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7 LONG TITLE
8 General Description:
9 This bill amends provisions relating to fatality reviews.
10 Highlighted Provisions:
11 This bill:
12 ▸ amends definitions;
13 ▸ consolidates and streamlines certain notice requirements in the fatality review
14 process;
15 ▸ updates language to reflect the electronic storage of certain records;
16 ▸ amends certain deadlines related to the fatality review process; and
17 ▸ makes technical and conforming changes.
18 Money Appropriated in this Bill:
19 None
20 Other Special Clauses:
21 None
22 Utah Code Sections Affected:
23 AMENDS:
24 26B-1-501, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
25 26B-1-502, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
26 26B-1-505, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
27 26B-1-506, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
28 26B-1-507, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
29 52-4-205, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapters 263, 328, 374, and 521
30 63G-2-202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 329
31
32 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
33 Section 1. Section 26B-1-501 is amended to read:
34 26B-1-501. Definitions.
35 As used in this part:
36 (1) "Abuse" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
37 (2) "Child" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
38 (3) "Committee" means a fatality review committee that is formed under Section
39 26B-1-503 or 26B-1-504.
40 (4) "Dependency" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
41 (5) "Formal review" means a review of a death or a near fatality that is ordered under
42 Subsection [
43 (6) "Near fatality" means alleged abuse or neglect that, as certified by a physician,
44 places a child in serious or critical condition.
45 (7) "Qualified individual" means an individual who:
46 (a) at the time that the individual dies, is a resident of a facility or program that is
47 owned or operated by the department or a division of the department;
48 (b) (i) is in the custody of the department or a division of the department; and
49 (ii) is placed in a residential placement by the department or a division of the
50 department;
51 (c) at the time that the individual dies, has an open case for the receipt of child welfare
52 services, including:
53 (i) an investigation for abuse, neglect, or dependency;
54 (ii) foster care;
55 (iii) in-home services; or
56 (iv) substitute care;
57 (d) had an open case for the receipt of child welfare services within one year before the
58 day on which the individual dies;
59 (e) was the subject of an accepted referral received by Adult Protective Services within
60 one year before the day on which the individual dies, if:
61 (i) the department or a division of the department is aware of the death; and
62 (ii) the death is reported as a homicide, suicide, or an undetermined cause;
63 (f) received services from, or under the direction of, the Division of Services for People
64 with Disabilities within one year before the day on which the individual dies[
65
66 [
67 [
68
69
70 (g) dies within 60 days after the day on which the individual is discharged from the
71 Utah State Hospital, if the department is aware of the death;
72 (h) is a child who:
73 (i) suffers a near fatality; and
74 (ii) is the subject of an open case for the receipt of child welfare services within one
75 year before the day on which the child suffered the near fatality, including:
76 (A) an investigation for abuse, neglect, or dependency;
77 (B) foster care;
78 (C) in-home services; or
79 (D) substitute care; or
80 (i) is designated as a qualified individual by the executive director.
81 (8) "Neglect" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
82 (9) "Substitute care" means the same as that term is defined in Section 80-1-102.
83 Section 2. Section 26B-1-502 is amended to read:
84 26B-1-502. Initial review.
85 (1) Within seven days after the day on which the department knows that a qualified
86 individual has died or is an individual described in Subsection 26B-1-501(7)(h), a person
87 designated by the department shall:
88 (a) (i) for a death, complete a deceased client report form, created by the department; or
89 (ii) for an individual described in Subsection 26B-1-501(7)(h), complete a near fatality
90 client report form, created by the department; and
91 (b) forward the completed client report form to:
92 (i) the director of the office or division that has jurisdiction over the region or
93 facility[
94 (ii) the executive director;
95 (iii) the director of the Division of Continuous Quality and Improvement; and
96 (iv) the fatality review coordinator, or the fatality review coordinator's designee.
97 [
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100 [
101 [
102 [
103 fatality review coordinator's designee receives a copy of the near fatality client report form or
104 the deceased client report form, the fatality review coordinator or the fatality review
105 coordinator's designee shall request a copy of all relevant department case records, or electronic
106 access to all relevant department case records, regarding the individual who is the subject of
107 the client report form.
108 [
109 (2) shall provide a copy of the record, or electronic access to the record, to the fatality review
110 coordinator or the fatality review coordinator's designee, by a secure method, within seven days
111 after the day on which the request is made.
112 [
113 fatality review coordinator's designee receives the case records requested under Subsection
114 [
115 (a) review the client report form, the case files, and other relevant information received
116 by the fatality review coordinator; and
117 (b) make a recommendation to the director of the Division of Continuous Quality and
118 Improvement regarding whether a formal review of the death or near fatality should be
119 conducted.
120 [
121 the day on which the fatality review coordinator or the fatality review coordinator's designee
122 makes the recommendation described in Subsection [
123 of Continuous Quality and Improvement or the director's designee shall determine whether to
124 order that a review of the death or near fatality be conducted.
125 (b) The director of the Division of Continuous Quality and Improvement or the
126 director's designee shall order that a formal review of the death or near fatality be conducted if:
127 (i) at the time of the near fatality or the death, the qualified individual is:
128 (A) an individual described in [
129 26B-1-501(7)(a) through (h), unless:
130 (I) the near fatality or the death is due to a natural cause; or
131 (II) the director of the Division of Continuous Quality and Improvement or the
132 director's designee determines that the near fatality or the death was not in any way related to
133 services that were provided by, or under the direction of, the department or a division of the
134 department; or
135 (B) a child in foster care or substitute care, unless the near fatality or the death is due
136 to:
137 (I) a natural cause; or
138 (II) an accident;
139 (ii) it appears, based on the information provided to the director of the Division of
140 Continuous Quality and Improvement or the director's designee, that:
141 (A) a provision of law, rule, policy, or procedure relating to the qualified individual or
142 the individual's family may not have been complied with;
143 (B) the near fatality or the fatality was not responded to properly;
144 (C) a law, rule, policy, or procedure may need to be changed; or
145 (D) additional training is needed;
146 (iii) (A) the death is caused by suicide; or
147 (B) the near fatality is caused by attempted suicide; or
148 (iv) the director of the Division of Continuous Quality and Improvement or the
149 director's designee determines that another reason exists to order that a review of the near
150 fatality or the death be conducted.
151 Section 3. Section 26B-1-505 is amended to read:
152 26B-1-505. Fatality review committee proceedings.
153 (1) A majority vote of committee members present constitutes the action of the
154 committee.
155 (2) The department shall give the committee access to all reports, records, and other
156 documents that are relevant to the near fatality or the death under investigation, including:
157 (a) narrative reports;
158 (b) case files;
159 (c) autopsy reports; and
160 (d) police reports, unless the report is protected from disclosure under Subsection
161 63G-2-305(10) or (11).
162 (3) The Utah State Hospital and the Utah State Developmental Center shall provide
163 protected health information to the committee if requested by a fatality review coordinator.
164 (4) A committee shall convene [
165
166 director of the Division of Continuous Quality and Improvement.
167 (5) A committee may interview a staff member, a provider, or any other person who
168 may have knowledge or expertise that is relevant to the formal review.
169 (6) A committee shall render an advisory opinion regarding:
170 (a) whether the provisions of law, rule, policy, and procedure relating to the qualified
171 individual and the individual's family were complied with;
172 (b) whether the near fatality or the death was responded to properly;
173 (c) whether to recommend that a law, rule, policy, or procedure be changed; and
174 (d) whether additional training is needed.
175 Section 4. Section 26B-1-506 is amended to read:
176 26B-1-506. Fatality review committee report -- Response to report.
177 (1) Within 20 days after the day on which the committee proceedings described in
178 Section 26B-1-505 end, the committee shall submit:
179 (a) a written report to the executive director that includes:
180 (i) the advisory opinions made under Subsection 26B-1-505(6); and
181 (ii) any recommendations regarding action that should be taken in relation to an
182 employee of the department or a person who contracts with the department; and
183 (b) a copy of the report described in Subsection (1)(a) to:
184 (i) the director, or the director's designee, of the office or division to which the near
185 fatality or the death relates; and
186 (ii) the regional director, or the regional director's designee, of the region to which the
187 near fatality or the death relates[
188 [
189
190 (2) Within [
191 (1)(b)(i) receives a copy of the report described in Subsection (1)(a), the [
192 shall provide a written response [
193
194 Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel, if the report:
195 (a) indicates that a law, rule, policy, or procedure was not complied with;
196 (b) indicates that the near fatality or the death was not responded to properly;
197 (c) recommends that a law, rule, policy, or procedure be changed; or
198 (d) indicates that additional training is needed.
199 (3) The response described in Subsection (2) shall include:
200 (a) a plan of action to implement any recommended improvements within the [
201
202 (b) the approval of the executive director or the executive director's designee for the
203 plan described in Subsection (3)(a).
204 [
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206 [
207 [
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209 [
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216 [
217 document created in connection with, or as a result of, a formal review of a near fatality or a
218 death, or a decision whether to conduct a formal review of a near fatality or a death, including:
219 (i) a report described in Subsection (1);
220 (ii) a response described in [
221 (iii) a recommendation regarding whether a formal review should be conducted;
222 (iv) a decision to conduct a formal review;
223 (v) notes of a person who participates in a formal review;
224 (vi) notes of a person who reviews a formal review report;
225 (vii) minutes of a formal review;
226 (viii) minutes of a meeting where a formal review report is reviewed; and
227 (ix) minutes of, documents received in relation to, and documents generated in relation
228 to, the portion of a meeting of the Health and Human Services Interim Committee or the Child
229 Welfare Legislative Oversight Panel that a formal review report or a document described in this
230 Subsection [
231 (b) A fatality review document is not subject to discovery, subpoena, or similar
232 compulsory process in any civil, judicial, or administrative proceeding, nor shall any individual
233 or organization with lawful access to the data be compelled to testify with regard to a report
234 described in Subsection (1) or a response described in [
235 (c) The following are not admissible as evidence in a civil, judicial, or administrative
236 proceeding:
237 (i) a fatality review document; and
238 (ii) an executive summary described in Subsection 26B-1-507(4).
239 Section 5. Section 26B-1-507 is amended to read:
240 26B-1-507. Reporting to, and review by, legislative committees.
241 (1) [
242 1 of each year, the department shall provide, with only identifying information redacted, a copy
243 of the report described in Subsection [
244 response described in [
245 Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel and the chairs of:
246 (a) the Health and Human Services Interim Committee; or
247 (b) if the qualified individual who is the subject of the report is an individual described
248 in Subsection 26B-1-501(7)(c), (d), or (h), the Child Welfare Legislative Oversight Panel.
249 (2) (a) The Health and Human Services Interim Committee may, in a closed meeting,
250 review a report described in Subsection 26B-1-506(1)(b).
251 (b) The Child Welfare Legislative Oversight Panel shall, in a closed meeting, review a
252 report described in Subsection (1)(b).
253 (3) (a) The Health and Human Services Interim Committee and the Child Welfare
254 Legislative Oversight Panel may not interfere with, or make recommendations regarding, the
255 resolution of a particular case.
256 (b) The purpose of a review described in Subsection (2) is to assist a committee or
257 panel described in Subsection (2) in determining whether to recommend a change in the law.
258 (c) Any recommendation, described in Subsection (3)(b), by a committee or panel for a
259 change in the law shall be made in an open meeting.
260 (4) [
261 executive summary of all formal review reports for the preceding state fiscal year to [
262
263 [
264
265 [
266 [
267 (5) The executive summary described in Subsection (4):
268 (a) may not include any names or identifying information;
269 (b) shall include:
270 (i) all recommendations regarding changes to the law that were made during the
271 preceding fiscal year under Subsection 26B-1-505(6);
272 (ii) all changes made, or in the process of being made, to a law, rule, policy, or
273 procedure in response to a formal review that occurred during the preceding fiscal year;
274 (iii) a description of the training that has been completed in response to a formal
275 review that occurred during the preceding fiscal year;
276 (iv) statistics for the preceding fiscal year regarding:
277 (A) the number of qualified individuals and the type of deaths and near fatalities that
278 are known to the department;
279 (B) the number of formal reviews conducted;
280 (C) the categories described in Subsection 26B-1-501(7) of qualified individuals;
281 (D) the gender, age, race, and other significant categories of qualified individuals; and
282 (E) the number of fatalities of qualified individuals known to the department that are
283 identified as suicides; and
284 (v) action taken by the Division of Licensing and Background Checks [
285
286 individual; and
287 (c) is a public document.
288 (6) The Division of Child and Family Services shall, to the extent required by the
289 federal Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act of 1988, Pub. L. No. 93-247, as amended,
290 allow public disclosure of the findings or information relating to a case of child abuse or
291 neglect that results in a child fatality or a near fatality.
292 Section 6. Section 52-4-205 is amended to read:
293 52-4-205. Purposes of closed meetings -- Certain issues prohibited in closed
294 meetings.
295 (1) A closed meeting described under Section 52-4-204 may only be held for:
296 (a) except as provided in Subsection (3), discussion of the character, professional
297 competence, or physical or mental health of an individual;
298 (b) strategy sessions to discuss collective bargaining;
299 (c) strategy sessions to discuss pending or reasonably imminent litigation;
300 (d) strategy sessions to discuss the purchase, exchange, or lease of real property,
301 including any form of a water right or water shares, or to discuss a proposed development
302 agreement, project proposal, or financing proposal related to the development of land owned by
303 the state, if public discussion would:
304 (i) disclose the appraisal or estimated value of the property under consideration; or
305 (ii) prevent the public body from completing the transaction on the best possible terms;
306 (e) strategy sessions to discuss the sale of real property, including any form of a water
307 right or water shares, if:
308 (i) public discussion of the transaction would:
309 (A) disclose the appraisal or estimated value of the property under consideration; or
310 (B) prevent the public body from completing the transaction on the best possible terms;
311 (ii) the public body previously gave public notice that the property would be offered for
312 sale; and
313 (iii) the terms of the sale are publicly disclosed before the public body approves the
314 sale;
315 (f) discussion regarding deployment of security personnel, devices, or systems;
316 (g) investigative proceedings regarding allegations of criminal misconduct;
317 (h) as relates to the Independent Legislative Ethics Commission, conducting business
318 relating to the receipt or review of ethics complaints;
319 (i) as relates to an ethics committee of the Legislature, a purpose permitted under
320 Subsection 52-4-204(1)(a)(iii)(C);
321 (j) as relates to the Independent Executive Branch Ethics Commission created in
322 Section 63A-14-202, conducting business relating to an ethics complaint;
323 (k) as relates to a county legislative body, discussing commercial information as
324 defined in Section 59-1-404;
325 (l) as relates to the Utah Higher Education Savings Board of Trustees and its appointed
326 board of directors, discussing fiduciary or commercial information;
327 (m) deliberations, not including any information gathering activities, of a public body
328 acting in the capacity of:
329 (i) an evaluation committee under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code,
330 during the process of evaluating responses to a solicitation, as defined in Section 63G-6a-103;
331 (ii) a protest officer, defined in Section 63G-6a-103, during the process of making a
332 decision on a protest under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Part 16, Protests; or
333 (iii) a procurement appeals panel under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement
334 Code, during the process of deciding an appeal under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Part 17,
335 Procurement Appeals Board;
336 (n) the purpose of considering information that is designated as a trade secret, as
337 defined in Section 13-24-2, if the public body's consideration of the information is necessary to
338 properly conduct a procurement under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code;
339 (o) the purpose of discussing information provided to the public body during the
340 procurement process under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code, if, at the time of
341 the meeting:
342 (i) the information may not, under Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code, be
343 disclosed to a member of the public or to a participant in the procurement process; and
344 (ii) the public body needs to review or discuss the information to properly fulfill its
345 role and responsibilities in the procurement process;
346 (p) as relates to the governing board of a governmental nonprofit corporation, as that
347 term is defined in Section 11-13a-102, the purpose of discussing information that is designated
348 as a trade secret, as that term is defined in Section 13-24-2, if:
349 (i) public knowledge of the discussion would reasonably be expected to result in injury
350 to the owner of the trade secret; and
351 (ii) discussion of the information is necessary for the governing board to properly
352 discharge the board's duties and conduct the board's business;
353 (q) as it relates to the Cannabis Production Establishment Licensing Advisory Board,
354 to review confidential information regarding violations and security requirements in relation to
355 the operation of cannabis production establishments;
356 (r) considering a loan application, if public discussion of the loan application would
357 disclose:
358 (i) nonpublic personal financial information; or
359 (ii) a nonpublic trade secret, as defined in Section 13-24-2, or nonpublic business
360 financial information the disclosure of which would reasonably be expected to result in unfair
361 competitive injury to the person submitting the information;
362 (s) a discussion of the board of the Point of the Mountain State Land Authority, created
363 in Section 11-59-201, regarding a potential tenant of point of the mountain state land, as
364 defined in Section 11-59-102; or
365 (t) a purpose for which a meeting is required to be closed under Subsection (2).
366 (2) The following meetings shall be closed:
367 (a) a meeting of the Health and Human Services Interim Committee to review a report
368 described in Subsection 26B-1-506(1)(a), and [
369 in [
370 (b) a meeting of the Child Welfare Legislative Oversight Panel to:
371 (i) review a report described in Subsection 26B-1-506(1)(a), and [
372 response to the report described in [
373 26B-1-506(2); or
374 (ii) review and discuss an individual case, as described in Subsection 36-33-103(2);
375 (c) a meeting of the Opioid and Overdose Fatality Review Committee, created in
376 Section 26B-1-403, to review and discuss an individual case, as described in Subsection
377 26B-1-403(10);
378 (d) a meeting of a conservation district as defined in Section 17D-3-102 for the
379 purpose of advising the Natural Resource Conservation Service of the United States
380 Department of Agriculture on a farm improvement project if the discussed information is
381 protected information under federal law;
382 (e) a meeting of the Compassionate Use Board established in Section 26B-1-421 for
383 the purpose of reviewing petitions for a medical cannabis card in accordance with Section
384 26B-1-421;
385 (f) a meeting of the Colorado River Authority of Utah if:
386 (i) the purpose of the meeting is to discuss an interstate claim to the use of the water in
387 the Colorado River system; and
388 (ii) failing to close the meeting would:
389 (A) reveal the contents of a record classified as protected under Subsection
390 63G-2-305(82);
391 (B) reveal a legal strategy relating to the state's claim to the use of the water in the
392 Colorado River system;
393 (C) harm the ability of the Colorado River Authority of Utah or river commissioner to
394 negotiate the best terms and conditions regarding the use of water in the Colorado River
395 system; or
396 (D) give an advantage to another state or to the federal government in negotiations
397 regarding the use of water in the Colorado River system;
398 (g) a meeting of the General Regulatory Sandbox Program Advisory Committee if:
399 (i) the purpose of the meeting is to discuss an application for participation in the
400 regulatory sandbox as defined in Section 63N-16-102; and
401 (ii) failing to close the meeting would reveal the contents of a record classified as
402 protected under Subsection 63G-2-305(83);
403 (h) a meeting of a project entity if:
404 (i) the purpose of the meeting is to conduct a strategy session to discuss market
405 conditions relevant to a business decision regarding the value of a project entity asset if the
406 terms of the business decision are publicly disclosed before the decision is finalized and a
407 public discussion would:
408 (A) disclose the appraisal or estimated value of the project entity asset under
409 consideration; or
410 (B) prevent the project entity from completing on the best possible terms a
411 contemplated transaction concerning the project entity asset;
412 (ii) the purpose of the meeting is to discuss a record, the disclosure of which could
413 cause commercial injury to, or confer a competitive advantage upon a potential or actual
414 competitor of, the project entity;
415 (iii) the purpose of the meeting is to discuss a business decision, the disclosure of
416 which could cause commercial injury to, or confer a competitive advantage upon a potential or
417 actual competitor of, the project entity; or
418 (iv) failing to close the meeting would prevent the project entity from getting the best
419 price on the market; and
420 (i) a meeting of the School Activity Eligibility Commission, described in Section
421 53G-6-1003, if the commission is in effect in accordance with Section 53G-6-1002, to
422 consider, discuss, or determine, in accordance with Section 53G-6-1004, an individual student's
423 eligibility to participate in an interscholastic activity, as that term is defined in Section
424 53G-6-1001, including the commission's determinative vote on the student's eligibility.
425 (3) In a closed meeting, a public body may not:
426 (a) interview a person applying to fill an elected position;
427 (b) discuss filling a midterm vacancy or temporary absence governed by Title 20A,
428 Chapter 1, Part 5, Candidate Vacancy and Vacancy and Temporary Absence in Elected Office;
429 or
430 (c) discuss the character, professional competence, or physical or mental health of the
431 person whose name was submitted for consideration to fill a midterm vacancy or temporary
432 absence governed by Title 20A, Chapter 1, Part 5, Candidate Vacancy and Vacancy and
433 Temporary Absence in Elected Office.
434 Section 7. Section 63G-2-202 is amended to read:
435 63G-2-202. Access to private, controlled, and protected documents.
436 (1) Except as provided in Subsection (11)(a), a governmental entity:
437 (a) shall, upon request, disclose a private record to:
438 (i) the subject of the record;
439 (ii) the parent or legal guardian of an unemancipated minor who is the subject of the
440 record;
441 (iii) the legal guardian of a legally incapacitated individual who is the subject of the
442 record;
443 (iv) any other individual who:
444 (A) has a power of attorney from the subject of the record;
445 (B) submits a notarized release from the subject of the record or the individual's legal
446 representative dated no more than 90 days before the date the request is made; or
447 (C) if the record is a medical record described in Subsection 63G-2-302(1)(b), is a
448 health care provider, as defined in Section 26B-8-501, if releasing the record or information in
449 the record is consistent with normal professional practice and medical ethics; or
450 (v) any person to whom the record must be provided pursuant to:
451 (A) court order as provided in Subsection (7); or
452 (B) a legislative subpoena as provided in Title 36, Chapter 14, Legislative Subpoena
453 Powers; and
454 (b) may disclose a private record described in Subsections 63G-2-302(1)(j) through
455 (m), without complying with Section 63G-2-206, to another governmental entity for a purpose
456 related to:
457 (i) voter registration; or
458 (ii) the administration of an election.
459 (2) (a) Upon request, a governmental entity shall disclose a controlled record to:
460 (i) a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, certified social worker, insurance
461 provider or producer, or a government public health agency upon submission of:
462 (A) a release from the subject of the record that is dated no more than 90 days prior to
463 the date the request is made; and
464 (B) a signed acknowledgment of the terms of disclosure of controlled information as
465 provided by Subsection (2)(b); and
466 (ii) any person to whom the record must be disclosed pursuant to:
467 (A) a court order as provided in Subsection (7); or
468 (B) a legislative subpoena as provided in Title 36, Chapter 14, Legislative Subpoena
469 Powers.
470 (b) A person who receives a record from a governmental entity in accordance with
471 Subsection (2)(a)(i) may not disclose controlled information from that record to any person,
472 including the subject of the record.
473 (3) If there is more than one subject of a private or controlled record, the portion of the
474 record that pertains to another subject shall be segregated from the portion that the requester is
475 entitled to inspect.
476 (4) Upon request, and except as provided in Subsection (11)(b), a governmental entity
477 shall disclose a protected record to:
478 (a) the person that submitted the record;
479 (b) any other individual who:
480 (i) has a power of attorney from all persons, governmental entities, or political
481 subdivisions whose interests were sought to be protected by the protected classification; or
482 (ii) submits a notarized release from all persons, governmental entities, or political
483 subdivisions whose interests were sought to be protected by the protected classification or from
484 their legal representatives dated no more than 90 days prior to the date the request is made;
485 (c) any person to whom the record must be provided pursuant to:
486 (i) a court order as provided in Subsection (7); or
487 (ii) a legislative subpoena as provided in Title 36, Chapter 14, Legislative Subpoena
488 Powers; or
489 (d) the owner of a mobile home park, subject to the conditions of Subsection
490 41-1a-116(5).
491 (5) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(b), a governmental entity may disclose a
492 private, controlled, or protected record to another governmental entity, political subdivision,
493 state, the United States, or a foreign government only as provided by Section 63G-2-206.
494 (6) Before releasing a private, controlled, or protected record, the governmental entity
495 shall obtain evidence of the requester's identity.
496 (7) A governmental entity shall disclose a record pursuant to the terms of a court order
497 signed by a judge from a court of competent jurisdiction, provided that:
498 (a) the record deals with a matter in controversy over which the court has jurisdiction;
499 (b) the court has considered the merits of the request for access to the record;
500 (c) the court has considered and, where appropriate, limited the requester's use and
501 further disclosure of the record in order to protect:
502 (i) privacy interests in the case of private or controlled records;
503 (ii) business confidentiality interests in the case of records protected under Subsection
504 63G-2-305(1), (2), (40)(a)(ii), or (40)(a)(vi); and
505 (iii) privacy interests or the public interest in the case of other protected records;
506 (d) to the extent the record is properly classified private, controlled, or protected, the
507 interests favoring access, considering limitations thereon, are greater than or equal to the
508 interests favoring restriction of access; and
509 (e) where access is restricted by a rule, statute, or regulation referred to in Subsection
510 63G-2-201(3)(b), the court has authority independent of this chapter to order disclosure.
511 (8) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8)(d), a governmental entity may disclose or
512 authorize disclosure of private or controlled records for research purposes if the governmental
513 entity:
514 (i) determines that the research purpose cannot reasonably be accomplished without
515 use or disclosure of the information to the researcher in individually identifiable form;
516 (ii) determines that:
517 (A) the proposed research is bona fide; and
518 (B) the value of the research is greater than or equal to the infringement upon personal
519 privacy;
520 (iii) (A) requires the researcher to assure the integrity, confidentiality, and security of
521 the records; and
522 (B) requires the removal or destruction of the individual identifiers associated with the
523 records as soon as the purpose of the research project has been accomplished;
524 (iv) prohibits the researcher from:
525 (A) disclosing the record in individually identifiable form, except as provided in
526 Subsection (8)(b); or
527 (B) using the record for purposes other than the research approved by the governmental
528 entity; and
529 (v) secures from the researcher a written statement of the researcher's understanding of
530 and agreement to the conditions of this Subsection (8) and the researcher's understanding that
531 violation of the terms of this Subsection (8) may subject the researcher to criminal prosecution
532 under Section 63G-2-801.
533 (b) A researcher may disclose a record in individually identifiable form if the record is
534 disclosed for the purpose of auditing or evaluating the research program and no subsequent use
535 or disclosure of the record in individually identifiable form will be made by the auditor or
536 evaluator except as provided by this section.
537 (c) A governmental entity may require indemnification as a condition of permitting
538 research under this Subsection (8).
539 (d) A governmental entity may not disclose or authorize disclosure of a private record
540 for research purposes as described in this Subsection (8) if the private record is a record
541 described in Subsection 63G-2-302(1)(w).
542 (9) (a) Under Subsections 63G-2-201(5)(b) and 63G-2-401(6), a governmental entity
543 may disclose to persons other than those specified in this section records that are:
544 (i) private under Section 63G-2-302; or
545 (ii) protected under Section 63G-2-305, subject to Section 63G-2-309 if a claim for
546 business confidentiality has been made under Section 63G-2-309.
547 (b) Under Subsection 63G-2-403(11)(b), the State Records Committee may require the
548 disclosure to persons other than those specified in this section of records that are:
549 (i) private under Section 63G-2-302;
550 (ii) controlled under Section 63G-2-304; or
551 (iii) protected under Section 63G-2-305, subject to Section 63G-2-309 if a claim for
552 business confidentiality has been made under Section 63G-2-309.
553 (c) Under Subsection 63G-2-404(7), the court may require the disclosure of records
554 that are private under Section 63G-2-302, controlled under Section 63G-2-304, or protected
555 under Section 63G-2-305 to persons other than those specified in this section.
556 (10) (a) A private record described in Subsection 63G-2-302(2)(f) may only be
557 disclosed as provided in Subsection (1)(a)(v).
558 (b) A protected record described in Subsection 63G-2-305(43) may only be disclosed
559 as provided in Subsection (4)(c) or Section 26B-6-212.
560 (11) (a) A private, protected, or controlled record described in Section 26B-1-506 shall
561 be disclosed as required under:
562 (i) Subsections 26B-1-506(1)(b)[
563 (ii) Subsections 26B-1-507(1) and (6).
564 (b) A record disclosed under Subsection (11)(a) shall retain its character as private,
565 protected, or controlled.
566 Section 8. Effective date.
567 This bill takes effect on May 1, 2024.