Public
1074     Safety.
1075          (b) Upon receipt of the request under Subsection (4)(a), the county sheriff, a city law
1076     enforcement agency, or the Department of Public Safety must render all necessary assistance
1077     without expense to the institution of higher education.
1078          (c) All personnel while rendering assistance to the institution of higher education shall
1079     serve under the general direction of the chief administrative officer.
1080          (5) Nothing in this section shall limit:
1081          (a) the right or duty of a local law enforcement agency to enforce the law which the

1082     local law enforcement agency had prior to this enactment; or
1083          (b) the right of a state or local law enforcement agency to enforce the laws of this state.
1084          Section 11. Section 59-1-401 is amended to read:
1085          59-1-401. Definitions -- Offenses and penalties -- Rulemaking authority -- Statute
1086     of limitations -- Commission authority to waive, reduce, or compromise penalty or
1087     interest.
1088          (1) As used in this section:
1089          (a) "Tax, fee, or charge" means:
1090          (i) a tax, fee, or charge the commission administers under:
1091          (A) this title;
1092          (B) Title 10, Chapter 1, Part 3, Municipal Energy Sales and Use Tax Act;
1093          (C) Title 10, Chapter 1, Part 4, Municipal Telecommunications License Tax Act;
1094          (D) Section 19-6-410.5;
1095          (E) Section 19-6-714;
1096          (F) Section 19-6-805;
1097          (G) Section 34A-2-202;
1098          (H) Section 40-6-14; or
1099          (I) Title 69, Chapter 2, Part 4, Prepaid Wireless Telecommunications Service Charges;
1100     or
1101          (ii) another amount that by statute is subject to a penalty imposed under this section.
1102          (b) "Tax, fee, or charge" does not include a tax, fee, or charge imposed under:
1103          (i) Title 41, Chapter 1a, Motor Vehicle Act, except for Section 41-1a-301;
1104          (ii) Title 41, Chapter 3, Motor Vehicle Business Regulation Act;
1105          (iii) Chapter 2, Property Tax Act, except for Section 59-2-1309;
1106          (iv) Chapter 3, Tax Equivalent Property Act; or
1107          (v) Chapter 4, Privilege Tax.
1108          (2) (a) The due date for filing a return is:
1109          (i) if the person filing the return is not allowed by law an extension of time for filing
1110     the return, the day on which the return is due as provided by law; or
1111          (ii) if the person filing the return is allowed by law an extension of time for filing the
1112     return, the earlier of:

1113          (A) the date the person files the return; or
1114          (B) the last day of that extension of time as allowed by law.
1115          (b) A penalty in the amount described in Subsection (2)(c) is imposed if a person files a
1116     return after the due date described in Subsection (2)(a).
1117          (c) For purposes of Subsection (2)(b), the penalty is an amount equal to the greater of:
1118          (i) $20; or
1119          (ii) (A) 2% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the return is filed no
1120     later than five days after the due date described in Subsection (2)(a);
1121          (B) 5% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the return is filed more
1122     than five days after the due date but no later than 15 days after the due date described in
1123     Subsection (2)(a); or
1124          (C) 10% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the return is filed more
1125     than 15 days after the due date described in Subsection (2)(a).
1126          (d) This Subsection (2) does not apply to:
1127          (i) an amended return; or
1128          (ii) a return with no tax due.
1129          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (15), a person is subject to a penalty for
1130     failure to pay a tax, fee, or charge if:
1131          (i) the person files a return on or before the due date for filing a return described in
1132     Subsection (2)(a), but fails to pay the tax, fee, or charge due on the return on or before that due
1133     date;
1134          (ii) the person:
1135          (A) is subject to a penalty under Subsection (2)(b); and
1136          (B) fails to pay the tax, fee, or charge due on a return within a 90-day period after the
1137     due date for filing a return described in Subsection (2)(a);
1138          (iii) (A) the person is subject to a penalty under Subsection (2)(b); and
1139          (B) the commission estimates an amount of tax due for that person in accordance with
1140     Subsection 59-1-1406(2);
1141          (iv) the person:
1142          (A) is mailed a notice of deficiency; and
1143          (B) within a 30-day period after the day on which the notice of deficiency described in

1144     Subsection (3)(a)(iv)(A) is mailed:
1145          (I) does not file a petition for redetermination or a request for agency action; and
1146          (II) fails to pay the tax, fee, or charge due on a return;
1147          (v) (A) the commission:
1148          (I) issues an order constituting final agency action resulting from a timely filed petition
1149     for redetermination or a timely filed request for agency action; or
1150          (II) is considered to have denied a request for reconsideration under Subsection
1151     63G-4-302(3)(b) resulting from a timely filed petition for redetermination or a timely filed
1152     request for agency action; and
1153          (B) the person fails to pay the tax, fee, or charge due on a return within a 30-day period
1154     after the date the commission:
1155          (I) issues the order constituting final agency action described in Subsection
1156     (3)(a)(v)(A)(I); or
1157          (II) is considered to have denied the request for reconsideration described in
1158     Subsection (3)(a)(v)(A)(II); or
1159          (vi) the person fails to pay the tax, fee, or charge within a 30-day period after the date
1160     of a final judicial decision resulting from a timely filed petition for judicial review.
1161          (b) For purposes of Subsection (3)(a), the penalty is an amount equal to the greater of:
1162          (i) $20; or
1163          (ii) (A) 2% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the activated tax, fee,
1164     or charge due on the return is paid no later than five days after the due date for filing a return
1165     described in Subsection (2)(a);
1166          (B) 5% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the activated tax, fee, or
1167     charge due on the return is paid more than five days after the due date for filing a return
1168     described in Subsection (2)(a) but no later than 15 days after that due date; or
1169          (C) 10% of the unpaid tax, fee, or charge due on the return if the activated tax, fee, or
1170     charge due on the return is paid more than 15 days after the due date for filing a return
1171     described in Subsection (2)(a).
1172          (4) (a) In the case of any underpayment of estimated tax or quarterly installments
1173     required by Sections 59-5-107, 59-5-207, 59-7-504, and 59-9-104, there shall be added a
1174     penalty in an amount determined by applying the interest rate provided under Section 59-1-402

1175     plus four percentage points to the amount of the underpayment for the period of the
1176     underpayment.
1177          (b) (i) For purposes of Subsection (4)(a), the amount of the underpayment shall be the
1178     excess of the required installment over the amount, if any, of the installment paid on or before
1179     the due date for the installment.
1180          (ii) The period of the underpayment shall run from the due date for the installment to
1181     whichever of the following dates is the earlier:
1182          (A) the original due date of the tax return, without extensions, for the taxable year; or
1183          (B) with respect to any portion of the underpayment, the date on which that portion is
1184     paid.
1185          (iii) For purposes of this Subsection (4), a payment of estimated tax shall be credited
1186     against unpaid required installments in the order in which the installments are required to be
1187     paid.
1188          (5) (a) Notwithstanding Subsection (2) and except as provided in Subsection (6), a
1189     person allowed by law an extension of time for filing a corporate franchise or income tax return
1190     under Chapter 7, Corporate Franchise and Income Taxes, or an individual income tax return
1191     under Chapter 10, Individual Income Tax Act, is subject to a penalty in the amount described in
1192     Subsection (5)(b) if, on or before the day on which the return is due as provided by law, not
1193     including the extension of time, the person fails to pay:
1194          (i) for a person filing a corporate franchise or income tax return under Chapter 7,
1195     Corporate Franchise and Income Taxes, the payment required by Subsection 59-7-507(1)(b); or
1196          (ii) for a person filing an individual income tax return under Chapter 10, Individual
1197     Income Tax Act, the payment required by Subsection 59-10-516(2).
1198          (b) For purposes of Subsection (5)(a), the penalty per month during the period of the
1199     extension of time for filing the return is an amount equal to 2% of the tax due on the return,
1200     unpaid as of the day on which the return is due as provided by law.
1201          (6) If a person does not file a return within an extension of time allowed by Section
1202     59-7-505 or 59-10-516, the person:
1203          (a) is not subject to a penalty in the amount described in Subsection (5)(b); and
1204          (b) is subject to a penalty in an amount equal to the sum of:
1205          (i) a late file penalty in an amount equal to the greater of:

1206          (A) $20; or
1207          (B) 10% of the tax due on the return, unpaid as of the day on which the return is due as
1208     provided by law, not including the extension of time; and
1209          (ii) a late pay penalty in an amount equal to the greater of:
1210          (A) $20; or
1211          (B) 10% of the unpaid tax due on the return, unpaid as of the day on which the return is
1212     due as provided by law, not including the extension of time.
1213          (7) (a) Additional penalties for an underpayment of a tax, fee, or charge are as provided
1214     in this Subsection (7)(a).
1215          (i) Except as provided in Subsection (7)(c), if any portion of an underpayment of a tax,
1216     fee, or charge is due to negligence, the penalty is 10% of the portion of the underpayment that
1217     is due to negligence.
1218          (ii) Except as provided in Subsection (7)(d), if any portion of an underpayment of a
1219     tax, fee, or charge is due to intentional disregard of law or rule, the penalty is 15% of the entire
1220     underpayment.
1221          (iii) If any portion of an underpayment is due to an intent to evade a tax, fee, or charge,
1222     the penalty is the greater of $500 per period or 50% of the entire underpayment.
1223          (iv) If any portion of an underpayment is due to fraud with intent to evade a tax, fee, or
1224     charge, the penalty is the greater of $500 per period or 100% of the entire underpayment.
1225          (b) If the commission determines that a person is liable for a penalty imposed under
1226     Subsection (7)(a)(ii), (iii), or (iv), the commission shall notify the person of the proposed
1227     penalty.
1228          (i) The notice of proposed penalty shall:
1229          (A) set forth the basis of the assessment; and
1230          (B) be mailed by certified mail, postage prepaid, to the person's last-known address.
1231          (ii) Upon receipt of the notice of proposed penalty, the person against whom the
1232     penalty is proposed may:
1233          (A) pay the amount of the proposed penalty at the place and time stated in the notice;
1234     or
1235          (B) proceed in accordance with the review procedures of Subsection (7)(b)(iii).
1236          (iii) A person against whom a penalty is proposed in accordance with this Subsection

1237     (7) may contest the proposed penalty by filing a petition for an adjudicative proceeding with
1238     the commission.
1239          (iv) (A) If the commission determines that a person is liable for a penalty under this
1240     Subsection (7), the commission shall assess the penalty and give notice and demand for
1241     payment.
1242          (B) The commission shall mail the notice and demand for payment described in
1243     Subsection (7)(b)(iv)(A):
1244          (I) to the person's last-known address; and
1245          (II) in accordance with Section 59-1-1404.
1246          (c) A seller that voluntarily collects a tax under Subsection 59-12-107(2)(d) is not
1247     subject to the penalty under Subsection (7)(a)(i) if on or after July 1, 2001:
1248          (i) a court of competent jurisdiction issues a final unappealable judgment or order
1249     determining that:
1250          (A) the seller meets one or more of the criteria described in Subsection 59-12-107(2)(a)
1251     or is a seller required to pay or collect and remit sales and use taxes under Subsection
1252     59-12-107(2)(b) or (2)(c); and
1253          (B) the commission or a county, city, or town may require the seller to collect a tax
1254     under Subsections 59-12-103(2)(a) through (e); or
1255          (ii) the commission issues a final unappealable administrative order determining that:
1256          (A) the seller meets one or more of the criteria described in Subsection 59-12-107(2)(a)
1257     or is a seller required to pay or collect and remit sales and use taxes under Subsection
1258     59-12-107(2)(b) or (2)(c); and
1259          (B) the commission or a county, city, or town may require the seller to collect a tax
1260     under Subsections 59-12-103(2)(a) through (e).
1261          (d) A seller that voluntarily collects a tax under Subsection 59-12-107(2)(d) is not
1262     subject to the penalty under Subsection (7)(a)(ii) if:
1263          (i) (A) a court of competent jurisdiction issues a final unappealable judgment or order
1264     determining that:
1265          (I) the seller meets one or more of the criteria described in Subsection 59-12-107(2)(a)
1266     or is a seller required to pay or collect and remit sales and use taxes under Subsection
1267     59-12-107(2)(b) or (2)(c); and

1268          (II) the commission or a county, city, or town may require the seller to collect a tax
1269     under Subsections 59-12-103(2)(a) through (e); or
1270          (B) the commission issues a final unappealable administrative order determining that:
1271          (I) the seller meets one or more of the criteria described in Subsection 59-12-107(2)(a)
1272     or is a seller required to pay or collect and remit sales and use taxes under Subsection
1273     59-12-107(2)(b) or (2)(c); and
1274          (II) the commission or a county, city, or town may require the seller to collect a tax
1275     under Subsections 59-12-103(2)(a) through (e); and
1276          (ii) the seller's intentional disregard of law or rule is warranted by existing law or by a
1277     nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the
1278     establishment of new law.
1279          (8) (a) Subject to Subsections (8)(b) and (c), the penalty for failure to file an
1280     information return, information report, or a complete supporting schedule is $50 for each
1281     information return, information report, or supporting schedule up to a maximum of $1,000.
1282          (b) If an employer is subject to a penalty under Subsection (13), the employer may not
1283     be subject to a penalty under Subsection (8)(a).
1284          (c) If an employer is subject to a penalty under this Subsection (8) for failure to file a
1285     return in accordance with Subsection 59-10-406(3) on or before the due date described in
1286     Subsection 59-10-406(3)(b)(ii), the commission may not impose a penalty under this
1287     Subsection (8) unless the return is filed more than 14 days after the due date described in
1288     Subsection 59-10-406(3)(b)(ii).
1289          (9) If a person, in furtherance of a frivolous position, has a prima facie intent to delay
1290     or impede administration of a law relating to a tax, fee, or charge and files a purported return
1291     that fails to contain information from which the correctness of reported tax, fee, or charge
1292     liability can be determined or that clearly indicates that the tax, fee, or charge liability shown is
1293     substantially incorrect, the penalty is $500.
1294          (10) (a) A seller that fails to remit a tax, fee, or charge monthly as required by
1295     Subsection 59-12-108(1)(a):
1296          (i) is subject to a penalty described in Subsection (2); and
1297          (ii) may not retain the percentage of sales and use taxes that would otherwise be
1298     allowable under Subsection 59-12-108(2).

1299          (b) A seller that fails to remit a tax, fee, or charge by electronic funds transfer as
1300     required by Subsection 59-12-108(1)(a)(ii)(B):
1301          (i) is subject to a penalty described in Subsection (2); and
1302          (ii) may not retain the percentage of sales and use taxes that would otherwise be
1303     allowable under Subsection 59-12-108(2).
1304          (11) (a) A person is subject to the penalty provided in Subsection (11)(c) if that person:
1305          (i) commits an act described in Subsection (11)(b) with respect to one or more of the
1306     following documents:
1307          (A) a return;
1308          (B) an affidavit;
1309          (C) a claim; or
1310          (D) a document similar to Subsections (11)(a)(i)(A) through (C);
1311          (ii) knows or has reason to believe that the document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i)
1312     will be used in connection with any material matter administered by the commission; and
1313          (iii) knows that the document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i), if used in connection
1314     with any material matter administered by the commission, would result in an understatement of
1315     another person's liability for a tax, fee, or charge.
1316          (b) The following acts apply to Subsection (11)(a)(i):
1317          (i) preparing any portion of a document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i);
1318          (ii) presenting any portion of a document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i);
1319          (iii) procuring any portion of a document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i);
1320          (iv) advising in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described
1321     in Subsection (11)(a)(i);
1322          (v) aiding in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described in
1323     Subsection (11)(a)(i);
1324          (vi) assisting in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described
1325     in Subsection (11)(a)(i); or
1326          (vii) counseling in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document
1327     described in Subsection (11)(a)(i).
1328          (c) For purposes of Subsection (11)(a), the penalty:
1329          (i) shall be imposed by the commission;

1330          (ii) is $500 for each document described in Subsection (11)(a)(i) with respect to which
1331     the person described in Subsection (11)(a) meets the requirements of Subsection (11)(a); and
1332          (iii) is in addition to any other penalty provided by law.
1333          (d) The commission may seek a court order to enjoin a person from engaging in
1334     conduct that is subject to a penalty under this Subsection (11).
1335          (e) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
1336     commission may make rules prescribing the documents that are similar to Subsections
1337     (11)(a)(i)(A) through (C).
1338          (12) (a) [As provided in Section 76-8-1101, criminal] Criminal offenses and penalties
1339     are [as] provided in Subsections (12)(b) through (e).
1340          (b) (i) A person who is required by this title or any laws the commission administers or
1341     regulates to register with or obtain a license or permit from the commission, who operates
1342     without having registered or secured a license or permit, or who operates when the registration,
1343     license, or permit is expired or not current, is guilty of a class B misdemeanor.
1344          (ii) Notwithstanding Section 76-3-301, for purposes of Subsection (12)(b)(i), the
1345     penalty may not:
1346          (A) be less than $500; or
1347          (B) exceed $1,000.
1348          (c) (i) With respect to a tax, fee, or charge, a person who knowingly and intentionally,
1349     and without a reasonable good faith basis, fails to make, render, sign, or verify a return within
1350     the time required by law or to supply information within the time required by law, or who
1351     makes, renders, signs, or verifies a false or fraudulent return or statement, or who supplies false
1352     or fraudulent information, is guilty of a third degree felony.
1353          (ii) Notwithstanding Section 76-3-301, for purposes of Subsection (12)(c)(i), the
1354     penalty may not:
1355          (A) be less than $1,000; or
1356          (B) exceed $5,000.
1357          (d) (i) A person who intentionally or willfully attempts to evade or defeat a tax, fee, or
1358     charge or the payment of a tax, fee, or charge is, in addition to other penalties provided by law,
1359     guilty of a second degree felony.
1360          (ii) Notwithstanding Section 76-3-301, for purposes of Subsection (12)(d)(i), the

1361     penalty may not:
1362          (A) be less than $1,500; or
1363          (B) exceed $25,000.
1364          (e) (i) A person is guilty of a second degree felony if that person commits an act:
1365          (A) described in Subsection (12)(e)(ii) with respect to one or more of the following
1366     documents:
1367          (I) a return;
1368          (II) an affidavit;
1369          (III) a claim; or
1370          (IV) a document similar to Subsections (12)(e)(i)(A)(I) through (III); and
1371          (B) subject to Subsection (12)(e)(iii), with knowledge that the document described in
1372     Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A):
1373          (I) is false or fraudulent as to any material matter; and
1374          (II) could be used in connection with any material matter administered by the
1375     commission.
1376          (ii) The following acts apply to Subsection (12)(e)(i):
1377          (A) preparing any portion of a document described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A);
1378          (B) presenting any portion of a document described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A);
1379          (C) procuring any portion of a document described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A);
1380          (D) advising in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described
1381     in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A);
1382          (E) aiding in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described in
1383     Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A);
1384          (F) assisting in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document described
1385     in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A); or
1386          (G) counseling in the preparation or presentation of any portion of a document
1387     described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A).
1388          (iii) This Subsection (12)(e) applies:
1389          (A) regardless of whether the person for which the document described in Subsection
1390     (12)(e)(i)(A) is prepared or presented:
1391          (I) knew of the falsity of the document described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A); or

1392          (II) consented to the falsity of the document described in Subsection (12)(e)(i)(A); and
1393          (B) in addition to any other penalty provided by law.
1394          (iv) Notwithstanding Section 76-3-301, for purposes of this Subsection (12)(e), the
1395     penalty may not:
1396          (A) be less than $1,500; or
1397          (B) exceed $25,000.
1398          (v) The commission may seek a court order to enjoin a person from engaging in
1399     conduct that is subject to a penalty under this Subsection (12)(e).
1400          (vi) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act,
1401     the commission may make rules prescribing the documents that are similar to Subsections
1402     (12)(e)(i)(A)(I) through (III).
1403          (f) The statute of limitations for prosecution for a violation of this Subsection (12) is
1404     the later of six years:
1405          (i) from the date the tax should have been remitted; or
1406          (ii) after the day on which the person commits the criminal offense.
1407          (13) (a) Subject to Subsection (13)(b), an employer that is required to file a form with
1408     the commission in accordance with Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9) is subject to a penalty
1409     described in Subsection (13)(b) if the employer:
1410          (i) fails to file the form with the commission in an electronic format approved by the
1411     commission as required by Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9);
1412          (ii) fails to file the form on or before the due date provided in Subsection 59-10-406(8)
1413     or (9);
1414          (iii) fails to provide accurate information on the form; or
1415          (iv) fails to provide all of the information required by the Internal Revenue Service to
1416     be contained on the form.
1417          (b) For purposes of Subsection (13)(a), the penalty is:
1418          (i) $30 per form, not to exceed $75,000 in a calendar year, if the employer files the
1419     form in accordance with Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9), more than 14 days after the due date
1420     provided in Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9) but no later than 30 days after the due date
1421     provided in Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9);
1422          (ii) $60 per form, not to exceed $200,000 in a calendar year, if the employer files the

1423     form in accordance with Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9), more than 30 days after the due date
1424     provided in Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9) but on or before June 1; or
1425          (iii) $100 per form, not to exceed $500,000 in a calendar year, if the employer:
1426          (A) files the form in accordance with Subsection 59-10-406(8) or (9) after June 1; or
1427          (B) fails to file the form.
1428          (14) Upon making a record of the commission's actions, and upon reasonable cause
1429     shown, the commission may waive, reduce, or compromise any of the penalties or interest
1430     imposed under this part.
1431          (15) Failure to pay a tax described in Subsection 59-10-1403.2(2) shall be subject to a
1432     penalty as described in Subsection (3) except that the penalty shall be:
1433          (a) assessed only if the pass-through entity reports tax paid on a Utah Schedule K-1 but
1434     does not pay some or all of the tax reported; and
1435          (b) calculated based on the difference between the amount of tax reported and the
1436     amount of tax paid.
1437          Section 12. Section 63G-12-402 is amended to read:
1438          63G-12-402. Receipt of state, local, or federal public benefits -- Verification --
1439     Exceptions -- Fraudulently obtaining benefits -- Criminal penalties -- Annual report.
1440          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3) or when exempted by federal law, an
1441     agency or political subdivision of the state shall verify the lawful presence in the United States
1442     of an individual at least 18 years old who applies for:
1443          (i) a state or local public benefit as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1621; or
1444          (ii) a federal public benefit as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1611, that is administered by an
1445     agency or political subdivision of this state.
1446          (b) For purpose of a license issued under Title 58, Chapter 55, Utah Construction
1447     Trades Licensing Act, to an applicant that is an unincorporated entity, the Department of
1448     Commerce shall verify in accordance with this Subsection (1) the lawful presence in the United
1449     States of each individual who:
1450          (i) owns an interest in the contractor that is an unincorporated entity; and
1451          (ii) engages, or will engage, in a construction trade in Utah as an owner of the
1452     contractor described in Subsection (1)(b)(i).
1453          (2) This section shall be enforced without regard to race, religion, gender, ethnicity, or

1454     national origin.
1455          (3) Verification of lawful presence under this section is not required for:
1456          (a) any purpose for which lawful presence in the United States is not restricted by law,
1457     ordinance, or regulation;
1458          (b) assistance for health care items and services that:
1459          (i) are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical condition, as defined in 42
1460     U.S.C. Sec. 1396b(v)(3), of the individual involved; and
1461          (ii) are not related to an organ transplant procedure;
1462          (c) short-term, noncash, in-kind emergency disaster relief;
1463          (d) public health assistance for immunizations with respect to immunizable diseases
1464     and for testing and treatment of symptoms of communicable diseases whether or not the
1465     symptoms are caused by the communicable disease;
1466          (e) programs, services, or assistance such as soup kitchens, crisis counseling and
1467     intervention, and short-term shelter, specified by the United States Attorney General, in the
1468     sole and unreviewable discretion of the United States Attorney General after consultation with
1469     appropriate federal agencies and departments, that:
1470          (i) deliver in-kind services at the community level, including through public or private
1471     nonprofit agencies;
1472          (ii) do not condition the provision of assistance, the amount of assistance provided, or
1473     the cost of assistance provided on the income or resources of the individual recipient; and
1474          (iii) are necessary for the protection of life or safety;
1475          (f) the exemption for paying the nonresident portion of total tuition as set forth in
1476     Section 53B-8-106;
1477          (g) an applicant for a license under Section 61-1-4, if the applicant:
1478          (i) is registered with the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority; and
1479          (ii) files an application with the state Division of Securities through the Central
1480     Registration Depository;
1481          (h) a state public benefit to be given to an individual under Title 49, Utah State
1482     Retirement and Insurance Benefit Act;
1483          (i) a home loan that will be insured, guaranteed, or purchased by:
1484          (i) the Federal Housing Administration, the Veterans Administration, or any other

1485     federal agency; or
1486          (ii) an enterprise as defined in 12 U.S.C. Sec. 4502;
1487          (j) a subordinate loan or a grant that will be made to an applicant in connection with a
1488     home loan that does not require verification under Subsection (3)(i);
1489          (k) an applicant for a license issued by the Department of Commerce or individual
1490     described in Subsection (1)(b), if the applicant or individual provides the Department of
1491     Commerce:
1492          (i) certification, under penalty of perjury, that the applicant or individual is:
1493          (A) a United States citizen;
1494          (B) a qualified alien as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1641; or
1495          (C) lawfully present in the United States; and
1496          (ii) (A) the number assigned to a driver license or identification card issued under Title
1497     53, Chapter 3, Uniform Driver License Act; or
1498          (B) the number assigned to a driver license or identification card issued by a state other
1499     than Utah if, as part of issuing the driver license or identification card, the state verifies an
1500     individual's lawful presence in the United States; and
1501          (l) an applicant for:
1502          (i) an Opportunity scholarship described in Title 53B, Chapter 8, Part 2, Regents'
1503     Scholarship Program;
1504          (ii) a New Century scholarship described in Section 53B-8-105;
1505          (iii) a promise grant described in Section 53B-13a-104; or
1506          (iv) a scholarship:
1507          (A) for an individual who is a graduate of a high school located within Utah; and
1508          (B) administered by an institution of higher education as defined in Section 53B-2-101.
1509          (4) (a) An agency or political subdivision required to verify the lawful presence in the
1510     United States of an applicant under this section shall require the applicant to certify under
1511     penalty of perjury that:
1512          (i) the applicant is a United States citizen; or
1513          (ii) the applicant is:
1514          (A) a qualified alien as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1641; and
1515          (B) lawfully present in the United States.

1516          (b) The certificate required under this Subsection (4) shall include a statement advising
1517     the signer that providing false information subjects the signer to penalties for perjury.
1518          (5) An agency or political subdivision shall verify a certification required under
1519     Subsection (4)(a)(ii) through the federal SAVE program.
1520          (6) (a) An individual who knowingly and willfully makes a false, fictitious, or
1521     fraudulent statement or representation in a certification under Subsection (3)(k) or (4) is subject
1522     to the criminal penalties applicable in this state for:
1523          (i) making a written false statement under Section 76-8-504; and
1524          (ii) fraudulently obtaining:
1525          (A) public assistance program benefits under [Sections 76-8-1205 and 76-8-1206]
1526     Section 76-8-1203.1; or
1527          (B) unemployment compensation under Section 76-8-1301, 76-8-1302, 76-8-1303, or
1528     76-8-1304.
1529          (b) If the certification constitutes a false claim of United States citizenship under 18
1530     U.S.C. Sec. 911, the agency or political subdivision shall file a complaint with the United
1531     States Attorney General for the applicable district based upon the venue in which the
1532     application was made.
1533          (c) If an agency or political subdivision receives verification that a person making an
1534     application for a benefit, service, or license is not a qualified alien, the agency or political
1535     subdivision shall provide the information to the Office of the Attorney General unless
1536     prohibited by federal mandate.
1537          (7) An agency or political subdivision may adopt variations to the requirements of this
1538     section that:
1539          (a) clearly improve the efficiency of or reduce delay in the verification process; or
1540          (b) provide for adjudication of unique individual circumstances where the verification
1541     procedures in this section would impose an unusual hardship on a legal resident of Utah.
1542          (8) It is unlawful for an agency or a political subdivision of this state to provide a state,
1543     local, or federal benefit, as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1611 and 1621, in violation of this section.
1544          (9) A state agency or department that administers a program of state or local public
1545     benefits shall:
1546          (a) provide an annual report to the governor, the president of the Senate, and the

1547     speaker of the House regarding its compliance with this section; and
1548          (b) (i) monitor the federal SAVE program for application verification errors and
1549     significant delays;
1550          (ii) provide an annual report on the errors and delays to ensure that the application of
1551     the federal SAVE program is not erroneously denying a state or local benefit to a legal resident
1552     of the state; and
1553          (iii) report delays and errors in the federal SAVE program to the United States
1554     Department of Homeland Security.
1555          Section 13. Section 64-13-14.5 is amended to read:
1556          64-13-14.5. Limits of confinement place -- Release status -- Work release.
1557          (1) The department may extend the limits of the place of confinement of an inmate
1558     when, as established by department policies and procedures, there is cause to believe the
1559     inmate will honor the trust, by authorizing the inmate under prescribed conditions:
1560          (a) to leave temporarily for purposes specified by department policies and procedures
1561     to visit specifically designated places for a period not to exceed 30 days;
1562          (b) to participate in a voluntary training program in the community while housed at a
1563     correctional facility or to work at paid employment;
1564          (c) to be housed in a nonsecure community correctional center operated by the
1565     department; or
1566          (d) to be housed in any other facility under contract with the department.
1567          (2) The department shall establish rules governing offenders on release status. A copy
1568     of the rules shall be furnished to the offender and to any employer or other person participating
1569     in the offender's release program. Any employer or other participating person shall agree in
1570     writing to abide by the rules and to notify the department of the offender's discharge or other
1571     release from a release program activity, or of any violation of the rules governing release status.
1572          (3) The willful failure of an inmate to remain within the extended limits of his
1573     confinement or to return within the time prescribed to an institution or facility designated by
1574     the department is an escape from custody.
1575          (4) If an offender is arrested for the commission of a crime, the arresting authority shall
1576     immediately notify the department of the arrest.
1577          (5) The department may impose appropriate sanctions pursuant to Section 64-13-21

1578     upon offenders who violate guidelines established by the Utah Sentencing Commission,
1579     including prosecution for escape under Section 76-8-309 or 76-8-309.1 and for unauthorized
1580     absence.
1581          (6) An inmate who is housed at a nonsecure correctional facility and on work release
1582     may not be required to work for less than the current federally established minimum wage, or
1583     under substandard working conditions.
1584          Section 14. Section 76-1-301 is amended to read:
1585          76-1-301. Offenses for which prosecution may be commenced at any time.
1586          (1) As used in this section:
1587          (a) "Aggravating offense" means any offense incident to which a homicide was
1588     committed as described in Subsection 76-5-202(2)(a)(iv) or (v) or Subsection 76-5-202(2)(b).
1589          (b) "Predicate offense" means an offense described in Subsection 76-5-203(1)(a) if a
1590     person other than a party as defined in Section 76-2-202 was killed in the course of the
1591     commission, attempted commission, or immediate flight from the commission or attempted
1592     commission of the offense.
1593          (2) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this code, prosecution for the following
1594     offenses may be commenced at any time:
1595          (a) an offense classified as a capital felony under Section 76-3-103;
1596          (b) aggravated murder under Section 76-5-202;
1597          (c) murder under Section 76-5-203;
1598          (d) manslaughter under Section 76-5-205;
1599          (e) child abuse homicide under Section 76-5-208;
1600          (f) aggravated kidnapping under Section 76-5-302;
1601          (g) child kidnapping under Section 76-5-301.1;
1602          (h) rape under Section 76-5-402;
1603          (i) rape of a child under Section 76-5-402.1;
1604          (j) object rape under Section 76-5-402.2;
1605          (k) object rape of a child under Section 76-5-402.3;
1606          (l) forcible sodomy under Section 76-5-403;
1607          (m) sodomy on a child under Section 76-5-403.1;
1608          (n) sexual abuse of a child under Section 76-5-404.1;

1609          (o) aggravated sexual abuse of a child under Section 76-5-404.3;
1610          (p) aggravated sexual assault under Section 76-5-405;
1611          (q) any predicate offense to a murder or aggravating offense to an aggravated murder;
1612          (r) aggravated human trafficking [or aggravated human smuggling in violation of]
1613     under Section 76-5-310;
1614          (s) aggravated human smuggling under Section 76-5-310.1;
1615          [(s)] (t) aggravated exploitation of prostitution involving a child[,] under Section
1616     76-10-1306; or
1617          [(t)] (u) human trafficking of a child[,] under Section 76-5-308.5.
1618          Section 15. Section 76-3-203.1 is amended to read:
1619          76-3-203.1. Offenses committed in concert with three or more persons or in
1620     relation to a criminal street gang -- Notice -- Enhanced penalties.
1621          (1) As used in this section:
1622          (a) "Criminal street gang" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-9-802.
1623          (b) "In concert with three or more persons" means:
1624          (i) the defendant was aided or encouraged by at least three other persons in committing
1625     the offense and was aware of this aid or encouragement; and
1626          (ii) each of the other persons:
1627          (A) was physically present; and
1628          (B) participated as a party to any offense listed in Subsection (4), (5), or (6).
1629          (c) "In concert with three or more persons" means, regarding intent:
1630          (i) other persons participating as parties need not have the intent to engage in the same
1631     offense or degree of offense as the defendant; and
1632          (ii) a minor is a party if the minor's actions would cause the minor to be a party if the
1633     minor were an adult.
1634          (2) A person who commits any offense in accordance with this section is subject to an
1635     enhanced penalty as provided in Subsection (4), (5), or (6) if the trier of fact finds beyond a
1636     reasonable doubt that the person acted:
1637          (a) in concert with three or more persons;
1638          (b) for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang
1639     as defined in Section 76-9-802; or

1640          (c) to gain recognition, acceptance, membership, or increased status with a criminal
1641     street gang as defined in Section 76-9-802.
1642          (3) The prosecuting attorney, or grand jury if an indictment is returned, shall cause to
1643     be subscribed upon the information or indictment notice that the defendant is subject to the
1644     enhanced penalties provided under this section.
1645          (4) (a) For an offense listed in Subsection (4)(b), a person may be charged as follows:
1646          (i) for a class B misdemeanor, as a class A misdemeanor; and
1647          (ii) for a class A misdemeanor, as a third degree felony.
1648          (b) The following offenses are subject to Subsection (4)(a):
1649          (i) criminal mischief as described in Section 76-6-106;
1650          (ii) property damage or destruction as described in Section 76-6-106.1; and
1651          (iii) defacement by graffiti as described in Section 76-6-107.
1652          (5) (a) For an offense listed in Subsection (5)(b), a person may be charged as follows:
1653          (i) for a class B misdemeanor, as a class A misdemeanor;
1654          (ii) for a class A misdemeanor, as a third degree felony; and
1655          (iii) for a third degree felony, as a second degree felony.
1656          (b) The following offenses are subject to Subsection (5)(a):
1657          (i) burglary, if committed in a dwelling as defined in Subsection 76-6-202(3)(b);
1658          (ii) any offense of obstructing government operations under Chapter 8, Part 3,
1659     Obstructing Governmental Operations, except Sections 76-8-302, 76-8-303, 76-8-307,
1660     76-8-308, and 76-8-312;
1661          (iii) tampering with a witness [or other violation of] under Section 76-8-508;
1662          (iv) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant, or other violation of Section
1663     76-8-508.3;
1664          (v) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;
1665          [(v)] (vi) extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding as defined in Section
1666     76-8-509;
1667          [(vi)] (vii) any weapons offense under Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons; and
1668          [(vii)] (viii) any violation of Chapter 10, Part 16, Pattern of Unlawful Activity Act.
1669          (6) (a) For an offense listed in Subsection (6)(b), a person may be charged as follows:
1670          (i) for a class B misdemeanor, as a class A misdemeanor;

1671          (ii) for a class A misdemeanor, as a third degree felony;
1672          (iii) for a third degree felony, as a second degree felony; and
1673          (iv) for a second degree felony, as a first degree felony.
1674          (b) The following offenses are subject to Subsection (6)(a):
1675          (i) assault and related offenses under Chapter 5, Part 1, Assault and Related Offenses;
1676          (ii) any criminal homicide offense under Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
1677          (iii) kidnapping and related offenses under Chapter 5, Part 3, Kidnapping, Trafficking,
1678     and Smuggling;
1679          (iv) any felony sexual offense under Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
1680          (v) sexual exploitation of a minor as defined in Section 76-5b-201;
1681          (vi) aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor as defined in Section 76-5b-201.1;
1682          (vii) robbery and aggravated robbery under Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery; and
1683          (viii) aggravated exploitation of prostitution under Section 76-10-1306.
1684          (7) The sentence imposed under Subsection (4), (5), or (6) may be suspended and the
1685     individual placed on probation for the higher level of offense.
1686          (8) It is not a bar to imposing the enhanced penalties under this section that the persons
1687     with whom the actor is alleged to have acted in concert are not identified, apprehended,
1688     charged, or convicted, or that any of those persons are charged with or convicted of a different
1689     or lesser offense.
1690          Section 16. Section 76-3-203.3 is amended to read:
1691          76-3-203.3. Penalty for hate crimes -- Civil rights violation.
1692          As used in this section:
1693          (1) "Primary offense" means those offenses provided in Subsection (4).
1694          (2) (a) A person who commits any primary offense with the intent to intimidate or
1695     terrorize another person or with reason to believe that his action would intimidate or terrorize
1696     that person is subject to Subsection (2)(b).
1697          (b) (i) A class C misdemeanor primary offense is a class B misdemeanor; and
1698          (ii) a class B misdemeanor primary offense is a class A misdemeanor.
1699          (3) "Intimidate or terrorize" means an act which causes the person to fear for his
1700     physical safety or damages the property of that person or another. The act must be
1701     accompanied with the intent to cause or has the effect of causing a person to reasonably fear to

1702     freely exercise or enjoy any right secured by the Constitution or laws of the state or by the
1703     Constitution or laws of the United States.
1704          (4) Primary offenses referred to in Subsection (1) are the misdemeanor offenses for:
1705          (a) assault and related offenses under Sections 76-5-102, 76-5-102.4, 76-5-106,
1706     76-5-107, and 76-5-108;
1707          (b) any misdemeanor property destruction offense under Sections 76-6-102 and
1708     76-6-104, and Subsection 76-6-106(2)(a);
1709          (c) any criminal trespass offense under Sections 76-6-204 and 76-6-206;
1710          (d) any misdemeanor theft offense under Section 76-6-412;
1711          (e) any offense of obstructing government operations under Sections 76-8-301,
1712     76-8-301.2, 76-8-302, 76-8-305, 76-8-306, 76-8-307, 76-8-308, 76-8-309.2, and 76-8-313;
1713          (f) any offense of interfering or intending to interfere with activities of colleges and
1714     universities under Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 7, Colleges and Universities;
1715          (g) any misdemeanor offense against public order and decency as defined in Title 76,
1716     Chapter 9, Part 1, Breaches of the Peace and Related Offenses;
1717          (h) any telephone abuse offense under Title 76, Chapter 9, Part 2, Electronic
1718     Communication and Telephone Abuse;
1719          (i) any cruelty to animals offense under Section 76-9-301;
1720          (j) any weapons offense under Section 76-10-506; or
1721          (k) a violation of Section 76-9-102, if the violation occurs at an official meeting.
1722          (5) This section does not affect or limit any individual's constitutional right to the
1723     lawful expression of free speech or other recognized rights secured by the Constitution or laws
1724     of the state or by the Constitution or laws of the United States.
1725          Section 17. Section 76-3-203.5 is amended to read:
1726          76-3-203.5. Habitual violent offender -- Definition -- Procedure -- Penalty.
1727          (1) As used in this section:
1728          (a) "Felony" means any violation of a criminal statute of the state, any other state, the
1729     United States, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States for which the
1730     maximum punishment the offender may be subjected to exceeds one year in prison.
1731          (b) "Habitual violent offender" means a person convicted within the state of any violent
1732     felony and who on at least two previous occasions has been convicted of a violent felony and

1733     committed to either prison in Utah or an equivalent correctional institution of another state or
1734     of the United States either at initial sentencing or after revocation of probation.
1735          (c) "Violent felony" means:
1736          (i) any of the following offenses, or any attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit
1737     any of the following offenses punishable as a felony:
1738          (A) aggravated arson, arson, knowingly causing a catastrophe, and criminal mischief,
1739     Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
1740          (B) assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-102.5;
1741          (C) disarming a police officer, Section 76-5-102.8;
1742          (D) aggravated assault, Section 76-5-103;
1743          (E) aggravated assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-103.5;
1744          (F) mayhem, Section 76-5-105;
1745          (G) stalking, Subsection 76-5-106.5(2);
1746          (H) threat of terrorism, Section 76-5-107.3;
1747          (I) aggravated child abuse, Subsection 76-5-109.2(3)(a) or (b);
1748          (J) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, Section 76-5-114;
1749          (K) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, Section 76-5-110;
1750          (L) abuse or exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-111, 76-5-111.2,
1751     76-5-111.3, or 76-5-111.4;
1752          (M) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-112.5;
1753          (N) criminal homicide offenses under Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
1754          (O) kidnapping, child kidnapping, and aggravated kidnapping under Chapter 5, Part 3,
1755     Kidnapping, Trafficking, and Smuggling;
1756          (P) rape, Section 76-5-402;
1757          (Q) rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.1;
1758          (R) object rape, Section 76-5-402.2;
1759          (S) object rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.3;
1760          (T) forcible sodomy, Section 76-5-403;
1761          (U) sodomy on a child, Section 76-5-403.1;
1762          (V) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404;
1763          (W) sexual abuse of a child, Section 76-5-404.1, or aggravated sexual abuse of a child,

1764     Section 76-5-404.3;
1765          (X) aggravated sexual assault, Section 76-5-405;
1766          (Y) sexual exploitation of a minor, Section 76-5b-201;
1767          (Z) aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor, Section 76-5b-201.1;
1768          (AA) sexual exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5b-202;
1769          (BB) aggravated burglary and burglary of a dwelling under Chapter 6, Part 2, Burglary
1770     and Criminal Trespass;
1771          (CC) aggravated robbery and robbery under Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
1772          (DD) theft by extortion under Section 76-6-406 under the circumstances described in
1773     Subsection 76-6-406(1)(a)(i) or (ii);
1774          (EE) tampering with a witness under [Subsection 76-8-508(1)] Section 76-8-508;
1775          (FF) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant under Section 76-8-508.3;
1776          (GG) tampering [with] or retaliating against a juror under Subsection 76-8-508.5(2)(c);
1777          (HH) extortion to dismiss a criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509 if by any
1778     threat or by use of force theft by extortion has been committed under Section 76-6-406 under
1779     the circumstances described in Subsection 76-6-406(1)(a)(i), (ii), or (ix);
1780          (II) possession, use, or removal of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under
1781     Subsections 76-10-306(3) through (6);
1782          (JJ) unlawful delivery of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under Section
1783     76-10-307;
1784          (KK) purchase or possession of a dangerous weapon or handgun by a restricted person
1785     under Section 76-10-503;
1786          (LL) unlawful discharge of a firearm under Section 76-10-508;
1787          (MM) aggravated exploitation of prostitution under Subsection 76-10-1306(1)(a);
1788          (NN) bus hijacking under Section 76-10-1504; and
1789          (OO) discharging firearms and hurling missiles under Section 76-10-1505; or
1790          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
1791     any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute a violent
1792     felony as defined in this Subsection (1) if committed in this state.
1793          (2) If a person is convicted in this state of a violent felony by plea or by verdict and the
1794     trier of fact determines beyond a reasonable doubt that the person is a habitual violent offender

1795     under this section, the penalty for a:
1796          (a) third degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony;
1797          (b) second degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony; or
1798          (c) first degree felony remains the penalty for a first degree penalty except:
1799          (i) the convicted person is not eligible for probation; and
1800          (ii) the Board of Pardons and Parole shall consider that the convicted person is a
1801     habitual violent offender as an aggravating factor in determining the length of incarceration.
1802          (3) (a) The prosecuting attorney, or grand jury if an indictment is returned, shall
1803     provide notice in the information or indictment that the defendant is subject to punishment as a
1804     habitual violent offender under this section. Notice shall include the case number, court, and
1805     date of conviction or commitment of any case relied upon by the prosecution.
1806          (b) (i) The defendant shall serve notice in writing upon the prosecutor if the defendant
1807     intends to deny that:
1808          (A) the defendant is the person who was convicted or committed;
1809          (B) the defendant was represented by counsel or had waived counsel; or
1810          (C) the defendant's plea was understandingly or voluntarily entered.
1811          (ii) The notice of denial shall be served not later than five days prior to trial and shall
1812     state in detail the defendant's contention regarding the previous conviction and commitment.
1813          (4) (a) If the defendant enters a denial under Subsection (3)(b) and if the case is tried to
1814     a jury, the jury may not be told, until after it returns its verdict on the underlying felony charge,
1815     of the:
1816          (i) defendant's previous convictions for violent felonies, except as otherwise provided
1817     in the Utah Rules of Evidence; or
1818          (ii) allegation against the defendant of being a habitual violent offender.
1819          (b) If the jury's verdict is guilty, the defendant shall be tried regarding the allegation of
1820     being an habitual violent offender by the same jury, if practicable, unless the defendant waives
1821     the jury, in which case the allegation shall be tried immediately to the court.
1822          (c) (i) Before or at the time of sentencing the trier of fact shall determine if this section
1823     applies.
1824          (ii) The trier of fact shall consider any evidence presented at trial and the prosecution
1825     and the defendant shall be afforded an opportunity to present any necessary additional

1826     evidence.
1827          (iii) Before sentencing under this section, the trier of fact shall determine whether this
1828     section is applicable beyond a reasonable doubt.
1829          (d) If any previous conviction and commitment is based upon a plea of guilty or no
1830     contest, there is a rebuttable presumption that the conviction and commitment were regular and
1831     lawful in all respects if the conviction and commitment occurred after January 1, 1970. If the
1832     conviction and commitment occurred prior to January 1, 1970, the burden is on the prosecution
1833     to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant was then represented by
1834     counsel or had lawfully waived the right to have counsel present, and that the defendant's plea
1835     was understandingly and voluntarily entered.
1836          (e) If the trier of fact finds this section applicable, the court shall enter that specific
1837     finding on the record and shall indicate in the order of judgment and commitment that the
1838     defendant has been found by the trier of fact to be a habitual violent offender and is sentenced
1839     under this section.
1840          (5) (a) The sentencing enhancement provisions of Section 76-3-407 supersede the
1841     provisions of this section.
1842          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), the "violent felony" offense defined in
1843     Subsection (1)(c) shall include any felony sexual offense violation of Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual
1844     Offenses, to determine if the convicted person is a habitual violent offender.
1845          (6) The sentencing enhancement described in this section does not apply if:
1846          (a) the offense for which the person is being sentenced is:
1847          (i) a grievous sexual offense;
1848          (ii) child kidnapping, Section 76-5-301.1;
1849          (iii) aggravated kidnapping, Section 76-5-302; or
1850          (iv) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404; and
1851          (b) applying the sentencing enhancement provided for in this section would result in a
1852     lower maximum penalty than the penalty provided for under the section that describes the
1853     offense for which the person is being sentenced.
1854          Section 18. Section 76-3-406 is amended to read:
1855          76-3-406. Crimes for which probation, suspension of sentence, lower category of
1856     offense, or hospitalization may not be granted.

1857          (1) Notwithstanding Sections 76-3-201 and 77-18-105 and Title 77, Chapter 16a,
1858     Commitment and Treatment of Individuals with a Mental Condition, except as provided in
1859     Section 76-5-406.5 or Subsection 77-16a-103(6) or (7), probation may not be granted, the
1860     execution or imposition of sentence may not be suspended, the court may not enter a judgment
1861     for a lower category of offense, and hospitalization may not be ordered, the effect of which
1862     would in any way shorten the prison sentence for an individual who commits a capital felony or
1863     a first degree felony involving:
1864          (a) Section 76-5-202, aggravated murder;
1865          (b) Section 76-5-203, murder;
1866          (c) Section 76-5-301.1, child kidnaping;
1867          (d) Section 76-5-302, aggravated kidnaping;
1868          (e) Section 76-5-402, rape, if the individual is sentenced under Subsection
1869     76-5-402(3)(b), (3)(c), or (4);
1870          (f) Section 76-5-402.1, rape of a child;
1871          (g) Section 76-5-402.2, object rape, if the individual is sentenced under Subsection
1872     76-5-402.2(3)(b), (3)(c), or (4);
1873          (h) Section 76-5-402.3, object rape of a child;
1874          (i) Section 76-5-403, forcible sodomy, if the individual is sentenced under Subsection
1875     76-5-403(3)(b), (3)(c), or (4);
1876          (j) Section 76-5-403.1, sodomy on a child;
1877          (k) Section 76-5-404, forcible sexual abuse, if the individual is sentenced under
1878     Subsection 76-5-404(3)(b)(i) or (ii);
1879          (l) Section 76-5-404.1, sexual abuse of a child;
1880          [(l)] (m) Section 76-5-404.3, aggravated sexual abuse of a child;
1881          [(m)] (n) Section 76-5-405, aggravated sexual assault; or
1882          [(n)] (o) any attempt to commit a felony listed in Subsection (1)(f), (h), or (j).
1883          (2) Except for an offense before the district court in accordance with Section 80-6-502
1884     or 80-6-504, the provisions of this section do not apply if the sentencing court finds that the
1885     defendant:
1886          (a) was under 18 years old at the time of the offense; and
1887          (b) could have been adjudicated in the juvenile court but for the delayed reporting or

1888     delayed filing of the information.
1889          Section 19. Section 76-5-203 is amended to read:
1890          76-5-203. Murder -- Penalties-- Affirmative defense and special mitigation --
1891     Separate offenses.
1892          (1) (a) As used in this section, "predicate offense" means:
1893          (i) a clandestine drug lab violation under Section 58-37d-4 or 58-37d-5;
1894          (ii) aggravated child abuse, under Subsection 76-5-109.2(3)(a), when the abused
1895     individual is younger than 18 years old;
1896          (iii) kidnapping under Section 76-5-301;
1897          (iv) child kidnapping under Section 76-5-301.1;
1898          (v) aggravated kidnapping under Section 76-5-302;
1899          (vi) rape under Section 76-5-402;
1900          (vii) rape of a child under Section 76-5-402.1;
1901          (viii) object rape under Section 76-5-402.2;
1902          (ix) object rape of a child under Section 76-5-402.3;
1903          (x) forcible sodomy under Section 76-5-403;
1904          (xi) sodomy upon a child under Section 76-5-403.1;
1905          (xii) forcible sexual abuse under Section 76-5-404;
1906          (xiii) sexual abuse of a child under Section 76-5-404.1;
1907          (xiv) aggravated sexual abuse of a child under Section 76-5-404.3;
1908          (xv) aggravated sexual assault under Section 76-5-405;
1909          (xvi) arson under Section 76-6-102;
1910          (xvii) aggravated arson under Section 76-6-103;
1911          (xviii) burglary under Section 76-6-202;
1912          (xix) aggravated burglary under Section 76-6-203;
1913          (xx) robbery under Section 76-6-301;
1914          (xxi) aggravated robbery under Section 76-6-302;
1915          (xxii) escape [or aggravated escape] under Section 76-8-309;
1916          (xxiii) aggravated escape under Section 76-8-309.1; or
1917          [(xxiii)] (xxiv) a felony violation of Section 76-10-508 or 76-10-508.1 regarding
1918     discharge of a firearm or dangerous weapon.

1919          (b) Terms defined in Section 76-1-101.5 apply to this section.
1920          (2) An actor commits murder if:
1921          (a) the actor intentionally or knowingly causes the death of another individual;
1922          (b) intending to cause serious bodily injury to another individual, the actor commits an
1923     act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of the other individual;
1924          (c) acting under circumstances evidencing a depraved indifference to human life, the
1925     actor knowingly engages in conduct that creates a grave risk of death to another individual and
1926     thereby causes the death of the other individual;
1927          (d) (i) the actor is engaged in the commission, attempted commission, or immediate
1928     flight from the commission or attempted commission of any predicate offense, or is a party to
1929     the predicate offense;
1930          (ii) an individual other than a party described in Section 76-2-202 is killed in the
1931     course of the commission, attempted commission, or immediate flight from the commission or
1932     attempted commission of any predicate offense; and
1933          (iii) the actor acted with the intent required as an element of the predicate offense;
1934          (e) the actor recklessly causes the death of a peace officer or military service member
1935     in uniform while in the commission or attempted commission of:
1936          (i) an assault against a peace officer under Section 76-5-102.4;
1937          (ii) interference with a peace officer while making a lawful arrest under Section
1938     76-8-305 if the actor uses force against the peace officer; or
1939          (iii) an assault against a military service member in uniform under Section 76-5-102.4;
1940     or
1941          (f) the actor commits a homicide that would be aggravated murder, but the offense is
1942     reduced in accordance with Subsection 76-5-202(4).
1943          (3) (a) (i) A violation of Subsection (2) is a first degree felony.
1944          (ii) A defendant who is convicted of murder shall be sentenced to imprisonment for an
1945     indeterminate term of not less than 15 years and which may be for life.
1946          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (3)(a), if the trier of fact finds the elements of murder,
1947     or alternatively, attempted murder, as described in this section are proved beyond a reasonable
1948     doubt, and also finds that the existence of special mitigation is established by a preponderance
1949     of the evidence and in accordance with Section 76-5-205.5, the court shall enter a judgment of

1950     conviction as follows:
1951          (i) if the trier of fact finds the defendant guilty of murder, the court shall enter a
1952     judgment of conviction for manslaughter; or
1953          (ii) if the trier of fact finds the defendant guilty of attempted murder, the court shall,
1954     notwithstanding Subsection 76-4-102(1)(b) or 76-4-102(1)(c)(i), enter a judgment of
1955     conviction for attempted manslaughter.
1956          (4) (a) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of murder or attempted murder that the
1957     defendant caused the death of another individual or attempted to cause the death of another
1958     individual under a reasonable belief that the circumstances provided a legal justification or
1959     excuse for the conduct although the conduct was not legally justifiable or excusable under the
1960     existing circumstances.
1961          (b) The reasonable belief of the actor under Subsection (4)(a) shall be determined from
1962     the viewpoint of a reasonable person under the then existing circumstances.
1963          (c) Notwithstanding Subsection (3)(a), if the trier of fact finds the elements of murder,
1964     or alternatively, attempted murder, as described in this section are proved beyond a reasonable
1965     doubt, and also finds the affirmative defense described in this Subsection (4) is not disproven
1966     beyond a reasonable doubt, the court shall enter a judgment of conviction as follows:
1967          (i) if the trier of fact finds the defendant guilty of murder, the court shall enter a
1968     judgment of conviction for manslaughter; or
1969          (ii) if the trier of fact finds the defendant guilty of attempted murder, the court shall
1970     enter a judgment of conviction for attempted manslaughter.
1971          (5) (a) Any predicate offense that constitutes a separate offense does not merge with
1972     the crime of murder.
1973          (b) An actor who is convicted of murder, based on a predicate offense that constitutes a
1974     separate offense, may also be convicted of, and punished for, the separate offense.
1975          Section 20. Section 76-6-513 is amended to read:
1976          76-6-513. Unlawful dealing of property by a fiduciary.
1977          (1) (a) As used in this section:
1978          (i) "Fiduciary" means the same as that term is defined in Section 22-1-1.
1979          (ii) "Financial institution" means "depository institution" and "trust company" as
1980     defined in Section 7-1-103.

1981          (iii) "Governmental entity" is as defined in Section 63G-7-102.
1982          (iv) "Person" does not include a financial institution whose fiduciary functions are
1983     supervised by the Department of Financial Institutions or a federal regulatory agency.
1984          (v) "Property" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-6-401.
1985          (b) Terms defined in Section 76-1-101.5 apply to this section.
1986          (2) An actor commits unlawfully dealing with property by a fiduciary if the actor:
1987          (a) deals with property:
1988          (i) that has been entrusted to the actor as a fiduciary, or property of a governmental
1989     entity, public money, or of a financial institution; and
1990          (ii) in a manner which:
1991          (A) the actor knows is a violation of the actor's duty; and
1992          (B) involves substantial risk of loss or detriment to the property owner or to a person
1993     for whose benefit the property was entrusted; or
1994          (b) acting as a fiduciary pledges:
1995          (i) as collateral for a personal loan, or as collateral for the benefit of some party, other
1996     than the owner or the person for whose benefit the property was entrusted, the property that has
1997     been entrusted to the fiduciary; and
1998          (ii) without permission of the owner of the property or some other authorized person.
1999          (3) (a) A violation of Subsection (2)(a) is:
2000          (i) a second degree felony if the:
2001          (A) value of the property is or exceeds $5,000; or
2002          (B) property is stolen from the person of another;
2003          (ii) a third degree felony if:
2004          (A) the value of the property is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
2005          (B) the value of the property is or exceeds $500 and the actor has been twice before
2006     convicted of any of the following offenses, if each prior offense was committed within 10 years
2007     before the date of the current conviction or the date of the offense upon which the current
2008     conviction is based and at least one of those convictions is for a class A misdemeanor:
2009          (I) any theft, any robbery, or any burglary with intent to commit theft;
2010          (II) any offense under Part 5, Fraud; or
2011          (III) any attempt to commit any offense under Subsection (3)(a)(ii)(B)(I) or (II); or

2012          [(C) the value of property is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or]
2013          [(D)] (C) the actor has been previously convicted of a felony violation of any of the
2014     offenses listed in Subsections (3)(a)(ii)(B)(I) through (3)(a)(ii)(B)(III), if the prior offense was
2015     committed within 10 years before the date of the current conviction or the date of the offense
2016     upon which the current conviction is based;
2017          (iii) a class A misdemeanor if:
2018          (A) the value of the property stolen is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or
2019          (B) the actor has been twice before convicted of any of the offenses listed in
2020     Subsections (3)(a)(ii)(B)(I) through (3)(a)(ii)(B)(III), if each prior offense was committed
2021     within 10 years before the date of the current conviction or the date of the offense upon which
2022     the current conviction is based; or
2023          (iv) a class B misdemeanor if the value of the property stolen is less than $500 and the
2024     theft is not an offense under Subsection (3)(a)(iii)(B).
2025          (b) A violation of Subsection (2)(b) is:
2026          (i) a second degree felony if the value of the property wrongfully pledged is or exceeds
2027     $5,000;
2028          (ii) a third degree felony if the value of the property wrongfully pledged is or exceeds
2029     $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
2030          (iii) a class A misdemeanor if the value of the property is or exceeds $500, but is less
2031     than $1,500 or the actor has been twice before convicted of theft, robbery, burglary with intent
2032     to commit theft, or unlawful dealing with property by a fiduciary; or
2033          (iv) a class B misdemeanor if the value of the property is less than $500.
2034          (4) This section may not be construed to impose criminal or civil liability on any law
2035     enforcement officer acting within the scope of a criminal investigation.
2036          (5) The forfeiture of property under this section, including any seizure and disposition
2037     of the property and any related judicial or administrative proceeding, shall be conducted in
2038     accordance with Title 77, Chapter 11a, Seizure of Property and Contraband, through Chapter
2039     11c, Retention of Evidence.
2040          Section 21. Section 76-8-101 is amended to read:
2041          76-8-101. Definitions.
2042          As used in this chapter:

2043          [(1) "Candidate for electoral office" means a person who files as a candidate for office
2044     under the laws of the state.]
2045          [(2)] (1) "Harm" means a disadvantage or a physical, emotional, or economic injury to
2046     a person or a person's property, reputation, or business interests.
2047          (2) "Party official" means [a person] an individual holding any post in a political party
2048     whether by election, appointment, or otherwise.
2049          (3) "Peace officer" means an employee of a police or law enforcement agency that is
2050     part of or administered by the state or [any of its political subdivisions] a political subdivision
2051     of the state, and whose duties consist primarily of the prevention and detection of crime and the
2052     enforcement of criminal statutes or ordinances of this state or [any of its political subdivisions]
2053     a political subdivision of the state.
2054          (4) (a) "Pecuniary benefit" means [any] an advantage in the form of money, property,
2055     commercial interest, or anything else, the primary significance of which is economic gain.
2056          (b) "Pecuniary benefit" does not include economic advantage applicable to the public
2057     generally, such as tax reduction or increased prosperity generally.
2058          (5) (a) "Public property" means real or personal property that is owned, held, or
2059     managed by a public entity.
2060          (b) "Public property" includes real or personal property that is owned, held, or managed
2061     by a public entity after the real or personal property is transferred by the public entity to an
2062     independent contractor of the public entity.
2063          (c) "Public property" remains public property while in the possession of an independent
2064     contractor of a public entity for the purpose of providing a program or service for, or on behalf
2065     of, the public entity.
2066          Section 22. Section 76-8-102 is amended to read:
2067          76-8-102. Campaign contributions not prohibited.
2068          (1) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit the giving or receiving of
2069     campaign contributions made for the purpose of defraying the costs of a political campaign.
2070          (2) No person shall be convicted of an offense solely on the evidence that a campaign
2071     contribution was made and that an appointment or nomination was subsequently made by the
2072     person to whose campaign or political party the contribution was made.
2073          Section 23. Section 76-8-103 is amended to read:

2074          76-8-103. Bribery or offering a bribe.
2075          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2076          (2) [A person is guilty of] An actor commits bribery or offering a bribe if [that person]
2077     the actor promises, offers, or agrees to give or gives, directly or indirectly, any benefit to
2078     another with the purpose or intent to influence an action, decision, opinion, recommendation,
2079     judgment, vote, nomination, or exercise of discretion of a public servant, party official, or
2080     voter.
2081          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is:
2082          (a) a second degree felony if the value of the benefit is $1,000 or more; or
2083          (b) a third degree felony if the value of the benefit is less than $1,000.
2084          [(2)] (4) It is not a defense to a prosecution under this statute that:
2085          (a) the person sought to be influenced was not qualified to act in the desired way,
2086     whether because the person had not assumed office, lacked jurisdiction, or for any other reason;
2087          (b) the person sought to be influenced did not act in the desired way; or
2088          (c) the benefit is not conferred, solicited, or accepted until after:
2089          (i) the action, decision, opinion, recommendation, judgment, vote, nomination, or
2090     exercise of discretion, has occurred; or
2091          (ii) the public servant ceases to be a public servant.
2092          [(3) Bribery or offering a bribe is:]
2093          [(a) a third degree felony when the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted, or
2094     conferred is less than $1,000; and]
2095          [(b) a second degree felony when the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted,
2096     or conferred is $1,000 or more.]
2097          Section 24. Section 76-8-104 is amended to read:
2098          76-8-104. Threat to influence official or political action.
2099          (1) (a) As used in this section, "public servant" does not include a juror.
2100          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2101          (2) [A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor if he threatens any harm to a public
2102     servant, party official, or voter] An actor commits threat to influence official or political action
2103     if the actor, with a purpose of influencing [his] an action, decision, opinion, recommendation,
2104     nomination, vote, or other exercise of discretion of a public servant, party official, or voter,

2105     threatens harm to:
2106          (a) the public servant, party official, or voter; or
2107          (b) a person or entity in whose welfare the public servant, party official, or voter is
2108     interested.
2109          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
2110          [(2) As used in this section:]
2111          [(a) "Harm" means any disadvantage or injury, pecuniary or otherwise, including
2112     disadvantage or injury to any other person or entity in whose welfare the public servant, party
2113     official, or voter is interested.]
2114          [(b) "Public servant" does not include jurors.]
2115          Section 25. Section 76-8-105 is amended to read:
2116          76-8-105. Receiving or soliciting bribe or bribery by public servant.
2117          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2118          (2) [A person is guilty of] An actor commits receiving or soliciting a bribe if [that
2119     person] the actor asks for, solicits, accepts, or receives, directly or indirectly, any benefit with
2120     the understanding or agreement that the purpose or intent is to influence an action, decision,
2121     opinion, recommendation, judgment, vote, nomination, or exercise of discretion, of a public
2122     servant, party official, or voter.
2123          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is:
2124          (a) a second degree felony if the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted, or
2125     conferred is more than $1,000; or
2126          (b) a third degree felony if the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted, or
2127     conferred is $1,000 or less.
2128          [(2)] (4) It is not a defense to a prosecution under this statute that:
2129          (a) the person sought to be influenced was not qualified to act in the desired way,
2130     whether because the person had not assumed office, lacked jurisdiction, or for any other reason;
2131          (b) the person sought to be influenced did not act in the desired way; or
2132          (c) the benefit is not asked for, conferred, solicited, or accepted until after:
2133          (i) the action, decision, opinion, recommendation, judgment, vote, nomination, or
2134     exercise of discretion, has occurred; or
2135          (ii) the public servant ceases to be a public servant.

2136          [(3) Receiving or soliciting a bribe is:]
2137          [(a) a third degree felony when the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted, or
2138     conferred is $1,000 or less; and]
2139          [(b) a second degree felony when the value of the benefit asked for, solicited, accepted,
2140     or conferred exceeds $1,000.]
2141          Section 26. Section 76-8-106 is amended to read:
2142          76-8-106. Receiving bribe for endorsement of person as a public servant.
2143          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if:]
2144          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2145          (2) [He] An actor commits receiving a bribe for endorsement of a person as a public
2146     servant if the actor solicits, accepts, agrees to accept for [himself] the actor's self, another
2147     person, or a political party, money or any other pecuniary benefit as compensation for [his] the
2148     actor's endorsement, nomination, appointment, approval, or disapproval of any person for a
2149     position as a public servant or for the advancement of any public servant[; or].
2150          [(2)] (3) [He knowingly gives, offers, or promises any pecuniary benefit prohibited by
2151     paragraph (1).] A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2152          Section 27. Section 76-8-106.1 is enacted to read:
2153          76-8-106.1. Bribery for endorsement of person as public servant.
2154          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2155          (2) An actor commits bribery for endorsement of a person as a public servant if the
2156     actor knowingly gives, offers, or promises money or any other pecuniary benefit to a person or
2157     a political party as compensation for the person's or political party's endorsement, nomination,
2158     appointment, approval, or disapproval of any person for a position as a public servant or for the
2159     advancement of any public servant.
2160          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2161          Section 28. Section 76-8-107 is amended to read:
2162          76-8-107. Alteration of proposed legislative bill or resolution.
2163          [Every person who]
2164          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2165          (2) An actor commits alteration of proposed legislative bill or resolution if the actor
2166     fraudulently alters the draft of [any] a bill or resolution [which] that has been presented to

2167     either of the houses composing the Legislature to be passed or adopted, with intent to procure
2168     [its] the proposed legislative bill or resolution being passed or adopted by either house, or
2169     certified by the presiding officer of either house in language different from that intended by
2170     [such] either house[, is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
2171          Section 29. Section 76-8-108 is amended to read:
2172          76-8-108. Alteration of enrolled legislative bill or resolution.
2173          [Every person who]
2174          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2175          (2) An actor commits alteration of enrolled legislative bill or resolution if the actor
2176     fraudulently alters the enrolled copy of [any] a bill or resolution [which] that has been passed
2177     or adopted by the Legislature with intent to procure [it] the enrolled bill or resolution to be
2178     approved by the governor or certified by the Division of Archives, or printed or published by
2179     the printer of statutes, in language different from that in which [it] the enrolled bill or
2180     resolution was passed or adopted by the Legislature[, is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
2181          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
2182          Section 30. Section 76-8-110 is amended to read:
2183          76-8-110. Prohibited action by peace officer for collection agency or creditor.
2184          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2185          (2) [A peace officer may not have any] An actor commits prohibited action by peace
2186     officer for collection agency or creditor if the actor:
2187          (a) is a peace officer; and
2188          (b) (i) has an interest in [any] a collection agency; or [act]
2189          (ii) acts as a compensated collection agent for [any] a creditor or collection agency.
2190          [(2)] (3) [A person that violates this section is guilty of] A violation of Subsection (2)
2191     is a class C misdemeanor.
2192          Section 31. Section 76-8-201 is amended to read:
2193          76-8-201. Official misconduct -- Unauthorized acts or failure of duty.
2194          [A public servant is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if,]
2195          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2196          (2) An actor commits official misconduct based on an unauthorized act or failure of
2197     duty if the actor:

2198          (a) is a public servant; and
2199          (b) with an intent to benefit [himself] the actor or another or to harm another, [he] the
2200     actor knowingly:
2201          (i) commits an unauthorized act [which] that purports to be an act of [his] the actor's
2202     office[,]; or
2203          (ii) knowingly refrains from performing a duty imposed on [him] the actor by law or
2204     clearly inherent in the nature of [his] the actor's office.
2205          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2206          Section 32. Section 76-8-202 is amended to read:
2207          76-8-202. Official misconduct concerning inside information.
2208          [A public servant is guilty of a class A misdemeanor if, knowing that official action is
2209     contemplated or in reliance on information which he has acquired by virtue of his office or
2210     from another public servant, which information has not been made public, he:]
2211          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2212          (2) An actor commits official misconduct concerning inside information if:
2213          (a) the actor is a public servant; and
2214          (b) knowing that official action is contemplated, or in reliance on information that the
2215     actor has acquired by virtue of the actor's office or from another public servant, which
2216     information has not been made public, the actor:
2217          (i) acquires or divests [himself] the actor's self of a pecuniary interest in any property,
2218     transaction, or enterprise [which] that may be affected by such action or information;
2219          [(2)] (ii) speculates or wagers on the basis of such action or information; or
2220          [(3)] (iii) knowingly aids another person to do [any of the foregoing] an action
2221     described in Subsection (2)(b)(i) or (2)(b)(ii).
2222          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
2223          Section 33. Section 76-8-203 is amended to read:
2224          76-8-203. Unofficial misconduct.
2225          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2226          (2) [A person is guilty of] An actor commits unofficial misconduct if the [person] actor
2227     exercises or attempts to exercise any of the functions of a public office when the [person] actor:
2228          (a) has not taken and filed the required oath of office;

2229          (b) has failed to execute and file a required bond;
2230          (c) has not been elected or appointed to office;
2231          (d) exercises any of the functions of [his] the actor's office after [his] the actor's term
2232     has expired and the successor has been elected or appointed and has qualified, or after [his] the
2233     actor's office has been legally removed; or
2234          (e) knowingly:
2235          (i) withholds or retains from [his] the actor's successor in office, or other person
2236     entitled to possession, the official seal or [any records, papers, documents, or other writings] a
2237     record, paper, document, or other writing appertaining or belonging to [his] the actor's office
2238     [or mutilates or destroys or takes away the same.]; or
2239          (ii) mutilates, destroys, or takes away the official seal or a record, paper, document, or
2240     other writing appertaining or belonging to the actor's office.
2241          [(2)] (3) [Unofficial misconduct] A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B
2242     misdemeanor.
2243          Section 34. Section 76-8-301 is amended to read:
2244          76-8-301. Interference with public servant.
2245          (1) (a) [An individual is guilty of] As used in this section, "public servant" does not
2246     include a juror.
2247          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2248          (2) An actor commits interference with a public servant if the [individual] actor:
2249          (a) uses force, violence, intimidation, or engages in any other unlawful act with a
2250     purpose to interfere with a public servant performing or purporting to perform an official
2251     function; or
2252          (b) obstructs, hinders, conceals, or prevents the lawful service of any civil or criminal
2253     legal process[, civil or criminal, by any] by a sheriff, constable, deputy sheriff, deputy
2254     constable, peace officer, private investigator, or any other person authorized to serve legal
2255     process[; or].
2256          [(c) on property that is owned, operated, or controlled by the state or a political
2257     subdivision of the state, willfully denies to a public servant lawful:]
2258          [(i) freedom of movement;]
2259          [(ii) use of the property or facilities; or]

2260          [(iii) entry into or exit from the facilities.]
2261          [(2) Interference with a public servant:]
2262          [(a) under Subsection (1)(a) or (b) is a class B misdemeanor; and]
2263          [(b) under Subsection (1)(c) is a class C misdemeanor.]
2264          [(3) For purposes of this section, "public servant" does not include jurors.]
2265          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2266          Section 35. Section 76-8-301.2 is enacted to read:
2267          76-8-301.2. Denial of public servant's use of public property.
2268          (1) (a) As used in this section, "public servant" does not include a juror.
2269          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2270          (2) An actor commits denial of public servant's use of public property if the actor, on
2271     property that is owned, operated, or controlled by the state or a political subdivision of the
2272     state, willfully denies to a public servant lawful:
2273          (a) freedom of movement;
2274          (b) use of the property or facility; or
2275          (c) entry into or exit from the facility.
2276          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class C misdemeanor.
2277          Section 36. Section 76-8-301.5 is amended to read:
2278          76-8-301.5. Failure to disclose identity.
2279          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2280          (2) [A person is guilty of] An actor commits failure to disclose identity if, during the
2281     period of time that the [person] actor is lawfully subjected to a stop as described in Section
2282     77-7-15:
2283          (a) a peace officer demands that the [person] actor disclose the [person's] actor's name
2284     or date of birth;
2285          (b) the demand described in Subsection [(1)(a)] (2)(a) is reasonably related to the
2286     circumstances justifying the stop;
2287          (c) the disclosure of the [person's] actor's name or date of birth by the [person] actor
2288     does not present a reasonable danger of self-incrimination in the commission of a crime; and
2289          (d) the [person] actor fails to disclose the [person's] actor's name or date of birth.
2290          [(2)] (3) [Failure to disclose identity] A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B

2291     misdemeanor.
2292          Section 37. Section 76-8-302 is amended to read:
2293          76-8-302. Picketing or parading in or near court.
2294          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2295          (2) [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if he] An actor commits picketing or
2296     parading in or near a court if the actor pickets or parades in or near a building [which] that
2297     houses a court of this state with intent to:
2298          (a) obstruct access to that court; or [to]
2299          (b) affect the outcome of a case pending before that court.
2300          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2301          Section 38. Section 76-8-303 is amended to read:
2302          76-8-303. Prevention of Legislature or public servant from meeting or
2303     organizing.
2304          [A person is guilty of a felony of the third degree if he intentionally and by force or
2305     fraud:]
2306          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2307          (2) An actor commits prevention of Legislature or public servant from meeting or
2308     organizing if the actor intentionally and by force or fraud:
2309          (a) [Prevents] prevents the Legislature, [or] either of the houses composing [it] the
2310     Legislature, or any of the members [thereof] of the Legislature, from meeting or organizing; or
2311          [(2)] (b) [Prevents] prevents any other public servant from meeting or organizing to
2312     perform a lawful governmental function.
2313          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
2314          Section 39. Section 76-8-305 is amended to read:
2315          76-8-305. Interference with a peace officer.
2316          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2317          (2) [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if the person] actor commits
2318     interference with a peace officer if the actor:
2319          (a) knows, or by the exercise of reasonable care should have known, that a peace
2320     officer is seeking to effect a lawful arrest or detention of [that person] the actor or another
2321     [person] individual; and

2322          (b) interferes with the arrest or detention by:
2323          [(a)] (i) use of force or [any] a weapon;
2324          [(b)] (ii) refusing to perform [any] an act required by lawful order:
2325          [(i)] (A) necessary to effect the arrest or detention; and
2326          [(ii)] (B) made by a peace officer involved in the arrest or detention; or
2327          [(c)] (iii) refusing to refrain from performing [any] an act that would impede the arrest
2328     or detention.
2329          [(2)] (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2330          (4) Recording the actions of a [law enforcement] peace officer with a camera, mobile
2331     phone, or other photographic device, while the peace officer is performing official duties in
2332     plain view, does not by itself constitute:
2333          (a) interference with the peace officer;
2334          (b) willful resistance;
2335          (c) disorderly conduct; or
2336          (d) obstruction of justice.
2337          Section 40. Section 76-8-305.5 is amended to read:
2338          76-8-305.5. Failure to stop at the command of a peace officer.
2339          [A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who flees from or otherwise attempts to
2340     elude a peace officer:]
2341          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2342          (2) An actor commits failure to stop at the command of a peace officer if, after the
2343     peace officer has issued a verbal or visual command to stop[;], the actor flees from or
2344     otherwise attempts to elude a peace officer:
2345          [(2)] (a) for the purpose of avoiding arrest; and
2346          [(3)] (b) by any means other than a violation of Section 41-6a-210 regarding failure to
2347     stop a vehicle at the command of a law enforcement officer.
2348          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
2349          Section 41. Section 76-8-306 is amended to read:
2350          76-8-306. Obstruction of justice in a criminal investigation or proceeding.
2351          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2352          (i) (A) "Conduct that constitutes a criminal offense" means conduct that would be

2353     punishable as a crime and is separate from a violation of this section.
2354          (B) "Conduct that constitutes a criminal offense" includes:
2355          (I) any violation of a criminal statute or ordinance of this state or a political subdivision
2356     of this state, any other state, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States; and
2357          (II) conduct committed by a juvenile that would be a crime if committed by an adult.
2358          (ii) "Juvenile offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
2359          (iii) "Official custody" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-309.
2360          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2361          (2) [An] Except as provided in Subsection (5), an actor commits obstruction of justice
2362     in a criminal investigation or proceeding if the actor, with intent to hinder, delay, or prevent the
2363     investigation, apprehension, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of any person regarding
2364     conduct that constitutes a criminal offense:
2365          (a) provides any person with a weapon;
2366          (b) prevents by force, intimidation, or deception, [any] a person from performing [any]
2367     an act that might aid in the discovery, apprehension, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of
2368     any person;
2369          (c) alters, destroys, conceals, or removes [any] an item or other thing;
2370          (d) makes, presents, or uses [any] an item or thing known by the actor to be false;
2371          (e) harbors or conceals a person;
2372          (f) provides a person with transportation, disguise, or other means of avoiding
2373     discovery or apprehension;
2374          (g) warns [any] a person of impending discovery or apprehension;
2375          (h) warns [any] a person of an order authorizing the interception of wire
2376     communications or of a pending application for an order authorizing the interception of wire
2377     communications;
2378          (i) conceals information that is not privileged and that concerns the offense, after a
2379     judge or magistrate has ordered the actor to provide the information; or
2380          (j) provides false information regarding a suspect, a witness, the conduct constituting
2381     an offense, or any other material aspect of the investigation.
2382          [(2) (a) As used in this section, "conduct that constitutes a criminal offense" means
2383     conduct that would be punishable as a crime and is separate from a violation of this section,

2384     and includes:]
2385          [(i) any violation of a criminal statute or ordinance of this state, its political
2386     subdivisions, any other state, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States; and]
2387          [(ii) conduct committed by a juvenile which would be a crime if committed by an
2388     adult.]
2389          [(b) A violation of a criminal statute that is committed in another state, or any district,
2390     possession, or territory of the United States, is a:]
2391          [(i) capital felony if the penalty provided includes death or life imprisonment without
2392     parole;]
2393          [(ii) a first degree felony if the penalty provided includes life imprisonment with parole
2394     or a maximum term of imprisonment exceeding 15 years;]
2395          [(iii) a second degree felony if the penalty provided exceeds five years;]
2396          [(iv) a third degree felony if the penalty provided includes imprisonment for any period
2397     exceeding one year; and]
2398          [(v) a misdemeanor if the penalty provided includes imprisonment for any period of
2399     one year or less.]
2400          (3) [Obstruction of justice] A violation of Subsection (2) is:
2401          (a) a second degree felony if the conduct [which] that constitutes an offense would be a
2402     capital felony or first degree felony;
2403          (b) a third degree felony if:
2404          (i) the conduct that constitutes an offense would be a second or third degree felony and
2405     the actor violates Subsection [(1)(b)] (2)(b), (c), (d), (e), or (f);
2406          (ii) the conduct that constitutes an offense would be any offense other than a capital or
2407     first degree felony and the actor violates Subsection [(1)(a)] (2)(a);
2408          (iii) the obstruction of justice is presented or committed before a court of law; or
2409          (iv) a violation of Subsection [(1)(h)] (2)(h); or
2410          (c) a class A misdemeanor for any violation of this section that is not enumerated under
2411     Subsection (3)(a) or (b).
2412          (4) It is not a defense that the actor was unaware of the level of penalty for the conduct
2413     constituting an offense.
2414          [(5) Subsection (1)(e) does not apply to harboring a juvenile offender, as defined in

2415     Section 80-1-102, which is governed by Section 76-8-311.5.]
2416          [(6)] (5) (a) Subsection (2) does not apply to harboring or concealing an offender who
2417     has escaped from official custody, which is governed by Section 76-8-309.2.
2418          (b) Subsection [(1)(b)] (2)(b) does not apply to:
2419          [(a) tampering with a juror, which is governed by Section 76-8-508.5;]
2420          [(b)] (i) [influencing, impeding, or retaliating against a judge or member of the Board
2421     of Pardons and Parole, which is governed by] threat with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere,
2422     or retaliate against a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a
2423     family member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole under Section
2424     76-8-316;
2425          (ii) assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a judge or a
2426     member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a judge or a
2427     member of the Board of Pardons and Parole under Section 76-8-316.2;
2428          (iii) aggravated assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a
2429     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a
2430     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole under Section 76-8-316.4;
2431          (iv) attempted murder with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a
2432     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family member of a
2433     judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole under Section 76-8-316.6;
2434          [(c)] (v) tampering with a witness [or soliciting or receiving a bribe, which is governed
2435     by] under Section 76-8-508;
2436          [(d)] (vi) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant[, which is governed by]
2437     under Section 76-8-508.3; [or]
2438          (vii) tampering or retaliating against a juror under Section 76-8-508.5;
2439          (viii) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7; or
2440          [(e)] (ix) extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding[, which is governed by]
2441     under Section 76-8-509.
2442          (c) Subsection (2)(e) does not apply to harboring a juvenile offender, which is
2443     governed by Section 76-8-319.
2444          [(7) Notwithstanding Subsection (1), (2), or (3), an actor commits a third degree felony
2445     if the actor harbors or conceals an offender who has escaped from official custody as defined in

2446     Section 76-8-309.]
2447          (6) For purposes of Subsection (3), a violation of a criminal statute that is committed in
2448     another state, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States, is:
2449          (a) a capital felony if the penalty provided includes death or life imprisonment without
2450     parole;
2451          (b) a first degree felony if the penalty provided includes life imprisonment with parole
2452     or a maximum term of imprisonment exceeding 15 years;
2453          (c) a second degree felony if the penalty provided exceeds five years;
2454          (d) a third degree felony if the penalty provided includes imprisonment for any period
2455     exceeding one year; or
2456          (e) a misdemeanor if the penalty provided includes imprisonment for any period of one
2457     year or less.
2458          Section 42. Section 76-8-306.5 is amended to read:
2459          76-8-306.5. Obstructing service of a Board of Pardons and Parole warrant or a
2460     probationer order to show cause.
2461          [A person is guilty of a third degree felony who:]
2462          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2463          (2) An actor commits obstructing service of a Board of Pardons and Parole warrant or a
2464     probationer order to show cause if the actor:
2465          (a) knows that:
2466          (i) the Board of Pardons and Parole has issued a warrant for a parolee; or [that]
2467          (ii) a court has issued an order to show cause regarding a defendant's violation of the
2468     terms of probation; and
2469          [(2)] (b) [(a)] (i) harbors or conceals the parolee or probationer;
2470          [(b)] (ii) provides the parolee or probationer with transportation, disguise, or other
2471     means or assistance to avoid discovery; or
2472          [(c)] (iii) warns the parolee or probationer of [his] the parolee's or probationer's
2473     impending discovery.
2474          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
2475          Section 43. Section 76-8-307 is amended to read:
2476          76-8-307. Failure to aid a peace officer.

2477          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor]
2478          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2479          (2) An actor commits failure to aid a peace officer if, upon command by a peace officer
2480     identifiable or identified by [him] the peace officer as such, [he] the actor unreasonably fails or
2481     refuses to aid the peace officer in effecting an arrest or in preventing the commission of any
2482     offense by another person.
2483          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
2484          Section 44. Section 76-8-308 is amended to read:
2485          76-8-308. Acceptance of bribe or bribery to prevent criminal prosecution.
2486          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2487          (2) [A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor if he] An actor commits acceptance of
2488     bribe or bribery to prevent criminal prosecution if the actor:
2489          (a) solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit as consideration for [his] the actor's
2490     refraining from initiating or aiding in a criminal prosecution; or
2491          (b) confers, offers, or agrees to confer any benefit upon [another] a person as
2492     consideration for the person refraining from initiating or aiding in a criminal prosecution.
2493          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
2494          [(2)] (4) It is an affirmative defense that the value of the benefit did not exceed an
2495     amount [which] that the actor believed to be due as restitution or indemnification for the loss
2496     caused or to be caused by the offense.
2497          Section 45. Section 76-8-309 is amended to read:
2498          76-8-309. Escape.
2499          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2500          (i) "Confinement" means a prisoner is:
2501          (A) housed in a state prison or another facility pursuant to a contract with the Utah
2502     Department of Corrections after being sentenced and committed and the sentence has not been
2503     terminated or voided or the prisoner is not on parole;
2504          (B) lawfully detained in a county jail prior to trial or sentencing or housed in a county
2505     jail after sentencing and commitment and the sentence has not been terminated or voided or the
2506     prisoner is not on parole; or
2507          (C) lawfully detained following arrest.

2508          (ii) "Confinement in a state prison" means that an individual:
2509          (A) is in prehearing custody after arrest for parole violation;
2510          (B) is being housed in a county jail, after felony commitment, pursuant to a contract
2511     with the Department of Corrections; or
2512          (C) is being transported as a prisoner in the state prison by a correctional officer.
2513          (iii) "Escape" is considered to be a continuing activity commencing with the
2514     conception of the design to escape and continuing until the escaping prisoner is returned to
2515     official custody or the prisoner's attempt to escape is thwarted or abandoned.
2516          (iv) "Lawful authorization" does not include authorization to leave official custody that
2517     is obtained by a prisoner by means of deceit, fraud, or other artifice.
2518          (v) "Official custody" means:
2519          (A) arrest, whether with or without a warrant;
2520          (B) confinement in a state prison, jail, or institution for secure confinement of juvenile
2521     offenders;
2522          (C) released from a prison or jail for work release or home visit subject to a designated
2523     time for return; or
2524          (D) any confinement pursuant to an order of a court or sentenced and committed and
2525     the sentence has not been terminated or voided or the prisoner is not on parole.
2526          (vi) "Prisoner" means any person who is in official custody and includes persons under
2527     trusty status.
2528          (vii) "Volunteer" means a person who donates service without pay or other
2529     compensation except expenses actually and reasonably incurred as approved by the supervising
2530     agency.
2531          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2532          [(a)] (2) [(i) A prisoner is guilty of escape if the prisoner] An actor commits escape if
2533     the actor:
2534          (a) (i) is a prisoner; and
2535          (ii) leaves official custody without lawful authorization[.]; or
2536          (b) (i) is convicted as a party to an offense under this section, as defined in Section
2537     76-2-202; and
2538          (ii) is an employee at or a volunteer of:

2539          (A) a law enforcement agency, the Department of Corrections, a county or district
2540     attorney's office, the Office of the Attorney General, the Board of Pardons and Parole; or
2541          (B) a court, the Judicial Council, the Administrative Office of the Courts, or a similar
2542     administrative unit in the judicial branch of government.
2543          [(ii) If a prisoner obtains authorization to leave official custody by means of deceit,
2544     fraud, or other artifice, the prisoner has not received lawful authorization.]
2545          [(b)] (3) (a) [Escape under this Subsection (1) is a] Except as provided by Subsection
2546     (3)(b) or Section 76-8-309.1, a violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony [except as
2547     provided under Subsection (1)(c)].
2548          [(c)] (b) [Escape under this Subsection (1)] Except as provided by Section 76-8-309.1,
2549     a violation of Subsection (2) is a second degree felony if:
2550          (i) the actor escapes [from] confinement in a state prison; [or]
2551          (ii) the actor violates Subsection (2)(b); or
2552          (iii) the prisoner left official custody by failing to return from work release or home
2553     visit by the time designated for return.
2554          [(ii) (A) the actor is convicted as a party to the offense, as defined in Section 76-2-202;
2555     and]
2556          [(B) the actor is an employee at or a volunteer of a law enforcement agency, the
2557     Department of Corrections, a county or district attorney's office, the office of the state attorney
2558     general, the Board of Pardons and Parole, or the courts, the Judicial Council, the
2559     Administrative Office of the Courts, or similar administrative units in the judicial branch of
2560     government.]
2561          [(2) (a) A prisoner is guilty of aggravated escape if in the commission of an escape the
2562     prisoner uses a dangerous weapon, as defined in Section 76-1-101.5, or causes serious bodily
2563     injury to another.]
2564          [(b) Aggravated escape is a first degree felony.]
2565          [(3)] (4) [Any prison term imposed upon a prisoner for escape under this section shall
2566     run consecutively with] A court sentencing an actor for a violation of this section shall impose
2567     a consecutive sentence to any other sentence the actor is either serving or ordered to serve.
2568          [(4) For the purposes of this section:]
2569          [(a) "Confinement" means the prisoner is:]

2570          [(i) housed in a state prison or any other facility pursuant to a contract with the Utah
2571     Department of Corrections after being sentenced and committed and the sentence has not been
2572     terminated or voided or the prisoner is not on parole;]
2573          [(ii) lawfully detained in a county jail prior to trial or sentencing or housed in a county
2574     jail after sentencing and commitment and the sentence has not been terminated or voided or the
2575     prisoner is not on parole; or]
2576          [(iii) lawfully detained following arrest.]
2577          [(b) "Escape" is considered to be a continuing activity commencing with the
2578     conception of the design to escape and continuing until the escaping prisoner is returned to
2579     official custody or the prisoner's attempt to escape is thwarted or abandoned.]
2580          [(c) "Official custody" means arrest, whether with or without warrant, or confinement
2581     in a state prison, jail, institution for secure confinement of juvenile offenders, or any
2582     confinement pursuant to an order of the court or sentenced and committed and the sentence has
2583     not been terminated or voided or the prisoner is not on parole. A person is considered confined
2584     in the state prison if the person:]
2585          [(i) without authority fails to return to the person's place of confinement from work
2586     release or home visit by the time designated for return;]
2587          [(ii) is in prehearing custody after arrest for parole violation;]
2588          [(iii) is being housed in a county jail, after felony commitment, pursuant to a contract
2589     with the Department of Corrections; or]
2590          [(iv) is being transported as a prisoner in the state prison by correctional officers.]
2591          [(d) "Prisoner" means any person who is in official custody and includes persons under
2592     trusty status.]
2593          [(e) "Volunteer" means any person who donates service without pay or other
2594     compensation except expenses actually and reasonably incurred as approved by the supervising
2595     agency.]
2596          Section 46. Section 76-8-309.1 is enacted to read:
2597          76-8-309.1. Aggravated escape.
2598          (1) (a) As used in this section, "escape" means an offense under Section 76-8-309.
2599          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2600          (2) An actor commits aggravated escape if, during the course of the commission of an

2601     escape, the actor:
2602          (a) uses a dangerous weapon; or
2603          (b) causes serious bodily injury to another.
2604          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a first degree felony.
2605          (4) A court sentencing an actor for a violation of this section shall impose a
2606     consecutive sentence to any other sentence the actor is either serving or ordered to serve.
2607          Section 47. Section 76-8-309.2 is enacted to read:
2608          76-8-309.2. Harboring or concealing an offender who has escaped from official
2609     custody.
2610          (1) (a) As used in this section, "official custody" means the same as that term is defined
2611     in Section 76-8-309.
2612          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2613          (2) An actor commits harboring or concealing an offender who has escaped from
2614     official custody if the actor harbors or conceals an offender who has escaped from official
2615     custody.
2616          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
2617          Section 48. Section 76-8-311.1 is amended to read:
2618          76-8-311.1. Establishment of secure areas -- Items prohibited -- References to
2619     penalty provisions.
2620          (1) [In addition to the definitions in Section 76-10-501, as]
2621          (a) As used in this section:
2622          [(a)] (i) "Correctional facility" [has the same meaning as] means the same as that term
2623     is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2624          (ii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2625          [(b)] (iii) "Explosive" [has the same meaning as defined for] means the same as the
2626     term "explosive, chemical, or incendiary device" defined in Section 76-10-306.
2627          (iv) "Firearm" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2628          [(c)] (v) "Law enforcement facility" means a facility [which] that is owned, leased, or
2629     operated by a law enforcement agency.
2630          [(d)] (vi) "Mental health facility" [has the same meaning as] means the same as that
2631     term is defined in Section 26B-5-301.

2632          [(e)] (vii) [(i)] (A) "Secure area" means [any] an area created under this section into
2633     which certain persons are restricted from transporting [any] a firearm or other dangerous
2634     weapon, ammunition, [dangerous weapon,] or explosive.
2635          [(ii)] (B) A "secure area" may not include any area normally accessible to the public.
2636          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2637          (2) (a) [A person in charge of the] The State Tax Commission or a correctional, law
2638     enforcement, or mental health facility may establish secure areas within the facility and may
2639     prohibit or control by rule any firearm or other dangerous weapon, ammunition, [dangerous
2640     weapon,] or explosive.
2641          (b) Subsections (2)(a), (3), (4), [(5), and (6)] and (5) apply to a higher education secure
2642     area hearing [rooms] room referred to in Subsections 53B-3-103(2)(a)(ii) and (b).
2643          (3) [At] An entity that creates a secure area under this section shall ensure that at least
2644     one notice [shall be] is prominently displayed at each entrance to [an] the secure area in which
2645     a firearm, ammunition, dangerous weapon, or explosive is restricted.
2646          (4) (a) [Provisions shall be made to] An entity that creates a secure area under this
2647     section shall provide a secure weapons storage area so that [persons] an individual entering the
2648     secure area may store [their weapons prior to] the individual's weapon before entering the
2649     secure area.
2650          (b) The entity operating the facility shall be responsible for [weapons] a weapon while
2651     [they are] the weapon is stored in the storage area described in Subsection (4)(a).
2652          [(5) It is a defense to any prosecution under this section that the accused, in committing
2653     the act made criminal by this section, acted in conformity with the facility's rule or policy
2654     established pursuant to this section.]
2655          [(6)] (5) (a) [Any person who knowingly or intentionally transports into a secure area
2656     of a facility any firearm, ammunition, or dangerous weapon is guilty of a third degree felony]
2657     An actor who transports a firearm or other dangerous weapon or ammunition into a secure area
2658     created under this section or a higher education secure area hearing room created under this
2659     section may be punished under Section 76-8-311.2.
2660          (b) [Any person violates Section 76-10-306] An actor who knowingly or intentionally
2661     transports, possesses, distributes, or sells [any] an explosive in a secure area [of a facility] or a
2662     higher education secure area hearing room created under this section may be punished under

2663     Section 76-10-306.
2664          (c) It is a defense to a prosecution related to this section that the actor acted in
2665     conformity with the facility's rule or policy established pursuant to this section.
2666          Section 49. Section 76-8-311.2 is enacted to read:
2667          76-8-311.2. Prohibited dangerous weapon or ammunition in a secure area.
2668          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2669          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2670          (ii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2671          (iii) "Firearm" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2672          (iv) "Higher education secure area" means a higher education secure area hearing room
2673     created under Section 76-8-311.1.
2674          (v) "Law enforcement facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2675     76-8-311.1.
2676          (vi) "Secure area" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.1.
2677          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2678          (2) An actor commits prohibited dangerous weapon or ammunition in a secure area if
2679     the actor knowingly or intentionally transports a firearm or other dangerous weapon or
2680     ammunition into:
2681          (a) a correctional facility;
2682          (b) a secure area created by the State Tax Commission;
2683          (c) a secure area in a law enforcement facility or a mental health facility; or
2684          (d) a higher education secure area.
2685          (3) Except as provided in Section 76-8-311.4, 76-8-311.6, or 76-8-311.7, a violation of
2686     Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
2687          (4) It is a defense to a prosecution under this section that the actor acted in conformity
2688     with the facility's rule or policy established under Section 76-8-311.1.
2689          Section 50. Section 76-8-311.3 is amended to read:
2690          76-8-311.3. Establishment of prohibited item policy in a correctional or mental
2691     health facility -- Reference to penalty provisions -- Exceptions -- Rulemaking.
2692          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2693          [(a) "Contraband" means any item not specifically prohibited for possession by

2694     offenders under this section or Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.]
2695          [(b)] (i) "Controlled substance" means [any] a substance defined as a controlled
2696     substance under Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.
2697          [(c)] (ii) "Correctional facility" means:
2698          [(i)] (A) [any] a facility operated by or contracting with the Department of Corrections
2699     to house [offenders] an offender in either a secure or nonsecure setting;
2700          [(ii)] (B) [any] a facility operated by a municipality or a county to house or detain
2701     [criminal offenders] a criminal offender;
2702          [(iii)] (C) [any] a juvenile detention facility; [and] or
2703          [(iv)] (D) [any] a building or grounds appurtenant to [the] a facility or [lands] land
2704     granted to the state, municipality, or county for use as a correctional facility.
2705          [(d)] (iii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2706     76-10-501.
2707          (iv) "Electronic cigarette product" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2708     76-10-101.
2709          (v) "Firearm" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2710          [(e)] (vi) "Medicine" means [any] a prescription drug as defined in Title 58, Chapter
2711     17b, Pharmacy Practice Act, but does not include [any] a controlled [substances] substance as
2712     defined in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.
2713          [(f)] (vii) "Mental health facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2714     26B-5-301.
2715          [(g)] (viii) "Nicotine product" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2716     76-10-101.
2717          [(h)] (ix) "Offender" means [a person] an individual in custody at a correctional
2718     facility.
2719          [(i)] (x) "Secure area" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.1.
2720          [(j)] (xi) "Tobacco product" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2721     76-10-101.
2722          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2723          (2) Notwithstanding Section 76-10-500, a correctional facility or a mental health
2724     facility may provide by rule that no firearm, ammunition, dangerous weapon, implement of

2725     escape, explosive, controlled substance, spirituous or fermented liquor, medicine, or poison in
2726     any quantity may be:
2727          (a) transported to or [upon] within a correctional facility or a mental health facility;
2728          (b) sold or given away at [any] a correctional facility or a mental health facility;
2729          (c) given to or used by [any] an offender at a correctional facility or a mental health
2730     facility; or
2731          (d) knowingly or intentionally possessed at a correctional facility or a mental health
2732     facility.
2733          (3) It is a defense to [any] a prosecution [under] related to this section [if the accused
2734     in] that the actor, in committing the act made criminal by this section with respect to:
2735          (a) a correctional facility operated by the Department of Corrections, acted in
2736     conformity with departmental rule or policy;
2737          (b) a correctional facility operated by a municipality, acted in conformity with the
2738     policy of the municipality;
2739          (c) a correctional facility operated by a county, acted in conformity with the policy of
2740     the county; or
2741          (d) a mental health facility, acted in conformity with the policy of the mental health
2742     facility.
2743          [(4) (a) An individual who transports to or upon a correctional facility, or into a secure
2744     area of a mental health facility, any firearm, ammunition, dangerous weapon, or implement of
2745     escape with intent to provide or sell it to any offender, is guilty of a second degree felony.]
2746          [(b) An individual who provides or sells to any offender at a correctional facility, or
2747     any detainee at a secure area of a mental health facility, any firearm, ammunition, dangerous
2748     weapon, or implement of escape is guilty of a second degree felony.]
2749          [(c) An offender who possesses at a correctional facility, or a detainee who possesses at
2750     a secure area of a mental health facility, any firearm, ammunition, dangerous weapon, or
2751     implement of escape is guilty of a second degree felony.]
2752          [(d) An individual who, without the permission of the authority operating the
2753     correctional facility or the secure area of a mental health facility, knowingly possesses at a
2754     correctional facility or a secure area of a mental health facility any firearm, ammunition,
2755     dangerous weapon, or implement of escape is guilty of a third degree felony.]

2756          [(e) An individual violates Section 76-10-306 who knowingly or intentionally
2757     transports, possesses, distributes, or sells any explosive in a correctional facility or mental
2758     health facility.]
2759          [(5) (a) An individual is guilty of a third degree felony who, without the permission of
2760     the authority operating the correctional facility or secure area of a mental health facility,
2761     knowingly transports to or upon a correctional facility or into a secure area of a mental health
2762     facility any:]
2763          [(i) spirituous or fermented liquor;]
2764          [(ii) medicine, whether or not lawfully prescribed for the offender; or]
2765          [(iii) poison in any quantity.]
2766          [(b) An individual is guilty of a third degree felony who knowingly violates
2767     correctional or mental health facility policy or rule by providing or selling to any offender at a
2768     correctional facility or detainee within a secure area of a mental health facility any:]
2769          [(i) spirituous or fermented liquor;]
2770          [(ii) medicine, whether or not lawfully prescribed for the offender; or]
2771          [(iii) poison in any quantity.]
2772          [(c) An inmate is guilty of a third degree felony who, in violation of correctional or
2773     mental health facility policy or rule, possesses at a correctional facility or in a secure area of a
2774     mental health facility any:]
2775          [(i) spirituous or fermented liquor;]
2776          [(ii) medicine, other than medicine provided by the facility's health care providers in
2777     compliance with facility policy; or]
2778          [(iii) poison in any quantity.]
2779          [(d) An individual is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who, with the intent to directly or
2780     indirectly provide or sell any tobacco product, electronic cigarette product, or nicotine product
2781     to an offender, directly or indirectly:]
2782          [(i) transports, delivers, or distributes any tobacco product, electronic cigarette product,
2783     or nicotine product to an offender or on the grounds of any correctional facility;]
2784          [(ii) solicits, requests, commands, coerces, encourages, or intentionally aids another
2785     person to transport any tobacco product, electronic cigarette product, or nicotine product to an
2786     offender or on any correctional facility, if the person is acting with the mental state required for

2787     the commission of an offense; or]
2788          [(iii) facilitates, arranges, or causes the transport of any tobacco product, electronic
2789     cigarette product, or nicotine product in violation of this section to an offender or on the
2790     grounds of any correctional facility.]
2791          [(e) An individual is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who, without the permission of
2792     the authority operating the correctional or mental health facility, fails to declare or knowingly
2793     possesses at a correctional facility or in a secure area of a mental health facility any:]
2794          [(i) spirituous or fermented liquor;]
2795          [(ii) medicine; or]
2796          [(iii) poison in any quantity.]
2797          [(f) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (5)(f)(ii), an individual is guilty of a class B
2798     misdemeanor who, without the permission of the authority operating the correctional facility,
2799     knowingly engages in any activity that would facilitate the possession of any contraband by an
2800     offender in a correctional facility.]
2801          [(ii) The provisions of Subsection (5)(d) regarding any tobacco product, electronic
2802     cigarette product, or nicotine product take precedence over this Subsection (5)(f).]
2803          [(g)] (4) (a) Except as provided by Subsection (4)(b) or (4)(c), an actor may be charged
2804     under Section 76-8-311.4, 76-8-311.6, 76-8-311.7, 76-8-311.8, 76-8-311.9, or 76-8-311.10 for
2805     a violation of a policy or rule created under this section.
2806          (b) An actor who knowingly or intentionally transports, possesses, distributes, or sells
2807     an explosive in a correctional facility or a mental health facility may be punished under Section
2808     76-10-306.
2809          (c) The possession, distribution, or use of a controlled substance at a correctional
2810     facility or in a secure area of a mental health facility shall be charged under Title 58, Chapter
2811     37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.
2812          (5) Exemptions may be granted for worship for Native American inmates pursuant to
2813     Section 64-13-40.
2814          [(6) The possession, distribution, or use of a controlled substance at a correctional
2815     facility or in a secure area of a mental health facility shall be prosecuted in accordance with
2816     Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.]
2817          [(7)] (6) The [department] Department of Corrections shall make rules under Title

2818     63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, to establish guidelines for providing
2819     written notice to visitors that providing any tobacco product, electronic cigarette product, or
2820     nicotine product to offenders is a class A misdemeanor.
2821          Section 51. Section 76-8-311.4 is enacted to read:
2822          76-8-311.4. Prohibited item in correctional or mental health facility for use by
2823     offender or detainee.
2824          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2825          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2826          (ii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2827          (iii) "Mental health facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2828     76-8-311.3.
2829          (iv) "Offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2830          (v) "Secure area" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.1.
2831          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2832          (2) An actor commits prohibited item in correctional or mental health facility for use
2833     by offender or detainee if the actor:
2834          (a) transports a dangerous weapon, ammunition, or implement of escape to or within a
2835     correctional facility, or into a secure area of a mental health facility, with the intent to provide
2836     or sell to an offender or detainee the dangerous weapon, ammunition, or implement of escape;
2837     or
2838          (b) provides or sells a dangerous weapon, ammunition, or implement of escape to:
2839          (i) an offender at a correctional facility; or
2840          (ii) a detainee at a secure area of a mental health facility.
2841          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a second
2842     degree felony.
2843          (4) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2844          Section 52. Section 76-8-311.6 is enacted to read:
2845          76-8-311.6. Possession of prohibited item by offender or detainee in correctional
2846     or mental health facility.
2847          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2848          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.

2849          (ii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2850          (iii) "Mental health facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2851     76-8-311.3.
2852          (iv) "Offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2853          (v) "Secure area" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.1.
2854          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2855          (2) An actor commits possession of prohibited item by offender or detainee in
2856     correctional or mental health facility if the actor:
2857          (a) (i) is an offender at a correctional facility; or
2858          (ii) is a detainee at a mental health facility; and
2859          (b) possesses a dangerous weapon, ammunition, or an implement of escape.
2860          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a second
2861     degree felony.
2862          (4) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2863          Section 53. Section 76-8-311.7 is enacted to read:
2864          76-8-311.7. Possession of prohibited item in correctional facility or secure area of
2865     mental health facility.
2866          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2867          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2868          (ii) "Dangerous weapon" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-501.
2869          (iii) "Mental health facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2870     76-8-311.3.
2871          (iv) "Secure area" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.1.
2872          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2873          (2) An actor commits possession of prohibited item in correctional facility or secure
2874     area of mental health facility if the actor, without the permission of the authority operating the
2875     correctional facility or the secure area of a mental health facility, knowingly possesses a
2876     dangerous weapon, ammunition, or implement of escape at a correctional facility or in a secure
2877     area of a mental health facility.
2878          (3) Except as provided in Section 76-8-311.6 or Subsection (4), a violation of
2879     Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.

2880          (4) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2881          Section 54. Section 76-8-311.8 is enacted to read:
2882          76-8-311.8. Prohibited substance in correctional or mental health facility.
2883          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2884          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2885          (ii) "Medicine" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2886          (iii) "Mental health facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2887     76-8-311.3.
2888          (iv) "Offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2889          (v) "Prohibited substance" means:
2890          (A) spirituous or fermented liquor;
2891          (B) medicine, whether or not lawfully prescribed for an offender or a detainee; or
2892          (C) poison in any quantity.
2893          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2894          (2) An actor commits prohibited substance in a correctional or mental health facility if
2895     the actor:
2896          (a) without the permission of the authority operating the correctional facility or secure
2897     area of a mental health facility:
2898          (i) knowingly transports a prohibited substance to or within a correctional facility or
2899     into a secure area of a mental health facility; or
2900          (ii) fails to declare or knowingly possesses a prohibited substance at a correctional
2901     facility or in a secure area of a mental health facility;
2902          (b) knowingly violates correctional or mental health facility policy or rule by providing
2903     or selling a prohibited substance to an offender at a correctional facility or a detainee within a
2904     secure area of a mental health facility; or
2905          (c) (i) is a detainee in a mental health facility or an offender; and
2906          (ii) in violation of correctional or mental health facility policy or rule, possesses at a
2907     correctional facility or in a secure area of a mental health facility a prohibited substance other
2908     than medicine provided by the facility's health care providers in compliance with facility
2909     policy.
2910          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2)(a)(i), (2)(b),

2911     or (2)(c) is a third degree felony.
2912          (b) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2)(a)(ii) is a class
2913     A misdemeanor.
2914          (4) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2915          Section 55. Section 76-8-311.9 is enacted to read:
2916          76-8-311.9. Prohibited tobacco, electronic cigarette, or nicotine product in a
2917     correctional facility.
2918          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2919          (i) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2920          (ii) "Electronic cigarette product" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2921     76-10-101.
2922          (iii) "Nicotine product" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-101.
2923          (iv) "Offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.3.
2924          (v) "Tobacco product" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-10-101.
2925          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2926          (2) An actor commits prohibited tobacco, electronic cigarette, or nicotine product in a
2927     correctional facility if the actor, with the intent to directly or indirectly provide or sell a tobacco
2928     product, electronic cigarette product, or nicotine product to an offender, directly or indirectly:
2929          (a) transports, delivers, or distributes a tobacco product, electronic cigarette product, or
2930     nicotine product to an offender or on the grounds of a correctional facility;
2931          (b) solicits, requests, commands, coerces, encourages, or intentionally aids another
2932     individual to transport a tobacco product, electronic cigarette product, or nicotine product to an
2933     offender or on the grounds of a correctional facility, if the other individual is acting with the
2934     mental state required for the commission of an offense; or
2935          (c) facilitates, arranges, or causes the transport of a tobacco product, electronic
2936     cigarette product, or nicotine product in violation of this section or Section 76-8-311.3 to an
2937     offender or on the grounds of a correctional facility.
2938          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class A
2939     misdemeanor.
2940          (4) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2941          (5) In accordance with Section 76-10-311.3, the Department of Corrections shall make

2942     rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, to establish guidelines
2943     for providing written notice to visitors that providing a tobacco product, electronic cigarette
2944     product, or nicotine product to an offender is a class A misdemeanor.
2945          Section 56. Section 76-8-311.10 is enacted to read:
2946          76-8-311.10. Possession of contraband in a correctional facility.
2947          (1) (a) As used in this section:
2948          (i) "Contraband" means an item not specifically prohibited for possession by an
2949     offender under this section or Section 76-8-311.3, 76-8-311.4, 76-8-311.6, 76-8-311.7,
2950     76-8-311.8, or 76-8-311.9.
2951          (ii) "Correctional facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
2952     76-8-311.3.
2953          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2954          (2) An actor commits possession of contraband in a correctional facility if the actor,
2955     without the permission of the authority operating a correctional facility, knowingly engages in
2956     an activity that would facilitate the possession of contraband by an offender in the correctional
2957     facility.
2958          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class B
2959     misdemeanor.
2960          (4) (a) The possession, distribution, or use of a controlled substance at a correctional
2961     facility shall be prosecuted in accordance with Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled
2962     Substances Act.
2963          (b) The provisions of Section 76-8-311.9 take precedence over this section.
2964          (c) The defenses provided in Section 76-8-311.3 apply to this section.
2965          Section 57. Section 76-8-312 is amended to read:
2966          76-8-312. Unlawful absence after pretrial release.
2967          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2968          (2) [A person is guilty of an offense when having] An actor commits unlawful absence
2969     after pretrial release if the actor:
2970          (a) has been [released on bail or on his own recognizance] granted pretrial release by
2971     court order or by other lawful authority upon condition that [he] the actor subsequently appear
2972     personally upon a charge of an offense[, he]; and

2973          (b) fails without just cause to appear at the time and place [which] that have been
2974     lawfully designated for [his] the actor's appearance.
2975          [(2) An offense under this section is a felony of the third degree when the offense
2976     charged is a felony, a class B misdemeanor when the offense charged is a misdemeanor, and an
2977     infraction when the offense charged is an infraction.]
2978          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is:
2979          (a) a third degree felony if the offense for which the actor failed to appear is a felony;
2980          (b) a class B misdemeanor if the offense for which the actor failed to appear is a
2981     misdemeanor; or
2982          (c) an infraction if the offense for which the actor failed to appear is an infraction.
2983          Section 58. Section 76-8-313 is amended to read:
2984          76-8-313. Threatened or attempted assault on an elected official.
2985          (1) (a) As used in this section, "elected official" means:
2986          (i) an elected official of the state, county, or city;
2987          (ii) an immediate family member of an individual described in Subsection (1)(a)(i);
2988          (iii) a temporary judge appointed to fill a vacant judicial position;
2989          (iv) a judge not yet retained by a retention election;
2990          (v) a member of a school board; or
2991          (vi) an individual appointed to fill a vacant position of an individual described in
2992     Subsection (1)(a)(i).
2993          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
2994          (2) [A person] An actor commits threatened or attempted assault on an elected official
2995     [when he] if the actor attempts or threatens, irrespective of a showing of immediate force or
2996     violence, to inflict bodily injury [to the] on an elected official with the intent to impede,
2997     intimidate, or interfere with the elected official in the performance of [his] the elected official's
2998     official duties or with the intent to retaliate against the elected official because of the
2999     performance of [his] the elected official's official duties.
3000          (3) (a) Except as provided by Subsection (3)(b), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class
3001     B misdemeanor.
3002          (b) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony if:
3003          (i) the actor attempts to inflict bodily injury; or

3004          (ii) the elected official receives bodily injury.
3005          Section 59. Section 76-8-316 is amended to read:
3006          76-8-316. Threat with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against
3007     a judge or member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family
3008     member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole.
3009          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3010          [(a)] (i) "Board member" means an appointed member of the Board of Pardons and
3011     Parole.
3012          [(b)] (ii) "Family member" means [parents,] a parent, spouse, surviving spouse,
3013     [children, and siblings] child, or sibling of a judge or board member.
3014          [(c)] (iii) "Judge" means [judges of all courts of record and courts not of record and
3015     court commissioners.]:
3016          (A) a judge of a court of record;
3017          (B) a judge of a court not of record; or
3018          (C) a court commissioner.
3019          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3020          (2) [A person is guilty of a third degree felony if the person] An actor commits threat
3021     with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate against a judge, board member, or
3022     family member if the actor threatens to assault, kidnap, or murder a judge, [a family member of
3023     a judge,] a board member, or a family member [of a board member] with the intent to impede,
3024     intimidate, or interfere with the judge or board member while engaged in the performance of
3025     the judge's or board member's official duties or with the intent to retaliate against the judge or
3026     board member on account of the performance of those official duties.
3027          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3028          [(3) A person is guilty of a second degree felony if the person commits an assault on a
3029     judge, a family member of a judge, a board member, or a family member of a board member
3030     with the intent to impede, intimidate, or interfere with the judge or board member while
3031     engaged in the performance of the judge's or board member's official duties, or with the intent
3032     to retaliate against the judge or board member on account of the performance of those official
3033     duties.]
3034          [(4) A person is guilty of a first degree felony if the person commits aggravated assault

3035     on a judge, a family member of a judge, a board member, or a family member of a board
3036     member with the intent to impede, intimidate, or interfere with the judge or board member
3037     while engaged in the performance of the judge's or board member's official duties or with the
3038     intent to retaliate against the judge or board member on account of the performance of those
3039     official duties.]
3040          [(5) A person is guilty of a first degree felony if the person commits attempted murder
3041     on a family member of a judge or a family member of a board member with the intent to
3042     impede, intimidate, or interfere with the judge or board member while engaged in the
3043     performance of the judge's or board member's official duties or with the intent to retaliate
3044     against the judge or board member on account of the performance of those official duties.]
3045          [(6) A member of the Board of Pardons and Parole is an executive officer for purposes
3046     of Subsection 76-5-202(2)(a)(xiii).]
3047          Section 60. Section 76-8-316.2 is enacted to read:
3048          76-8-316.2. Assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate
3049     against a judge or member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against a family
3050     member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole.
3051          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3052          (i) "Board member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3053          (ii) "Family member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3054          (iii) "Judge" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3055          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3056          (2) An actor commits assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or retaliate
3057     against a judge, board member, or family member if the actor commits an assault on a judge, a
3058     board member, or a family member with the intent to impede, intimidate, or interfere with the
3059     judge or board member while engaged in the performance of the judge's or board member's
3060     official duties, or with the intent to retaliate against the judge or board member on account of
3061     the performance of those official duties.
3062          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a second degree felony.
3063          Section 61. Section 76-8-316.4 is enacted to read:
3064          76-8-316.4. Aggravated assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or
3065     retaliate against a judge or member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against

3066     a family member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole.
3067          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3068          (i) "Board member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3069          (ii) "Family member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3070          (iii) "Judge" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3071          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3072          (2) An actor commits aggravated assault with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or
3073     retaliate against a judge, board member, or family member if the actor commits aggravated
3074     assault on a judge, a board member, or a family member with the intent to impede, intimidate,
3075     or interfere with the judge or board member while engaged in the performance of the judge's or
3076     board member's official duties, or with the intent to retaliate against the judge or board member
3077     on account of the performance of those official duties.
3078          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a first degree felony.
3079          Section 62. Section 76-8-316.6 is enacted to read:
3080          76-8-316.6. Attempted murder with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or
3081     retaliate against a judge or member of the Board of Pardons and Parole or acting against
3082     a family member of a judge or a member of the Board of Pardons and Parole.
3083          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3084          (i) "Board member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3085          (ii) "Family member" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3086          (iii) "Judge" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-316.
3087          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3088          (2) An actor commits attempted murder with intent to impede, intimidate, interfere, or
3089     retaliate against a judge, board member, or family member if the actor commits attempted
3090     murder on a judge, a board member, or a family member with the intent to impede, intimidate,
3091     or interfere with the judge or board member while engaged in the performance of the judge's or
3092     board member's official duties, or with the intent to retaliate against the judge or board member
3093     on account of the performance of those official duties.
3094          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a first degree felony.
3095          (4) A member of the Board of Pardons and Parole is an executive officer for purposes
3096     of Subsection 76-5-202(2)(a)(xiii).

3097          Section 63. Section 76-8-317 is amended to read:
3098          76-8-317. Refusal to comply with an order to evacuate or order issued in a local
3099     or state emergency.
3100          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3101          (2) [A person may not refuse to] An actor commits refusal to comply with an order to
3102     evacuate or order issued in a local or state emergency if the actor:
3103          (a) receives notice of:
3104          (i) an order to evacuate issued under [this chapter or refuse to comply with any other]
3105     Title 53, Chapter 2a, Emergency Management Act; or
3106          (ii) an order issued:
3107          (A) by the governor in a state of an emergency under Section 53-2a-204; or
3108          (B) by a chief executive officer in a local emergency under Section 53-2a-205[, if
3109     notice of the order has been given to that person.]; and
3110          (b) refuses to comply with the order described in Subsection (2)(a).
3111          [(2)] (3) [A person who violates this section is guilty of] A violation of Subsection (2)
3112     is a class B misdemeanor.
3113          Section 64. Section 76-8-318 is amended to read:
3114          76-8-318. Assault or threat of violence against child welfare worker.
3115          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3116          [(a)] (i) "Assault" means [the same as that term is defined in] an offense under Section
3117     76-5-102.
3118          [(b)] (ii) "Child welfare worker" means an employee of the Division of Child and
3119     Family Services created in Section 80-2-201.
3120          [(c)] (iii) "Threat of violence" means [the same as that term is defined in] an offense
3121     under Section 76-5-107.
3122          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3123          (2) [An individual who commits an assault or threat of violence against a child welfare
3124     worker is guilty of a class A misdemeanor] An actor commits assault or threat of violence
3125     against child welfare worker if:
3126          (a) the [individual] actor is not:
3127          (i) a prisoner or an individual detained under Section 77-7-15; or

3128          (ii) a minor in the custody of or receiving services from a division within the
3129     Department of Health and Human Services;
3130          (b) the [individual] actor knew that the victim was a child welfare worker; and
3131          (c) the child welfare worker was acting within the scope of the child welfare worker's
3132     authority at the time of the assault or threat of violence.
3133          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class
3134     A misdemeanor.
3135          (b) [An individual who violates this section is guilty of] A violation of Subsection (2)
3136     is a third degree felony if the [individual] actor:
3137          [(a)] (i) causes substantial bodily injury[, as defined in Section 76-1-101.5]; and
3138          [(b)] (ii) acts intentionally or knowingly.
3139          Section 65. Section 76-8-319, which is renumbered from Section 76-8-311.5 is
3140     renumbered and amended to read:
3141          [76-8-311.5].      76-8-319. Aiding or concealing an adjudicated minor --
3142     Trespass of a secure care facility -- Criminal penalties.
3143          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3144          [(a)] (i) "Abscond from a facility" means an adjudicated minor:
3145          (A) leaves a facility without permission; or
3146          (B) fails to return at a prescribed time.
3147          (ii) "Abscond from supervision" means an adjudicated minor:
3148          (A) changes the adjudicated minor's residence from the residence that the adjudicated
3149     minor reported to the division as the adjudicated minor's correct address to another residence,
3150     without notifying the division or obtaining permission; or
3151          (B) for the purpose of avoiding supervision:
3152          (I) hides at a different location from the adjudicated minor's reported residence; or
3153          (II) leaves the adjudicated minor's reported residence.
3154          (iii) "Adjudicated minor" means the same as the term "minor" is defined in Section
3155     80-6-501.
3156          (iv) "Division" means the Division of Juvenile Justice Services created in Section
3157     80-5-103.
3158          (v) "Facility" means the same as the term "detention facility" is defined in Section

3159     80-1-102.
3160          [(b) "Juvenile offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.]
3161          [(c)] (vi) "Secure care" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
3162          [(d)] (vii) "Secure care facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
3163     80-1-102.
3164          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3165          [(2) An individual who commits any of the following offenses is guilty of a class A
3166     misdemeanor:]
3167          [(a) entering, or attempting to enter, a building or enclosure appropriated to the use of
3168     juvenile offenders, without permission;]
3169          [(b) entering any premises belonging to a secure care facility and committing or
3170     attempting to commit a trespass or damage on the premises of a secure care facility; or]
3171          [(c) willfully annoying or disturbing the peace and quiet of a secure care facility or of a
3172     juvenile offender in a secure care facility.]
3173          [(3)] (2) An [individual is guilty of a third degree felony who] an actor commits aiding
3174     or concealing an adjudicated minor if the actor:
3175          (a) knowingly harbors or conceals [a juvenile offender] an adjudicated minor who has:
3176          (i) escaped from secure care; or
3177          (ii) [as described in Subsection (4),] absconded from:
3178          (A) a facility or supervision; or
3179          (B) supervision of the division; or
3180          (b) willfully aided or assisted [a juvenile offender] an adjudicated minor who has been
3181     lawfully committed to a secure care facility in escaping or attempting to escape from the secure
3182     care facility.
3183          [(4) As used in this section:]
3184          [(a) a juvenile offender absconds from a facility under this section when the juvenile
3185     offender:]
3186          [(i) leaves the facility without permission; or]
3187          [(ii) fails to return at a prescribed time.]
3188          [(b) A juvenile offender absconds from supervision when the juvenile offender:]
3189          [(i) changes the juvenile offender's residence from the residence that the juvenile

3190     offender reported to the division as the juvenile offender's correct address to another residence,
3191     without notifying the division or obtaining permission; or]
3192          [(ii) for the purpose of avoiding supervision:]
3193          [(A) hides at a different location from the juvenile offender's reported residence; or]
3194          [(B) leaves the juvenile offender's reported residence.]
3195          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3196          Section 66. Section 76-8-320 is enacted to read:
3197          76-8-320. Trespass of a secure care facility.
3198          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3199          (i) "Juvenile offender" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.5.
3200          (ii) "Secure care facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-311.5.
3201          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3202          (2) An actor commits trespass of a secure care facility if the actor:
3203          (a) without permission, enters or attempts to enter a building or enclosure appropriated
3204     to the use of juvenile offenders;
3205          (b) (i) enters any premises belonging to a secure care facility; and
3206          (ii) commits or attempts to commit a trespass or damage on the premises of the secure
3207     care facility; or
3208          (c) willfully annoys or disturbs the peace and quiet of:
3209          (i) a secure care facility; or
3210          (ii) of a juvenile offender in a secure care facility.
3211          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
3212          Section 67. Section 76-8-402 is amended to read:
3213          76-8-402. Misusing public money or public property -- Disqualification from
3214     office.
3215          (1) (a) As used in this section, "authorized personal use" means:
3216          [(a)] (i) the use of public property, for a personal matter, by [a] an actor who is a public
3217     servant if:
3218          [(i)] (A) the [public servant] actor is authorized to use or possess the public property to
3219     fulfill the [public servant's] actor's duties as a public servant;
3220          [(ii)] (B) the primary purpose of the [public servant] actor using or possessing the

3221     public property is to fulfill the [public servant's] actor's duties as a public servant;
3222          [(iii)] (C) at the time the [public servant] actor uses the public property for a personal
3223     matter, a written policy of the [public servant's] actor's public entity is in effect that authorizes
3224     the [public servant] actor to use or possess the public property for personal use in addition to
3225     the primary purpose of fulfilling the [public servant's] actor's duties as a public servant; and
3226          [(iv)] (D) the [public servant] actor uses and possesses the public property in a lawful
3227     manner and in accordance with the policy described in Subsection [(1)(a)(iii);] (1)(a)(i)(C); or
3228          [(b)] (ii) incidental or de minimus use of public property for a personal matter by [a
3229     public servant,] an actor who is a public servant if:
3230          [(i)] (A) the value provided to the [public servant's] actor's public entity by the [public
3231     servant's] actor's use or possession of the public property for a public purpose substantially
3232     outweighs the personal benefit received by the [employee] actor from the incidental use of the
3233     public property for a personal matter; and
3234          [(ii)] (B) the incidental or de minimus use of the public property for a personal matter
3235     is not prohibited by law or by the [public servant's] actor's public entity.
3236          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3237          (2) [It is unlawful for a public servant to] An actor commits misusing public money or
3238     public property if the actor is a public servant and knowingly:
3239          (a) [appropriate] appropriates public money to the [public servant's] actor's own use or
3240     benefit or to the use or benefit of another person without authority of law;
3241          (b) [loan or transfer] loans or transfers public money without authority of law;
3242          (c) [fail] fails to keep public money in the [public servant's] actor's possession until
3243     disbursed by authority of law;
3244          (d) [deposit] deposits public money in a bank or with another person in violation of the
3245     written policy of the [public servant's] actor's public entity or the requirements of law;
3246          (e) [keep] keeps a false account or [make] makes a false entry or erasure in an account
3247     of, or relating to, public money;
3248          (f) fraudulently [alter, falsify, conceal, or destroy] alters, falsifies, conceals, or destroys
3249     an account described in Subsection (2)(e);
3250          (g) [refuse or omit] refuses or omits to pay over, on demand, any public money in the
3251     [public servant's] actor's custody or control, upon the presentation of a draft, order, or warrant

3252     drawn upon the public money by competent authority;
3253          (h) [omit] omits to transfer public money when the transfer is required by law;
3254          (i) [omit or refuse] omits or refuses to pay over, to [any] an officer or person
3255     authorized by law to receive public money, public money received by the [public servant] actor
3256     under any duty imposed on the [public servant] actor by law;
3257          (j) [damage or dispose] damages or disposes of public property in violation of the
3258     written policy of the [public servant's] actor's public entity or the requirements of law;
3259          (k) [obtain or exercise] obtains or exercises unauthorized control of public property
3260     with the intent to deprive the owner of possession of the public property;
3261          (l) [obtain or exercise] obtains or exercises unauthorized control of public property
3262     with the intent to temporarily appropriate, possess, use, or deprive the owner of possession of
3263     the public property;
3264          (m) [appropriate] appropriates public property to the [public servant's] actor's own use
3265     or benefit or to the use or benefit of another person without authority of law;
3266          (n) [loan or transfer] loans or transfers public property without authority of law; or
3267          (o) [fail] fails to keep public property in the [public servant's] actor's possession until
3268     returned to the property owner[,] or disposed of or relinquished[,] in accordance with the
3269     written policy of the [public servant's] actor's public entity and the requirements of law.
3270          (3) (a) Except as provided [in Subsection (4)] by Subsection (3)(b), a violation of
3271     Subsections (2)(a) through (i) is a third degree felony [of the third degree].
3272          [(4)] (b) A violation of Subsections (2)(a) through (i) is a second degree felony [of the
3273     second degree] if:
3274          [(a)] (i) the value of the public money exceeds $5,000;
3275          [(b)] (ii) the amount of the false account exceeds $5,000;
3276          [(c)] (iii) the amount falsely entered exceeds $5,000;
3277          [(d)] (iv) the amount that is the difference between the original amount and the
3278     fraudulently altered amount exceeds $5,000; or
3279          [(e)] (v) the amount falsely erased, fraudulently concealed, destroyed, or falsified in the
3280     account exceeds $5,000.
3281          [(5)] (c) A violation of Subsection (2)(j) is:
3282          [(a)] (i) a class B misdemeanor[,] if the cost to repair or replace the public property is

3283     less than $500;
3284          [(b)] (ii) a class A misdemeanor[,] if the cost to repair or replace the public property is
3285     $500 or more, but less than $1,500;
3286          [(c)] (iii) a third degree felony [of the third degree,] if the cost to repair or replace the
3287     public property is $1,500 or more, but less than $5,000; or
3288          [(d)] (iv) a second degree felony [of the second degree,] if the cost to repair or replace
3289     the public property is $5,000 or more.
3290          [(6)] (d) A violation of Subsection (2)(k), (m), (n), or (o) is:
3291          [(a)] (i) a class B misdemeanor[,] if the value of the public property is less than $500;
3292          [(b)] (ii) a class A misdemeanor[,] if the value of the public property is $500 or more,
3293     but less than $1,500;
3294          [(c)] (iii) a third degree felony [of the third degree,] if the value of the public property
3295     is $1,500 or more, but less than $5,000; or
3296          [(d)] (iv) a second degree felony [of the second degree,] if the value of the public
3297     property is $5,000 or more.
3298          [(7)] (e) A violation of Subsection (2)(l) is:
3299          [(a)] (i) a class C misdemeanor[,] if the value of the public property is less than $500;
3300          [(b)] (ii) a class B misdemeanor[,] if the value of the public property is $500 or more,
3301     but less than $1,500;
3302          [(c)] (iii) a class A misdemeanor[,] if the value of the public property is $1,500 or
3303     more, but less than $5,000; or
3304          [(d)] (iv) a third degree felony [of the third degree,] if the value of the public property
3305     is $5,000 or more.
3306          [(8) In addition to the penalty described in Subsections (3) through (7), a public officer
3307     who is convicted of a felony violation of Subsection (2):]
3308          [(a) is subject to the penalties described in Section 76-8-404; and]
3309          [(b) may not disburse public funds or access public accounts.]
3310          [(9) (a) A public servant is not guilty of a violation of Subsections (2)(j) through (o)]
3311     [for authorized personal use of public property].
3312          [(10)] (4) It is not a defense to a violation of Subsection (2) that:
3313          (a) subsequent to the violation, a public entity modifies or adopts a policy or law, or

3314     takes other action, to retroactively authorize, approve, or ratify the conduct that constitutes a
3315     violation; or
3316          (b) a written policy of the [public servant's] actor's public entity permits private use of
3317     the public property if it is proven, beyond a reasonable doubt, that the [public servant] actor did
3318     not comply with the written policy.
3319          (5) Subsections (2)(j) through (2)(o) do not apply to the authorized personal use of
3320     public property.
3321          (6) In addition to the punishment described in Subsection (3), an actor who:
3322          (a) is convicted of a felony offense under this section may not disburse public funds or
3323     access public accounts; or
3324          (b) is a public officer and is convicted of a felony offense under this section is
3325     disqualified from holding public office if:
3326          (i) regardless of whether the public officer receives, safekeeps, transfers, disburses, or
3327     has a fiduciary relationship with public money, the public officer makes a profit from or out of
3328     public money or public property; or
3329          (ii) the public officer uses public money or public property in a manner or for a
3330     purpose not authorized by law.
3331          Section 68. Section 76-8-403 is amended to read:
3332          76-8-403. Failure to keep and pay over public money.
3333          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3334          (2) Except as otherwise provided in Subsection [76-8-402(4), a person who]
3335     76-8-402(3)(b), an actor commits failure to keep and pay over public money if the actor:
3336          (a) receives, safekeeps, transfers, or disburses public money [who]; and
3337          (b) neglects or fails to keep and pay over the public money in the manner prescribed by
3338     law [is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
3339          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3340          Section 69. Section 76-8-405 is amended to read:
3341          76-8-405. Failure to pay over a fine, forfeiture, or fee.
3342          [Every public officer who]
3343          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3344          (2) An actor commits failure to pay over a fine, forfeiture, or fee if the actor:

3345          (a) is a public officer;
3346          (b) receives any fine, forfeiture, or fee; and
3347          (c) refuses or neglects to pay [it] over the fine, forfeiture, or fee within the time
3348     prescribed by law [is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3349          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3350          Section 70. Section 76-8-406 is amended to read:
3351          76-8-406. Obstructing the collection of revenue.
3352          [Every person who]
3353          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3354          (2) An actor commits obstructing the collection of revenue if the actor willfully
3355     obstructs or hinders [any] a public officer who is empowered by law to collect revenue, taxes,
3356     or other sums of money from collecting [any] revenue, taxes, or other sums of money in which
3357     [the people of this state are interested, and which such officer is by law empowered to collect,
3358     is guilty of a class B misdemeanor] this state is interested.
3359          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3360          Section 71. Section 76-8-407 is amended to read:
3361          76-8-407. Refusing to give accurate tax assessment information.
3362          [Every person who]
3363          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3364          (2) An actor commits refusing to give accurate tax assessment information if the actor:
3365          (a) unlawfully refuses, upon demand, to give to [any] a county assessor or deputy
3366     county assessor a list of [his] the actor's property subject to taxation, or to swear to such list[,];
3367     or [who]
3368          (b) gives a false name, or fraudulently refuses to give [his] the actor's true name when
3369     demanded by the county assessor or deputy county assessor in the discharge of [his] the
3370     assessor's official duties[, is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3371          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3372          Section 72. Section 76-8-408 is amended to read:
3373          76-8-408. Giving a false tax receipt or failing to give a receipt.
3374          [Every person who]
3375          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.

3376          (2) An actor commits giving a false tax receipt or failing to give a receipt if the actor:
3377          (a) uses or gives [any] a receipt, except that prescribed by law, as evidence of the
3378     payment for [any] a tax or license of any kind[,]; or [who]
3379          (b) receives payment for the tax or license without delivering the receipt prescribed by
3380     law[, is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3381          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3382          Section 73. Section 76-8-409 is amended to read:
3383          76-8-409. Refusing to give a tax assessor or tax or license fee collector a list of
3384     employees.
3385          [Every person who, when requested by the assessor or collector of taxes or license
3386     fees,]
3387          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3388          (2) An actor commits refusing to give a tax assessor or tax or license fee collector a list
3389     of employees if the actor refuses to give [to] the assessor or collector the name and residence of
3390     each [person in his employ, or to give the assessor or collector access to the building or place
3391     of employment, is guilty of a class B misdemeanor.] individual in the actor's employ when
3392     requested by the assessor or collector.
3393          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3394          Section 74. Section 76-8-409.2 is enacted to read:
3395          76-8-409.2. Denying a tax assessor or tax or license fee collector access to a
3396     building or place of employment.
3397          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3398          (2) An actor commits denying a tax assessor or tax or license fee collector access to a
3399     building or place of employment if the actor refuses to give the assessor or collector access to
3400     the building or place of employment when access is requested by the assessor or collector.
3401          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3402          Section 75. Section 76-8-410 is amended to read:
3403          76-8-410. Doing business without a license.
3404          [Every person who]
3405          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3406          (2) An actor commits doing business without a license if the actor commences or

3407     carries on [any] a business, trade, profession, or calling, for [the transaction or carrying on of]
3408     which a license is required by [any] law, or by [any] county, city, or town ordinance, without
3409     [taking out the] obtaining the required license [required by law or ordinance is guilty of a class
3410     B misdemeanor].
3411          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3412          Section 76. Section 76-8-411 is amended to read:
3413          76-8-411. Trafficking in warrants.
3414          [No state,]
3415          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3416          (2) An actor commits trafficking in warrants if the actor:
3417          (a) is a state, county, city, town, or district officer; and
3418          (b) [shall, either directly or indirectly, contract for or purchase any] directly or
3419     indirectly contracts for or purchases a warrant or order issued by the state, county, city, town,
3420     or district of which [he] the actor is an officer, at any discount whatever upon the sum due on
3421     the warrant or order[, and, if any state, county, city, town, or district officer shall so contract for
3422     or purchase any such order or warrant on a discount, he is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3423          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3424          Section 77. Section 76-8-412 is amended to read:
3425          76-8-412. Stealing, destroying or mutilating public records by custodian.
3426          [Every officer having the custody of any record, map, or book, or of any paper or
3427     proceedings of any court, filed or deposited in any public office, or placed in his hands for any
3428     purpose, who is guilty of stealing, willfully destroying, mutilating, defacing, altering,
3429     falsifying, removing, or secreting the whole or any part thereof, or who permits any other
3430     person so to do, is guilty of a felony of the third degree.]
3431          (1) (a) As used in this section, "public record" means the following records filed or
3432     deposited in a public office:
3433          (i) a record;
3434          (ii) a map;
3435          (iii) a book; or
3436          (iv) a paper or proceeding of a court.
3437          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.

3438          (2) An actor commits stealing, destroying, or mutilating a public record by a custodian
3439     if the actor:
3440          (a) is a government officer who has custody of a public record; and
3441          (b) steals, willfully destroys, mutilates, defaces, alters, falsifies, removes, or secrets the
3442     whole or a part of the public record or permits another individual to do so.
3443          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3444          Section 78. Section 76-8-413 is amended to read:
3445          76-8-413. Stealing, destroying or mutilating public records by one not custodian.
3446          [Every person, not an officer such as is referred to in the preceding section, who is
3447     guilty of any of the acts specified in that section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.]
3448          (1) (a) As used in this section, "public record" means the same as that term is defined
3449     in Section 76-8-412.
3450          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3451          (2) An actor commits stealing, destroying, or mutilating a public record by a
3452     noncustodian if the actor:
3453          (a) does not have lawful custody of a public record; and
3454          (b) steals, willfully destroys, mutilates, defaces, alters, falsifies, removes, or secrets the
3455     whole or a part of the public record or permits another individual to do so.
3456          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
3457          Section 79. Section 76-8-414 is amended to read:
3458          76-8-414. Recording a false or forged instrument.
3459          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3460          (2) [Every person who] An actor commits recording a false or forged instrument if the
3461     actor knowingly procures or offers [any] a false or forged instrument to be filed, registered, or
3462     recorded in [any] a public office, which instrument, if genuine, might be filed or registered or
3463     recorded under [any] a law of this state or of the United States[, is guilty of a felony of the third
3464     degree].
3465          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3466          Section 80. Section 76-8-415 is amended to read:
3467          76-8-415. Damaging or removing a monument of an official survey.
3468          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.

3469          (2) [Every person who] An actor commits damaging or removing a monument of an
3470     official survey if the actor willfully injures, defaces, or removes [any] a signal, monument,
3471     building, or appurtenance thereto, placed, erected, or used by persons engaged in the United
3472     States or state survey [is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3473          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3474          Section 81. Section 76-8-416 is amended to read:
3475          76-8-416. Taking a toll or maintaining a road, bridge, or ferry without authority.
3476          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3477          (2) [Any person who] An actor commits taking a toll or maintaining a road, bridge, or
3478     ferry without authority if the actor, without authority:
3479          (a) demands or receives compensation for the use of [any] a bridge or ferry[,]; or [who]
3480          (b) sets up or keeps [any] a road, bridge, [or] ferry, or constructed ford, for the purpose
3481     of receiving remuneration for [its] the road's, bridge's, ferry's, or constructed ford's use [without
3482     authority of law; and any person who refuses to pay on demand the compensation or fee
3483     authorized to be collected for use of a licensed toll road, bridge, ferry, or constructed ford after
3484     having used it is guilty of a class B misdemeanor].
3485          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3486          Section 82. Section 76-8-416.2 is enacted to read:
3487          76-8-416.2. Refusal to pay a lawful toll.
3488          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3489          (2) An actor commits refusal to pay a lawful toll if the actor, after having used a
3490     licensed toll road, bridge, ferry, or constructed ford, refuses to pay on demand the
3491     compensation or fee authorized to be collected for use of the licensed toll road, bridge, ferry, or
3492     constructed ford.
3493          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3494          Section 83. Section 76-8-417 is amended to read:
3495          76-8-417. Tampering with an official notice or proclamation.
3496          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3497          (2) [Every person who] An actor commits tampering with an official notice or
3498     proclamation if the actor intentionally defaces, obliterates, tears down, or destroys:
3499          (a) [any] a copy, [or] transcript, or extract from or of [any] a law of the United States or

3500     of this state[,]; or
3501          (b) [any] a proclamation, advertisement, or notice, set up [at any place] in this state by
3502     authority of [any] a law of the United States or of this state, or by order of [any] a court or of
3503     [any] a public officer, before the expiration of the time for which the [same] proclamation,
3504     advertisement, or notice was to remain set up[, is guilty of an infraction].
3505          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is an infraction.
3506          Section 84. Section 76-8-418 is amended to read:
3507          76-8-418. Damaging a jail or other place of confinement.
3508          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3509          [(a)] (i) "Child" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
3510          [(b)] (ii) "Detention facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
3511     80-1-102.
3512          [(c)] (iii) "Secure care facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
3513     80-1-102.
3514          [(d)] (iv) "Shelter facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
3515          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3516          (2) [A person who] An actor commits damaging a jail or other place of confinement if
3517     the actor willfully and intentionally breaks down, pulls down, destroys, floods, or otherwise
3518     damages [any] a public jail or other place of confinement, including a detention facility, a
3519     shelter facility, or a secure care facility[, is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
3520          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3521          [(3)] (4) This section is applicable to a child who willfully and intentionally commits
3522     an offense against a public jail, a detention facility, a shelter facility, or a secure care facility.
3523          Section 85. Section 76-8-419 is amended to read:
3524          76-8-419. Damaging a highway or bridge.
3525          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3526          (2) [Every person who] An actor commits damaging a highway or bridge if the actor
3527     intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly digs up, removes, displaces, breaks, or otherwise
3528     damages or destroys [any public highway, or any] a public highway or private way laid out by
3529     authority of law, or [any] a bridge upon the highway or private way [is guilty of a class A
3530     misdemeanor].

3531          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree
3532     felony.
3533          [(2)] (4) If the violation of this section constitutes an offense subject to a greater
3534     penalty under another provision of Title 76, Utah Criminal Code, than is provided under this
3535     section, this section does not prohibit the prosecution and sentencing for the offense subject to
3536     a greater penalty.
3537          Section 86. Section 76-8-420 is amended to read:
3538          76-8-420. Removing or damaging a road sign.
3539          [Every person who intentionally or knowingly removes or injures any milepost or
3540     milestone or guidepost or any inscription on them, erected upon any highway, is guilty of a
3541     class B misdemeanor.]
3542          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3543          (2) An actor commits removing or damaging a road sign if the actor intentionally or
3544     knowingly removes or damages:
3545          (a) a milepost, milestone, or guidepost erected on a highway; or
3546          (b) an inscription on a milepost, milestone, or guidepost.
3547          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3548          Section 87. Section 76-8-501 is amended to read:
3549          76-8-501. Definitions.
3550          As used in this part:
3551          (1) "False statement" includes a false unsworn declaration[, with "unsworn declaration"
3552     being defined in Section 78B-18a-102].
3553          (2) "Material" means capable of affecting the course or outcome of an official
3554     proceeding, unless the [person] individual who made the statement or provided the information
3555     retracts the statement or information before the earlier of:
3556          (a) the end of the official proceeding in which the statement was made or the
3557     information was provided;
3558          (b) when it becomes manifest that the false or misleading nature of the statement or
3559     information has been or will be exposed; or
3560          (c) when the statement or information substantially affects the proceeding.
3561          (3) "Official proceeding" means:

3562          (a) [any] a proceeding before:
3563          (i) a legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental body or official
3564     authorized by law to take evidence under oath or affirmation;
3565          (ii) a notary; or
3566          (iii) [a person that] an individual who takes evidence in connection with a proceeding
3567     described in Subsection (3)(a)(i);
3568          (b) [any] a civil or administrative action, trial, examination under oath, administrative
3569     proceeding, or other civil or administrative adjudicative process; or
3570          (c) an investigation or audit conducted by:
3571          (i) the Legislature, or a house, committee, subcommittee, or task force of the
3572     Legislature; or
3573          (ii) an employee or independent contractor of an entity described in Subsection
3574     (3)(c)(i), at or under the direction of an entity described in Subsection (3)(c)(i).
3575          (4) "Unsworn declaration" means the same as that term is defined in Section
3576     78B-18a-102.
3577          Section 88. Section 76-8-502 is amended to read:
3578          76-8-502. Making a false or inconsistent material statement.
3579          [A person is guilty of a felony of the second degree if in any official proceeding:]
3580          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3581     section.
3582          (2) [He] An actor commits making a false or inconsistent material statement if the
3583     actor:
3584          (a) makes a false material statement under oath or affirmation or swears or affirms the
3585     truth of a material statement previously made and [he] the actor does not believe the statement
3586     to be true; or
3587          [(2)] (b) [He] makes inconsistent material statements under oath or affirmation, both
3588     within the period of limitations, one of which is false and [not believed by him] the actor does
3589     not believe to be true.
3590          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a second degree felony.
3591          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the oath or affirmation was
3592     administered or taken in an irregular manner.

3593          (5) (a) In a prosecution for a violation of Subsection (2)(a), the falsity of an actor's
3594     statement may not be established solely through contradiction by the testimony of a single
3595     witness.
3596          (b) In a prosecution for a violation of Subsection (2)(b), it need not be alleged or
3597     proved which of the statements are false but only that one or the other statement is false and
3598     not believed by the actor to be true.
3599          Section 89. Section 76-8-503 is amended to read:
3600          76-8-503. Making a false or inconsistent statement.
3601          (1) [Except as provided in Subsection (2), a person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor
3602     if:] Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this section.
3603          [(a)] (2) [the person] Except as provided in Subsection (6), an actor commits making a
3604     false or inconsistent statement if the actor:
3605          (a) makes a false statement under oath or affirmation or swears or affirms the truth of
3606     the statement previously made and the [person] actor does not believe the statement to be true
3607     if:
3608          (i) the falsification occurs in an official proceeding, or is made with a purpose to
3609     mislead a public servant in performing the public servant's official functions; or
3610          (ii) the statement is one that is authorized by law to be sworn or affirmed before a
3611     notary or other [person] individual authorized to administer oaths; or
3612          (b) [the person] makes inconsistent statements under oath or affirmation, both within
3613     the period of limitations, one of which is false and not believed by the [person] actor to be true.
3614          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3615          (4) (a) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the oath or affirmation
3616     was administered or taken in an irregular manner.
3617          (b) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor retracted the false
3618     statement before it became manifest that the falsity of the statement had been or would be
3619     exposed.
3620          (5) (a) In a prosecution for a violation of Subsection (2)(a), the falsity of an actor's
3621     statement may not be established solely through contradiction by the testimony of a single
3622     witness.
3623          (b) In a prosecution for a violation of Subsection (2)(b), it need not be alleged or

3624     proved which of the statements are false but only that one or the other statement is false and
3625     not believed by the actor to be true.
3626          [(2)] (6) Subsection [(1)] (2) does not include obstructing a legislative proceeding, as
3627     described in Section 36-12-9.5.
3628          [(3) A person is not guilty under this section if the person retracts the falsification
3629     before it becomes manifest that the falsification has been or will be exposed.]
3630          Section 90. Section 76-8-504 is amended to read:
3631          76-8-504. Making a written false statement.
3632          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3633     section.
3634          (2) An actor commits [the offense of] making a written false statement if:
3635          (a) the actor makes a statement that the actor does not believe to be true on or under a
3636     form bearing a notification authorized by law to the effect that [false statements made therein
3637     are punishable] a false statement made therein is punishable; or
3638          (b) with intent to deceive a public servant in the performance of the public servant's
3639     official function, the actor:
3640          (i) makes a written false statement that the actor does not believe to be true;
3641          (ii) knowingly creates a false impression in a written application for a pecuniary or
3642     other benefit by omitting information necessary to prevent a statement in the application from
3643     being misleading;
3644          (iii) submits or invites reliance on a writing that the actor knows to be lacking in
3645     authenticity; or
3646          (iv) submits or invites reliance on a sample, specimen, map, boundary mark, or other
3647     object that the actor knows to be false.
3648          [(2)] (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection [(2)(b),] (3)(b), a violation of Subsection
3649     [(1)] (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3650          (b) A violation of Subsection [(1)] (2) is a third degree felony if the false statement is
3651     on a financial declaration described in Section 77-38b-204.
3652          [(3) It is not an offense under this section if the actor retracts the falsification before it
3653     becomes manifest that the falsification was or would be exposed.]
3654          (4) (a) An actor does not violate this section if the actor retracted the false statement

3655     before it became manifest that the falsity of the statement had been or would be exposed.
3656          (b) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that, if applicable, an oath or
3657     affirmation was administered or taken in an irregular manner.
3658          Section 91. Section 76-8-504.5 is amended to read:
3659          76-8-504.5. Making a false statement to be used in a preliminary hearing.
3660          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3661     section.
3662          (2) [A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor if the person] An actor commits
3663     making a false statement to be used in a preliminary hearing if the actor makes a false
3664     statement that:
3665          (a) [which the person] the actor does not believe to be true;
3666          (b) [that the person] the actor has reason to believe will be used in a preliminary
3667     hearing; and
3668          (c) the actor made after having been notified either verbally or in writing that:
3669          (i) the statement may be used in a preliminary hearing before a magistrate or a judge;
3670     and
3671          (ii) if the [person] actor makes a false statement after having received this notification,
3672     [he] the actor is subject to a criminal penalty.
3673          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
3674          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that, if applicable, an oath or
3675     affirmation was administered or taken in an irregular manner.
3676          [(2)] (5) [Notification] A notification under Subsection [(1)] (2)(c) is sufficient if [it]
3677     the notification is verbal or written and is in substantially the following form: "You are notified
3678     that statements you are about to make may be presented to a magistrate or a judge in lieu of
3679     your sworn testimony at a preliminary examination. Any false statement you make and that
3680     you do not believe to be true may subject you to criminal punishment as a class A
3681     misdemeanor."
3682          Section 92. Section 76-8-504.6 is amended to read:
3683          76-8-504.6. Providing false or misleading information.
3684          (1) (a) As used in this section, "officer of the court" means:
3685          (i) a prosecutor;

3686          (ii) a judge;
3687          (iii) a court clerk;
3688          (iv) an interpreter;
3689          (v) a presentence investigator;
3690          (vi) a probation officer;
3691          (vii) a parole officer; or
3692          (viii) an individual reasonably believed to be gathering information for a criminal
3693     proceeding.
3694          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3695     section.
3696          (2) [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if the person,] An actor commits
3697     providing false or misleading information if the actor, not under oath or affirmation,
3698     intentionally or knowingly provides false or misleading material information to:
3699          (a) an officer of the court for the purpose of influencing a criminal proceeding; or
3700          (b) the Bureau of Criminal Identification for the purpose of obtaining a certificate of
3701     eligibility for:
3702          (i) expungement; or
3703          (ii) removal of the person's name from the White Collar Crime Registry created in Title
3704     77, Chapter 42, Utah White Collar Crime Offender Registry.
3705          (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class B
3706     misdemeanor.
3707          [(2) For the purposes of this section "officer of the court" means:]
3708          [(a) prosecutor;]
3709          [(b) judge;]
3710          [(c) court clerk;]
3711          [(d) interpreter;]
3712          [(e) presentence investigator;]
3713          [(f) probation officer;]
3714          [(g) parole officer; and]
3715          [(h) any other person reasonably believed to be gathering information for a criminal
3716     proceeding.]

3717          [(3)] (4) This section does not apply under circumstances amounting to Section
3718     76-8-306 or any other provision of this code carrying a greater penalty.
3719          Section 93. Section 76-8-506 is amended to read:
3720          76-8-506. Providing false information to a law enforcement officer, government
3721     agency, or specified professional.
3722          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor if he:]
3723          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3724     section.
3725          (2) An actor commits providing false information to a law enforcement officer,
3726     government agency, or specified professional if the actor knowingly gives or causes to be
3727     given:
3728          (a) false information to [any] a peace officer or [any] state or local government agency
3729     or personnel with a purpose of inducing the recipient of the information to believe that another
3730     person has committed an offense;
3731          [(2)] (b) [knowingly gives or causes to be given to any] information concerning the
3732     commission of an offense to a peace officer, [any] a state or local government agency or
3733     personnel, or to [any person] an individual licensed in this state to practice social work,
3734     psychology, or marriage and family therapy, [information concerning the commission of an
3735     offense,] knowing that the offense did not occur or knowing that [he] the actor has no
3736     information relating to the offense or danger; or
3737          [(3)] (c) [knowingly gives or causes to be given] false information to [any] a state or
3738     local government agency or personnel with a purpose of inducing a change in the [person's]
3739     actor's licensing or certification status or the licensing or certification status of another person.
3740          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3741          Section 94. Section 76-8-507 is amended to read:
3742          76-8-507. Providing false personal information to a peace officer.
3743          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3744     section.
3745          (2) [A person commits a class C misdemeanor if,] An actor commits providing false
3746     personal information to a peace officer if the actor knowingly:
3747          (a) with intent of misleading a peace officer as to the [person's] actor's identity, birth

3748     date, or place of residence, [the person knowingly] gives a false name, birth date, or address to
3749     [a] the peace officer in the lawful discharge of the peace officer's official duties[.]; or
3750          [(2)] (b) [A person commits a class A misdemeanor if,] with the intent of leading a
3751     peace officer to believe that the [person] actor is another actual [person, he] individual, gives
3752     the name, birth date, or address of another [person to a] individual to the peace officer acting in
3753     the lawful discharge of the peace officer's official duties.
3754          (3) (a) A violation of Subsection (2)(a) is a class C misdemeanor.
3755          (b) A violation of Subsection (2)(b) is a class A misdemeanor.
3756          Section 95. Section 76-8-508 is amended to read:
3757          76-8-508. Tampering with a witness.
3758          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3759     section.
3760          (2) [A person is guilty of the third degree felony of] An actor commits tampering with
3761     a witness if[,] the actor:
3762          (a) (i) [believing] believes that an official proceeding or investigation is pending or
3763     about to be instituted[,]; or
3764          (ii) [with the intent] intends to prevent an official proceeding or investigation[,]; and
3765          (b) [he] attempts to induce or otherwise cause another [person] individual to:
3766          [(a)] (i) testify or inform falsely;
3767          [(b)] (ii) withhold [any] testimony, information, a document, or an item;
3768          [(c)] (iii) elude legal process summoning [him] the individual to provide evidence; or
3769          [(d)] (iv) absent [himself] the individual from [any] a proceeding or investigation to
3770     which [he] the individual has been summoned.
3771          [(2) A person is guilty of the third degree felony of soliciting or receiving a bribe as a
3772     witness if he solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit in consideration of his doing any
3773     of the acts specified under Subsection (1).]
3774          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3775          [(3)] (4) [The offense of tampering with a witness or soliciting or receiving a bribe] A
3776     violation under this section does not merge with [any other] another substantive offense
3777     committed in the course of [committing any offense under] violating this section.
3778          Section 96. Section 76-8-508.3 is amended to read:

3779          76-8-508.3. Retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant.
3780          [(1) As used in this section:]
3781          (1) (a) [A person is "closely associated"] As used in this section, "an individual closely
3782     associated with a witness, victim, or informant [if the person] "means an individual who is a
3783     member of the witness', victim's, or informant's family, has a close personal or business
3784     relationship with the witness or victim, or resides in the same household with the witness,
3785     victim, or informant.
3786          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3787     section.
3788          [(b) "Harm" means physical, emotional, or economic injury or damage to a person or to
3789     his property, reputation, or business interests.]
3790          [(2) A person is guilty of the third degree felony of retaliation against a witness, victim,
3791     or informant if, believing that an official proceeding or investigation is pending, is about to be
3792     instituted, or has been concluded, he:]
3793          [(a) (i) makes a threat of harm; or]
3794          [(ii) causes harm; and]
3795          [(b) directs the threat or action:]
3796          [(i) against a witness or an informant regarding any official proceeding, a victim of any
3797     crime, or any person closely associated with a witness, victim, or informant; and]
3798          [(ii) as retaliation or retribution against the witness, victim, or informant.]
3799          [(3)] (2) An actor commits retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant if the
3800     actor:
3801          (a) believes that an official proceeding or investigation is pending, is about to be
3802     brought, or has been concluded;
3803          (b) makes a threat of harm or causes harm; and
3804          (c) directs the threat or action causing harm as retaliation or retribution against a
3805     witness or an informant involved in an official proceeding, a victim of a crime, or an individual
3806     closely associated with a witness, victim, or informant.
3807          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.[This section does not prohibit
3808     any person from seeking any legal redress to which the person is otherwise entitled.]
3809          (4) [The offense of retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant] A violation

3810     under this section does not merge with [any other] another substantive offense committed in
3811     the course of [committing any offense under] violating this section.
3812          (5) This section does not prohibit an individual from seeking other legal redress to
3813     which the individual is otherwise entitled.
3814          Section 97. Section 76-8-508.5 is amended to read:
3815          76-8-508.5. Tampering or retaliating against a juror.
3816          (1) (a) As used in this section, "juror" means [a person] an individual:
3817          [(a)] (i) summoned for jury duty; or
3818          [(b)] (ii) serving as or having served as a juror or alternate juror in any court or as a
3819     juror on any grand jury of the state.
3820          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3821     section.
3822          (2) [A person is guilty of tampering with a juror if he] An actor commits tampering or
3823     retaliating against a juror if the actor:
3824          (a) attempts to or actually influences a juror in the discharge of the juror's service by:
3825          [(a)] (i) communicating with the juror by any means, directly or indirectly, except for
3826     [attorneys] an attorney in the lawful discharge of [their] the attorney's duties in open court;
3827          [(b)] (ii) offering, conferring, or agreeing to confer any benefit upon the juror; or
3828          [(c)] (iii) communicating to the juror a threat that a reasonable person would believe to
3829     be a threat to injure:
3830          [(i)] (A) the juror's person or property; or
3831          [(ii)] (B) the person or property of [any other person] another individual in whose
3832     welfare the juror is interested[.]; or
3833          [(3)] (b) [A person is guilty of tampering with a juror if he commits any] commits an
3834     unlawful act in retaliation for [anything done] an action taken by the juror in the discharge of
3835     the juror's service:
3836          [(a)] (i) to the juror's person or property; or
3837          [(b)] (ii) to the person or property of [any other person] another individual in whose
3838     welfare the juror is interested.
3839          [(4)] (3) [Tampering with a juror] A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree
3840     felony.

3841          Section 98. Section 76-8-508.7 is enacted to read:
3842          76-8-508.7. Receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness.
3843          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3844     section.
3845          (2) An actor commits receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness if the actor:
3846          (a) believes that an official proceeding or investigation is pending or about to be
3847     instituted; and
3848          (b) solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept a benefit in consideration of the actor:
3849          (i) testifying or informing falsely;
3850          (ii) withholding testimony, information, a document, or an item;
3851          (iii) eluding legal process summoning the actor to provide evidence; or
3852          (iv) absenting the actor from a proceeding or investigation to which the actor has been
3853     summoned.
3854          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
3855          (4) A violation under this section does not merge with another substantive offense
3856     committed in the course of violating this section.
3857          Section 99. Section 76-8-509 is amended to read:
3858          76-8-509. Extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding.
3859          (1) (a) As used in this section, "victim" includes a child or other individual under the
3860     care or custody of a parent or guardian.
3861          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3862     section.
3863          (2) [A person is guilty of a felony of the second degree if by] An actor commits
3864     extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding if the actor attempts to induce an alleged
3865     victim of a crime to take an action to secure the dismissal or to prevent the filing of a criminal
3866     complaint, indictment, or information by:
3867          (a) the use of force; or
3868          (b) [by any threat which would constitute a means of committing the crime of theft by
3869     extortion under this code, if the threat were employed to obtain property, or by promise of any
3870     reward or pecuniary benefits, he attempts to induce an alleged victim of a crime to secure the
3871     dismissal of or to prevent the filing of a criminal complaint, indictment, or information.] a

3872     threat that would constitute a means of committing the offense of theft by extortion under
3873     Section 76-6-406 if the threat were employed to obtain property or by promise of a reward or
3874     pecuniary benefit
3875          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a second degree felony.
3876          [(2) "Victim," as used in this section, includes a child or other person under the care or
3877     custody of a parent or guardian.]
3878          Section 100. Section 76-8-510.5 is amended to read:
3879          76-8-510.5. Tampering with evidence.
3880          (1) (a) As used in this section, "thing or item" includes any document, record book,
3881     paper, file, electronic compilation, or other evidence.
3882          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3883     section.
3884          (2) [A person is guilty of] An actor commits tampering with evidence if[, believing]
3885     the actor:
3886          (a) (i) believes that an official proceeding or investigation is pending or about to be
3887     instituted[,]; or [with the intent]
3888          (ii) intends to prevent an official proceeding or investigation or to prevent the
3889     production of [any] a thing or item which reasonably would be anticipated to be evidence in the
3890     official proceeding or investigation[, the person]; and
3891          (b) knowingly or intentionally:
3892          [(a)] (i) alters, destroys, conceals, or removes [any] a thing or item with the purpose of
3893     impairing the veracity or availability of the thing or item in the proceeding or investigation; or
3894          [(b)] (ii) makes, presents, or uses [any] a thing or item which the [person] actor knows
3895     to be false with the purpose of deceiving a public servant or [any] other party who is or may be
3896     engaged in the proceeding or investigation.
3897          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class
3898     A misdemeanor.
3899          (b) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony if the offense is committed in
3900     conjunction with an official proceeding.
3901          [(3)] (4) Subsection (2) does not apply to any offense that amounts to a violation of
3902     Section 76-8-306.

3903          [(4) (a) Tampering with evidence is a third degree felony if the offense is committed in
3904     conjunction with an official proceeding.]
3905          [(b) Any violation of this section except under Subsection (4)(a) is a class A
3906     misdemeanor.]
3907          Section 101. Section 76-8-511 is amended to read:
3908          76-8-511. Falsification or alteration of a government record.
3909          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor]
3910          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3911     section.
3912          (2) An actor commits falsification or alteration of a government record if, under
3913     circumstances not amounting to an offense subject to a greater penalty under Title 76, Chapter
3914     6, Part 5, Fraud, [the person] the actor:
3915          [(1)] (a) knowingly makes a false entry in or false alteration of anything belonging to,
3916     received, or kept by the government for information or record, or required by law to be kept for
3917     information of the government;
3918          [(2)] (b) presents or uses anything knowing it to be false and with a purpose that it be
3919     taken as a genuine part of information or [records] record referred to in Subsection [(1)] (2)(a);
3920     or
3921          [(3)] (c) intentionally destroys, conceals, or otherwise impairs the verity or availability
3922     of the information or [records] record, knowing that the destruction, concealment, or
3923     impairment is unlawful.
3924          (d) Except as provided in Subsection (4), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class B
3925     misdemeanor.
3926          Section 102. Section 76-8-512 is amended to read:
3927          76-8-512. Impersonation of officer.
3928          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor who:]
3929          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3930     section.
3931          [(1)] (2) An actor commits impersonation of an officer if the actor:
3932          (a) impersonates a public servant or a peace officer with intent to deceive another
3933     individual or with intent to induce another individual to submit to [his] the actor's pretended

3934     official authority or to rely upon [his] the actor's pretended official act;
3935          [(2)] (b) falsely states [he] that the actor is a public servant or a peace officer with
3936     intent to deceive another individual or to induce another individual to submit to [his] the actor's
3937     pretended official authority or to rely upon [his] the actor's pretended official act; or
3938          [(3)] (c) displays or possesses without authority [any] a badge, identification card,
3939     other form of identification, [any] a restraint device, [or] the uniform of [any] a state or local
3940     governmental entity, or a reasonable facsimile of any of these items, with the intent to deceive
3941     another individual or with the intent to induce another individual to submit to [his] the actor's
3942     pretended official authority or to rely upon [his] the actor's pretended official act.
3943          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3944          Section 103. Section 76-8-513 is amended to read:
3945          76-8-513. Sending a false judicial or official notice.
3946          [A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor who, with a purpose to procure the
3947     compliance of another with a request made by the person, knowingly sends, mails, or delivers
3948     to the person a notice or other writing which has no judicial or other sanction but which in its
3949     format or appearance simulates a summons, complaint, court order, or process, or an insignia,
3950     seal, or printed form of a federal, state, or local government or an instrumentality thereof, or is
3951     otherwise calculated to induce a belief that it does have a judicial or other official sanction.]
3952          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3953          (i) "Official document" means:
3954          (A) a summons, complaint, court order, or process; or
3955          (B) an insignia, seal, or printed form of a federal, state, or local governmental entity or
3956     an instrumentality of a federal, state, or local governmental entity.
3957          (ii) (A) "False official document" means a document that has the appearance or format
3958     of an official document but that has not been sanctioned by the relevant governmental entity.
3959          (B) "False official document" includes a document calculated to induce an individual
3960     to believe that the document is an official document of the relevant governmental entity.
3961          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this
3962     section.
3963          (2) An actor commits sending a false judicial or official notice if the actor knowingly
3964     sends, mails, or delivers to an individual a false official document with the purpose to procure

3965     the compliance of the individual.
3966          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
3967          Section 104. Section 76-8-515 is amended to read:
3968          76-8-515. Impersonation of a utility officer or employee.
3969          (1) (a) As used in this section:
3970          (i) "Critical infrastructure facility" means the same as that term is defined in Section
3971     76-6-106.3.
3972          (ii) "Sabotage" means the same as that term is defined in Section 76-8-901.
3973          (iii) "Terrorism" means the same as that term is defined in Section 53-2a-102.
3974          (iv) "Utility" means a private or governmental entity operating a critical infrastructure
3975     facility.
3976          (b) Terms defined [in Section 76-1-101.5 apply to this section] in Sections 76-1-101.5,
3977     76-8-101, and 76-8-501 apply to this section.
3978          (2) An actor commits impersonation of a utility officer or employee if the actor,
3979     without authority from a utility:
3980          (a) intends to lead an individual to believe that the actor is acting on behalf of the
3981     utility in an official capacity; and
3982          (b) attempts to act on behalf of the utility.
3983          (3) (a) [A] Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), a violation of Subsection (2) is a
3984     class A misdemeanor.
3985          (b) [Notwithstanding Subsection (3)(a), a] A violation of Subsection (2) is a third
3986     degree felony if the actor, while taking the action described in Subsection (2), intends to
3987     commit an act of terrorism or sabotage.
3988          Section 105. Section 76-8-601 is amended to read:
3989          76-8-601. Wrongful commencement of an action in justice court.
3990          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
3991          (2) An actor commits wrongful commencement of an action in justice court if the
3992     actor:
3993          (a) is:
3994          (i) a party to a suit or a proceeding; or
3995          (ii) an agent or attorney for a party to a suit or proceeding; and

3996          (b) [Any party to any suit or proceeding, and any attorney or agent for the party, who
3997     knowingly commences, prosecutes, or maintains any action, suit, or proceeding in any justice
3998     court other than as provided in Sections 78A-7-105 and 78A-7-106, is guilty of a class B
3999     misdemeanor.] except as provided in Section 78A-7-105 or 78A-7-106, knowingly
4000     commences, prosecutes, or maintains an action, suit, or proceeding in a justice court.
4001          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
4002          Section 106. Section 76-8-602 is amended to read:
4003          76-8-602. Wrongfully conferring jurisdiction upon a justice court.
4004          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4005          (2) [Any person who binds himself, or] An actor commits wrongfully conferring
4006     jurisdiction upon a justice court if the actor, for the purpose of conferring jurisdiction of a
4007     cause upon a justice court in a precinct or city that would be without jurisdiction except for the
4008     liability of the joint obligor, binds the actor's self, voluntarily becomes liable jointly or jointly
4009     and severally with [any other person, for the purpose of conferring jurisdiction of any cause
4010     upon any justice court judge in any precinct or city that would be without jurisdiction except
4011     for the liability of the joint obligor, and any person who induces a person to assume the liability
4012     for the purpose of conferring jurisdiction upon the justice court judge, is guilty of] another
4013     person, or induces a person to assume a liability.
4014          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
4015          Section 107. Section 76-8-603 is amended to read:
4016          76-8-603. Wrongfully issued writ of attachment by a justice court judge.
4017          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4018          (2) [It is unlawful for any] An actor commits wrongfully issued writ of attachment by a
4019     justice court judge if the actor:
4020          (a) is a justice court judge [to issue any]; and
4021          (b) issues a writ of attachment[, and for any party, agent, or attorney of the party, to
4022     advise, induce, or procure the issuance thereof, in any] in an action, suit, or proceeding:
4023          (i) before the affidavit is filed[,]; or
4024          (ii) [where] in which the affidavit filed does not conform substantially with the
4025     requirements of Rule 64C of the Utah Rules of Civil Procedure.
4026          (3) [Any person violating any of the provisions of this section is guilty of] A violation

4027     of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor [and shall be].
4028          (4) In addition to the penalty under Subsection (3), an actor is liable to the person
4029     whose property, credits, money, or earnings are attached for:
4030          (a) double the value of the attached property[, together with];
4031          (b) all costs paid by [him,] the person; and
4032          (c) all damages incurred in the attachment proceedings.
4033          Section 108. Section 76-8-604 is enacted to read:
4034          76-8-604. Wrongful inducement to receive writ of attachment.
4035          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4036          (2) An actor commits wrongful inducement to receive writ of attachment if the actor:
4037          (a) is:
4038          (i) a party to an action, suit, or proceeding;
4039          (ii) an agent of a party to an action, suit, or proceeding; or
4040          (iii) an attorney of a party to an action, suit, or proceeding; and
4041          (b) advises, induces, or procures the issuance of a writ of attachment in the action, suit
4042     or proceeding:
4043          (i) before the affidavit is filed; or
4044          (ii) in which the affidavit filed does not conform substantially with the requirements of
4045     Rule 64C of the Utah Rules of Civil Procedure.
4046          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
4047          (4) In addition to the penalty under Subsection (3), an actor is liable to the person
4048     whose property, credits, money, or earnings are attached for:
4049          (a) double the value of the attached property;
4050          (b) all costs paid by the person; and
4051          (c) all damages incurred in the attachment proceedings.
4052          Section 109. Section 76-8-703 is amended to read:
4053          76-8-703. Criminal trespass upon an institution of higher education.
4054          (1) (a) As used in this section:
4055          (i) "Chief administrative officer" means the same as that term is defined in Section
4056     53B-20-107.
4057          (ii) "Enters" means intrusion of the entire body.

4058          (iii) "Institution of higher education" means the same as that term is defined in Section
4059     53B-20-107.
4060          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4061          (2) An actor commits criminal trespass upon an institution of higher education if the
4062     actor enters or remains on property that is owned, operated, or controlled by an institution of
4063     higher education:
4064          (a) after being ordered to leave by the chief administrative officer; or
4065          (b) without authorization if notice against entry or remaining has been given by:
4066          (i) personal communication to the person by the chief administrative officer or a person
4067     with apparent authority to act for the institution of higher education;
4068          (ii) the posting of signs reasonably likely to come to the attention of a trespasser;
4069          (iii) fencing or other enclosure obviously designed to exclude a trespasser; or
4070          (iv) a current order of suspension or expulsion.
4071          (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), a violation of Subsection (2) is a class
4072     B misdemeanor.
4073          (b) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor if the actor has previously
4074     been convicted two or more times of a violation of Subsection (2).
4075          [(a) A chief administrative officer may order a person to leave property that is owned,
4076     operated, or controlled by an institution of higher education if the person:]
4077          [(i) acts or if the chief administrative officer has reasonable cause to believe that the
4078     person intends to act to:]
4079          [(A) cause injury to a person;]
4080          [(B) cause damage to property;]
4081          [(C) commit a crime;]
4082          [(D) interfere with the peaceful conduct of the activities of the institution;]
4083          [(E) violate any rule or regulation of the institution if that rule or regulation is not in
4084     conflict with state law; or]
4085          [(F) disrupt the institution, its pupils, or the institution's activities; or]
4086          [(ii) is reckless as to whether the person's actions will cause fear for the safety of
4087     another.]
4088          [(b) A person is guilty of criminal trespass upon an institution of higher education if

4089     the person enters or remains on property that is owned, operated, or controlled by an institution
4090     of higher education after being ordered to leave under Subsection (1)(a).]
4091          [(c)] (4) The mere carrying or possession of a firearm on the campus of a state
4092     institution of higher education, as defined in Section 53B-3-102, does not warrant an order to
4093     leave under Subsection [(1)(a) if the person] (2)(a) if the individual carrying or possessing the
4094     firearm is otherwise complying with all state laws regulating the possession and use of a
4095     firearm.
4096          [(2) A person is guilty of criminal trespass upon an institution of higher education if
4097     the person enters or remains without authorization upon property that is owned, operated, or
4098     controlled by an institution of higher education if notice against entry or remaining has been
4099     given by:]
4100          [(a) personal communication to the person by the chief administrative officer or a
4101     person with apparent authority to act for the institution;]
4102          [(b) the posting of signs reasonably likely to come to the attention of trespassers;]
4103          [(c) fencing or other enclosure obviously designed to exclude trespassers; or]
4104          [(d) a current order of suspension or expulsion.]
4105          [(3)] (5) If an employee or student of an institution of higher education is ordered to
4106     leave under Subsection [(1)] (2)(a) or receives a notice against entry or remaining under
4107     Subsection [(2)] (2)(b), the institution of higher education shall afford the employee or student
4108     the process required by the institution of higher education's rules and regulations.
4109          [(4) A person who violates this section shall be punished as provided in Section
4110     76-8-717.]
4111          Section 110. Section 76-8-705 is amended to read:
4112          76-8-705. Willful interference with lawful activities of students or faculty.
4113          (1) (a) As used in this section, "institution" means the same as that term is defined in
4114     Section 53B-20-107.
4115          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4116          (2) [A person is guilty of a class C misdemeanor if,] An actor commits willful
4117     interference with lawful activities of students or faculty if the actor, while on property that is
4118     owned, operated, or controlled by an institution [of higher education, the person], willfully:
4119          [(1)] (a) denies to a student, school official, employee, or invitee lawful:

4120          [(a)] (i) freedom of movement;
4121          [(b)] (ii) use of the property or facilities; or
4122          [(c)] (iii) ingress or egress to the institution's physical facilities;
4123          [(2)] (b) impedes a faculty or staff member of the institution in the lawful performance
4124     of the member's duties; or
4125          [(3)] (c) impedes a student of the institution in the lawful pursuit of the student's
4126     educational activities.
4127          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class C misdemeanor.
4128          Section 111. Section 76-8-802 is amended to read:
4129          76-8-802. Destruction of property to interfere with preparations for defense or
4130     war.
4131          [Whoever]
4132          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4133          (2) An actor commits destruction of property to interfere with preparations for defense
4134     or war if the actor:
4135          (a) intentionally destroys, impairs, injures, interferes, or tampers with real or personal
4136     property; and
4137          (b) [with] has reasonable grounds to believe that the [act] actor's conduct under
4138     Subsection (2)(a) will hinder, delay, or interfere with the preparation of the United States [or of
4139     any of the states] government or of a state government for defense or for war, or with the
4140     prosecution of war by the United States[, shall be guilty of a felony of the second degree]
4141     government.
4142          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a second degree felony.
4143          (4) Prior to the filing of a formal criminal complaint, evidence of an alleged actor's
4144     conduct under Subsection (2) or the name of the actor may not be made public.
4145          Section 112. Section 76-8-803 is amended to read:
4146          76-8-803. Causing or omitting to note defects in articles used in preparation for
4147     defense or war.
4148          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4149          (2) [Whoever] An actor commits causing or omitting to note defects in articles used in
4150     preparation for defense or war if the actor:

4151          (a) intentionally makes or causes to be made or omits to note on inspection [any] a
4152     defect in [any] an article or thing; and
4153          (b) [with] has reasonable grounds to believe that the article or thing is intended to be
4154     used in connection with the preparation of the United States [or any of the states] government
4155     or of a state government for defense or for war, or for the prosecution of war by the United
4156     States[, or that the article or thing is one of a number of similar articles or things, some of
4157     which are intended so to be used, shall be guilty of a felony of the third degree.] government.
4158          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
4159          (4) Prior to the filing of a formal criminal complaint, evidence of an alleged actor's
4160     conduct under Subsection (2) or the name of the actor may not be made public.
4161          Section 113. Section 76-8-804 is amended to read:
4162          76-8-804. Attempts to commit crimes of sabotage.
4163          [Whoever attempts to commit any of the crimes defined by this part shall be punishable
4164     for the attempt as prescribed in Section 76-4-102. In addition to the acts which constitute an
4165     attempt to commit crime under the law of this state, the solicitation or incitement of another to
4166     commit any of the crimes defined by this part not allowed by the commission of the crime, the
4167     collection or assemblage of any materials with the intent that they are to be used then or at a
4168     later time in the commission of the crime, or the entry, with or without permission, of a
4169     building, enclosure or other premises of another with the intent to commit any such crime
4170     therein or thereon shall constitute an attempt to commit the crime.]
4171          (1) (a) An actor that attempts to commit a crime under this part is punishable for the
4172     attempt as prescribed in Section 76-4-102.
4173          (b) In addition to the acts that constitute an attempt to commit a crime under the law of
4174     this state, an actor's conduct constitutes an attempt to commit a crime under this part if the
4175     actor:
4176          (i) solicits or incites another individual to commit a crime under this part;
4177          (ii) collects or assembles materials with the intent to use the materials to commit a
4178     crime under this part; or
4179          (iii) enters, with or without permission, a building, enclosure, or other premises
4180     intending to commit a crime under this part.
4181          (2) Prior to the filing of a formal criminal complaint, evidence of an alleged actor's

4182     conduct under this section or the name of the actor may not be made public.
4183          Section 114. Section 76-8-805 is amended to read:
4184          76-8-805. Conspiracy to commit crimes of sabotage.
4185          (1) (a) If two or more [persons] actors conspire to commit [any crime defined by] a
4186     crime under this part and regardless of whether an additional act is done in furtherance of the
4187     conspiracy, each [of the persons] actor:
4188          (i) is guilty of conspiracy in accordance with Section 76-4-201; and
4189          (ii) notwithstanding Section 76-4-202, is subject to the same punishment as if [he] the
4190     actor had committed the crime [which he] that the actor conspired to commit[, whether or not
4191     any act be done in furtherance of the conspiracy. It shall not constitute any]
4192          (b) It is not a defense or ground of suspension of judgment, sentence, or punishment
4193     [on behalf of any person prosecuted] under this section that [any of his] an actor's fellow
4194     conspirators [has] have been acquitted, [has] have not been arrested or convicted, or [is] are
4195     amenable to justice or [has] have been pardoned or otherwise discharged before or after a
4196     conviction.
4197          (2) Prior to the filing of a formal criminal complaint, evidence of an alleged actor's
4198     conduct under Subsection (1)(a) or the name of the actor may not be made public.
4199          Section 115. Section 76-8-807 is amended to read:
4200          76-8-807. Trespassing at a war or defense facility.
4201          [(1) Any individual, partnership, association, corporation, municipal corporation, or
4202     state or any political subdivision thereof engaged in, or preparing to engage in, the
4203     manufacture, transportation or storage of any product to be used in the preparation of the
4204     United States or of any of the states for defense or for war or in the prosecution of war by the
4205     United States, or the manufacture, transportation, distribution or storage of gas, oil, coal,
4206     electricity or water, or any natural or artificial persons operating any public utility, whose
4207     property, except where it fronts on water or where there are entrances for railway cars, vehicles,
4208     persons, or things, is surrounded by a fence or wall, or a fence or wall and buildings, may post
4209     around his or its property at each gate, entrance, dock, or railway entrance and every one
4210     hundred feet of water front a sign reading "No Entry Without Permission." The sign shall also
4211     designate a point of entrance or place where application may be made for permission to enter,
4212     and permission shall not be denied to any loyal citizen who has a valid right to enter.]

4213          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4214          (2) An actor commits trespassing at a war or defense facility if:
4215          (a) the actor intentionally enters a facility engaged in, or preparing to engage in, the
4216     manufacture, transportation, or storage of a product to be used in the preparation of the United
4217     States government or of a state government for defense or for war or in the prosecution of war
4218     by the United States government;
4219          (b) the actor does not have permission from the owner of the facility to enter; and
4220          (c) the facility has posted signs reading "No Entry Without Permission."
4221          [(2)] (3) [Any person willfully entering property enumerated in Subsection (1), without
4222     permission of the owner, shall be guilty of] A violation of Subsection (2) is a class C
4223     misdemeanor.
4224          (4) (a) A peace officer or individual employed as a watchman, a guard, or in a
4225     supervisory capacity on the premises of a facility under this section may stop an individual
4226     found on the premises and detain the individual for the purpose of demanding the individual's
4227     name, address, and reason for being on the premises.
4228          (b) If the peace officer or individual employed as a watchman, a guard, or in a
4229     supervisory capacity on the premises of a facility under this section has reason to believe that
4230     an individual stopped on the facility's premises has no right to be there, the peace officer or
4231     employee may:
4232          (i) release the individual; or
4233          (ii) arrest the individual without a warrant on the charge of violating this section.
4234          Section 116. Section 76-8-809 is amended to read:
4235          76-8-809. Closing or restricting use of highways abutting defense or war facilities
4236     -- Posting of notices.
4237          [Any individual, partnership, association, corporation, municipal corporation or state or
4238     any political subdivision thereof engaged in or preparing to engage in the manufacture,
4239     transportation or storage of any product to be used in the preparation of the United States or
4240     any of the states for defense or for war or in the prosecution of war by the United States, or in
4241     the manufacture, transportation, distribution or storage of gas, oil, coal, electricity or water, or
4242     any of said natural or artificial persons operating any public utility who has property so used
4243     which he or it believes will be endangered if public use and travel is not restricted or prohibited

4244     on one or more highways or parts thereof upon which the property abuts, may petition the
4245     highway commissioners of any city, town, or county to close one or more of the highways or
4246     parts thereof to public use and travel or to restrict by order the use and travel upon one or more
4247     of the highways or parts thereof.]
4248          [Upon receipt of the petition, the highway commissioners shall set a day for hearing and
4249     give notice of the hearing, as a class A notice under Section 63G-30-102, for the city, town, or
4250     county, for at least seven days before the day of the hearing. If, after hearing, the highway
4251     commissioners determine that the public safety and the safety of the property of the petitioner
4252     so require, they shall by suitable order close to public use and travel or reasonably restrict the
4253     use of and travel upon one or more of the highways or parts thereof; provided the highway
4254     commissioners may issue written permits to travel over the highway so closed or restricted to
4255     responsible and reputable persons for a term, under conditions and in a form as the
4256     commissioners may prescribe. Appropriate notices in letters at least three inches high shall be
4257     posted conspicuously at each end of any highway so closed or restricted by an order. The
4258     highway commissioners may at any time revoke or modify any order so made].
4259          (1) As used in this section:
4260          (a) "Highway" means a place used for travel to or from property, including a private or
4261     public street or way.
4262          (b) "Highway commissioner" means an individual, a board, or other body having
4263     authority to restrict or close the highway to public use and travel.
4264          (c) "Public utility" means a system owned or operated for public use, including:
4265          (i) a pipeline system;
4266          (ii) a system for gas, electric, heat, water, oil, sewer, telephone, telegraph, radio,
4267     railway, or transportation communication;
4268          (iii) a railroad; or
4269          (iv) an airplane.
4270          (2) An individual, a partnership, an association, a corporation, a municipal corporation,
4271     the state, or a political subdivision of the state, may petition the highway commissioner of a
4272     city, town, or county to close or restrict travel upon a highway if the individual, partnership,
4273     association, corporation, municipal corporation, state, or political subdivision is:
4274          (a) engaged in or preparing to engage in the manufacture, transportation, or storage of a

4275     product to be used in the preparation of the United States government or a state government for
4276     defense, for war, or in the prosecution of war by the United States government; or
4277          (b) (i) (A) manufacturing, transporting, distributing, or storing gas, oil, coal, electricity,
4278     or water; or
4279          (B) operating a public utility; and
4280          (ii) believes the gas, oil, electricity, water, or public utility will be endangered if public
4281     use and travel is not restricted or prohibited on a highway abutting the property involved in
4282     operating the public utility or manufacturing, transporting, distributing, or storing the gas, oil,
4283     coal, electricity, or water.
4284          (3) Upon receiving a petition described in Subsection (2), the highway commissioner
4285     shall set a day for a public hearing and give notice of the hearing at least seven days before the
4286     day on which the hearing will be held, as a class A notice under Section 63G-30-102, for the
4287     city, town, or county.
4288          (4) (a) Subject to Subsection (5), after holding the hearing described in Subsection (3),
4289     the highway commissioner may, after determining that public safety and the safety of the
4290     property of the petitioner require the closure or restricted use of the highway, issue an order to:
4291          (i) close the highway to all public use and travel; or
4292          (ii) reasonably restrict travel on the highway for the safety of the petitioner's property.
4293          (b) Visible notices at least three inches tall detailing the closure or restriction shall be
4294     posted at each end of a highway closed or restricted under this Subsection (4).
4295          (5) A highway commissioner issuing an order under Subsection (4) may issue a permit
4296     to a responsible and reputable individual to travel on a closed or restricted highway under
4297     conditions set by the highway commissioner.
4298          Section 117. Section 76-8-810 is amended to read:
4299          76-8-810. Violation of an order closing or restricting a highway.
4300          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-809 apply to this
4301     section.
4302          (2) An actor commits violation of an order closing or restricting a highway if the actor
4303     violates an order issued by a highway commissioner closing or restricting a highway under
4304     Section 76-8-809.
4305          (3) [Whoever violates any order made under the immediate preceding section shall be

4306     guilty of] A violation of Subsection (2) is a class C misdemeanor.
4307          Section 118. Section 76-8-811 is amended to read:
4308          76-8-811. Bargaining rights of employees not impaired by sabotage prevention
4309     laws.
4310          Nothing in this part shall be construed to impair, curtail, or destroy the rights of
4311     employees and [their] the employees' representatives to self organize, to form, join, or assist
4312     labor organizations, to bargain collectively through representatives of [their] the employees'
4313     own choosing, and to engage in concerted activities, for the purpose of collective bargaining or
4314     other mutual aid or protection as provided by state or federal laws.
4315          Section 119. Section 76-8-901 is amended to read:
4316          76-8-901. Definitions.
4317          [For the purpose of] As used in this part:
4318          (1) "Criminal syndicalism" [is] means the doctrine [which] that advocates crime,
4319     violence, force, arson, destruction of property, sabotage, or other unlawful acts or methods, as a
4320     means of accomplishing or effecting industrial or political ends, or as a means of effecting
4321     industrial or political revolution.
4322          (2) "Sabotage" means the unlawful and intentional damage or injury to, or destruction
4323     of, real or personal property, [in any form whatsoever, of any] of an employer or owner by [his
4324     employees, or by any employer, or by any person at the instance of any employer, or at the
4325     instance, request, or instigation of employees, or any other person] an individual.
4326          Section 120. Section 76-8-902 is amended to read:
4327          76-8-902. Advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage.
4328          [Any person who by word of mouth or writing advocates, suggests, or teaches the duty,
4329     necessity, propriety, or expediency of crime, criminal syndicalism or sabotage, or who
4330     advocates, suggests or teaches the duty, necessity, propriety, or expediency or doing any act of
4331     violence, the destruction of or damage to any property, the bodily injury to any person, or the
4332     commission of any crime or unlawful act as a means of accomplishing or effecting any
4333     industrial or political ends, change or revolution, or who prints, publishes, edits, or issues, or
4334     knowingly circulates, sells, or distributes, or publicly displays, any books, pamphlets, paper,
4335     handbill, poster, document, or written or printed matter in any form whatsoever, containing,
4336     advocating, advising, suggesting, or teaching crime, criminal syndicalism, sabotage, the doing

4337     of any act of violence, the destruction of or damage to any property, the injury to any person, or
4338     the commission of any crime or unlawful act, as a means of accomplishing, effecting, or
4339     bringing about any industrial or political ends or change, or as a means of accomplishing,
4340     effecting, or bringing about any industrial or political revolution, or who openly or at all
4341     attempts to justify by word of mouth or writing the commission or the attempt to commit
4342     sabotage, any act of violence, the destruction of or damage to any property, the injury of any
4343     person, or the commission of any crime or unlawful act, with the intent to exemplify, spread, or
4344     teach or suggest criminal syndicalism, or organizes, or helps to organize, or becomes a member
4345     of, or voluntarily assembles with, any society or assemblage of persons formed to teach or
4346     advocate, or which teaches, advocates, or suggests the doctrine of criminal syndicalism or
4347     sabotage, or the necessity, propriety, or expediency of doing any act of violence or the
4348     commission of any crime or unlawful act as a means of accomplishing or effecting any
4349     industrial or political ends, change or revolution, is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
4350          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-901 apply to this
4351     section.
4352          (2) An actor commits advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage if the actor:
4353          (a) advocates, suggests, or teaches the duty, necessity, propriety, or expediency of
4354     crime, criminal syndicalism, or sabotage;
4355          (b) as a means of accomplishing or effecting industrial or political ends, change, or
4356     revolution:
4357          (i) advocates, suggests, or teaches the duty, necessity, propriety, or expediency of
4358     performing an act of violence, destroying or damaging property, causing bodily injury to an
4359     individual, or committing a crime or unlawful act;
4360          (ii) prints, publishes, edits, or issues, or knowingly circulates, sells, distributes, or
4361     publicly displays a book, pamphlet, paper, handbill, poster, document, or written or printed
4362     matter in any form, containing, advocating, advising, suggesting, or teaching crime, criminal
4363     syndicalism, sabotage, performing an act of violence, the destruction of or damage to property,
4364     the injury to an individual, or the commission of a crime or unlawful act; or
4365          (iii) organizes or becomes a member of, or voluntarily assembles with, a society or
4366     assemblage of individuals formed to teach or advocate the doctrine of criminal syndicalism or
4367     sabotage, or the necessity, propriety, or expediency of doing an act of violence or the

4368     commission of a crime or unlawful act; or
4369          (c) with the intent to exemplify, spread, or teach or suggest criminal syndicalism,
4370     attempts to justify sabotage, an act of violence, the destruction of or damage to property, the
4371     injury of an individual, or the commission of a crime or unlawful act.
4372          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
4373          Section 121. Section 76-8-903 is amended to read:
4374          76-8-903. Assembling for advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage.
4375          [The assembly or consorting of two or more persons]
4376          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-901 apply to this
4377     section.
4378          (2) An actor commits assembling for advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage if
4379     the actor, as a means of accomplishing or effecting industrial or political ends, change, or
4380     revolution:
4381          (a) assembles with two or more individuals; and
4382          (b) assembles for the purpose of advocating, teaching, or suggesting:
4383          (i) the doctrine of criminal syndicalism[, or to advocate, teach, suggest or encourage
4384     sabotage, or]; or
4385          (ii) the duty, necessity, propriety, or expediency of [doing any] performing an act of
4386     violence, [the destruction of or damage to any] destroying or damaging property, [the] causing
4387     bodily injury to [any person, or the commission of any] an individual, or committing a crime or
4388     unlawful act [as a means of accomplishing or effecting any industrial or political ends, change
4389     or revolution, is hereby declared unlawful, and every person voluntarily participating therein,
4390     or by his presence aiding and instigating the same is guilty of a felony of the third degree].
4391          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a third degree felony.
4392          Section 122. Section 76-8-904 is amended to read:
4393          76-8-904. Permitting the use of property for assembly advocating criminal
4394     syndicalism or sabotage.
4395          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-901 apply to this
4396     section.
4397          (2) An actor commits permitting the use of property for assembly advocating criminal
4398     syndicalism or sabotage if the actor:

4399          (a) [The] is an owner, lessee, agent, superintendent, or [person] individual in charge or
4400     occupation of [any] a place, building, room, or structure[, who]; and
4401          (b) knowingly permits [therein any] assembly or consorting of [persons] individuals
4402     prohibited [by the provisions of] under Section 76-8-903[, or who after notification that the
4403     place or premises, or any part thereof, is so used, permits such use to be continued, is guilty of
4404     a class B misdemeanor].
4405          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class B misdemeanor.
4406          Section 123. Section 76-8-1201 is amended to read:
4407          76-8-1201. Definitions.
4408          As used in this part:
4409          (1) "Client" means a person who receives or has received public assistance.
4410          (2) "Overpayment" [has the same meaning as] means the same as that term is defined
4411     in Section 35A-3-102.
4412          (3) "Provider" [has the same meaning as] means the same as that term is defined in
4413     Section 26B-9-101.
4414          (4) "Public assistance" [has the same meaning as] means the same as that term is
4415     defined in Section 35A-1-102.
4416          Section 124. Section 76-8-1203 is amended to read:
4417          76-8-1203. Required disclosures by an applicant, a recipient, or a provider of
4418     public assistance.
4419          (1) [Each person] An individual who is 18 years old or older and applies for public
4420     assistance, or who is 18 years old or older and currently receives public assistance, shall
4421     disclose to the state agency administering the public assistance each fact that may materially
4422     affect the [determination of the person's] individual's eligibility to receive or continue to
4423     receive public assistance, including the [person's] individual's current:
4424          (a) marital status;
4425          (b) household composition;
4426          (c) employment;
4427          (d) earned and unearned income, as defined by rule;
4428          (e) receipt of monetary and in-kind gifts that may affect the [person's] individual's
4429     eligibility;

4430          (f) assets that may affect the [person's] individual's eligibility; and
4431          (g) any other material fact or change in circumstance that may affect the determination
4432     of [that person's] the individual's eligibility to receive public assistance benefits, or may affect
4433     the amount of benefits for which the [person] individual is eligible.
4434          [(2) A person applying for public assistance who intentionally, knowingly, or
4435     recklessly fails to disclose a material fact required to be disclosed under Subsection (1) is guilty
4436     of public assistance fraud as provided in Section 76-8-1206.]
4437          [(3) With the exception of a client receiving public assistance from the Department of
4438     Workforce Services or the Department of Health, a client who intentionally, knowingly, or
4439     recklessly fails to disclose to the state agency administering the public assistance a change in a
4440     material fact required to be disclosed under Subsection (1), within 10 days after the date of the
4441     change, is guilty of public assistance fraud as provided in Section 76-8-1206.]
4442          [(4) A client who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fails to disclose to the
4443     Department of Workforce Services or the Department of Health at the time of a review or
4444     recertification, whichever comes first, a change in a material fact required to be disclosed under
4445     Subsection (1) is guilty of public assistance fraud as provided in Section 76-8-1206.]
4446          (2) (a) Subject to Subsection (2)(b), a provider that solicits, requests, or receives,
4447     actually or constructively, a payment or contribution in the form of an assessment, a payment, a
4448     gift, a devise, a bequest, or other means, directly or indirectly, from a client or client's family
4449     shall:
4450          (i) notify the state agency administering the public assistance to the client of the
4451     amount of the payment or contribution the provider received from the client or the client's
4452     family; and
4453          (ii) provide the notification to the state agency in writing within 10 days after the day
4454     on which the payment or contribution was received.
4455          (b) If the payment or contribution described in Subsection (2)(a) is made under an
4456     agreement, written or oral, the provider shall notify the state agency administering the public
4457     assistance to the client of the payment or contribution within 10 days after the day on which the
4458     provider entered into the agreement.
4459          (3) An actor may be charged under Section 76-8-1203.1, 76-8-1203.3, or 76-8-1203.5
4460     for failing to provide information required under this section.

4461          Section 125. Section 76-8-1203.1 is enacted to read:
4462          76-8-1203.1. Public assistance fraud by an applicant for public assistance.
4463          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-1201 apply to this
4464     section.
4465          (2) An actor commits public assistance fraud by an applicant for public assistance if the
4466     actor intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly:
4467          (a) applies for public assistance; and
4468          (b) fails to disclose a material fact required to be disclosed under Subsection
4469     76-8-1203(1).
4470          (3) Subject to Subsection (5), a violation of Subsection (2) is, based on the value of
4471     payments, assistance, or other benefits received, misappropriated, claimed, or applied:
4472          (a) a second degree felony if the value is or exceeds $5,000;
4473          (b) a third degree felony if the value is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
4474          (c) a class A misdemeanor if the value is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or
4475          (d) a class B misdemeanor if the value is less than $500.
4476          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor repaid the funds or
4477     benefits obtained in violation of this section.
4478          (5) (a) In determining the value of payments, assistance, or other benefits received to
4479     determine the penalty level of an actor's conduct under Subsection (3), the value is calculated
4480     by aggregating the values of each instance of public assistance fraud committed by the actor as
4481     part of the same facts and circumstances or a related series of facts and circumstances.
4482          (b) The value of a benefit received by an individual is the ordinary or usual charge for
4483     similar benefits in the private sector.
4484          (6) The provisions of Section 35A-1-503 apply to a prosecution brought under this
4485     section.
4486          Section 126. Section 76-8-1203.3 is enacted to read:
4487          76-8-1203.3. Public assistance fraud by a recipient of public assistance.
4488          (1) (a) As used in this section, "SNAP benefit" means the same as that term is defined
4489     in Section 35A-1-102.
4490          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-1201 apply to this
4491     section.

4492          (2) An actor commits public assistance fraud by a recipient of public assistance if the
4493     actor:
4494          (a) (i) except as provided in Subsection (2)(b), is receiving public assistance
4495     administered by a state agency; and
4496          (ii) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fails to disclose to the state agency
4497     administering the public assistance to the actor of a change of a material fact required to be
4498     disclosed under Subsection 76-8-1203(1) within 10 days after the day on which the change
4499     occurred;
4500          (b) (i) is receiving public assistance from the Department of Workforce Services or the
4501     Department of Health and Human Services; and
4502          (ii) at the time of a review or recertification, whichever comes first, intentionally,
4503     knowingly, or recklessly fails to disclose a change of a material fact required to be disclosed
4504     under Subsection 76-8-1203(1);
4505          (c) in a manner not allowed by law, intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly uses,
4506     transfers, acquires, traffics in, falsifies, or possesses:
4507          (i) SNAP benefits;
4508          (ii) a SNAP benefit identification card;
4509          (iii) a certificate of eligibility for medical services;
4510          (iv) a Medicaid identification card;
4511          (v) a fund transfer instrument;
4512          (vi) a payment instrument; or
4513          (vii) a public assistance warrant;
4514          (d) (i) is receiving public assistance;
4515          (ii) acquires income or resources in excess of the amount the actor previously reported
4516     to the state agency administering the public assistance to the actor; and
4517          (iii) fails to notify the state agency to which the actor previously reported within 10
4518     days after the day on which the actor acquired the excess income or resources;
4519          (e) (i) fails to disclose a material fact required to be disclosed under Subsection
4520     76-8-1203(1) or notify a state agency under Subsection 76-8-1203(2); and
4521          (ii) (A) intends to obtain or help another individual obtain an overpayment; or
4522          (B) obtains an overpayment, unauthorized payment, or benefit; or

4523          (f) receives an unauthorized payment or benefit as a result of unlawful acts described in
4524     this section, Section 76-8-1203.3, Section 76-8-1203.5, or Section 76-8-1203.7.
4525          (3) Subject to Subsection (5), a violation of Subsection (2) is, based on the value of
4526     payments, assistance, or other benefits received, misappropriated, claimed, or applied:
4527          (a) a second degree felony if the value is or exceeds $5,000;
4528          (b) a third degree felony if the value is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
4529          (c) a class A misdemeanor if the value is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or
4530          (d) a class B misdemeanor if the value is less than $500.
4531          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor repaid the funds or
4532     benefits obtained in violation of this section.
4533          (5) (a) In determining the value of payments, assistance, or other benefits received to
4534     determine the penalty level of an actor's conduct under Subsection (3), the value is calculated
4535     by aggregating the values of each instance of public assistance fraud committed by the actor as
4536     part of the same facts and circumstances or a related series of facts and circumstances.
4537          (b) The value of a benefit received by an individual is the ordinary or usual charge for
4538     similar benefits in the private sector.
4539          (6) The provisions of Section 35A-1-503 apply to a prosecution brought under this
4540     section.
4541          (7) Incidents of trafficking in SNAP benefits that occur within a six-month period,
4542     committed by an individual or coconspirators, are deemed to be a related series of facts and
4543     circumstances regardless of whether the transactions are conducted with a variety of unrelated
4544     parties.
4545          Section 127. Section 76-8-1203.5 is enacted to read:
4546          76-8-1203.5. Public assistance fraud by a provider.
4547          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-1201 apply to this
4548     section.
4549          (2) An actor commits public assistance fraud by a provider if the actor:
4550          (a) is a provider; and
4551          (b) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly:
4552          (i) receives a payment after failing to comply with the requirements in Subsection
4553     76-8-1203(1) or 76-8-1203(2);

4554          (ii) files a claim for payment under a state or federally funded public assistance
4555     program for goods or services not provided to or for a client under that program;
4556          (iii) files or falsifies a claim, report, or document required by a state or federal law, a
4557     rule, or a provider agreement for goods or services not authorized under the state or federally
4558     funded public assistance program for which the goods or services were provided;
4559          (iv) fails to credit the state for payments received from other sources;
4560          (v) bills a client, or the client's family, for:
4561          (A) goods or services not provided; or
4562          (B) an amount greater than that allowed by law or rule; or
4563          (vi) fails to comply with the notification requirements under Subsection 76-8-1203(2).
4564          (3) Subject to Subsection (5), a violation of Subsection (2) is, based on the value of
4565     payments, assistance, or other benefits received, misappropriated, claimed, or applied:
4566          (a) a second degree felony if the value is or exceeds $5,000;
4567          (b) a third degree felony if the value is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
4568          (c) a class A misdemeanor if the value is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or
4569          (d) a class B misdemeanor if the value is less than $500.
4570          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor repaid the funds or
4571     benefits obtained in violation of this section.
4572          (5) (a) In determining the value of payments, assistance, or other benefits received to
4573     determine the penalty level of an actor's conduct under Subsection (3), the value is calculated
4574     by aggregating the values of each instance of public assistance fraud committed by the actor as
4575     part of the same facts and circumstances or a related series of facts and circumstances.
4576          (b) The value of a benefit received by an individual is the ordinary or usual charge for
4577     similar benefits in the private sector.
4578          (6) This section does not apply to offenses by providers under the state's Medicaid
4579     program that are actionable under Title 26B, Chapter 3, Part 11, Utah False Claims Act.
4580          (7) The provisions of Section 35A-1-503 apply to a prosecution brought under this
4581     section.
4582          Section 128. Section 76-8-1203.7 is enacted to read:
4583          76-8-1203.7. Fraudulently misappropriating public assistance funds.
4584          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5, 76-8-101, and 76-8-1201 apply to this

4585     section.
4586          (2) An actor commits fraudulently misappropriating public assistance funds if the
4587     actor:
4588          (a) (i) is an administrator of a state or federally funded public assistance program; and
4589          (ii) while performing the actor's duties as an administrator, intentionally, knowingly, or
4590     recklessly fraudulently misappropriates funds exchanged for:
4591          (A) SNAP benefits;
4592          (B) an identification card;
4593          (C) a certificate of eligibility for medical services;
4594          (D) a Medicaid identification card; or
4595          (E) other public assistance the actor has been entrusted with or that has come into the
4596     actor's possession as a result of the actor's duties; or
4597          (b) (i) is an individual entrusted with:
4598          (A) SNAP benefits;
4599          (B) an identification card;
4600          (C) a certificate of eligibility for medical services;
4601          (D) a Medicaid identification card; or
4602          (E) other public assistance with which the individual has been entrusted; and
4603          (ii) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fraudulently misappropriates funds
4604     exchanged for a benefit described in Subsection (2)(b)(i) with which the individual has been
4605     entrusted.
4606          (3) Subject to Subsection (5), a violation of Subsection (2) is, based on the value of
4607     payments, assistance, or other benefits received, misappropriated, claimed, or applied:
4608          (a) a second degree felony if the value is or exceeds $5,000;
4609          (b) a third degree felony if the value is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
4610          (c) a class A misdemeanor if the value is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500; or
4611          (d) a class B misdemeanor if the value is less than $500.
4612          (4) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor repaid the funds or
4613     benefits obtained in violation of this section.
4614          (5) (a) In determining the value of payments, assistance, or other benefits received to
4615     determine the penalty level of an actor's conduct under Subsection (3), the value is calculated

4616     by aggregating the values of each instance of public assistance fraud committed by the actor as
4617     part of the same facts and circumstances or a related series of facts and circumstances.
4618          (b) The value of a benefit received by an individual is the ordinary or usual charge for
4619     similar benefits in the private sector.
4620          (6) The provisions of Section 35A-1-503 apply to a prosecution brought under this
4621     section.
4622          Section 129. Section 76-8-1207 is amended to read:
4623          76-8-1207. Evidence in criminal actions for public assistance fraud.
4624          In [any] a criminal action [pursuant to] under this part:
4625          (1) a paid state warrant made to the order of [a party] an individual or a payment made
4626     through an electronic benefit card issued to [a party] an individual constitutes prima facie
4627     evidence that the [party] individual received financial assistance from the state; and
4628          (2) all of the records in the custody of the [department] state agency administering
4629     public assistance relating to the application for, verification of, issuance of, receipt of, and use
4630     of public assistance constitute records of regularly conducted activity within the meaning of the
4631     exceptions to the hearsay rule of evidence[;].
4632          [(3) the value of the benefits received shall be based on the ordinary or usual charge for
4633     similar benefits in the private sector; and]
4634          [(4) the repayment of funds or other benefits obtained in violation of the provisions of
4635     this part constitutes no defense to, or ground for dismissal of, that action.]
4636          Section 130. Section 76-8-1301 is amended to read:
4637          76-8-1301. False statement to obtain or increase unemployment compensation.
4638          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4639          [(a) A person who makes a false statement or representation knowing it to be false or
4640     knowingly fails to disclose a material fact,]
4641          (2) An actor commits false statement to obtain or increase unemployment
4642     compensation if the actor, to obtain or increase a benefit or other payment under Title 35A,
4643     Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, or under the Unemployment Compensation Law of any
4644     state or of the federal government [for any person is guilty of unemployment insurance fraud.]:
4645          (a) makes a false statement or representation, knowing the representation is false; or
4646          (b) knowingly fails to disclose a material fact.

4647          [(b)] (3) (a) A violation of Subsection [(1)(a)] (2) is:
4648          (i) a class B misdemeanor [when] if the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4649     obtained is less than $500;
4650          (ii) a class A misdemeanor [when] if the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4651     obtained is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;
4652          (iii) a third degree felony [when] if the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4653     obtained is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000; or
4654          (iv) a second degree felony [when] if the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4655     obtained is or exceeds $5,000.
4656          [(c)] (b) The determination of the degree of an offense under Subsection [(1)(b) shall
4657     be] (3)(a) is measured by the total value of all money obtained or sought to be obtained by the
4658     unlawful conduct.
4659          [(2) (a) An officer or agent of an employing unit as defined in Section 35A-4-202 or
4660     any other person who makes a false statement or representation knowing it to be false, or who
4661     knowingly fails to disclose a material fact, to prevent or reduce the payment of unemployment
4662     compensation benefits to an individual entitled to those benefits, or to avoid becoming or
4663     remaining a subject employer or to avoid or reduce any contribution or other payment required
4664     from an employing unit under Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, or under the
4665     Unemployment Compensation Law of any state or of the federal government, or who willfully
4666     fails or refuses to make a contribution or other payment or to furnish any report required in
4667     Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, or to produce or permit the inspection or
4668     copying of records as required under that chapter is guilty of unemployment insurance fraud.]
4669          [(b) A violation of Subsection (2)(a) is:]
4670          [(i) a class B misdemeanor when the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4671     obtained is less than $500;]
4672          [(ii) a class A misdemeanor when the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4673     obtained is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;]
4674          [(iii) a third degree felony when the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4675     obtained is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000; or]
4676          [(iv) a second degree felony when the value of the money obtained or sought to be
4677     obtained is or exceeds $5,000.]

4678          [(3) (a) A person who willfully violates any provision of Title 35A, Chapter 4,
4679     Employment Security Act, or any order made under that chapter, the violation of which is made
4680     unlawful or the observance of which is required under the terms of that chapter, and for which
4681     a penalty is neither prescribed in that chapter nor provided by any other applicable statute is
4682     guilty of a class A misdemeanor.]
4683          [(b) Each day a violation of Subsection (3)(a) continues shall be a separate offense.]
4684          [(4) A person is guilty of a class C misdemeanor if:]
4685          [(a) as an employee of the Department of Workforce Services, in willful violation of
4686     Section 35A-4-312, the employee makes a disclosure of information obtained from an
4687     employing unit or individual in the administration of Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment
4688     Security Act; or]
4689          [(b) the person has obtained a list of applicants for work or of claimants or recipients of
4690     benefits under Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, and uses or permits the use of
4691     the list for any political purpose.]
4692          Section 131. Section 76-8-1302 is enacted to read:
4693          76-8-1302. False statement to prevent or reduce unemployment compensation or
4694     liability.
4695          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4696          (2) An actor commits false statement to prevent or reduce unemployment
4697     compensation or liability if the actor, to prevent or reduce the payment of unemployment
4698     compensation benefits to an individual entitled to those benefits, or to avoid becoming or
4699     remaining a subject employer, or to avoid or reduce a contribution or other payment required
4700     from an employing unit under Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, or under the
4701     Unemployment Compensation Law of a state or of the federal government:
4702          (a) makes a false statement or representation, knowing the representation is false; or
4703          (b) knowingly fails to disclose a material fact.
4704          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is:
4705          (a) a class B misdemeanor if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4706     is less than $500;
4707          (b) a class A misdemeanor if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4708     is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;

4709          (c) a third degree felony if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained is
4710     or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000; or
4711          (d) a second degree felony if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4712     is or exceeds $5,000.
4713          (4) An actor under this section may include an officer or agent of an employing unit as
4714     defined under Section 35A-4-202.
4715          Section 132. Section 76-8-1303 is enacted to read:
4716          76-8-1303. Unlawful failure to comply with Employment Security Act
4717     requirement.
4718          (1) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4719          (2) An actor commits unlawful failure to comply with Employment Security Act
4720     requirements if the actor willfully:
4721          (a) fails or refuses:
4722          (i) to make a contribution or other payment required under Title 35A, Chapter 4,
4723     Employment Security Act;
4724          (ii) to furnish a report required under Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act;
4725     or
4726          (iii) to produce or permit the inspection or copying of records required under Title
4727     35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act; or
4728          (b) violates a provision of Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, or an order
4729     made under that chapter, for which the violation:
4730          (i) is made unlawful or the observance of which is required under the terms of Title
4731     35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act;
4732          (ii) does not have a prescribed penalty in Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security
4733     Act, or another applicable statute; and
4734          (iii) is for conduct not described in Subsection (2)(a).
4735          (3) (a) A violation of Subsection (2)(a) is:
4736          (i) a class B misdemeanor if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4737     is less than $500;
4738          (ii) a class A misdemeanor if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4739     is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;

4740          (iii) a third degree felony if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained is
4741     or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000; or
4742          (iv) a second degree felony if the value of the money obtained or sought to be obtained
4743     is or exceeds $5,000.
4744          (b) A violation of Subsection (2)(b) is a class A misdemeanor.
4745          (4) An actor under this section may include an officer or agent of an employing unit as
4746     defined under Section 35A-4-202.
4747          Section 133. Section 76-8-1304 is enacted to read:
4748          76-8-1304. Unlawful use or disclosure of employment information.
4749          (1) (a) As used in this section, "employing unit" means the same as that term is defined
4750     in Section 35A-4-202.
4751          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4752          (2) An actor commits unlawful use or disclosure of employment information if the
4753     actor:
4754          (a) (i) is an employee of the Department of Workforce Services; and
4755          (ii) willfully violates Section 35A-4-312 by making a disclosure of information
4756     obtained from an employing unit or individual in the administration of Title 35A, Chapter 4,
4757     Employment Security Act; or
4758          (b) (i) obtains a list of applicants for work or of claimants or recipients of benefits
4759     under Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act; and
4760          (ii) uses or permits the use of the list described in Subsection (2)(b)(i) for a political
4761     purpose.
4762          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class C misdemeanor.
4763          Section 134. Section 76-8-1402 is amended to read:
4764          76-8-1402. Disruption of activity in or near school building.
4765          (1) (a) As used in this section:
4766          (i) (A) "Chief administrator" means the principal of a school or the chief administrator
4767     of a school that does not have a principal.
4768          (B) "Chief administrator" includes the chief administrator's designee or representative.
4769          (ii) "School" means a public or private kindergarten, elementary, or secondary school
4770     through grade 12.

4771          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4772          (2) In the absence of a local ordinance or other controlling law governing the conduct
4773     described in this Subsection [(1), a person is guilty of an offense under Subsection (2) who,]
4774     (2), an actor commits disruption of activity in or near school building if the actor, while on a
4775     street, sidewalk, or public way adjacent to [any] a school building or ground:
4776          (a) [by his or her presence or acts,] materially disrupts the peaceful conduct of school
4777     activities by the actor's presence or act; and
4778          (b) remains upon the place under Subsection [(1)(a)] (2)(a) after being asked to leave
4779     by the chief administrator of that school.
4780          [(2) (a) A violation of Subsection (1) is subject to the penalties under Subsection (2)(b)
4781     unless the violation constitutes another offense subject to a greater penalty.]
4782          [(b) (i) The]
4783          (3) (a) Except as provided under Subsection (4), a first [and] or second violation of
4784     Subsection [(1) are] (2) is a class B [misdemeanors] misdemeanor.
4785          [(ii) A third and any subsequent violations of Subsection (1) are class A
4786     misdemeanors]
4787          (b) Except as provided under Subsection (4), a third or subsequent violation of
4788     Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
4789          (4) If an actor's conduct violates Subsection (2) and the actor's conduct also amounts to
4790     a violation of another offense with a greater penalty, the offense with the greater penalty
4791     applies.
4792          Section 135. Section 76-8-1403 is amended to read:
4793          76-8-1403. Unlawful evasion of law enforcement by entering school property--
4794     Restitution.
4795          (1) (a) As used in this section:
4796          [(a)] (i) "School" means [any] a public or private kindergarten, elementary, or
4797     secondary school through grade 12, including all buildings and property of the school.
4798          [(b)] (ii) "School property" means real property:
4799          [(i)] (A) that is owned or occupied by a public or private school; or
4800          [(ii)] (B) [(A)] (I) that is temporarily occupied by students for a school-related activity
4801     or program; and

4802          [(B)] (II) regarding which, during the time the activity or program is being conducted,
4803     the main use of the real property is allocated to participants in the activity or program.
4804          (b) Terms defined in Sections 76-1-101.5 and 76-8-101 apply to this section.
4805          (2) [A person is guilty of the class A misdemeanor of evading] An actor commits
4806     unlawful evasion of law enforcement [while on] by entering school property[, if the person] if
4807     the actor enters onto school property when:
4808          (a) students are attending the school or students are participating in any school-related
4809     activity or program on school property; and
4810          (b) the [person] actor is in the act of fleeing or evading, or attempting to flee or evade,
4811     pursuit or apprehension by [any] a peace officer.
4812          (3) A violation of Subsection (2) is a class A misdemeanor.
4813          [(3)] (4) It is not a defense to a violation of this section that the [person] actor did not
4814     know that the [person] actor had entered onto school property.
4815          [(4)] (5) As a part of the sentence for violation of this section, the court shall order the
4816     [defendant] actor to reimburse the school for costs incurred by the school in responding to the
4817     [defendant's] actor's presence on the school property.
4818          [(5)] (6) The offense under this section [of evading law enforcement while on school
4819     property] is a separate offense from a violation of:
4820          (a) [Section 41-6a-210, regarding] failure to respond to [an] officer's signal to stop
4821     under Section 41-6a-210; or
4822          (b) [Section 76-8-305.5, regarding] failure to stop at the command of a peace officer
4823     under Section 76-8-305.5.
4824          Section 136. Section 76-9-802 is amended to read:
4825          76-9-802. Definitions.
4826          As used in this part:
4827          (1) "Criminal street gang" means an organization, association in fact, or group of three
4828     or more persons, whether operated formally or informally:
4829          (a) that is currently in operation;
4830          (b) that has as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more predicate
4831     gang crimes;
4832          (c) that has, as a group, an identifying name or identifying sign or symbol, or both; and

4833          (d) whose members, acting individually or in concert with other members, engage in or
4834     have engaged in a pattern of criminal gang activity.
4835          (2) "Intimidate" means the use of force, duress, violence, coercion, menace, or threat of
4836     harm for the purpose of causing an individual to act or refrain from acting.
4837          (3) "Minor" means a person younger than 18 years old.
4838          (4) "Pattern of criminal gang activity" means:
4839          (a) committing, attempting to commit, conspiring to commit, or soliciting the
4840     commission of two or more predicate gang crimes within five years;
4841          (b) the predicate gang crimes are:
4842          (i) committed by two or more persons; or
4843          (ii) committed by an individual at the direction of, or in association with a criminal
4844     street gang; and
4845          (c) the criminal activity was committed with the specific intent to promote, further, or
4846     assist in any criminal conduct by members of the criminal street gang.
4847          (5) (a) "Predicate gang crime" means any of the following offenses:
4848          (i) Title 41, Chapter 1a, Motor Vehicle Act:
4849          (A) Section 41-1a-1313, regarding possession of a motor vehicle without an
4850     identification number;
4851          (B) Section 41-1a-1315, regarding false evidence of title and registration;
4852          (C) Section 41-1a-1316, regarding receiving or transferring stolen vehicles;
4853          (D) Section 41-1a-1317, regarding selling or buying a motor vehicle without an
4854     identification number; or
4855          (E) Section 41-1a-1318, regarding the fraudulent alteration of an identification number;
4856          (ii) any criminal violation of the following provisions:
4857          (A) Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
4858          (B) Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
4859          (C) Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances Act; or
4860          (D) Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance Precursor Act;
4861          (iii) Sections 76-5-102 through 76-5-103.5, which address assault offenses;
4862          (iv) Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
4863          (v) Sections 76-5-301 through 76-5-304, which address kidnapping and related

4864     offenses;
4865          (vi) [any] a felony offense under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
4866          (vii) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
4867          (viii) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2, Burglary and Criminal Trespass;
4868          (ix) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
4869          (x) [any] a felony offense under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 4, Theft, or under Title 76,
4870     Chapter 6, Part 6, Retail Theft, except Sections 76-6-404.5, 76-6-405, 76-6-407, 76-6-408,
4871     76-6-409, 76-6-409.1, 76-6-409.3, 76-6-409.6, 76-6-409.7, 76-6-409.8, 76-6-409.9, 76-6-410,
4872     and 76-6-410.5;
4873          (xi) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 5, Fraud, except Sections 76-6-504, 76-6-505, 76-6-507,
4874     76-6-508, 76-6-509, 76-6-510, 76-6-511, 76-6-512, 76-6-513, 76-6-514, 76-6-516, 76-6-517,
4875     76-6-518, and 76-6-520;
4876          (xii) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 11, Identity Fraud Act;
4877          (xiii) Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 3, Obstructing Governmental Operations, except
4878     Sections 76-8-302, 76-8-303, 76-8-307, 76-8-308, and 76-8-312;
4879          (xiv) [Section 76-8-508, which includes] tampering with a witness under Section
4880     76-8-508;
4881          (xv) [Section 76-8-508.3, which includes] retaliation against a witness [or], victim, or
4882     informant under Section 76-8-509.3;
4883          (xvi) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;
4884          [(xvi)] (xvii) [Section 76-8-509, which includes] extortion or bribery to dismiss a
4885     criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509;
4886          [(xvii)] (xviii) a misdemeanor violation of disorderly conduct under Section 76-9-102,
4887     if the violation occurs at an official meeting;
4888          [(xviii)] (xix) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 3, Explosives;
4889          [(xix)] (xx) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons;
4890          [(xx)] (xxi) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 15, Bus Passenger Safety Act;
4891          [(xxi)] (xxii) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 16, Pattern of Unlawful Activity Act;
4892          [(xxii)] (xxiii) [Section 76-10-1801, which addresses] communications fraud under
4893     Section 76-10-1801;
4894          [(xxiii)] (xxiv) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 19, Money Laundering and Currency

4895     Transaction Reporting Act; or
4896          [(xxiv)] (xxv) [Section 76-10-2002, which addresses] burglary of a research facility
4897     under Section 76-10-2002.
4898          (b) "Predicate gang crime" also includes:
4899          (i) any state or federal criminal offense that by its nature involves a substantial risk that
4900     physical force may be used against another in the course of committing the offense; and
4901          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
4902     any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute a violation of
4903     any offense in Subsection (4)(a) if committed in this state.
4904          Section 137. Section 76-9-902 is amended to read:
4905          76-9-902. Definitions.
4906          As used in this part:
4907          (1) "Criminal street gang" means an organization, association in fact, or group of three
4908     or more persons, whether operated formally or informally:
4909          (a) that is currently in operation;
4910          (b) that has as one of its substantial activities the commission of one or more predicate
4911     gang crimes;
4912          (c) that has, as a group, an identifying name or an identifying sign or symbol, or both;
4913     and
4914          (d) whose members, acting individually or in concert with other members, engage in or
4915     have engaged in a pattern of criminal gang activity.
4916          (2) "Gang loitering" means a person remains in one place under circumstances that
4917     would cause a reasonable person to believe that the purpose or effect of that behavior is to
4918     enable or facilitate a criminal street gang to:
4919          (a) establish control over one or more identifiable areas;
4920          (b) intimidate others from entering those areas; or
4921          (c) conceal illegal activities.
4922          (3) "Pattern of criminal gang activity" means committing, attempting to commit,
4923     conspiring to commit, or soliciting the commission of two or more predicate gang crimes
4924     within five years, if the predicate gang crimes are committed:
4925          (a) (i) by two or more persons; or

4926          (ii) by an individual at the direction of or in association with a criminal street gang; and
4927          (b) with the specific intent to promote, further, or assist in any criminal conduct by
4928     members of a criminal street gang.
4929          (4) (a) "Predicate gang crime" means any of the following offenses:
4930          (i) [any] a criminal violation of:
4931          (A) Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
4932          (B) Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
4933          (C) Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances Act; or
4934          (D) Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance Precursor Act;
4935          (ii) Sections 76-5-102 through 76-5-103.5, which address assault offenses;
4936          (iii) Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
4937          (iv) Sections 76-5-301 through 76-5-304, which address kidnapping and related
4938     offenses;
4939          (v) [any] a felony offense under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
4940          (vi) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
4941          (vii) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2, Burglary and Criminal Trespass;
4942          (viii) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
4943          (ix) [any] a felony offense under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 4, Theft, except Sections
4944     76-6-404.5, 76-6-405, 76-6-407, 76-6-408, 76-6-409, 76-6-409.1, 76-6-409.3, 76-6-409.6,
4945     76-6-409.7, 76-6-409.8, 76-6-409.9, 76-6-410, and 76-6-410.5;
4946          (x) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 5, Fraud, except Sections 76-6-504, 76-6-505, 76-6-507,
4947     76-6-508, 76-6-509, 76-6-510, 76-6-511, 76-6-512, 76-6-513, 76-6-514, 76-6-516, 76-6-517,
4948     76-6-518, and 76-6-520;
4949          (xi) Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 11, Identity Fraud Act;
4950          (xii) Title 76, Chapter 8, Part 3, Obstructing Governmental Operations, except Sections
4951     76-8-302, 76-8-303, 76-8-307, 76-8-308, and 76-8-312;
4952          (xiii) [Section 76-8-508, which includes] tampering with a witness under Section
4953     76-8-508;
4954          (xiv) [Section 76-8-508.3, which includes] retaliation against a witness [or], victim, or
4955     informant under Section 76-8-508.3;
4956          (xv) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;

4957          [(xv)] (xvi) [Section 76-8-509, which includes] extortion or bribery to dismiss a
4958     criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509;
4959          [(xvi)] (xvii) a misdemeanor violation of disorderly conduct under Section 76-9-102, if
4960     the violation occurs at an official meeting;
4961          [(xvii)] (xviii) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 3, Explosives;
4962          [(xviii)] (xix) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons;
4963          [(xix)] (xx) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 15, Bus Passenger Safety Act;
4964          [(xx)] (xxi) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 16, Pattern of Unlawful Activity Act;
4965          [(xxi)] (xxii) [Section 76-10-1801, which addresses] communications fraud under
4966     Section 76-10-1801;
4967          [(xxii)] (xxiii) Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 19, Money Laundering and Currency
4968     Transaction Reporting Act;
4969          [(xxiii)] (xxiv) [Section 76-10-2002, which addresses] burglary of a research facility[;
4970     and] under Section 76-10-2002; or
4971          [(xxiv)] (xxv) Title 41, Chapter 1a, Motor Vehicle Act:
4972          (A) Section 41-1a-1313, regarding possession of a motor vehicle without an
4973     identification number;
4974          (B) Section 41-1a-1315, regarding false evidence of title and registration;
4975          (C) Section 41-1a-1316, regarding receiving or transferring stolen vehicles;
4976          (D) Section 41-1a-1317, regarding selling or buying a vehicle without an identification
4977     number; and
4978          (E) Section 41-1a-1318, regarding the fraudulent alteration of an identification number.
4979          (b) "Predicate gang crime" also includes:
4980          (i) any state or federal criminal offense that by its nature involves a substantial risk that
4981     physical force may be used against another in the course of committing the offense; and
4982          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
4983     any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute any offense in
4984     Subsection (4)(a) if committed in this state.
4985          (5) (a) "Public place" means any location or structure to which the public or a
4986     substantial group of the public has access, and includes:
4987          (i) a sidewalk, street, or highway;

4988          (ii) a public park, public recreation facility, or any other area open to the public;
4989          (iii) a shopping mall, sports facility, stadium, arena, theater, movie house, or
4990     playhouse, or the parking lot or structure adjacent to any of these; and
4991          (iv) the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings,
4992     transport facilities, and businesses.
4993          (b) "Public place" includes the lobbies, hallways, elevators, restaurants and other
4994     dining areas, and restrooms of any of the locations or structures under Subsection (5)(a).
4995          Section 138. Section 76-9-1008 is amended to read:
4996          76-9-1008. Proof of immigration status required to receive public benefits.
4997          (1) (a) An agency that provides state or local public benefits as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec.
4998     1621 shall comply with Section 63G-12-402 and shall also comply with this section, except:
4999          (i) as provided in Subsection 63G-12-402(3)(g) or (k); or
5000          (ii) when compliance is exempted by federal law or when compliance could reasonably
5001     be expected to be grounds for the federal government to withhold federal Medicaid funding.
5002          (b) The agency shall verify a person's lawful presence in the United States by requiring
5003     that the applicant under this section sign a certificate under penalty of perjury, stating that the
5004     applicant:
5005          (i) is a United States citizen; or
5006          (ii) is a qualified alien as defined by 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1641.
5007          (c) The certificate under Subsection (1)(b) shall include a statement advising the signer
5008     that providing false information subjects the signer to penalties for perjury.
5009          (d) The signature under this Subsection (1) may be executed in person or
5010     electronically.
5011          (e) When an applicant who is a qualified alien has executed the certificate under this
5012     section, the applicant's eligibility for benefits shall be verified by the agency through the federal
5013     SAVE program or an equivalent program designated by the United States Department of
5014     Homeland Security.
5015          (2) Any person who knowingly and willfully makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent
5016     statement of representation in a certificate executed under this section is guilty of public
5017     assistance fraud by an applicant for public assistance under Section [76-8-1205] 76-8-1203.1.
5018          (3) If the certificate constitutes a false claim of United States citizenship under 18

5019     U.S.C. Sec. 911, the agency requiring the certificate shall file a complaint with the United
5020     States Attorney for the applicable federal judicial district based upon the venue in which the
5021     certificate was executed.
5022          (4) Agencies may, with the concurrence of the Utah Attorney General, adopt variations
5023     to the requirements of the provisions of this section that provide for adjudication of unique
5024     individual circumstances where the verification procedures in this section would impose
5025     unusual hardship on a legal resident of this state.
5026          (5) If an agency under Subsection (1) receives verification that a person making an
5027     application for any benefit, service, or license is not a qualified alien, the agency shall provide
5028     the information to the local law enforcement agency for enforcement of [Section 76-8-1205]
5029     public assistance fraud by an applicant for public assistance under Section 76-8-1203.1 unless
5030     prohibited by federal mandate.
5031          Section 139. Section 76-10-306 is amended to read:
5032          76-10-306. Explosive, chemical, or incendiary device and parts -- Definitions --
5033     Persons exempted -- Penalties.
5034          (1) As used in this section:
5035          (a) "Explosive, chemical, or incendiary device" means:
5036          (i) dynamite and all other forms of high explosives, including water gel, slurry, military
5037     C-4 (plastic explosives), blasting agents to include nitro-carbon-nitrate, ammonium nitrate, fuel
5038     oil mixtures, cast primers and boosters, R.D.X., P.E.T.N., electric and nonelectric blasting
5039     caps, exploding cords commonly called detonating cord, detcord, or primacord, picric acid
5040     explosives, T.N.T. and T.N.T. mixtures, nitroglycerin and nitroglycerin mixtures, or any other
5041     chemical mixture intended to explode with fire or force;
5042          (ii) any explosive bomb, grenade, missile, or similar device; and
5043          (iii) any incendiary bomb, grenade, fire bomb, chemical bomb, or similar device,
5044     including any device, except kerosene lamps, if criminal intent has not been established, which
5045     consists of or includes a breakable container including a flammable liquid or compound and a
5046     wick composed of any material which, when ignited, is capable of igniting the flammable
5047     liquid or compound or any breakable container which consists of, or includes a chemical
5048     mixture that explodes with fire or force and can be carried, thrown, or placed.
5049          (b) "Explosive, chemical, or incendiary device" does not include rifle, pistol, or

5050     shotgun ammunition, reloading components, or muzzleloading equipment.
5051          (c) "Explosive, chemical, or incendiary parts" means any substances or materials or
5052     combinations which have been prepared or altered for use in the creation of an explosive,
5053     chemical, or incendiary device. These substances or materials include:
5054          (i) timing device, clock, or watch which has been altered in such a manner as to be
5055     used as the arming device in an explosive;
5056          (ii) pipe, end caps, or metal tubing which has been prepared for a pipe bomb; and
5057          (iii) mechanical timers, mechanical triggers, chemical time delays, electronic time
5058     delays, or commercially made or improvised items which, when used singly or in combination,
5059     may be used in the construction of a timing delay mechanism, booby trap, or activating
5060     mechanism for any explosive, chemical, or incendiary device.
5061          (d) "Explosive, chemical, or incendiary parts" does not include rifle, pistol, or shotgun
5062     ammunition, or any signaling device customarily used in operation of railroad equipment.
5063          (2) The provisions in Subsections (3) and (6) do not apply to:
5064          (a) any public safety officer while acting in an official capacity transporting or
5065     otherwise handling explosives, chemical, or incendiary devices;
5066          (b) any member of the armed forces of the United States or Utah National Guard while
5067     acting in an official capacity;
5068          (c) any person possessing a valid permit issued under the provisions of Uniform Fire
5069     Code, Article 77, or any employee of the permittee acting within the scope of employment;
5070          (d) any person possessing a valid license as an importer, wholesaler, display operator,
5071     special effects operator, or flame effects operator under the provisions of Sections 11-3-3.5 and
5072     53-7-223; and
5073          (e) any person or entity possessing or controlling an explosive, chemical, or incendiary
5074     device as part of its lawful business operations.
5075          (3) Any person is guilty of a second degree felony who, under circumstances not
5076     amounting to a violation of Part 4, Weapons of Mass Destruction, knowingly, intentionally, or
5077     recklessly possesses or controls an explosive, chemical, or incendiary device.
5078          (4) Any person is guilty of a first degree felony who, under circumstances not
5079     amounting to a violation of Part 4, Weapons of Mass Destruction, knowingly or intentionally:
5080          (a) uses or causes to be used an explosive, chemical, or incendiary device in the

5081     commission of or an attempt to commit a felony;
5082          (b) injures another or attempts to injure another person or another person's property
5083     through the use of an explosive, chemical, or incendiary device; or
5084          (c) transports, possesses, distributes, or sells any explosive, chemical, or incendiary
5085     device in a secure area established pursuant to Section 76-8-311.1, 76-8-311.3, 76-10-529, or
5086     78A-2-203.
5087          (5) Any person who, under circumstances not amounting to a violation of Part 4,
5088     Weapons of Mass Destruction, knowingly, intentionally, or recklessly removes or causes to be
5089     removed or carries away any explosive, chemical, or incendiary device from the premises
5090     where the explosive, chemical, or incendiary device is kept by the lawful user, vendor,
5091     transporter, or manufacturer without the consent or direction of the lawful possessor is guilty of
5092     a second degree felony.
5093          (6) Any person who, under circumstances not amounting to a violation of Part 4,
5094     Weapons of Mass Destruction, knowingly, intentionally, or recklessly possesses any explosive,
5095     chemical, or incendiary parts is guilty of a third degree felony.
5096          Section 140. Section 76-10-1602 is amended to read:
5097          76-10-1602. Definitions.
5098          As used in this part:
5099          (1) "Enterprise" means any individual, sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation,
5100     business trust, association, or other legal entity, and any union or group of individuals
5101     associated in fact although not a legal entity, and includes illicit as well as licit entities.
5102          (2) "Pattern of unlawful activity" means engaging in conduct which constitutes the
5103     commission of at least three episodes of unlawful activity, which episodes are not isolated, but
5104     have the same or similar purposes, results, participants, victims, or methods of commission, or
5105     otherwise are interrelated by distinguishing characteristics. Taken together, the episodes shall
5106     demonstrate continuing unlawful conduct and be related either to each other or to the
5107     enterprise. At least one of the episodes comprising a pattern of unlawful activity shall have
5108     occurred after July 31, 1981. The most recent act constituting part of a pattern of unlawful
5109     activity as defined by this part shall have occurred within five years of the commission of the
5110     next preceding act alleged as part of the pattern.
5111          (3) "Person" includes any individual or entity capable of holding a legal or beneficial

5112     interest in property, including state, county, and local governmental entities.
5113          (4) "Unlawful activity" means to directly engage in conduct or to solicit, request,
5114     command, encourage, or intentionally aid another person to engage in conduct which would
5115     constitute any offense described by the following crimes or categories of crimes, or to attempt
5116     or conspire to engage in an act which would constitute any of those offenses, regardless of
5117     whether the act is in fact charged or indicted by any authority or is classified as a misdemeanor
5118     or a felony:
5119          (a) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 13, Chapter 10,
5120     Unauthorized Recording Practices Act;
5121          (b) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 19,
5122     Environmental Quality Code, Sections 19-1-101 through 19-7-109;
5123          (c) taking, destroying, or possessing wildlife or parts of wildlife for the primary
5124     purpose of sale, trade, or other pecuniary gain[, in violation of] under Title 23A, Wildlife
5125     Resources Act, or Section 23A-5-311;
5126          (d) false claims for medical benefits, kickbacks, [and any] or other [act] acts prohibited
5127     [by] under Title 26B, Chapter 3, Part 11, Utah False Claims Act, Sections 26B-3-1101 through
5128     26B-3-1112;
5129          (e) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 32B, Chapter 4,
5130     Criminal Offenses and Procedure Act;
5131          (f) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 57, Chapter 11,
5132     Utah Uniform Land Sales Practices Act;
5133          (g) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 58, Chapter 37,
5134     Utah Controlled Substances Act, or Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances
5135     Act, Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance Precursor Act, or Title 58, Chapter 37d,
5136     Clandestine Drug Lab Act;
5137          (h) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 61, Chapter 1,
5138     Utah Uniform Securities Act;
5139          (i) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 63G, Chapter 6a,
5140     Utah Procurement Code;
5141          (j) assault [or aggravated assault, Sections] under Section 76-5-102 [and];
5142          (k) aggravated assault under Section 76-5-103;

5143          [(k)] (l) a threat of terrorism[,] under Section 76-5-107.3;
5144          [(l)] (m) a criminal homicide offense[, as described in] under Section 76-5-201;
5145          [(m)] (n) kidnapping [or aggravated kidnapping, Sections] under Section 76-5-301
5146     [and];
5147          (o) aggravated kidnapping under Section 76-5-302;
5148          [(n)] (p) human trafficking[,] for labor under Section 76-5-308;
5149          (q) human trafficking for sexual exploitation under Section 76-5-308.1;
5150          (r) human smuggling under Section 76-5-308.3;
5151          (s) human trafficking of a child[, human smuggling, or aggravated human trafficking,
5152     Sections 76-5-308, 76-5-308.1, 76-5-308.3,] under Section 76-5-308.5[,];
5153          (t) benefiting from trafficking and human smuggling under Section 76-5-309[, and];
5154          (u) aggravated human trafficking under Section 76-5-310;
5155          [(o)] (v) sexual exploitation of a minor [or] under Section 76-5b-201;
5156          (w) aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor[, Sections 76-5b-201 and] under Section
5157     76-5b-201.1;
5158          [(p)] (x) arson under Section 76-6-102;
5159          (y) [or] aggravated arson[, Sections 76-6-102 and] under Section 76-6-103;
5160          [(q)] (z) causing a catastrophe[,] under Section 76-6-105;
5161          [(r)] (aa) burglary under Section 76-6-202;
5162          (bb) [or] aggravated burglary[, Sections 76-6-202 and] under Section 76-6-203;
5163          [(s)] (cc) burglary of a vehicle[,] under Section 76-6-204;
5164          [(t)] (dd) manufacture or possession of an instrument for burglary or theft[,] under
5165     Section 76-6-205;
5166          [(u)] (ee) robbery under Section 76-6-301;
5167          (ff) [or] aggravated robbery[, Sections 76-6-301 and] under Section 76-6-302;
5168          [(v)] (gg) theft[,] under Section 76-6-404;
5169          [(w)] (hh) theft by deception[,] under Section 76-6-405;
5170          [(x)] (ii) theft by extortion[,] under Section 76-6-406;
5171          [(y)] (jj) receiving stolen property[,] under Section 76-6-408;
5172          [(z)] (kk) theft of services[,] under Section 76-6-409;
5173          [(aa)] (ll) forgery[,] under Section 76-6-501;

5174          [(bb)] (mm) [fraudulent use of a credit card, Sections] unlawful use of financial
5175     transaction card under Section 76-6-506.2[,];
5176          (nn) unlawful acquisition, possession, or transfer of financial transaction card under
5177     Section 76-6-506.3[,, and];
5178          (oo) financial transaction card offenses under Section 76-6-506.6;
5179          [(cc)] (pp) deceptive business practices[,] under Section 76-6-507;
5180          [(dd)] (qq) bribery or receiving bribe by person in the business of selection, appraisal,
5181     or criticism of goods[,] under Section 76-6-508;
5182          [(ee)] (rr) bribery of a labor official[,] under Section 76-6-509;
5183          [(ff)] (ss) defrauding creditors[,] under Section 76-6-511;
5184          [(gg)] (tt) acceptance of deposit by insolvent financial institution[,] under Section
5185     76-6-512;
5186          [(hh)] (uu) unlawful dealing with property by fiduciary[,] under Section 76-6-513;
5187          [(ii)] (vv) bribery or threat to influence contest[,] under Section 76-6-514;
5188          [(jj)] (ww) making a false credit report[,] under Section 76-6-517;
5189          [(kk)] (xx) criminal simulation[,] under Section 76-6-518;
5190          [(ll)] (yy) criminal usury[,] under Section 76-6-520;
5191          [(mm)] (zz) insurance fraud[,] under Section 76-6-521;
5192          [(nn)] (aaa) retail theft[,] under Section 76-6-602;
5193          [(oo)] (bbb) computer crimes[,] under Section 76-6-703;
5194          [(pp)] (ccc) identity fraud[,] under Section 76-6-1102;
5195          [(qq)] (ddd) mortgage fraud[,] under Section 76-6-1203;
5196          [(rr)] (eee) sale of a child[,] under Section 76-7-203;
5197          [(ss)] (fff) bribery to influence official or political actions[,] under Section 76-8-103;
5198          [(tt)] (ggg) [threats] threat to influence official or political action[,] under Section
5199     76-8-104;
5200          [(uu)] (hhh) receiving bribe or bribery by public servant[,] under Section 76-8-105;
5201          [(vv)] (iii) receiving bribe [or bribery] for endorsement of person as a public servant[,]
5202     under Section 76-8-106;
5203          [(ww) official misconduct, Sections]
5204          (jjj) bribery for endorsement of person as public servant under Section 76-8-106.1;

5205          (kkk) official misconduct based on unauthorized act or failure of duty under Section
5206     76-8-201 [and];
5207          (lll) official misconduct concerning inside information under Section 76-8-202;
5208          [(xx)] (mmm) obstruction of justice[,] in a criminal investigation or proceeding under
5209     Section 76-8-306;
5210          [(yy)] (nnn) acceptance of bribe or bribery to prevent criminal prosecution[,] under
5211     Section 76-8-308;
5212          (ooo) harboring or concealing offender who has escaped from official custody under
5213     Section 76-8-309.2;
5214          [(zz)] (ppp) making a false or inconsistent material [statements,] statement under
5215     Section 76-8-502;
5216          [(aaa)] (qqq) making a false or inconsistent [statements,] statement under Section
5217     76-8-503;
5218          [(bbb)] (rrr) making a written false [statements,] statement under Section 76-8-504;
5219          [(ccc)] (sss) tampering with a witness [or soliciting or receiving a bribe,] under Section
5220     76-8-508;
5221          [(ddd)] (ttt) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant[,] under Section
5222     76-8-508.3;
5223          (uuu) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;
5224          [(eee)] (vvv) extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding[,] under Section
5225     76-8-509;
5226          [(fff)] (www) tampering with evidence[,] under Section 76-8-510.5;
5227          [(ggg)] (xxx) falsification or alteration of a government record[,] under Section
5228     76-8-511, if the record is a record described in Title 20A, Election Code, or Title 36, Chapter
5229     11, Lobbyist Disclosure and Regulation Act;
5230          [(hhh)] (yyy) public assistance fraud [in violation of] by an applicant for public
5231     assistance under Section [76-8-1203, 76-8-1204, or 76-8-1205] 76-8-1203.1;
5232          (zzz) public assistance fraud by a recipient of public assistance under Section
5233     76-8-1203.3;
5234          (aaaa) public assistance fraud by a provider under Section 76-8-1203.5;
5235          (bbbb) fraudulently misappropriating public assistance funds under Section

5236     76-8-1203.7;
5237          [(iii)] (cccc) [unemployment insurance fraud,] false statement to obtain or increase
5238     unemployment compensation under Section 76-8-1301;
5239          (dddd) false statement to prevent or reduce unemployment compensation or liability
5240     under Section 76-8-1302;
5241          (eeee) unlawful failure to comply with Employment Security Act requirements under
5242     Section 76-8-1303;
5243          (ffff) unlawful use or disclosure of employment information under Section 76-8-1304;
5244          [(jjj)] (gggg) intentionally or knowingly causing one animal to fight with another[,]
5245     under Subsection 76-9-301(2)(d) or (e), or Section 76-9-301.1;
5246          [(kkk)] (hhhh) possession, use, or removal of explosives, chemical, or incendiary
5247     devices or parts[,] under Section 76-10-306;
5248          [(lll)] (iiii) delivery to common carrier, mailing, or placement on premises of an
5249     incendiary device[,] under Section 76-10-307;
5250          [(mmm)] (jjjj) possession of a deadly weapon with intent to assault[,] under Section
5251     76-10-507;
5252          [(nnn)] (kkkk) unlawful marking of pistol or revolver[,] under Section 76-10-521;
5253          [(ooo)] (llll) alteration of number or mark on pistol or revolver[,] under Section
5254     76-10-522;
5255          [(ppp)] (mmmm) forging or counterfeiting trademarks, trade name, or trade device[,]
5256     under Section 76-10-1002;
5257          [(qqq)] (nnnn) selling goods under counterfeited trademark, trade name, or trade
5258     devices[,] under Section 76-10-1003;
5259          [(rrr)] (oooo) sales in containers bearing registered trademark of substituted articles[,]
5260     under Section 76-10-1004;
5261          [(sss)] (pppp) selling or dealing with article bearing registered trademark or service
5262     mark with intent to defraud[,] under Section 76-10-1006;
5263          [(ttt)] (qqqq) gambling[,] under Section 76-10-1102;
5264          [(uuu)] (rrrr) gambling fraud[,] under Section 76-10-1103;
5265          [(vvv)] (ssss) gambling promotion[,] under Section 76-10-1104;
5266          [(www)] (tttt) possessing a gambling device or record[,] under Section 76-10-1105;

5267          [(xxx)] (uuuu) confidence game[,] under Section 76-10-1109;
5268          [(yyy)] (vvvv) distributing pornographic material[,] under Section 76-10-1204;
5269          [(zzz)] (wwww) inducing acceptance of pornographic material[,] under Section
5270     76-10-1205;
5271          [(aaaa)] (xxxx) dealing in harmful material to a minor[,] under Section 76-10-1206;
5272          [(bbbb)] (yyyy) distribution of pornographic films[,] under Section 76-10-1222;
5273          [(cccc)] (zzzz) indecent public displays[,] under Section 76-10-1228;
5274          [(dddd)] (aaaaa) prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1302;
5275          [(eeee)] (bbbbb) aiding prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1304;
5276          [(ffff)] (ccccc) exploiting prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1305;
5277          [(gggg)] (ddddd) aggravated exploitation of prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1306;
5278          [(hhhh)] (eeeee) communications fraud[,] under Section 76-10-1801;
5279          [(iiii)] (fffff) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions of Part 19, Money
5280     Laundering and Currency Transaction Reporting Act;
5281          [(jjjj)] (ggggg) vehicle compartment for contraband[,] under Section 76-10-2801;
5282          [(kkkk)] (hhhhh) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions of the laws
5283     governing taxation in this state; [and] or
5284          [(llll)] (iiiii) [any] an act illegal under the laws of the United States and enumerated in
5285     18 U.S.C. Sec. 1961(1)(B), (C), and (D).
5286          Section 141. Section 77-23a-8 is amended to read:
5287          77-23a-8. Court order to authorize or approve interception -- Procedure.
5288          (1) The attorney general of the state, any assistant attorney general specially designated
5289     by the attorney general, any county attorney, district attorney, deputy county attorney, or deputy
5290     district attorney specially designated by the county attorney or by the district attorney, may
5291     authorize an application to a judge of competent jurisdiction for an order for an interception of
5292     wire, electronic, or oral communications by any law enforcement agency of the state, the
5293     federal government or of any political subdivision of the state that is responsible for
5294     investigating the type of offense for which the application is made.
5295          (2) The judge may grant the order in conformity with the required procedures when the
5296     interception sought may provide or has provided evidence of the commission of:
5297          (a) [any] an act:

5298          (i) prohibited by the criminal provisions of:
5299          (A) Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
5300          (B) Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance Precursor Act; or
5301          (C) Title 58, Chapter 37d, Clandestine Drug Lab Act; and
5302          (ii) punishable by a term of imprisonment of more than one year;
5303          (b) [any] an act prohibited by the criminal provisions [of] under Title 61, Chapter 1,
5304     Utah Uniform Securities Act, and punishable by a term of imprisonment of more than one year;
5305          (c) an offense:
5306          (i) of:
5307          (A) attempt[,] under Section 76-4-101;
5308          (B) conspiracy[,] under Section 76-4-201;
5309          (C) solicitation[,] under Section 76-4-203; and
5310          (ii) punishable by a term of imprisonment of more than one year;
5311          (d) a threat of terrorism offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of
5312     more than one year[,] under Section 76-5-107.3;
5313          (e) (i) aggravated murder[,] under Section 76-5-202;
5314          (ii) murder[,] under Section 76-5-203; or
5315          (iii) manslaughter[,] under Section 76-5-205;
5316          (f) (i) kidnapping[,] under Section 76-5-301;
5317          (ii) child kidnapping[,] under Section 76-5-301.1;
5318          (iii) aggravated kidnapping[,] under Section 76-5-302;
5319          (iv) human trafficking[,] for labor under Section 76-5-308[,];
5320          (v) human trafficking for sexual exploitation under Section 76-5-308.1[,];
5321          (vi) [or] human trafficking of a child under Section 76-5-308.5[, or];
5322          (vii) human smuggling[,] under Section 76-5-308.3; [or]
5323          [(v)] (viii) aggravated human trafficking[,] under Section 76-5-310[,]; or
5324          (ix) aggravated human smuggling[,] under Section 76-5-310.1;
5325          (g) (i) arson[,] under Section 76-6-102; or
5326          (ii) aggravated arson[,] under Section 76-6-103;
5327          (h) (i) burglary[,] under Section 76-6-202; or
5328          (ii) aggravated burglary[,] under Section 76-6-203;

5329          (i) (i) robbery[,] under Section 76-6-301; or
5330          (ii) aggravated robbery[,] under Section 76-6-302;
5331          (j) an offense:
5332          (i) of:
5333          (A) theft[,] under Section 76-6-404;
5334          (B) theft by deception[,] under Section 76-6-405; or
5335          (C) theft by extortion[,] under Section 76-6-406; and
5336          (ii) punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year;
5337          (k) an offense of receiving stolen property that is punishable by a maximum term of
5338     imprisonment of more than one year[,] under Section 76-6-408;
5339          (l) a financial card transaction offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment
5340     of more than one year[,] under Section 76-6-506.2, 76-6-506.3, or 76-6-506.6;
5341          (m) bribery of a labor official[,] under Section 76-6-509;
5342          (n) bribery or threat to influence a publicly exhibited contest[,] under Section
5343     76-6-514;
5344          (o) a criminal simulation offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of
5345     more than one year[,] under Section 76-6-518;
5346          (p) criminal usury[,] under Section 76-6-520;
5347          (q) insurance fraud punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one
5348     year[,] under Section 76-6-521;
5349          (r) a violation [of] under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 7, Utah Computer Crimes Act,
5350     punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year[,] under Section
5351     76-6-703;
5352          (s) bribery to influence official or political actions[,] under Section 76-8-103;
5353          (t) misusing public money or public property[,] under Section 76-8-402;
5354          (u) tampering with a witness [or soliciting or receiving a bribe,] under Section
5355     76-8-508;
5356          (v) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant[,] under Section 76-8-508.3;
5357          (w) tampering [with a juror, retaliation] or retaliating against a juror[,] under Section
5358     76-8-508.5;
5359          (x) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;

5360          [(x)] (y) extortion or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding[,] under Section
5361     76-8-509;
5362          [(y)] (z) obstruction of justice[,] in a criminal investigation or proceeding under
5363     Section 76-8-306;
5364          (aa) harboring or concealing offender who has escaped from official custody under
5365     Section 76-8-309.2;
5366          [(z)] (bb) destruction of property to interfere with [preparation] preparations for
5367     defense or war[,] under Section 76-8-802;
5368          [(aa)] (cc) an attempt to commit crimes of sabotage[,] under Section 76-8-804;
5369          [(bb)] (dd) conspiracy to commit crimes of sabotage[,] under Section 76-8-805;
5370          [(cc)] (ee) advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage[,] under Section 76-8-902;
5371          [(dd)] (ff) [assembly] assembling for advocating criminal syndicalism or sabotage[,]
5372     under Section 76-8-903;
5373          [(ee)] (gg) riot punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one
5374     year[,] under Section 76-9-101;
5375          [(ff)] (hh) dog fighting, training dogs for fighting, or dog fighting exhibitions
5376     punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year[,] under Section
5377     76-9-301.1;
5378          [(gg)] (ii) possession, use, or removal of an explosive, chemical, or incendiary device
5379     and parts[,] under Section 76-10-306;
5380          [(hh)] (jj) delivery to a common carrier or mailing of an explosive, chemical, or
5381     incendiary device[,] under Section 76-10-307;
5382          [(ii)] (kk) exploiting prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1305;
5383          [(jj)] (ll) aggravated exploitation of prostitution[,] under Section 76-10-1306;
5384          [(kk)] (mm) bus hijacking or assault with intent to commit hijacking[,] under Section
5385     76-10-1504;
5386          [(ll)] (nn) discharging firearms and hurling missiles[,] under Section 76-10-1505;
5387          [(mm)] (oo) violations [of] under Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 16, Pattern of Unlawful
5388     Activity Act, and the offenses listed under the definition of unlawful activity in the act,
5389     including the offenses not punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one
5390     year when those offenses are investigated as predicates for the offenses prohibited by the act[,]

5391     under Section 76-10-1602;
5392          [(nn)] (pp) communications fraud[,] under Section 76-10-1801;
5393          [(oo)] (qq) money laundering[,] under Sections 76-10-1903 and 76-10-1904; or
5394          [(pp)] (rr) reporting by a person engaged in a trade or business when the offense is
5395     punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year[,] under Section
5396     76-10-1906.
5397          Section 142. Section 77-36-1 is amended to read:
5398          77-36-1. Definitions.
5399          As used in this chapter:
5400          (1) "Cohabitant" means the same as that term is defined in Section 78B-7-102.
5401          (2) "Department" means the Department of Public Safety.
5402          (3) "Divorced" means an individual who has obtained a divorce under Title 30, Chapter
5403     3, Divorce.
5404          (4) "Domestic violence" or "domestic violence offense" means any criminal offense
5405     involving violence or physical harm or threat of violence or physical harm, or any attempt,
5406     conspiracy, or solicitation to commit a criminal offense involving violence or physical harm,
5407     when committed by one cohabitant against another. "Domestic violence" or "domestic
5408     violence offense" includes commission or attempt to commit, any of the following offenses by
5409     one cohabitant against another:
5410          (a) aggravated assault[, as described in] under Section 76-5-103;
5411          (b) aggravated cruelty to an animal[, as described in] under Subsection 76-9-301(4),
5412     with the intent to harass or threaten the other cohabitant;
5413          (c) assault[, as described in] under Section 76-5-102;
5414          (d) criminal homicide[, as described in] under Section 76-5-201;
5415          (e) harassment[, as described in] under Section 76-5-106;
5416          (f) electronic communication harassment[, as described in] under Section 76-9-201;
5417          (g) kidnapping, child kidnapping, or aggravated kidnapping[, as described in] under
5418     Sections 76-5-301, 76-5-301.1, and 76-5-302;
5419          (h) mayhem[, as described in] under Section 76-5-105;
5420          (i) sexual offenses[, as described in] under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual
5421     Offenses[, and];

5422          (j) sexual exploitation of a minor [and aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor, as
5423     described in Sections] under Section 76-5b-201 [and];
5424          (k) aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor under Section 76-5b-201.1;
5425          [(j)] (l) stalking[, as described in] under Section 76-5-106.5;
5426          [(k)] (m) unlawful detention [or] and unlawful detention of a minor[, as described in]
5427     under Section 76-5-304;
5428          [(l)] (n) violation of a protective order or ex parte protective order[, as described in]
5429     under Section 76-5-108;
5430          [(m)] (o) [any] an offense against property [described in] under Title 76, Chapter 6,
5431     Part 1, Property Destruction, Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2, Burglary and Criminal Trespass, or
5432     Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
5433          [(n)] (p) possession of a deadly weapon with criminal intent[, as described in] under
5434     Section 76-10-507;
5435          [(o)] (q) discharge of a firearm from a vehicle, near a highway, or in the direction of
5436     any person, building, or vehicle[, as described in] under Section 76-10-508;
5437          [(p)] (r) disorderly conduct[, as defined in] under Section 76-9-102, if a conviction or
5438     adjudication of disorderly conduct is the result of a plea agreement in which the perpetrator
5439     was originally charged with a domestic violence offense otherwise described in this Subsection
5440     (4), except that a conviction or adjudication of disorderly conduct as a domestic violence
5441     offense, in the manner described in this Subsection (4)(p), does not constitute a misdemeanor
5442     crime of domestic violence under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921, and is exempt from the federal Firearms
5443     Act, 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921 et seq.;
5444          [(q)] (s) child abuse[, as described in] under Section 76-5-114;
5445          [(r)] (t) threatening use of a dangerous weapon[, as described in] under Section
5446     76-10-506;
5447          [(s)] (u) threatening violence[, as described in] under Section 76-5-107;
5448          [(t)] (v) tampering with a witness[, as described in] under Section 76-8-508;
5449          [(u)] (w) retaliation against a witness [or], victim, [as described in] or informant under
5450     Section 76-8-508.3;
5451          (x) receiving or soliciting a bribe as a witness under Section 76-8-508.7;
5452          [(v)] (y) unlawful distribution of an intimate image[, as described in] under Section

5453     76-5b-203[, or];
5454          (z) unlawful distribution of a counterfeit intimate image[, as described in] under
5455     Section 76-5b-205;
5456          [(w)] (aa) sexual battery[, as described in] under Section 76-9-702.1;
5457          [(x)] (bb) voyeurism[, as described in] under Section 76-9-702.7;
5458          [(y)] (cc) damage to or interruption of a communication device[, as described in] under
5459     Section 76-6-108; or
5460          [(z)] (dd) an offense [described in] under Subsection 78B-7-806(1).
5461          (5) "Jail release agreement" means the same as that term is defined in Section
5462     78B-7-801.
5463          (6) "Jail release court order" means the same as that term is defined in Section
5464     78B-7-801.
5465          (7) "Marital status" means married and living together, divorced, separated, or not
5466     married.
5467          (8) "Married and living together" means a couple whose marriage was solemnized
5468     under Section 30-1-4 or 30-1-6 and who are living in the same residence.
5469          (9) "Not married" means any living arrangement other than married and living together,
5470     divorced, or separated.
5471          (10) "Protective order" includes an order issued under Subsection 78B-7-804(3).
5472          (11) "Pretrial protective order" means a written order:
5473          (a) specifying and limiting the contact a person who has been charged with a domestic
5474     violence offense may have with an alleged victim or other specified individuals; and
5475          (b) specifying other conditions of release under Section 78B-7-802 or 78B-7-803,
5476     pending trial in the criminal case.
5477          (12) "Sentencing protective order" means a written order of the court as part of
5478     sentencing in a domestic violence case that limits the contact an individual who is convicted or
5479     adjudicated of a domestic violence offense may have with a victim or other specified
5480     individuals under Section 78B-7-804.
5481          (13) "Separated" means a couple who have had their marriage solemnized under
5482     Section 30-1-4 or 30-1-6 and who are not living in the same residence.
5483          (14) "Victim" means a cohabitant who has been subjected to domestic violence.

5484          Section 143. Section 77-36-1.1 is amended to read:
5485          77-36-1.1. Enhancement of offense and penalty for subsequent domestic violence
5486     offenses.
5487          (1) As used in this section:
5488          (a) (i) "Convicted" means a conviction by plea or verdict of a crime or offense.
5489          (ii) "Convicted" includes:
5490          (A) a plea of guilty or guilty with a mental condition;
5491          (B) a plea of no contest; and
5492          (C) the acceptance by the court of a plea in abeyance under Title 77, Chapter 2a, Pleas
5493     in Abeyance, regardless of whether the charge is subsequently reduced or dismissed in
5494     accordance with the plea in abeyance agreement.
5495          (iii) "Convicted" does not include an adjudication in juvenile court.
5496          (b) "Offense against the person" means commission or attempt to commit an offense
5497     under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 1, Assault and Related Offenses, Part 2, Criminal Homicide,
5498     Part 3, Kidnapping, Trafficking, and Smuggling, Part 4, Sexual Offenses, or Part 7, Genital
5499     Mutilation, by one cohabitant against another.
5500          (c) "Property damage offense" means the commission or attempt to commit an offense
5501     under Section 76-6-106 or 76-6-106.1 by one cohabitant against another.
5502          (d) "Qualifying domestic violence offense" means:
5503          (i) a domestic violence offense in Utah; or
5504          (ii) an offense in any other state, or in any district, possession, or territory of the United
5505     States, that would be a domestic violence offense under Utah law.
5506          (2) An individual who is convicted of a domestic violence offense is guilty of a class B
5507     misdemeanor if:
5508          (a) the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection (2) is designated by law
5509     as a class C misdemeanor; and
5510          (b) the individual commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described
5511     in this Subsection (2):
5512          (i) within 10 years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a qualifying
5513     domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal mischief] property damage offense; or
5514          (ii) within five years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a [criminal

5515     mischief] property damage offense.
5516          (3) An individual who is convicted of a domestic violence offense is guilty of a class A
5517     misdemeanor if:
5518          (a) the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection (3) is designated by law
5519     as a class B misdemeanor; and
5520          (b) the individual commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described
5521     in this Subsection (3):
5522          (i) within 10 years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a qualifying
5523     domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal mischief] property damage offense; or
5524          (ii) within five years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a [criminal
5525     mischief] property damage offense.
5526          (4) An individual who is convicted of a domestic violence offense is guilty of a third
5527     degree felony if:
5528          (a) the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection (4) is designated by law
5529     as a class B misdemeanor offense against the person and the individual:
5530          (i) (A) commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described in this
5531     Subsection (4) within 10 years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a
5532     qualifying domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal mischief] property damage offense;
5533     and
5534          (B) is convicted of another qualifying domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal
5535     mischief] property damage offense after the day on which the individual is convicted of the
5536     qualifying domestic violence offense described in Subsection (4)(a)(i)(A) and before the day on
5537     which the individual is convicted of the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection
5538     (4);
5539          (ii) (A) commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described in this
5540     Subsection (4) within five years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a
5541     [criminal mischief] property damage offense; and
5542          (B) is convicted of another [criminal mischief] property damage offense after the day
5543     on which the individual is convicted of the [criminal mischief] property damage offense
5544     described in Subsection (4)(a)(ii)(A) and before the day on which the individual is convicted of
5545     the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection (4); or

5546          (iii) commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described in this
5547     Subsection (4) within 10 years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a
5548     qualifying domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal mischief] property damage offense
5549     and within five years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a [criminal mischief]
5550     property damage offense; and
5551          (b) (i) the domestic violence offense described in this Subsection (4) is designated by
5552     law as a class A misdemeanor; and
5553          (ii) the individual commits or is convicted of the domestic violence offense described
5554     in this Subsection (4):
5555          (A) within 10 years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a qualifying
5556     domestic violence offense that is not a [criminal mischief] property damage offense; or
5557          (B) within five years after the day on which the individual is convicted of a [criminal
5558     mischief] property damage offense.
5559          Section 144. Section 77-37-3 is amended to read:
5560          77-37-3. Bill of rights.
5561          (1) The bill of rights for victims and witnesses is:
5562          (a) Victims and witnesses have a right to be informed as to the level of protection from
5563     intimidation and harm available to them, and from what sources, as they participate in criminal
5564     justice proceedings as designated by Section 76-8-508, regarding [witness tampering]
5565     tampering with a witness, and Section 76-8-509, regarding [threats against a victim] extortion
5566     or bribery to dismiss a criminal proceeding. Law enforcement, prosecution, and corrections
5567     personnel have the duty to timely provide this information in a form which is useful to the
5568     victim.
5569          (b) Victims and witnesses, including children and their guardians, have a right to be
5570     informed and assisted as to their role in the criminal justice process. All criminal justice
5571     agencies have the duty to provide this information and assistance.
5572          (c) Victims and witnesses have a right to clear explanations regarding relevant legal
5573     proceedings; these explanations shall be appropriate to the age of child victims and witnesses.
5574     All criminal justice agencies have the duty to provide these explanations.
5575          (d) Victims and witnesses should have a secure waiting area that does not require them
5576     to be in close proximity to defendants or the family and friends of defendants. Agencies

5577     controlling facilities shall, whenever possible, provide this area.
5578          (e) Victims may seek restitution or reparations, including medical costs, as provided in
5579     Title 63M, Chapter 7, Criminal Justice and Substance Abuse, Title 77, Chapter 38b, Crime
5580     Victims Restitution Act, and Section 80-6-710. State and local government agencies that serve
5581     victims have the duty to have a functional knowledge of the procedures established by the
5582     Crime Victim Reparations Board and to inform victims of these procedures.
5583          (f) Victims and witnesses have a right to have any personal property returned as
5584     provided in Chapter 11a, Seizure of Property and Contraband, and Chapter 11d, Lost or
5585     Mislaid Property. Criminal justice agencies shall expeditiously return the property when it is no
5586     longer needed for court law enforcement or prosecution purposes.
5587          (g) Victims and witnesses have the right to reasonable employer intercession services,
5588     including pursuing employer cooperation in minimizing employees' loss of pay and other
5589     benefits resulting from their participation in the criminal justice process. Officers of the court
5590     shall provide these services and shall consider victims' and witnesses' schedules so that
5591     activities which conflict can be avoided. Where conflicts cannot be avoided, the victim may
5592     request that the responsible agency intercede with employers or other parties.
5593          (h) Victims and witnesses, particularly children, should have a speedy disposition of
5594     the entire criminal justice process. All involved public agencies shall establish policies and
5595     procedures to encourage speedy disposition of criminal cases.
5596          (i) Victims and witnesses have the right to timely notice of judicial proceedings they
5597     are to attend and timely notice of cancellation of any proceedings. Criminal justice agencies
5598     have the duty to provide these notifications. Defense counsel and others have the duty to
5599     provide timely notice to prosecution of any continuances or other changes that may be required.
5600          (j) Victims of sexual offenses have the following rights:
5601          (i) the right to request voluntary testing for themselves for HIV infection as provided in
5602     Section 53-10-803 and to request mandatory testing of the alleged sexual offender for HIV
5603     infection as provided in Section 53-10-802;
5604          (ii) the right to be informed whether a DNA profile was obtained from the testing of
5605     the rape kit evidence or from other crime scene evidence;
5606          (iii) the right to be informed whether a DNA profile developed from the rape kit
5607     evidence or other crime scene evidence has been entered into the Utah Combined DNA Index

5608     System;
5609          (iv) the right to be informed whether there is a match between a DNA profile
5610     developed from the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence and a DNA profile
5611     contained in the Utah Combined DNA Index System, provided that disclosure would not
5612     impede or compromise an ongoing investigation; and
5613          (v) the right to designate a person of the victim's choosing to act as a recipient of the
5614     information provided under this Subsection (1)(j) and under Subsections (2) and (3).
5615          (k) Subsections (1)(j)(ii) through (iv) do not require that the law enforcement agency
5616     communicate with the victim or the victim's designee regarding the status of DNA testing,
5617     absent a specific request received from the victim or the victim's designee.
5618          (2) The law enforcement agency investigating a sexual offense may:
5619          (a) release the information indicated in Subsections (1)(j)(ii) through (iv) upon the
5620     request of a victim or the victim's designee and is the designated agency to provide that
5621     information to the victim or the victim's designee;
5622          (b) require that the victim's request be in writing; and
5623          (c) respond to the victim's request with verbal communication, written communication,
5624     or by email, if an email address is available.
5625          (3) The law enforcement agency investigating a sexual offense has the following
5626     authority and responsibilities:
5627          (a) If the law enforcement agency determines that DNA evidence will not be analyzed
5628     in a case where the identity of the perpetrator has not been confirmed, the law enforcement
5629     agency shall notify the victim or the victim's designee.
5630          (b) (i) If the law enforcement agency intends to destroy or dispose of rape kit evidence
5631     or other crime scene evidence from an unsolved sexual assault case, the law enforcement
5632     agency shall provide written notification of that intention and information on how to appeal the
5633     decision to the victim or the victim's designee of that intention.
5634          (ii) Written notification under this Subsection (3) shall be made not fewer than 60 days
5635     prior to the destruction or disposal of the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence.
5636          (c) A law enforcement agency responsible for providing information under Subsections
5637     (1)(j)(ii) through (iv), (2), and (3) shall do so in a timely manner and, upon request of the
5638     victim or the victim's designee, shall advise the victim or the victim's designee of any

5639     significant changes in the information of which the law enforcement agency is aware.
5640          (d) The law enforcement agency investigating the sexual offense is responsible for
5641     informing the victim or the victim's designee of the rights established under Subsections
5642     (1)(j)(ii) through (iv) and (2), and this Subsection (3).
5643          (4) Informational rights of the victim under this chapter are based upon the victim
5644     providing the current name, address, telephone number, and email address, if an email address
5645     is available, of the person to whom the information should be provided to the criminal justice
5646     agencies involved in the case.
5647          Section 145. Repealer.
5648          This bill repeals:
5649          Section 76-8-314, Threatening elected officials -- "Elected official" defined.
5650          Section 76-8-315, Threatening elected officials -- Penalties for assault.
5651          Section 76-8-404, Making profit from or misusing public money or public property
5652     -- Disqualification from office -- Criminal penalty.
5653          Section 76-8-505, False or inconsistent statements -- Proof of falsity of statements --
5654     Irregularities no defense.
5655          Section 76-8-701, Definitions.
5656          Section 76-8-702, Purpose.
5657          Section 76-8-707, Assistance by local authorities.
5658          Section 76-8-709, Enforcement of laws by local agencies not limited.
5659          Section 76-8-716, Request for assistance from state and local law enforcement
5660     authorities.
5661          Section 76-8-717, Violations -- Classifications of offenses.
5662          Section 76-8-801, Definitions.
5663          Section 76-8-806, Facts kept secret until complaint filed.
5664          Section 76-8-808, Detention and arrest without warrant of unauthorized persons
5665     on posted premises.
5666          Section 76-8-1101, Criminal offenses and penalties relating to revenue and
5667     taxation -- Rulemaking authority -- Statute of limitations.
5668          Section 76-8-1202, Application of part.
5669          Section 76-8-1204, Disclosure by provider required -- Penalty.

5670          Section 76-8-1205, Public assistance fraud defined.
5671          Section 76-8-1206, Penalties for public assistance fraud.
5672          Section 76-8-1401, Definitions.
5673          Section 146. Effective date.
5674          This bill takes effect on May 1, 2024.