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H.B. 51

This document includes House Floor Amendments incorporated into the bill on Fri, Feb 1, 2013 at 11:49 AM by jeyring. -->              1     

PROFESSIONAL LICENSING REVISIONS

             2     
2013 GENERAL SESSION

             3     
STATE OF UTAH

             4     
Chief Sponsor: James A. Dunnigan

             5     
Senate Sponsor: John L. Valentine

             6     
             7      LONG TITLE
             8      Committee Note:
             9          The Business and Labor Interim Committee recommended this bill.
             10      General Description:
             11          This bill modifies the responsibilities and duties of the Division of Occupational and
             12      Professional Licensing (DOPL) and modifies certain provisions of Title 58,
             13      Occupations and Professions.
             14      Highlighted Provisions:
             15          This bill:
             16          .    defines terms;
             17          .    modifies DOPL's oversight of factory built housing;
             18          .    modifies DOPL's ability to remove board members for certain conduct;
             19          .    provides DOPL access to criminal background information for applicants applying
             20      for licensure, licensure renewal, licensure reinstatement, and relicensure;
             21          .    allows licensees to designate email addresses for correspondence with DOPL;
             22          .    provides that DOPL has the authority to place a license on probation and to issue
             23      fines to enforce probation violations;
             24          .    modifies the provisions for diversion to align them with the provisions for
             25      probation;
             26          .    modifies what constitutes unprofessional conduct by including the violation of the
             27      terms of an order governing a license;


             28          .    modifies the requirements to qualify as an approved education program for nursing
             29      education;
             30          .    clarifies who may have access to the Controlled Substance Database;
             31          .    reduces the statutory fee for manufactured housing dealers;
             32          .    modifies the supervision required for medical assistants to better align the
             33      requirements with current practice;
             34          .    repeals the statute creating the Controlled Substance Precursor Advisory Board; and
             35          .    makes technical changes.
             36      Money Appropriated in this Bill:
             37          None
             38      Other Special Clauses:
             39          None
             40      Utah Code Sections Affected:
             41      AMENDS:
             42          15A-1-306, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 14
             43          58-1-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 367
             44          58-1-301.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 372
             45          58-1-301.7, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 367
             46          58-1-302, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 297
             47          58-1-304, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 297
             48          58-1-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 367
             49          58-1-404, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 367
             50          58-1-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 214
             51          58-1-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 367
             52          58-17b-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 280
             53          58-17b-501, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 280
             54          58-17b-622, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 265
             55          58-22-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 277
             56          58-31b-601, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Fourth Special Session, Chapter 4
             57          58-37c-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             58          58-37c-8, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 240


             59          58-37c-11, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1999, Chapter 21
             60          58-37c-19, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 1
             61          58-37c-19.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 280
             62          58-37c-19.7, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 272
             63          58-37c-19.9, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2000, Chapter 272
             64          58-37c-20, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 358
             65          58-37d-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2003, Chapter 115
             66          58-37f-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 174 and 239
             67          58-40a-501, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2006, Chapter 206
             68          58-56-17, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 72
             69          58-60-205, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 113
             70          58-60-206, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 214
             71          58-60-508, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 179
             72          58-61-201, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 32
             73          58-61-304, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 183
             74          58-67-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 362
             75          58-67-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 267
             76          58-67-806, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 162
             77          58-68-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 362
             78          58-68-305, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 267
             79      REPEALS:
             80          58-37c-4, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 297
             81          58-61-303, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1994, Chapter 32
             82     
             83      Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
             84          Section 1. Section 15A-1-306 is amended to read:
             85           15A-1-306. Factory built housing and modular units -- Division responsibility --
             86      Unlawful conduct.
             87          (1) The division:
             88          (a) shall maintain current information on the HUD Code and the portions of the State
             89      Construction Code relevant to manufactured housing installation and will provide at reasonable


             90      cost the information to compliance agencies, local regulators, or state regulators requesting
             91      such information;
             92          (b) shall provide qualified personnel to advise compliance agencies, local regulators,
             93      and state regulators regarding the standards for construction and setup, construction and setup
             94      inspection, and additions or modifications to factory built housing;
             95          (c) is designated as the state administrative agency for purposes of the HUD Code;
             96          (d) may inspect [the work of modular unit manufacturers] factory built housing units in
             97      the state during the construction process to determine compliance of the manufacturer with this
             98      chapter for those units to be installed within the state, and upon a finding of substantive
             99      deficiency, issue a corrective order to the manufacturer [with] and provide a copy of the order
             100      to the local regulator in the state's political subdivision [in which] where the unit is to be
             101      installed;
             102          (e) shall have rights of entry and inspection as specified under the HUD Code; and
             103          (f) shall implement by rule [as required by the HUD Code: (i) a dispute resolution
             104      program; and (ii)] a continuing education requirement for manufactured housing installation
             105      contractors.
             106          (2) The division may assess civil penalties payable to the state for violation of the
             107      HUD Code in an amount identical to those set forth in Section 611 of the National
             108      Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 5410.
             109          (3) The state may impose criminal sanctions for violations of the HUD Code identical
             110      to those set forth in Section 611 of the National Manufactured Housing Construction and
             111      Safety Standards Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 5410, provided that if the criminal sanction is a
             112      fine, the fine shall be payable to the state.
             113          Section 2. Section 58-1-201 is amended to read:
             114           58-1-201. Boards -- Appointment -- Membership -- Terms -- Vacancies --
             115      Quorum -- Per diem and expenses -- Chair -- Financial interest or faculty position in
             116      professional school that teaches continuing education prohibited.
             117          (1) (a) (i) The executive director shall appoint the members of the boards established
             118      under this title.
             119          (ii) In appointing these members the executive director shall give consideration to
             120      recommendations by members of the respective occupations and professions and by their


             121      organizations.
             122          (b) Each board shall be composed of five members, four of whom shall be licensed or
             123      certified practitioners in good standing of the occupation or profession the board represents,
             124      and one of whom shall be a member of the general public, unless otherwise provided under the
             125      specific licensing chapter.
             126          (c) (i) The [names] name of [all persons] each person appointed to [boards] a board
             127      shall be submitted to the governor for confirmation or rejection.
             128          (ii) If an appointee is rejected by the governor, the executive director shall appoint
             129      another person in the same manner as set forth in Subsection (1)(a).
             130          (2) (a) (i) Except as required by Subsection (2)(b), as terms of current board members
             131      expire, the executive director shall appoint each new member or reappointed member to a
             132      four-year term.
             133          (ii) Upon the expiration of the term of a board member, the board member shall
             134      continue to serve until a successor is appointed, but for a period not to exceed six months from
             135      the expiration date of the member's term.
             136          (b) Notwithstanding the requirements of Subsection (2)(a), the executive director shall,
             137      at the time of appointment or reappointment, adjust the length of terms to ensure that the terms
             138      of board members are staggered so that approximately half of the board is appointed every two
             139      years.
             140          (c) A board member may not serve more than two consecutive terms, and a board
             141      member who ceases to serve on a board may not serve again on that board until after the
             142      expiration of a two-year period beginning from that cessation of service.
             143          (d) (i) When a vacancy occurs in the membership for any reason, the replacement shall
             144      be appointed for the unexpired term.
             145          (ii) After filling that term, the replacement member may be appointed for only one
             146      additional full term.
             147          (e) [If a board member fails or refuses to fulfill the responsibilities and duties of a
             148      board member, including the attendance at board meetings, the executive] The director, with
             149      the approval of the [board] executive director, may remove [the] a board member and replace
             150      the member in accordance with this section[.] for the following reasons:
             151          (i) the member fails or refuses to fulfill the responsibilities and duties of a board


             152      member, including attendance at board meetings;
             153          (ii) the member engages in unlawful or unprofessional conduct; or
             154          (iii) if appointed to the board position as a licensed member of the board, the member
             155      fails to maintain a license that is active and in good standing.
             156          (3) A majority of the board members constitutes a quorum. A quorum is sufficient
             157      authority for the board to act.
             158          (4) A member may not receive compensation or benefits for the member's service, but
             159      may receive per diem and travel expenses in accordance with:
             160          (a) Section 63A-3-106 ;
             161          (b) Section 63A-3-107 ; and
             162          (c) rules made by the Division of Finance pursuant to Sections 63A-3-106 and
             163      63A-3-107 .
             164          (5) Each board shall annually designate one of its members to serve as chair for a
             165      one-year period.
             166          (6) A board member may not be a member of the faculty of, or have [any] a financial
             167      interest in [any], a vocational or professional college or school [which] that provides
             168      continuing education to any licensee if that continuing education is required by statute or rule.
             169          Section 3. Section 58-1-301.5 is amended to read:
             170           58-1-301.5. Division access to Bureau of Criminal Identification records.
             171          (1) The division shall have direct access to criminal background information
             172      maintained by the Bureau of Criminal Identification under Title 53, Chapter 10, Part 2, Bureau
             173      of Criminal Identification, for background screening of [licensure applicants] persons who are
             174      applying for licensure, licensure renewal, licensure reinstatement, or relicensure, as required in:
             175          (a) Section 58-17b-307 of Title 58, Chapter 17b, Pharmacy Practice Act;
             176          (b) Section 58-31b-302 of Title 58, Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act;
             177          (c) Section 58-47b-302 of Title 58, Chapter 47b, Massage Therapy Practice Act;
             178          (d) Section 58-55-302 of Title 58, Chapter 55, Utah Construction Trades Licensing
             179      Act, as it applies to alarm companies and alarm company agents;
             180          (e) Section 58-63-302 of Title 58, Chapter 63, Security Personnel Licensing Act; and
             181          (f) Section 58-64-302 of Title 58, Chapter 64, Deception Detection Examiners
             182      Licensing Act.


             183          (2) The [division] division's access to criminal background information under
             184      [Subsection (1) shall be] this section:
             185          (a) [in accordance with] shall meet the requirements of Section 53-10-108 ; and
             186          (b) [to all] includes convictions, pleas of nolo contendere, pleas of guilty or nolo
             187      contendere held in abeyance, [all] dismissed charges, and charges without a known disposition.
             188          Section 4. Section 58-1-301.7 is amended to read:
             189           58-1-301.7. Change of information.
             190          (1) (a) An applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall send the division a signed
             191      statement, in [the] a form required by the division, notifying the division within 10 business
             192      days of [any] a change [of a] in mailing address.
             193          (b) When providing a mailing address, the individual may provide a post office box or
             194      other mail drop location.
             195          (c) In addition to providing a mailing address, an applicant, licensee, or certificate
             196      holder may provide to the division, in a form required by the division, an email address and
             197      may designate email as the preferred method of receiving notifications from the division.
             198          (2) An applicant, licensee, or certificate holder is considered to have received a
             199      notification that has been sent to the [last] most recent:
             200          (a) mailing address [furnished] provided to the division by the applicant, licensee, or
             201      certificate holder[.]; or
             202          (b) email address furnished to the division by the applicant, licensee, or certificate
             203      holder, if email has been designated by the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder as the
             204      preferred method of receiving notifications from the division.
             205          Section 5. Section 58-1-302 is amended to read:
             206           58-1-302. License by endorsement.
             207          (1) The division may issue a license without examination to a person who has been
             208      licensed in [any] a state, district, or territory of the United States, or in [any] a foreign country,
             209      [whose] where the education, experience, and examination requirements are, or were at the
             210      time the license was issued, substantially equal to [those] the requirements of this state.
             211          (2) Before [any] a person may be issued a license under this section, [he] the person
             212      shall produce satisfactory evidence of [his qualifications,] the person's identity, qualifications,
             213      and good standing in [his] the occupation or profession for which licensure is sought.


             214          Section 6. Section 58-1-304 is amended to read:
             215           58-1-304. Restricted license.
             216          (1) The division may issue a restricted or probationary license to an applicant for
             217      licensure, renewal, or reinstatement of licensure if:
             218          (a) the applicant appears to meet the qualifications for licensure, but has engaged in
             219      unlawful, unprofessional, or other conduct bearing upon the applicant's qualifications; and
             220          (b) the division determines the need to observe the applicant in a monitored or
             221      supervised practice of the applicant's occupation or profession or to attach other reasonable
             222      restrictions or conditions upon the applicant in order to accommodate licensure, while
             223      protecting the public health, safety, and welfare.
             224          (2) Issuance of a restricted or probationary license is considered a partial denial of
             225      licensure that is subject to agency review.
             226          Section 7. Section 58-1-401 is amended to read:
             227           58-1-401. Grounds for denial of license -- Disciplinary proceedings -- Time
             228      limitations -- Sanctions.
             229          (1) The division shall refuse to issue a license to an applicant and shall refuse to renew
             230      or shall revoke, suspend, restrict, place on probation, or otherwise act upon the license of a
             231      licensee who does not meet the qualifications for licensure under this title.
             232          (2) The division may refuse to issue a license to an applicant and may refuse to renew
             233      or may revoke, suspend, restrict, place on probation, issue a public reprimand to, or otherwise
             234      act upon the license of [any] a licensee [in any of] for the following [cases] reasons:
             235          (a) the applicant or licensee has engaged in unprofessional conduct, as defined by
             236      statute or rule under this title;
             237          (b) the applicant or licensee has engaged in unlawful conduct as defined by statute
             238      under this title;
             239          (c) the applicant or licensee has been determined to be mentally incompetent [for any
             240      reason] by a court of competent jurisdiction; or
             241          (d) the applicant or licensee is unable to practice the occupation or profession with
             242      reasonable skill and safety because of illness, drunkenness, excessive use of drugs, narcotics,
             243      chemicals, or [any] other type of material, or as a result of [any other] a mental or physical
             244      condition, when the [licensee's] condition demonstrates a threat or potential threat to the public


             245      health, safety, or welfare.
             246          (3) [Any] A licensee whose license to practice an occupation or profession regulated by
             247      this title has been suspended, revoked, placed on probation, or restricted may apply for
             248      reinstatement of the license at reasonable intervals and upon compliance with [any] conditions
             249      imposed upon the licensee by statute, rule, or terms of the license suspension, revocation,
             250      probation, or restriction.
             251          (4) The division may issue cease and desist orders to:
             252          (a) a licensee or applicant who may be disciplined under Subsection (1) or (2);
             253          (b) [any] a person who engages in or represents [himself to be] that the person is
             254      engaged in an occupation or profession regulated under this title; and
             255          (c) [any] a person who otherwise violates this title or [any rules] a rule adopted under
             256      this title.
             257          (5) The division may impose an administrative penalty in accordance with Section
             258      58-1-502 .
             259          (6) (a) The division may not take disciplinary action against [any] a person for
             260      unprofessional or unlawful conduct under this title, unless the division enters into a stipulated
             261      agreement or initiates an adjudicative proceeding regarding the conduct within four years after
             262      the conduct is reported to the division, except under Subsection (6)(b).
             263          (b) The division may not take disciplinary action against [any] a person for
             264      unprofessional or unlawful conduct more than 10 years after the occurrence of the conduct,
             265      unless the proceeding is in response to a civil or criminal judgment or settlement and the
             266      proceeding is initiated within one year following the judgment or settlement.
             267          Section 8. Section 58-1-404 is amended to read:
             268           58-1-404. Diversion -- Procedure.
             269          (1) As used in this section, "diversion" means suspending action to discipline a
             270      licensee who is or could be charged in a Notice of Agency Action with certain offenses within
             271      the category of unprofessional or unlawful conduct on the condition that the licensee agrees to
             272      participate in an educational or rehabilitation program or fulfill some other condition.
             273          (2) (a) (i) The director may establish[, as circumstances require,] a diversion advisory
             274      committee for each occupation or profession or similar groups of occupations or professions
             275      licensed by the division.


             276          (ii) The committees shall assist the director in the administration of this section.
             277          (b) (i) Each committee shall consist of at least three licensees from the same or similar
             278      occupation or profession as the person whose conduct is the subject of the committee's
             279      consideration.
             280          (ii) The director shall appoint the members of a diversion advisory committee from
             281      nominations submitted by the corresponding board established for the same or similar
             282      occupation or profession under Section 58-1-201 or from other qualified nominees developed
             283      by or submitted to the division.
             284          (iii) Committee members may not serve concurrently as members of the corresponding
             285      board.
             286          (iv) Committee members shall serve voluntarily without remuneration.
             287          (v) The director may:
             288          (A) dissolve [any] a diversion advisory committee;
             289          (B) remove or request the replacement of [any] a member of a committee; and
             290          (C) establish [any procedure] procedures that [is] are necessary and proper for a
             291      committee's administration.
             292          (3) The director may, after consultation with the appropriate diversion advisory
             293      committee and by written agreement with the licensee, divert the licensee to a diversion
             294      program:
             295          (a) at any time after receipt by the division of a complaint against the licensee when no
             296      adjudicative proceeding has been commenced;
             297          (b) at any time prior to the conclusion of a hearing under Section 63G-4-206 when an
             298      adjudicative proceeding has been commenced against the licensee; or
             299          (c) after a self-referral by a licensee who is not the subject of a current investigation,
             300      complaint, or adjudicative proceeding.
             301          (4) (a) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act,
             302      the division shall define by rule the particular offenses within the category of unprofessional or
             303      unlawful conduct [which] that may be subject to diversion.
             304          (b) A licensee may be eligible for a diversion program only once for the same or
             305      similar offense, whether the diversion program was in this state or another jurisdiction, and is
             306      not eligible if previously disciplined by the division, by a licensing agency of another state, or


             307      by a federal government agency for the same or a similar offense.
             308          (c) The term of a diversion agreement shall be five years or less, but may be extended
             309      for an additional period of time as agreed to by the parties in writing.
             310          (d) A decision by the director not to divert a licensee is not subject to appeal or judicial
             311      review.
             312          (5) A licensee may be represented by counsel:
             313          (a) during the negotiations for diversion;
             314          (b) at the time of the execution of the diversion agreement; and
             315          (c) at [any] each hearing before the director relating to a diversion program.
             316          (6) (a) As used in this section, "diversion agreement" means a written agreement
             317      between the division, through its director, and the licensee, which specifies formal terms and
             318      conditions the licensee must fulfill in order to comply with the diversion program.
             319          (b) (i) A diversion agreement shall contain a full detailed statement of the requirements
             320      agreed to by the licensee and a full detailed stipulation of the facts upon which the diversion
             321      agreement is premised.
             322          (ii) The facts stipulated in the diversion agreement shall constitute binding admissions
             323      of the licensee:
             324          (A) in [any] a proceeding under Subsection (6)(c) or (6)(d) to terminate the diversion
             325      agreement and impose disciplinary sanctions against the licensee; and
             326          (B) in [any] a disciplinary proceeding based on unprofessional or unlawful conduct that
             327      is not the basis of the diversion agreement.
             328          (c) The diversion agreement shall provide that if the licensee makes an intentional
             329      material misrepresentation of fact in the stipulation of facts contained in the diversion
             330      agreement, the director shall initiate the procedures set forth in Subsection (13) to terminate the
             331      diversion agreement and issue an order of license revocation.
             332          (d) (i) The diversion agreement shall provide that if the licensee fails to comply with its
             333      terms, the director shall initiate the procedures set forth in Subsection (14) to terminate the
             334      diversion agreement and issue an order of license suspension, which shall be stayed in favor of
             335      an order of probation having the same terms as those [which] that comprised the diversion
             336      agreement.
             337          (ii) The division may waive and not include as probationary requirements [any terms]


             338      each term of the diversion agreement it does not consider necessary to protect the public.
             339          (iii) The term of the order of probation shall be as provided in Subsection (14)(c)(ii).
             340          (e) The division director may not approve a diversion agreement unless the licensee, as
             341      part of the diversion agreement:
             342          (i) knowingly and intelligently waives the right to a hearing under Title 63G, Chapter
             343      4, Administrative Procedures Act, for the conduct upon which the diversion agreement was
             344      premised;
             345          (ii) agrees to be subject to the procedures and remedies set forth in this section;
             346          (iii) acknowledges an understanding of the consequences of making an intentional
             347      misrepresentation of fact in the stipulation of facts contained in the diversion agreement; and
             348          (iv) acknowledges an understanding of the consequences of failing to comply with the
             349      terms of the diversion agreement.
             350          (7) (a) If the division and the licensee enter into a diversion agreement after the
             351      division has commenced an adjudicative proceeding against the licensee, the director shall stay
             352      that proceeding pending completion of the diversion agreement.
             353          (b) The order staying the adjudicative proceeding shall be filed in that proceeding and
             354      may reference the diversion agreement.
             355          (8) (a) Upon successful completion of a diversion agreement, the director shall dismiss
             356      [any charges] each charge under the director's jurisdiction of unprofessional or unlawful
             357      conduct that [were] was filed against the licensee.
             358          (b) Whether or not an adjudicative proceeding had been commenced against the
             359      licensee, the division may not thereafter subject the licensee to disciplinary action for the
             360      conduct [which] that formed the basis of the completed diversion agreement.
             361          (c) Neither the execution of a diversion agreement nor the dismissal of filed charges
             362      constitute disciplinary action, and no report of either may be made to disciplinary databases.
             363          (d) The division may consider the completion of a diversion program and the contents
             364      of the diversion agreement in determining the appropriate disciplinary action if the licensee is
             365      charged in the future with the same or similar conduct.
             366          (e) The order of dismissal shall be filed in the adjudicative proceeding in which the
             367      misconduct was charged and may reference the diversion agreement.
             368          (9) (a) Acceptance of the licensee into diversion does not preclude the division from


             369      investigating or continuing to investigate the licensee for [any] unlawful or unprofessional
             370      conduct committed before, during, or after participation in the diversion program.
             371          (b) Acceptance of the licensee into diversion does not preclude the division from
             372      taking disciplinary action or continuing to take disciplinary action against the licensee for
             373      unlawful or unprofessional conduct committed before, during, or after participation in the
             374      diversion program, except for that conduct [which] that formed the basis for the diversion
             375      agreement.
             376          (c) [Any] A licensee terminated from the diversion program for failure to comply with
             377      the diversion agreement is subject to disciplinary action by the division for acts committed
             378      before, during, and after participation in the diversion program, including violations identified
             379      in the diversion agreement.
             380          (10) The classification, retention, and disclosure of records relating to a licensee's
             381      participation in the diversion program is governed by Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government
             382      Records Access and Management Act, except that [any] a provision in the diversion agreement
             383      [which] that addresses access to or release of diversion records regarding the licensee shall
             384      govern the access to and release of those records.
             385          (11) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the fact that the licensee
             386      completed a diversion program and the contents of the diversion agreement itself may be
             387      considered by the division in determining the appropriate disciplinary action if the licensee is
             388      charged in the future with the same or similar conduct.
             389          (12) Meetings regarding the diversion program are not subject to Title 52, Chapter 4,
             390      Open and Public Meetings Act.
             391          (13) (a) If, during the course of the diversion agreement, information is brought to the
             392      attention of the director that the licensee made an intentional material misrepresentation of fact
             393      in the stipulation of facts contained in the diversion agreement, the director shall cause to be
             394      served upon the licensee an order to show cause specifying the information relied upon by the
             395      director and setting a time and place for a hearing to determine whether or not the licensee
             396      made the intentional material misrepresentation of fact and whether the agreement should be
             397      terminated on that ground.
             398          (b) Proceedings to terminate a diversion agreement on the grounds that the licensee
             399      made an intentional material misrepresentation of fact in the stipulation of facts contained in


             400      the diversion agreement and to issue an order of license revocation shall comply with Title
             401      63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, except as follows:
             402          (i) the notice of agency action shall be in the form of an order to show cause, which
             403      shall contain all of the information specified in Subsection 63G-4-201 (2), except a statement
             404      that a written response to the order to show cause is required;
             405          (ii) no written response to the order to show cause is required;
             406          (iii) discovery is prohibited, but the division may issue subpoenas or other orders to
             407      compel production of necessary evidence on behalf of either party and all parties shall have
             408      access to information contained in the division's diversion file to the extent permitted by law;
             409          (iv) the hearing shall be held only after timely notice to all parties; and
             410          (v) [any] an agency review or reconsideration of an order terminating a diversion
             411      agreement or of an order of license revocation pursuant to this Subsection (13) shall be limited
             412      to the division director's findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order [which] that arose out
             413      of the order to show cause proceeding.
             414          (c) Upon finding the licensee made an intentional material misrepresentation of fact in
             415      the stipulation of facts contained in the diversion agreement and that terminating the agreement
             416      is in the best interest of the public, and issuing an order to that effect, the director shall issue an
             417      order of license revocation, revoking the licensee's professional license.
             418          (d) The order terminating the diversion agreement and the order of license revocation
             419      shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law as determined by the director following
             420      the hearing or as otherwise stipulated and agreed to by the parties.
             421          (e) If the diversion agreement being terminated was entered into after the division had
             422      commenced an adjudicative proceeding against the licensee, that adjudicative proceeding shall
             423      be considered to be merged into the order of license revocation and it may not constitute a basis
             424      for [any] a separate disciplinary action against the licensee.
             425          (f) The order terminating the diversion agreement and the order of license revocation
             426      shall notify the licensee of the right to request agency review or reconsideration.
             427          (14) (a) If, during the course of the diversion agreement, information is brought to the
             428      attention of the director that the licensee has violated the diversion agreement and if it appears
             429      in the best interest of the public to proceed with charges, the director, after consultation with
             430      the diversion advisory committee, shall cause to be served upon the licensee an order to show


             431      cause specifying the facts relied upon by the director and setting a time and place for a hearing
             432      to determine whether or not the licensee has violated the diversion agreement and whether the
             433      agreement should be terminated.
             434          (b) Proceedings to terminate a diversion agreement [and to issue an order of license
             435      suspension and probation, and proceedings to terminate the probation and lift the stay of a
             436      license suspension,] as described in Subsection (14)(c) shall comply with Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             437      Administrative Procedures Act, except as follows:
             438          (i) the notice of agency action shall be in the form of an order to show cause, which
             439      shall contain all of the information specified in Subsection 63G-4-201 (2), except a statement
             440      that a written response to the order to show cause is required;
             441          (ii) no written response to the order to show cause shall be required;
             442          (iii) discovery is prohibited, but the division may issue subpoenas or other orders to
             443      compel production of necessary evidence on behalf of either party and all parties shall have
             444      access to information contained in the division's diversion file to the extent permitted by law;
             445          (iv) the hearing shall be held only after timely notice to all parties; and
             446          (v) [any] an agency review or reconsideration of an order terminating a diversion
             447      agreement or of an order of license suspension and probation pursuant to this Subsection (14)
             448      shall be limited to the division director's findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order [which]
             449      that arose out of the order to show cause proceeding.
             450          (c) (i) Upon finding the licensee has violated the diversion agreement by conduct that
             451      is entirely the same or similar to the conduct upon which the diversion agreement is premised,
             452      or by violating a compliance provision contained in the diversion agreement, and further
             453      finding that terminating the agreement is in the best interest of the public, and after issuing an
             454      order to that effect, the director shall issue an order [of license suspension, suspending the
             455      licensee's professional license, but shall stay that suspension in favor of an order] of probation,
             456      consisting of the same terms as those which comprised the diversion agreement.
             457          (ii) Upon finding that the licensee has violated the diversion agreement by conduct that
             458      includes conduct that is not the same or similar to the conduct upon which the diversion
             459      agreement is premised, and further finding that terminating the agreement is in the best interest
             460      of the public, and after issuing an order to that effect, the director shall, after notice of
             461      opportunity to be heard is provided to the licensee, issue an order imposing each disciplinary


             462      sanction the division deems appropriate, including suspension, public reprimand, a fine,
             463      probation, or revocation of licensure.
             464          [(ii)] (iii) The period of probation shall be the time period which remained under the
             465      diversion agreement, or five years from the date of the order of license suspension and
             466      probation, whichever is longer, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
             467          [(iii)] (iv) The period of probation is tolled during [any] the time [in which] the
             468      licensee does not have an active license in the state.
             469          (d) (i) The order terminating the diversion agreement and the order of license
             470      suspension and probation shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law as determined
             471      by the director following the hearing or as otherwise stipulated and agreed to by the parties.
             472          (ii) The findings of fact may include those facts to which the licensee stipulated in the
             473      diversion agreement and [any] additional facts as the director may determine in the course of
             474      the hearing.
             475          (e) If the diversion agreement being terminated was entered into after the division had
             476      commenced an adjudicative proceeding against the licensee, that adjudicative proceeding shall
             477      be considered to be merged into the order of license suspension and probation and it may not
             478      constitute a basis for [any] separate disciplinary action against the licensee.
             479          (f) The order terminating the diversion agreement and the order of license suspension
             480      and probation shall notify the licensee of the right to request agency review or reconsideration.
             481          (g) (i) The terms and conditions of the order of license suspension and probation may
             482      be amended by order of the director, pursuant to motion or stipulation of the parties.
             483          (ii) The order of the director on the motion shall not be subject to agency review, but is
             484      subject to agency reconsideration under Section 63G-4-302 .
             485          (h) (i) If, during the course of probation, the director has reason to believe the licensee
             486      has violated the order of [suspension and] probation, the director shall cause to be served upon
             487      the licensee an order to show cause why the probation should not be terminated [and the stay of
             488      suspension lifted] and why each additional disciplinary sanction the division deems appropriate
             489      should not be imposed, including suspension, public reprimand, a fine, or revocation of
             490      licensure.
             491          (ii) The order to show cause shall specify the facts relied upon by the director and shall
             492      set a time and place for hearing before the director to determine whether or not the licensee has


             493      violated the order of [suspension and] probation [and], whether that order should be
             494      terminated, [and the stay of suspension lifted] and why each additional disciplinary sanction the
             495      division deems appropriate should not be imposed, including suspension, public reprimand, a
             496      fine, or revocation of licensure.
             497          (15) (a) Nothing in this section precludes the division from issuing an emergency order
             498      pursuant to Section 63G-4-502 .
             499          (b) If the division issues an emergency order against a licensee who is subject to a
             500      diversion agreement with the division, that diversion agreement shall be immediately and
             501      automatically terminated upon the issuance of the emergency order, without requiring
             502      compliance with the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             503          (c) (i) A licensee whose diversion agreement has been terminated pursuant to
             504      Subsection (15)(b) is entitled, upon request, to a posttermination hearing to challenge the
             505      termination of the diversion agreement.
             506          (ii) The request shall be considered a request for agency action and shall comply with
             507      the requirements of Subsection 63G-4-201 (3).
             508          (iii) The division shall uphold the termination of the diversion agreement if it finds
             509      that:
             510          (A) the licensee violated the diversion agreement; and
             511          (B) it is in the best interest of the public to terminate the diversion agreement.
             512          (16) The administrative statute of limitations for taking disciplinary action described in
             513      Subsection 58-1-401 (6) shall be tolled during a diversion program.
             514          Section 9. Section 58-1-501 is amended to read:
             515           58-1-501. Unlawful and unprofessional conduct.
             516          (1) "Unlawful conduct" means conduct, by any person, that is defined as unlawful
             517      under this title and includes:
             518          (a) practicing or engaging in, representing oneself to be practicing or engaging in, or
             519      attempting to practice or engage in any occupation or profession requiring licensure under this
             520      title if the person is:
             521          (i) not licensed to do so or not exempted from licensure under this title; or
             522          (ii) restricted from doing so by a suspended, revoked, restricted, temporary,
             523      probationary, or inactive license;


             524          (b) impersonating another licensee or practicing an occupation or profession under a
             525      false or assumed name, except as permitted by law;
             526          (c) knowingly employing any other person to practice or engage in or attempt to
             527      practice or engage in any occupation or profession licensed under this title if the employee is
             528      not licensed to do so under this title;
             529          (d) knowingly permitting the person's authority to practice or engage in any occupation
             530      or profession licensed under this title to be used by another, except as permitted by law;
             531          (e) obtaining a passing score on a licensure examination, applying for or obtaining a
             532      license, or otherwise dealing with the division or a licensing board through the use of fraud,
             533      forgery, or intentional deception, misrepresentation, misstatement, or omission; or
             534          (f) (i) issuing, or aiding and abetting in the issuance of, an order or prescription for a
             535      drug or device to a person located in this state:
             536          (A) without prescriptive authority conferred by a license issued under this title, or by
             537      an exemption to licensure under this title; or
             538          (B) with prescriptive authority conferred by an exception issued under this title or a
             539      multistate practice privilege recognized under this title, if the prescription was issued without
             540      first obtaining information, in the usual course of professional practice, that is sufficient to
             541      establish a diagnosis, to identify underlying conditions, and to identify contraindications to the
             542      proposed treatment; and
             543          (ii) Subsection (1)(f)(i) does not apply to treatment rendered in an emergency, on-call
             544      or cross coverage situation, provided that the person who issues the prescription has
             545      prescriptive authority conferred by a license under this title, or is exempt from licensure under
             546      this title.
             547          (2) "Unprofessional conduct" means conduct, by a licensee or applicant, that is defined
             548      as unprofessional conduct under this title or under any rule adopted under this title and
             549      includes:
             550          (a) violating, or aiding or abetting any other person to violate, any statute, rule, or order
             551      regulating an occupation or profession under this title;
             552          (b) violating, or aiding or abetting any other person to violate, any generally accepted
             553      professional or ethical standard applicable to an occupation or profession regulated under this
             554      title;


             555          (c) engaging in conduct that results in conviction, a plea of nolo contendere, or a plea
             556      of guilty or nolo contendere which is held in abeyance pending the successful completion of
             557      probation with respect to a crime of moral turpitude or any other crime that, when considered
             558      with the functions and duties of the occupation or profession for which the license was issued
             559      or is to be issued, bears a reasonable relationship to the licensee's or applicant's ability to safely
             560      or competently practice the occupation or profession;
             561          (d) engaging in conduct that results in disciplinary action, including reprimand,
             562      censure, diversion, probation, suspension, or revocation, by any other licensing or regulatory
             563      authority having jurisdiction over the licensee or applicant in the same occupation or profession
             564      if the conduct would, in this state, constitute grounds for denial of licensure or disciplinary
             565      proceedings under Section 58-1-401 ;
             566          (e) engaging in conduct, including the use of intoxicants, drugs, narcotics, or similar
             567      chemicals, to the extent that the conduct does, or might reasonably be considered to, impair the
             568      ability of the licensee or applicant to safely engage in the occupation or profession;
             569          (f) practicing or attempting to practice an occupation or profession regulated under this
             570      title despite being physically or mentally unfit to do so;
             571          (g) practicing or attempting to practice an occupation or profession regulated under this
             572      title through gross incompetence, gross negligence, or a pattern of incompetency or negligence;
             573          (h) practicing or attempting to practice an occupation or profession requiring licensure
             574      under this title by any form of action or communication which is false, misleading, deceptive,
             575      or fraudulent;
             576          (i) practicing or attempting to practice an occupation or profession regulated under this
             577      title beyond the scope of the licensee's competency, abilities, or education;
             578          (j) practicing or attempting to practice an occupation or profession regulated under this
             579      title beyond the scope of the licensee's license;
             580          (k) verbally, physically, mentally, or sexually abusing or exploiting any person through
             581      conduct connected with the licensee's practice under this title or otherwise facilitated by the
             582      licensee's license;
             583          (l) acting as a supervisor without meeting the qualification requirements for that
             584      position that are defined by statute or rule;
             585          (m) issuing, or aiding and abetting in the issuance of, an order or prescription for a


             586      drug or device:
             587          (i) without first obtaining information in the usual course of professional practice, that
             588      is sufficient to establish a diagnosis, to identify conditions, and to identify contraindications to
             589      the proposed treatment; or
             590          (ii) with prescriptive authority conferred by an exception issued under this title, or a
             591      multi-state practice privilege recognized under this title, if the prescription was issued without
             592      first obtaining information, in the usual course of professional practice, that is sufficient to
             593      establish a diagnosis, to identify underlying conditions, and to identify contraindications to the
             594      proposed treatment; [or]
             595          (n) violating a provision of Section 58-1-501.5 [.]; or
             596          (o) violating the terms of an order governing a license.
             597          Section 10. Section 58-1-502 is amended to read:
             598           58-1-502. Unlawful and unprofessional conduct -- Penalties.
             599          (1) Unless otherwise specified in this title, a person who violates the unlawful conduct
             600      provisions defined in this title is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
             601          (2) (a) [If] In addition to any other statutory penalty for a violation related to a specific
             602      occupation or profession regulated by this title, if upon inspection or investigation, the division
             603      concludes that a person has violated Subsection 58-1-501 (1)(a) [or], (1)(c), or (2)(o), or [any] a
             604      rule or order issued with respect to those subsections, and that disciplinary action is
             605      appropriate, the director or the director's designee from within the division shall promptly:
             606          (i) issue a citation to the person according to this section and any pertinent rules;
             607          (ii) attempt to negotiate a stipulated settlement; or
             608          (iii) notify the person to appear before an adjudicative proceeding conducted under
             609      Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             610          (b) (i) The division may assess a fine under this Subsection (2) against a person who
             611      violates Subsection 58-1-501 (1)(a) [or], (1)(c), or (2)(o), or [any] a rule or order issued with
             612      respect to those subsections, as evidenced by:
             613          (A) an uncontested citation;
             614          (B) a stipulated settlement; or
             615          (C) a finding of a violation in an adjudicative proceeding.
             616          (ii) The division may, in addition to or in lieu of a fine under Subsection (2)(b)(i),


             617      order the person to cease and desist from violating Subsection 58-1-501 (1)(a) [or], (1)(c), or
             618      (2)(o), or [any] a rule or order issued with respect to [this section] those subsections.
             619          (c) Except for a cease and desist order, the division may not assess the licensure
             620      sanctions cited in Section 58-1-401 through a citation.
             621          (d) A citation shall:
             622          (i) be in writing;
             623          (ii) describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including a reference to the
             624      provision of the chapter, rule, or order alleged to have been violated;
             625          (iii) clearly state that the recipient must notify the division in writing within 20
             626      calendar days of service of the citation if the recipient wishes to contest the citation at a hearing
             627      conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act; and
             628          (iv) clearly explain the consequences of failure to timely contest the citation or to make
             629      payment of [any] a fine assessed by the citation within the time specified in the citation.
             630          (e) The division may issue a notice in lieu of a citation.
             631          (f) (i) If within 20 calendar days from the service of the citation, the person to whom
             632      the citation was issued fails to request a hearing to contest the citation, the citation becomes the
             633      final order of the division and is not subject to further agency review.
             634          (ii) The period to contest a citation may be extended by the division for cause.
             635          (g) The division may refuse to issue or renew, suspend, revoke, or place on probation
             636      the license of a licensee who fails to comply with a citation after it becomes final.
             637          (h) The failure of an applicant for licensure to comply with a citation after it becomes
             638      final is a ground for denial of license.
             639          (i) The division may not issue a citation under this section after the expiration of six
             640      months following the occurrence of a violation.
             641          (j) The director or the director's designee shall assess fines according to the following:
             642          (i) for the first offense handled pursuant to Subsection (2)(a), a fine of up to $1,000;
             643          (ii) for a second offense handled pursuant to Subsection (2)(a), a fine of up to $2,000;
             644      and
             645          (iii) for [any] each subsequent offense handled pursuant to Subsection (2)(a), a fine of
             646      up to $2,000 for each day of continued offense.
             647          (3) (a) An action for a first or second offense [which] that has not yet resulted in a final


             648      order of the division may not preclude initiation of [any] a subsequent action for a second or
             649      subsequent offense during the pendency of [any] a preceding action.
             650          (b) The final order on a subsequent action is considered a second or subsequent
             651      offense, respectively, provided the preceding action resulted in a first or second offense,
             652      respectively.
             653          (4) (a) The director may collect a penalty that is not paid by:
             654          (i) either referring the matter to a collection agency; or
             655          (ii) bringing an action in the district court of the county [in which] where the person
             656      against whom the penalty is imposed resides or in the county where the office of the director is
             657      located.
             658          (b) [Any] A county attorney or the attorney general of the state shall provide legal
             659      assistance and advice to the director in an action to collect the penalty.
             660          (c) A court may award reasonable attorney fees and costs to the division in an action
             661      brought by the division to enforce the provisions of this section.
             662          Section 11. Section 58-17b-103 is amended to read:
             663           58-17b-103. Administrative inspections.
             664          (1) The division may for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the provisions of
             665      this chapter, require a self-audit or enter and inspect the business premises of a person:
             666          (a) licensed under Part 3, Licensing; or
             667          (b) who is engaged in activities that require a license under Part 3, Licensing.
             668          (2) Before conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division shall, after
             669      identifying the person in charge:
             670          (a) give proper identification;
             671          (b) request to see the applicable license or licenses;
             672          (c) describe the nature and purpose of the inspection; and
             673          (d) provide upon request, the authority of the division to conduct the inspection and the
             674      penalty for refusing to permit the inspection as provided in Section 58-17b-504 .
             675          (3) In conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division may, after meeting
             676      the requirements of Subsection (2):
             677          (a) examine any record, prescription, order, drug, device, equipment, machine,
             678      electronic device or media, or area related to activities for which a license has been issued or is


             679      required by Part 3, Licensing, for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the applicable
             680      provisions of this chapter;
             681          (b) reproduce any record or media at the division's own cost;
             682          [(b)] (c) take a drug or device for further analysis if considered necessary;
             683          [(c)] (d) temporarily seize a drug or device [which] that is suspected to be adulterated,
             684      misbranded, outdated, or otherwise in violation of this chapter, pending an adjudicative
             685      proceeding on the matter;
             686          [(d)] (e) box and seal drugs suspected to be adulterated, outdated, misbranded, or
             687      otherwise in violation of this chapter; and
             688          [(e)] (f) dispose of or return [any] a drug or device obtained under this Subsection (3)
             689      in accordance with procedures established by division rule.
             690          (4) An inspection [conducted under] described in Subsection (1) shall be conducted
             691      during regular business hours.
             692          (5) If upon inspection, the division concludes that a person has violated the provisions
             693      of this chapter or Chapter 37, Utah [Control] Controlled Substances Act, or [any] a rule or
             694      order issued with respect to those chapters, and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the
             695      director or the director's designee shall promptly issue a fine or citation to the licensee in
             696      accordance with Section 58-17b-504 .
             697          Section 12. Section 58-17b-501 is amended to read:
             698           58-17b-501. Unlawful conduct.
             699          "Unlawful conduct" includes:
             700          (1) knowingly preventing or refusing to permit [any] an authorized agent of the
             701      division to conduct an inspection pursuant to Section 58-17b-103 ;
             702          (2) failing to deliver the license, permit, or certificate to the division upon demand, if it
             703      has been revoked, suspended, or refused;
             704          (3) (a) using the title "pharmacist,"[,] "druggist,"[,] "pharmacy intern,"[,] "pharmacy
             705      technician,"[,] or [any] a term having similar meaning, except by a person licensed as a
             706      pharmacist, pharmacy intern, or pharmacy technician; or
             707          (b) conducting or transacting business under a name [which] that contains, as part of
             708      that name, the words "drugstore,"[,] "pharmacy,"[,] "drugs,"[,] "medicine store,"[,]
             709      "medicines,"[,] "drug shop,"[,] "apothecary,"[,] "prescriptions,"[,] or [any other] a term having


             710      a similar meaning, or in any manner advertising, otherwise describing, or referring to the place
             711      of the conducted business or profession, unless the place is a pharmacy issued a license by the
             712      division, except [any] an establishment selling nonprescription drugs and supplies may display
             713      signs bearing the words "packaged drugs,"[,] "drug sundries,"[,] or "nonprescription drugs,"[,]
             714      and is not considered to be a pharmacy or drugstore by reason of the display;
             715          (4) buying, selling, causing to be sold, or offering for sale, [any] a drug or device
             716      [which] that bears, or the package bears or originally did bear, the inscription "sample,"[,] "not
             717      for resale,"[,] "for investigational or experimental use only,"[,] or other similar words, except
             718      when a cost is incurred in the bona fide acquisition of an investigational or experimental drug;
             719          (5) using to [his] a person's own advantages or revealing to anyone other than the
             720      division, board, and its authorized representatives, or to the courts, when relevant to [any] a
             721      judicial or administrative proceeding under this chapter, [any] information acquired under
             722      authority of this chapter or concerning [any] a method of process [which] that is a trade secret;
             723          (6) procuring or attempting to procure [any] a drug [for himself] or to have someone
             724      else procure or attempt to procure [any] a drug:
             725          (a) by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or subterfuge;
             726          (b) by forgery or alteration of a prescription or [any] a written order;
             727          (c) by concealment of a material fact;
             728          (d) by use of a false statement in [any] a prescription, chart, order, or report; or
             729          (e) by theft;
             730          (7) filling, refilling, or advertising the filling or refilling of prescriptions for [any] a
             731      consumer or patient residing in this state if the person is not licensed:
             732          (a) under this chapter; or
             733          (b) in the state from which he is dispensing;
             734          (8) requiring [any] an employed pharmacist, pharmacy intern, pharmacy technician, or
             735      authorized supportive personnel to engage in [any] conduct in violation of this chapter;
             736          (9) being in possession of a prescription drug for [any] an unlawful purpose;
             737          (10) dispensing a prescription drug to [anyone] a person who does not have a
             738      prescription from a practitioner or to [anyone] a person who [he] the person dispensing the
             739      drug knows or should know is attempting to obtain drugs by fraud or misrepresentation;
             740          (11) selling, dispensing, distributing, or otherwise trafficking in prescription drugs


             741      when not licensed to do so or when not exempted from licensure; and
             742          (12) a person using a prescription drug or controlled substance [for himself] that was
             743      not lawfully prescribed for [him] the person by a practitioner.
             744          Section 13. Section 58-17b-622 is amended to read:
             745           58-17b-622. Pharmacy benefit management services -- Auditing of pharmacy
             746      records -- Appeals.
             747          (1) For purposes of this section:
             748          (a) "Audit" means a review of the records of a pharmacy by or on behalf of an entity
             749      that finances or reimburses the cost of health care services or pharmaceutical products.
             750          (b) "Entity" includes:
             751          (i) a pharmacy benefits manager or coordinator;
             752          (ii) a health benefit plan;
             753          (iii) a third party administrator as defined in Section 31A-1-301 ;
             754          (iv) a state agency; or
             755          (v) a company, group, or agent that represents, or is engaged by, one of the entities
             756      described in Subsections (1)(b)(i) through (iv).
             757          (c) "Fraud" means an intentional act of deception, misrepresentation, or concealment in
             758      order to gain something of value.
             759          (d) "Health benefit plan" means:
             760          (i) a health benefit plan as defined in Section 31A-1-301 ; or
             761          (ii) a health, dental, medical, Medicare supplement, or conversion program offered
             762      under Title 49, Chapter 20, Public Employees' Benefit and Insurance Program Act.
             763          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(b), this section applies to:
             764          (i) a contract for the audit of a pharmacy entered into, amended, or renewed on or after
             765      July 1, 2012; and
             766          (ii) an entity that conducts an audit of the pharmacy records of a pharmacy licensed
             767      under this chapter.
             768          (b) This section does not apply to an audit of pharmacy records:
             769          (i) for a federally funded prescription drug program, including:
             770          (A) the state Medicaid program;
             771          (B) the Medicare Part D program;


             772          (C) a Department of Defense prescription drug program;
             773          (D) a Veteran's Affairs prescription drug program; or
             774          (ii) when fraud or other intentional and willful misrepresentation is alleged and the
             775      pharmacy audit entity has evidence that the pharmacy's actions reasonably indicate fraud or
             776      intentional and willful misrepresentation.
             777          (3) (a) An audit that involves clinical or professional judgment shall be conducted by
             778      or in consultation with a [licensed] pharmacist who is employed by or working with the
             779      auditing entity and who is licensed in the state or another state.
             780          (b) If an audit is conducted on site at a pharmacy, the entity conducting the audit:
             781          (i) shall give the pharmacy 10 days advanced written notice of:
             782          (A) the audit; and
             783          (B) the range of prescription numbers or a date range included in the audit; and
             784          (ii) may not audit a pharmacy during the first five business days of the month, unless
             785      the pharmacy agrees to the timing of the audit.
             786          (c) An entity may not audit claims:
             787          (i) submitted more than 18 months prior to the audit, unless:
             788          (A) required by federal law; or
             789          (B) the originating prescription is dated in the preceding six months; or
             790          (ii) that exceed 200 selected prescription claims.
             791          (4) (a) An entity may not:
             792          (i) include dispensing fees in the calculations of overpayments unless the prescription
             793      is considered a misfill;
             794          (ii) recoup funds for prescription clerical or recordkeeping errors, including
             795      typographical errors, scrivener's errors, and computer errors on a required document or record
             796      unless the audit entity is alleging fraud or other intentional or willful misrepresentation and the
             797      audit entity has evidence that the pharmacy's actions reasonably indicate fraud or intentional
             798      and willful misrepresentation; or
             799          (iii) collect any funds, charge-backs, or penalties until the audit and all appeals are
             800      final, unless the audit entity is alleging fraud or other intentional or willful misrepresentation
             801      and the audit entity has evidence that the pharmacy's actions reasonably indicate fraud or
             802      intentional and willful misrepresentation.


             803          (b) Auditors shall only have access to previous audit reports on a particular pharmacy
             804      if the previous audit was conducted by the same entity except as required for compliance with
             805      state or federal law.
             806          (5) A pharmacy subject to an audit may use the following records to validate a claim
             807      for a prescription, refill, or change in a prescription:
             808          (a) electronic or physical copies of records of a health care facility, or a health care
             809      provider with prescribing authority; and
             810          (b) any prescription that complies with state law.
             811          (6) (a) An entity that audits a pharmacy shall provide the pharmacy with a preliminary
             812      audit report, delivered to the pharmacy or its corporate office of record within 60 days after
             813      completion of the audit.
             814          (b) A pharmacy has 30 days following receipt of the preliminary audit report to
             815      respond to questions, provide additional documentation, and comment on and clarify findings
             816      of the audit. Receipt of the report shall be based on the postmark date or the date of a
             817      computer transmission if transferred electronically.
             818          (7) If an audit results in the dispute or denial of a claim, the entity conducting the audit
             819      shall allow the pharmacy to resubmit a claim using any commercially reasonable method,
             820      including fax, mail, or electronic claims submission provided that the period of time when a
             821      claim may be resubmitted has not expired under the rules of the plan sponsor.
             822          (8) (a) Within 120 days after the completion of the appeals process under Subsection
             823      (9), a final audit report shall be delivered to the pharmacy or its corporate office of record.
             824          (b) The final audit report shall include a disclosure of any money recovered by the
             825      entity that conducted the audit.
             826          (9) An entity that audits a pharmacy shall establish a written appeals process for
             827      appealing a preliminary audit report and a final audit report, and shall provide the pharmacy
             828      with notice of the written appeals process. If the pharmacy benefit manager's contract or
             829      provider manual contains the information required by this Subsection (9), the requirement for
             830      notice is met.
             831          Section 14. Section 58-22-305 is amended to read:
             832           58-22-305. Exemption from licensure.
             833          (1) In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307 , the following


             834      may engage in the following acts or practices without being licensed under this chapter:
             835          (a) a person offering to render professional engineering, professional structural
             836      engineering, or professional land surveying services in this state when not licensed under this
             837      chapter if the person:
             838          (i) holds a current and valid professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or
             839      professional land surveyor license issued by a licensing authority recognized by rule by the
             840      division in collaboration with the board;
             841          (ii) discloses in writing to the potential client the fact that the professional engineer,
             842      professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor:
             843          (A) is not licensed in the state;
             844          (B) may not provide professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or
             845      professional land surveying services in the state until licensed in the state; and
             846          (C) that such condition may cause a delay in the ability of the professional engineer,
             847      professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor to provide licensed services in
             848      the state;
             849          (iii) notifies the division in writing of [his] the person's intent to offer to render
             850      professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying
             851      services in the state; and
             852          (iv) does not provide professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or
             853      professional land surveying services, or engage in the practice of professional engineering,
             854      professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying in this state until licensed to
             855      do so;
             856          (b) a person preparing a plan and specification for a one[-] or two-family residence not
             857      exceeding two stories in height;
             858          (c) a person licensed to practice architecture under Title 58, Chapter 3a, Architects
             859      Licensing Act, performing architecture acts or incidental engineering or structural engineering
             860      practices that do not exceed the scope of the education and training of the person performing
             861      engineering or structural engineering;
             862          (d) unlicensed employees, subordinates, associates, or drafters of a person licensed
             863      under this chapter while preparing plans, maps, sketches, drawings, documents, specifications,
             864      plats, and reports under the supervision of a professional engineer, professional structural


             865      engineer, or professional land surveyor;
             866          (e) a person preparing a plan or specification for, or supervising the alteration of or
             867      repair to, an existing building affecting an area not exceeding 3,000 square feet when structural
             868      elements of a building are not changed, such as foundations, beams, columns, and structural
             869      slabs, joists, bearing walls, and trusses;
             870          (f) an employee of a communications, utility, railroad, mining, petroleum, or
             871      manufacturing company, or an affiliate of such a company, if the professional engineering or
             872      professional structural engineering work is performed solely in connection with the products or
             873      systems of the company and is not offered directly to the public;
             874          (g) an organization engaged in the practice of professional engineering, structural
             875      engineering, or professional land surveying, provided that:
             876          (i) the organization employs a principal; and
             877          (ii) all individuals employed by the organization, who are engaged in the practice of
             878      professional engineering, structural engineering, or land surveying, are licensed or exempt from
             879      licensure under this chapter; and
             880          (h) a person licensed as a professional engineer, a professional structural engineer, or a
             881      professional land surveyor in a state other than Utah serving as an expert witness, provided the
             882      expert testimony meets one of the following:
             883          (i) oral testimony as an expert witness in an administrative, civil, or criminal
             884      proceeding [is not part of the practice of the respective professions for which a license is
             885      required]; or
             886          (ii) written documentation included as part of the testimony in a [preceding]
             887      proceeding, including designs, studies, plans, specifications, or similar documentation, [is not
             888      part of the practice of the respective professions for which a license is required] provided that
             889      the purpose of the written documentation is not to establish specifications, plans, designs,
             890      processes, or standards to be used in the future in [any] an industrial process, system,
             891      construction, [designs, or repairs] design, or repair.
             892          (2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict a draftsman from preparing
             893      plans for a client under the exemption provided in Subsection (1)(b), or taking those plans to a
             894      professional engineer for [his] the engineer's review, approval, and subsequent fixing of the
             895      engineer's seal to that set of plans, if [they] the plans meet the building code standards.


             896          Section 15. Section 58-31b-601 is amended to read:
             897           58-31b-601. Minimum standards for nursing programs -- Medication aide
             898      training.
             899          (1) [To] Except as provided in Subsection (2), to qualify as an approved education
             900      program for the purpose of qualifying graduates for licensure under this chapter, a nursing
             901      education program shall be accredited by the:
             902          [(a) (i) be affiliated with an institution of higher education that is accredited by the:]
             903          [(A) Middle States Association of Colleges and Schools;]
             904          [(B) New England Association of Schools and Colleges;]
             905          [(C) North Central Association of Colleges and Schools;]
             906          [(D) Northwest Commission on Colleges and Universities;]
             907          [(E) Western Association of Schools and Colleges; or]
             908          [(F) Southern Association of Colleges and Schools; and]
             909          [(ii) be accredited by the:]
             910          [(A)] (a) Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education;
             911          [(B)] (b) National League for Nursing Accrediting Commission; or
             912          [(C)] (c) Council on Accreditation of Nurse Anesthesia Educational Programs[; or].
             913          [(b) be approved by the board and comply with standards defined by division rules.]
             914          [(2) An approved education program described in Subsection (1), may offer its didactic
             915      courses using classroom, clinical, or online methods.]
             916          (2) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
             917      division, in consultation with the board, may make rules establishing requirements for a
             918      nursing education program to qualify for a limited time as an approved education program for
             919      the purpose of qualifying graduates for licensure under this chapter, prior to its obtaining an
             920      accreditation described in Subsection (1).
             921          (3) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, and
             922      the provisions of this chapter, the division shall make rules defining the minimum standards for
             923      a medication aide certified training program to qualify a person for certification under this
             924      chapter as a medication aide certified.
             925          Section 16. Section 58-37c-3 is amended to read:
             926           58-37c-3. Definitions.


             927          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             928          [(1) "Board" means the Controlled Substance Precursor Advisory Board created in
             929      Section 58-37c-4 .]
             930          [(2)] (1) "Controlled substance precursor" includes a chemical reagent and means any
             931      of the following:
             932          (a) Phenyl-2-propanone;
             933          (b) Methylamine;
             934          (c) Ethylamine;
             935          (d) D-lysergic acid;
             936          (e) Ergotamine and its salts;
             937          (f) Diethyl malonate;
             938          (g) Malonic acid;
             939          (h) Ethyl malonate;
             940          (i) Barbituric acid;
             941          (j) Piperidine and its salts;
             942          (k) N-acetylanthranilic acid and its salts;
             943          (l) Pyrrolidine;
             944          (m) Phenylacetic acid and its salts;
             945          (n) Anthranilic acid and its salts;
             946          (o) Morpholine;
             947          (p) Ephedrine;
             948          (q) Pseudoephedrine;
             949          (r) Norpseudoephedrine;
             950          (s) Phenylpropanolamine;
             951          (t) Benzyl cyanide;
             952          (u) Ergonovine and its salts;
             953          (v) 3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone;
             954          (w) propionic anhydride;
             955          (x) Insosafrole;
             956          (y) Safrole;
             957          (z) Piperonal;


             958          (aa) N-Methylephedrine;
             959          (bb) N-ethylephedrine;
             960          (cc) N-methylpseudoephedrine;
             961          (dd) N-ethylpseudoephedrine;
             962          (ee) Hydriotic acid;
             963          (ff) gamma butyrolactone (GBL), including butyrolactone, 1,2 butanolide,
             964      2-oxanolone, tetrahydro-2-furanone, dihydro-2(3H)-furanone, and tetramethylene glycol, but
             965      not including gamma aminobutric acid (GABA);
             966          (gg) 1,4 butanediol;
             967          (hh) any salt, isomer, or salt of an isomer of the chemicals listed in Subsections (2)(a)
             968      through (gg);
             969          (ii) Crystal iodine;
             970          (jj) Iodine at concentrations greater than 1.5% by weight in a solution or matrix;
             971          (kk) Red phosphorous, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.7 ;
             972          (ll) anhydrous ammonia, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.9 ;
             973          (mm) any controlled substance precursor listed under the provisions of the Federal
             974      Controlled Substances Act which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             975      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 ; and
             976          (nn) any chemical which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             977      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 .
             978          [(3)] (2) "Deliver," "delivery," "transfer," or "furnish" means the actual, constructive,
             979      or attempted transfer of a controlled substance precursor.
             980          [(4)] (3) "Matrix" means something, as a substance, in which something else
             981      originates, develops, or is contained.
             982          [(5)] (4) "Person" means any individual, group of individuals, proprietorship,
             983      partnership, joint venture, corporation, or organization of any type or kind.
             984          [(6)] (5) "Practitioner" means a physician, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian,
             985      pharmacist, scientific investigator, pharmacy, hospital, pharmaceutical manufacturer, or other
             986      person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research
             987      with respect to, administer, or use in teaching, or chemical analysis a controlled substance in
             988      the course of professional practice or research in this state.


             989          [(7)] (6) (a) "Regulated distributor" means a person within the state who provides,
             990      sells, furnishes, transfers, or otherwise supplies a listed controlled substance precursor
             991      chemical in a regulated transaction.
             992          (b) "Regulated distributor" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             993      this chapter.
             994          [(8)] (7) (a) "Regulated purchaser" means any person within the state who receives a
             995      listed controlled substance precursor chemical in a regulated transaction.
             996          (b) "Regulated purchaser" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             997      this chapter.
             998          [(9)] (8) "Regulated transaction" means any actual, constructive or attempted:
             999          (a) transfer, distribution, delivery, or furnishing by a person within the state to another
             1000      person within or outside of the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical; or
             1001          (b) purchase or acquisition by any means by a person within the state from another
             1002      person within or outside the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical.
             1003          [(10)] (9) "Retail distributor" means a grocery store, general merchandise store, drug
             1004      store, or other entity or person whose activities as a distributor are limited almost exclusively to
             1005      sales for personal use:
             1006          (a) in both number of sales and volume of sales; and
             1007          (b) either directly to walk-in customers or in face-to-face transactions by direct sales.
             1008          [(11)] (10) "Threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical" means any amount of a
             1009      controlled substance precursor or a specified amount of a controlled substance precursor in a
             1010      matrix; however, the division may exempt from the provisions of this chapter a specific
             1011      controlled substance precursor in a specific amount and in certain types of transactions which
             1012      provisions for exemption shall be defined by the division by rule adopted pursuant to Title
             1013      63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             1014          [(12)] (11) "Unlawful conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 includes knowingly and
             1015      intentionally:
             1016          (a) engaging in a regulated transaction without first being appropriately licensed or
             1017      exempted from licensure under this chapter;
             1018          (b) acting as a regulated distributor and selling, transferring, or in any other way
             1019      conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person within the state who is not appropriately


             1020      licensed or exempted from licensure as a regulated purchaser, or selling, transferring, or
             1021      otherwise conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person outside of the state and
             1022      failing to report the transaction as required;
             1023          (c) acting as a regulated purchaser and purchasing or in any other way obtaining a
             1024      controlled substance precursor from a person within the state who is not a licensed regulated
             1025      distributor, or purchasing or otherwise obtaining a controlled substance precursor from a
             1026      person outside of the state and failing to report the transaction as required;
             1027          (d) engaging in a regulated transaction and failing to submit reports and keep required
             1028      records of inventories required under the provisions of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to
             1029      this chapter;
             1030          (e) making any false statement in any application for license, in any record to be kept,
             1031      or on any report submitted as required under this chapter;
             1032          (f) with the intent of causing the evasion of the recordkeeping or reporting
             1033      requirements of this chapter and rules related to this chapter, receiving or distributing any listed
             1034      controlled substance precursor chemical in any manner designed so that the making of records
             1035      or filing of reports required under this chapter is not required;
             1036          (g) failing to take immediate steps to comply with licensure, reporting, or
             1037      recordkeeping requirements of this chapter because of lack of knowledge of those
             1038      requirements, upon becoming informed of the requirements;
             1039          (h) presenting false or fraudulent identification where or when receiving or purchasing
             1040      a listed controlled substance precursor chemical;
             1041          (i) creating a chemical mixture for the purpose of evading any licensure, reporting or
             1042      recordkeeping requirement of this chapter or rules related to this chapter, or receiving a
             1043      chemical mixture created for that purpose;
             1044          (j) if the person is at least 18 years of age, employing, hiring, using, persuading,
             1045      inducing, enticing, or coercing another person under 18 years of age to violate any provision of
             1046      this chapter, or assisting in avoiding detection or apprehension for any violation of this chapter
             1047      by any federal, state, or local law enforcement official; and
             1048          (k) obtaining or attempting to obtain or to possess any controlled substance precursor
             1049      or any combination of controlled substance precursors knowing or having a reasonable cause to
             1050      believe that the controlled substance precursor is intended to be used in the unlawful


             1051      manufacture of any controlled substance.
             1052          [(13)] (12) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-102 and as may be
             1053      further defined by rule includes the following:
             1054          (a) violation of any provision of this chapter, the Controlled Substance Act of this state
             1055      or any other state, or the Federal Controlled Substance Act; and
             1056          (b) refusing to allow agents or representatives of the division or authorized law
             1057      enforcement personnel to inspect inventories or controlled substance precursors or records or
             1058      reports relating to purchases and sales or distribution of controlled substance precursors as such
             1059      records and reports are required under this chapter.
             1060          Section 17. Section 58-37c-8 is amended to read:
             1061           58-37c-8. License -- Exceptions from licensure or regulation.
             1062          (1) [Any] A person engaged in a regulated transaction under this chapter shall hold a
             1063      controlled substance precursor license issued under Section 58-37c-7 , unless excepted from
             1064      licensure under this chapter.
             1065          (2) The division shall:
             1066          (a) establish the form of application for a license, the requirements for licensure, and
             1067      fees for initial licensure and renewal; and
             1068          (b) identify required information to be contained in the application as a condition of
             1069      licensure.
             1070          (3) A practitioner who holds a Utah Controlled Substance License and a Controlled
             1071      Substance Registration issued by the Drug Enforcement Administration of the U.S.
             1072      Government is excepted from licensure under this chapter.
             1073          (4) [Any] The purchase, sale, transfer, furnishing, or receipt of [any] a drug intended
             1074      for lawful use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or
             1075      other animals, which contains ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, norpseudoephedrine, or
             1076      phenylpropanolamine, if the drug is lawfully purchased, sold, transferred, or furnished as an
             1077      over-the-counter medication without prescription pursuant to the federal Food, Drug and
             1078      Cosmetic Act, 21 USC, Sec. 301 et seq., or regulations adopted under that act, are excepted
             1079      from licensure, reporting, and recordkeeping under this chapter, except that products
             1080      containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine are subject to Section
             1081      58-37c-20.5 .


             1082          (5) [Any] The purchase, sale, transfer, receipt, or manufacture of [any] dietary
             1083      [supplement] supplements, vitamins, minerals, herbs, or other similar substances, including
             1084      concentrates or extracts, which are not otherwise prohibited by law, and which may contain
             1085      naturally occurring amounts of chemicals or substances listed in this chapter, or in rules
             1086      adopted pursuant to Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, are exempt
             1087      from licensure under this chapter.
             1088          (6) A purchaser of two ounces or less of crystal iodine in a single transaction is not
             1089      required to be licensed as a regulated purchaser if the transaction complies with Section
             1090      58-37c-18 .
             1091          (7) [Any] The purchase, sale, transfer, receipt, or manufacture of [any] a product that
             1092      contains [any] a precursor chemical listed in Subsection 58-37c-3 [(2)](1)(ff) or (gg) and that is
             1093      not intended for human consumption is exempt from licensure or regulation and is not subject
             1094      to criminal penalties under this chapter.
             1095          Section 18. Section 58-37c-11 is amended to read:
             1096           58-37c-11. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
             1097          (1) [Any] A person who violates the unlawful conduct provision defined in
             1098      Subsections 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(a) through (j) is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
             1099          (2) [Any] A person who violates the unlawful conduct provisions defined in
             1100      Subsection 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) is guilty of a second degree felony.
             1101          Section 19. Section 58-37c-19 is amended to read:
             1102           58-37c-19. Possession or sale of crystal iodine.
             1103          (1) [Any] A person licensed to engage in a regulated transaction is guilty of a class B
             1104      misdemeanor who, under circumstances not amounting to a violation of Subsection
             1105      58-37d-4 (1)(c), offers to sell, sells, or distributes more than two ounces of crystal iodine to
             1106      another person who is:
             1107          (a) not licensed as a regulated purchaser of crystal iodine;
             1108          (b) not excepted from licensure; or
             1109          (c) not excepted under Subsection (3).
             1110          (2) [Any] A person who is not licensed to engage in regulated transactions and not
             1111      excepted from licensure is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who, under circumstances not
             1112      amounting to a violation of Subsection 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) or Subsection 58-37d-4 (1)(a):


             1113          (a) possesses more than two ounces of crystal iodine; or
             1114          (b) offers to sell, sells, or distributes crystal iodine to another person.
             1115          (3) Subsection (2)(a) does not apply to:
             1116          (a) a chemistry laboratory maintained by:
             1117          (i) a public or private regularly established secondary school; or
             1118          (ii) a public or private institution of higher education that is accredited by a regional or
             1119      national accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education;
             1120          (b) a veterinarian licensed to practice under Title 58, Chapter 28, Veterinary Practice
             1121      Act; or
             1122          (c) a general acute hospital.
             1123          Section 20. Section 58-37c-19.5 is amended to read:
             1124           58-37c-19.5. Iodine solution greater than 1.5% -- Prescription or permit required
             1125      -- Penalties.
             1126          (1) As used in this section, "iodine matrix" means iodine at concentrations greater than
             1127      1.5% by weight in a matrix or solution.
             1128          (2) A person may offer to sell, sell, or distribute an iodine matrix only:
             1129          (a) as a prescription drug, pursuant to a prescription issued by a veterinarian or
             1130      physician licensed within the state; or
             1131          (b) to a person who is actively engaged in the legal practice of animal husbandry of
             1132      livestock, as defined in Section 4-1-8 .
             1133          (3) Prescriptions issued under this section:
             1134          (a) shall provide for a specified number of refills;
             1135          (b) may be issued by electronic means, in accordance with Title 58, Chapter 17b,
             1136      Pharmacy Practice Act; and
             1137          (c) may be filled by a person other than the veterinarian or physician issuing the
             1138      prescription.
             1139          (4) A retailer offering iodine matrix for sale:
             1140          (a) shall store the iodine matrix so that the public does not have access to the iodine
             1141      matrix without the direct assistance or intervention of a retail employee;
             1142          (b) shall keep a record, which may consist of sales receipts, of each person purchasing
             1143      iodine matrix; and


             1144          (c) may, if necessary to ascertain the identity of the purchaser, ask for proof of
             1145      identification from the purchaser.
             1146          (5) A person engaging in a regulated transaction under Subsection (2) is guilty of a
             1147      class B misdemeanor if the person, under circumstances not amounting to a violation of
             1148      Subsection 58-37d-4 (1)(c), offers to sell, sells, or distributes an iodine matrix to a person who:
             1149          (a) does not present a prescription or is not engaged in animal husbandry, as required
             1150      under Subsection (2); or
             1151          (b) is not excepted under Subsection (7).
             1152          (6) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who, under circumstances not
             1153      amounting to a violation of Subsection 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) or 58-37d-4 (1)(a):
             1154          (a) possesses an iodine matrix without proof of obtaining the solution in compliance
             1155      with Subsection (2); or
             1156          (b) offers to sell, sells, or distributes an iodine matrix in violation of Subsection (2).
             1157          (7) Subsection (6)(a) does not apply to:
             1158          (a) a chemistry or chemistry-related laboratory maintained by:
             1159          (i) a public or private regularly established secondary school; or
             1160          (ii) a public or private institution of higher education that is accredited by a regional or
             1161      national accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education;
             1162          (b) a veterinarian licensed to practice under Title 58, Chapter 28, Veterinary Practice
             1163      Act;
             1164          (c) a general acute hospital; or
             1165          (d) a veterinarian, physician, pharmacist, retail distributor, wholesaler, manufacturer,
             1166      warehouseman, or common carrier, or an agent of any of these persons who possesses an
             1167      iodine matrix in the regular course of lawful business activities.
             1168          Section 21. Section 58-37c-19.7 is amended to read:
             1169           58-37c-19.7. Red phosphorus is a precursor -- Affirmative defense.
             1170          (1) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who is not licensed to engage in a
             1171      regulated transaction and is not excepted from licensure who, under circumstances not
             1172      amounting to a violation of Subsection 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) or 58-37d-4 (1)(a), possesses any
             1173      amount of red phosphorus.
             1174          (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under Subsection (1) that the person in


             1175      possession of red phosphorus:
             1176          (a) is conducting a licensed business [which] that involves red phosphorus in the
             1177      manufacture of any of the following:
             1178          (i) the striking surface used for lighting matches, which is sometimes referred to as the
             1179      striker plate;
             1180          (ii) flame retardant in polymers; or
             1181          (iii) fireworks, for which the person or entity possesses a federal license to manufacture
             1182      explosives as required under 27 CFR Chapter 1, Part 55, Commerce in Explosives; or
             1183          (b) (i) is a wholesaler, manufacturer, warehouseman, or common carrier handling red
             1184      phosphorus, or is an agent of any of these persons; and
             1185          (ii) possesses the substances in the regular course of lawful business activities.
             1186          (3) (a) [The] A defendant shall provide written notice of intent to claim an affirmative
             1187      defense under this section as soon as practicable, but not later than 10 days prior to trial. The
             1188      court may waive the notice requirement in the interest of justice for good cause shown, if the
             1189      prosecutor is not unfairly prejudiced by the lack of timely notice.
             1190          (b) The notice shall include the specifics of the affirmative defense.
             1191          (c) The defendant shall establish the affirmative defense by a preponderance of the
             1192      evidence. If the defense is established, it is a complete defense to the charges.
             1193          (4) Subsection (1) does not apply to:
             1194          (a) a chemistry or chemistry-related laboratory maintained by:
             1195          (i) a public or private regularly established secondary school; or
             1196          (ii) a public or private institution of higher education that is accredited by a regional or
             1197      national accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education; or
             1198          (b) a retail distributor, wholesaler, manufacturer, warehouseman, or common carrier, or
             1199      an agent of any of these persons who possesses red phosphorus in the regular course of lawful
             1200      business activities.
             1201          Section 22. Section 58-37c-19.9 is amended to read:
             1202           58-37c-19.9. Anhydrous ammonia is a precursor -- Requirements regarding
             1203      purposes and containers.
             1204          (1) A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor who is not licensed to engage in a
             1205      regulated transaction and is not excepted from licensure or exempted under Subsection (2), and


             1206      who possesses any amount of anhydrous ammonia under circumstances not amounting to a
             1207      violation of Subsection 58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) or 58-37d-4 (1)(a).
             1208          (2) A person who possesses anhydrous ammonia has an affirmative defense to a charge
             1209      under Subsection (1) if the person is:
             1210          (a) directly involved in or actively operating land in agricultural use as defined in
             1211      Section 59-2-502 ;
             1212          (b) a retail distributor, wholesaler, manufacturer, warehouseman, or common carrier, or
             1213      an agent of any of these persons, who possesses anhydrous ammonia in the regular course of
             1214      lawful business activities;
             1215          (c) directly involved in or actively operating a business or other lawful activity
             1216      providing or using anhydrous ammonia for refrigeration applications; or
             1217          (d) directly involved in or actively operating a lawful business enterprise, including an
             1218      industrial enterprise, that uses anhydrous ammonia in the regular course of its business
             1219      activities.
             1220          Section 23. Section 58-37c-20 is amended to read:
             1221           58-37c-20. Possession of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine --
             1222      Penalties.
             1223          (1) [Any] A person is guilty of a class A misdemeanor:
             1224          (a) who is not licensed to engage in regulated transactions and is not excepted from
             1225      licensure; and
             1226          (b) who, under circumstances not amounting to a violation of Subsection
             1227      58-37c-3 [(12)](11)(k) or Subsection 58-37d-4 (1)(a), possesses more than 9 grams of ephedrine,
             1228      pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, or a
             1229      combination of any of these substances.
             1230          (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under Subsection (1) that the person in
             1231      possession of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or a combination of these
             1232      two substances:
             1233          (a) (i) is a physician, pharmacist, retail distributor, wholesaler, manufacturer,
             1234      warehouseman, or common carrier, or an agent of any of these persons; and
             1235          (ii) possesses the substances in the regular course of lawful business activities; or
             1236          (b) possesses the substance pursuant to a valid prescription as defined in Section


             1237      58-37-2 .
             1238          (3) (a) [The] A defendant shall provide written notice of intent to claim an affirmative
             1239      defense under this section as soon as practicable, but not later than 10 days prior to trial. The
             1240      court may waive the notice requirement in the interest of justice for good cause shown, if the
             1241      prosecutor is not unfairly prejudiced by the lack of timely notice.
             1242          (b) The notice shall include the specifics of the asserted defense.
             1243          (c) The defendant shall establish the affirmative defense by a preponderance of the
             1244      evidence. If the defense is established, it is a complete defense to the charges.
             1245          (4) This section does not apply to dietary supplements, herbs, or other natural products,
             1246      including concentrates or extracts, which:
             1247          (a) are not otherwise prohibited by law; and
             1248          (b) may contain naturally occurring ephedrine, ephedrine alkaloids, or
             1249      pseudoephedrine, or their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, or a combination of these
             1250      substances, that:
             1251          (i) are contained in a matrix of organic material; and
             1252          (ii) do not exceed 15% of the total weight of the natural product.
             1253          Section 24. Section 58-37d-3 is amended to read:
             1254           58-37d-3. Definitions.
             1255          (1) As used in this chapter:
             1256          (a) (i) "Booby trap" means [any] a concealed or camouflaged device designed to cause
             1257      bodily injury when triggered by [any] the action of a person making contact with the device.
             1258      [This term]
             1259          (ii) "Booby trap" includes guns, ammunition, or explosive devices attached to trip
             1260      wires or other triggering mechanisms, sharpened stakes, nails, spikes, electrical devices, lines
             1261      or wires with hooks attached, and devices for the production of toxic fumes or gases.
             1262          (b) "Clandestine laboratory operation" means the:
             1263          (i) purchase or procurement of chemicals, supplies, equipment, or laboratory location
             1264      for the illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances;
             1265          (ii) transportation or arranging for the transportation of chemicals, supplies, or
             1266      equipment for the illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances;
             1267          (iii) setting up of equipment or supplies in preparation for the illegal manufacture of


             1268      specified controlled substances;
             1269          (iv) activity of compounding, synthesis, concentration, purification, separation,
             1270      extraction, or other physical or chemical processing of [any] a substance, including a controlled
             1271      substance precursor, or the packaging, repackaging, labeling, or relabeling of a container
             1272      holding a substance that is a product of any of these activities, when the substance is to be used
             1273      for the illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances;
             1274          (v) illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances; or
             1275          (vi) distribution or disposal of chemicals, equipment, supplies, or products used in or
             1276      produced by the illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances.
             1277          (c) "Controlled substance precursor" means those chemicals designated in Title 58,
             1278      Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance Precursor Act, except those substances designated in
             1279      Subsections 58-37c-3 [(2)](1)(kk) and (ll).
             1280          (d) "Disposal" means the abandonment, discharge, deposit, injection, dumping,
             1281      spilling, leaking, or placing of [any] hazardous or dangerous material into or on [any] property,
             1282      land, or water so that the material may enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or
             1283      discharged into any waters, including groundwater.
             1284          (e) "Hazardous or dangerous material" means [any] a substance [which] that because of
             1285      its quantity, concentration, physical characteristics, or chemical characteristics may cause or
             1286      significantly contribute to an increase in mortality, an increase in serious illness, or may pose a
             1287      substantial present or potential future hazard to human health or the environment when
             1288      improperly treated, stored, transported, disposed of, or otherwise improperly managed.
             1289          (f) "Illegal manufacture of specified controlled substances" means in violation of Title
             1290      58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act, the:
             1291          (i) compounding, synthesis, concentration, purification, separation, extraction, or other
             1292      physical or chemical processing for the purpose of producing methamphetamine, other
             1293      amphetamine compounds as listed in Schedule I of the Utah Controlled Substances Act,
             1294      phencyclidine, narcotic analgesic analogs as listed in Schedule I of the Utah Controlled
             1295      Substances Act, lysergic acid diethylamide, or mescaline;
             1296          (ii) conversion of cocaine or methamphetamine to their base forms; or
             1297          (iii) extraction, concentration, or synthesis of marijuana as that drug is defined in
             1298      Section 58-37-2 .


             1299          (2) Unless otherwise specified, the definitions in Section 58-37-2 also apply to this
             1300      chapter.
             1301          Section 25. Section 58-37f-301 is amended to read:
             1302           58-37f-301. Access to database.
             1303          (1) The division shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             1304      Administrative Rulemaking Act, to:
             1305          (a) effectively enforce the limitations on access to the database as described in this
             1306      part; and
             1307          (b) establish standards and procedures to ensure accurate identification of individuals
             1308      requesting information or receiving information without request from the database.
             1309          (2) The division shall make information in the database and information obtained from
             1310      other state or federal prescription monitoring programs by means of the database available only
             1311      to the following individuals, in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and division
             1312      rules:
             1313          (a) personnel of the division specifically assigned to conduct investigations related to
             1314      controlled substance laws under the jurisdiction of the division;
             1315          (b) authorized division personnel engaged in analysis of controlled substance
             1316      prescription information as a part of the assigned duties and responsibilities of their
             1317      employment;
             1318          (c) in accordance with a written agreement entered into with the department,
             1319      employees of the Department of Health:
             1320          (i) whom the director of the Department of Health assigns to conduct scientific studies
             1321      regarding the use or abuse of controlled substances, provided that the identity of the individuals
             1322      and pharmacies in the database are confidential and are not disclosed in any manner to any
             1323      individual who is not directly involved in the scientific studies; or
             1324          (ii) when the information is requested by the Department of Health in relation to a
             1325      person or provider whom the Department of Health suspects may be improperly obtaining or
             1326      providing a controlled substance;
             1327          (d) a licensed practitioner having authority to prescribe controlled substances, to the
             1328      extent the information:
             1329          (i) (A) relates specifically to a current or prospective patient of the practitioner; and


             1330          (B) is provided to or sought by the practitioner for the purpose of:
             1331          (I) prescribing or considering prescribing any controlled substance to the current or
             1332      prospective patient;
             1333          (II) diagnosing the current or prospective patient;
             1334          (III) providing medical treatment or medical advice to the current or prospective
             1335      patient; or
             1336          (IV) determining whether the current or prospective patient:
             1337          (Aa) is attempting to fraudulently obtain a controlled substance from the practitioner;
             1338      or
             1339          (Bb) has fraudulently obtained, or attempted to fraudulently obtain, a controlled
             1340      substance from the practitioner;
             1341          (ii) (A) relates specifically to a former patient of the practitioner; and
             1342          (B) is provided to or sought by the practitioner for the purpose of determining whether
             1343      the former patient has fraudulently obtained, or has attempted to fraudulently obtain, a
             1344      controlled substance from the practitioner;
             1345          (iii) relates specifically to an individual who has access to the practitioner's Drug
             1346      Enforcement Administration identification number, and the practitioner suspects that the
             1347      individual may have used the practitioner's Drug Enforcement Administration identification
             1348      number to fraudulently acquire or prescribe a controlled substance;
             1349          (iv) relates to the practitioner's own prescribing practices, except when specifically
             1350      prohibited by the division by administrative rule;
             1351          (v) relates to the use of the controlled substance database by an employee of the
             1352      practitioner, described in Subsection (2)(e); or
             1353          (vi) relates to any use of the practitioner's Drug Enforcement Administration
             1354      identification number to obtain, attempt to obtain, prescribe, or attempt to prescribe, a
             1355      controlled substance;
             1356          (e) in accordance with Subsection (3)(a), an employee of a practitioner described in
             1357      Subsection (2)(d), for a purpose described in Subsection (2)(d)(i) or (ii), if:
             1358          (i) the employee is designated by the practitioner as an individual authorized to access
             1359      the information on behalf of the practitioner;
             1360          (ii) the practitioner provides written notice to the division of the identity of the


             1361      employee; and
             1362          (iii) the division:
             1363          (A) grants the employee access to the database; and
             1364          (B) provides the employee with a password that is unique to that employee to access
             1365      the database in order to permit the division to comply with the requirements of Subsection
             1366      58-37f-203 (3)(b) with respect to the employee;
             1367          (f) an employee of the same business that employs a licensed practitioner under
             1368      Subsection (2)(d) if:
             1369          (i) the employee is designated by the practitioner as an individual authorized to access
             1370      the information on behalf of the practitioner;
             1371          (ii) the practitioner and the employing business provide written notice to the division of
             1372      the identity of the designated employee; and
             1373          (iii) the division:
             1374          (A) grants the employee access to the database; and
             1375          (B) provides the employee with a password that is unique to that employee to access
             1376      the database in order to permit the division to comply with the requirements of Subsection
             1377      58-37f-203 (3)(b) with respect to the employee;
             1378          (g) a licensed pharmacist having authority to dispense a controlled substance to the
             1379      extent the information is provided or sought for the purpose of:
             1380          (i) dispensing or considering dispensing any controlled substance; or
             1381          (ii) determining whether a person:
             1382          (A) is attempting to fraudulently obtain a controlled substance from the pharmacist; or
             1383          (B) has fraudulently obtained, or attempted to fraudulently obtain, a controlled
             1384      substance from the pharmacist;
             1385          (h) federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities, and state and local
             1386      prosecutors, engaged as a specified duty of their employment in enforcing laws:
             1387          (i) regulating controlled substances;
             1388          (ii) investigating insurance fraud, Medicaid fraud, or Medicare fraud; or
             1389          (iii) providing information about a criminal defendant to defense counsel, upon request
             1390      during the discovery process, for the purpose of establishing a defense in a criminal case;
             1391          (i) employees of the Office of Internal Audit and Program Integrity within the


             1392      Department of Health who are engaged in their specified duty of ensuring Medicaid program
             1393      integrity under Section 26-18-2.3 ;
             1394          (j) a mental health therapist, if:
             1395          (i) the information relates to a patient who is:
             1396          (A) enrolled in a licensed substance abuse treatment program; and
             1397          (B) receiving treatment from, or under the direction of, the mental health therapist as
             1398      part of the patient's participation in the licensed substance abuse treatment program described
             1399      in Subsection (2)(j)(i)(A);
             1400          (ii) the information is sought for the purpose of determining whether the patient is
             1401      using a controlled substance while the patient is enrolled in the licensed substance abuse
             1402      treatment program described in Subsection (2)(j)(i)(A); and
             1403          (iii) the licensed substance abuse treatment program described in Subsection
             1404      (2)(j)(i)(A) is associated with a practitioner who:
             1405          (A) is a physician, a physician assistant, an advance practice registered nurse, or a
             1406      pharmacist; and
             1407          (B) is available to consult with the mental health therapist regarding the information
             1408      obtained by the mental health therapist, under this Subsection (2)(j), from the database;
             1409          (k) an individual who is the recipient of a controlled substance prescription entered into
             1410      the database, upon providing evidence satisfactory to the division that the individual requesting
             1411      the information is in fact the individual about whom the data entry was made;
             1412          (l) the inspector general, or a designee of the inspector general, of the Office of
             1413      Inspector General of Medicaid Services, for the purpose of fulfilling the duties described in
             1414      Title 63J, Chapter 4a, Part 2, Office Duties and Powers; and
             1415          (m) the following licensed physicians for the purpose of reviewing and offering an
             1416      opinion on an individual's request for workers' compensation benefits under Title 34A, Chapter
             1417      2, Workers' Compensation Act, or Title 34A, Chapter 3, Utah Occupational Disease Act:
             1418          (i) a member of the medical panel described in Section 34A-2-601 ; or
             1419          (ii) a physician offering a second opinion regarding treatment.
             1420          (3) (a) A practitioner described in Subsection (2)(d) may designate up to three
             1421      employees to access information from the database under Subsection (2)(e), (2)(f), or (4)(c).
             1422          (b) The division shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah


             1423      Administrative Rulemaking Act, to:
             1424          (i) establish background check procedures to determine whether an employee
             1425      designated under Subsection (2)(e), (2)(f), or (4)(c) should be granted access to the database;
             1426      and
             1427          (ii) establish the information to be provided by an emergency room employee under
             1428      Subsection (4).
             1429          (c) The division shall grant an employee designated under Subsection (2)(e), (2)(f), or
             1430      (4)(c) access to the database, unless the division determines, based on a background check, that
             1431      the employee poses a security risk to the information contained in the database.
             1432          (4) (a) An individual who is employed in the emergency room of a hospital may
             1433      exercise access to the database under this Subsection (4) on behalf of a licensed practitioner if
             1434      the individual is designated under Subsection (4)(c) and the licensed practitioner:
             1435          (i) is employed in the emergency room;
             1436          (ii) is treating an emergency room patient for an emergency medical condition; and
             1437          (iii) requests that an individual employed in the emergency room and designated under
             1438      Subsection (4)(c) obtain information regarding the patient from the database as needed in the
             1439      course of treatment.
             1440          (b) The emergency room employee obtaining information from the database shall,
             1441      when gaining access to the database, provide to the database the name and any additional
             1442      identifiers regarding the requesting practitioner as required by division administrative rule
             1443      established under Subsection (3)(b).
             1444          (c) An individual employed in the emergency room under this Subsection (4) may
             1445      obtain information from the database as provided in Subsection (4)(a) if:
             1446          (i) the employee is designated by the practitioner as an individual authorized to access
             1447      the information on behalf of the practitioner;
             1448          (ii) the practitioner and the hospital operating the emergency room provide written
             1449      notice to the division of the identity of the designated employee; and
             1450          (iii) the division:
             1451          (A) grants the employee access to the database; and
             1452          (B) provides the employee with a password that is unique to that employee to access
             1453      the database in order to permit the division to comply with the requirements of Subsection


             1454      58-37f-203 (3)(b) with respect to the employee.
             1455          (d) The division may impose a fee, in accordance with Section 63J-1-504 , on a
             1456      practitioner who designates an employee under Subsection (2)(e), (2)(f), or (4)(c) to pay for the
             1457      costs incurred by the division to conduct the background check and make the determination
             1458      described in Subsection (3)(b).
             1459          (5) (a) An individual who is granted access to the database based on the fact that the
             1460      individual is a licensed practitioner or a mental health therapist shall be denied access to the
             1461      database when the individual is no longer licensed.
             1462          (b) An individual who is granted access to the database based on the fact that the
             1463      individual is a designated employee of a licensed practitioner shall be denied access to the
             1464      database when the practitioner is no longer licensed.
             1465          Section 26. Section 58-40a-501 is amended to read:
             1466           58-40a-501. Unprofessional conduct.
             1467          In addition to the provisions of Subsection 58-1-501 (2), "unprofessional conduct"
             1468      includes:
             1469          (1) failing to report to the [board] division an act or omission [of] that violates a
             1470      provision of this chapter by a licensee, applicant, or [any other] another individual [which
             1471      violates a provision of this chapter];
             1472          (2) interfering with an investigation of a disciplinary proceeding by willful
             1473      misrepresentation of facts or by use of threats or harassment against a client or witness to
             1474      prevent that individual from providing evidence in a disciplinary proceeding, investigation, or
             1475      other legal action;
             1476          (3) failing to maintain client confidentiality unless otherwise required by law;
             1477          (4) promoting an unnecessary device, treatment, intervention, or service for financial
             1478      gain by the athletic trainer or a third party; and
             1479          (5) failing to maintain adequate records.
             1480          Section 27. Section 58-56-17 is amended to read:
             1481           58-56-17. Fees on sale -- Escrow agents -- Sales tax.
             1482          (1) A dealer shall collect and remit a fee of [$75] $25 to the division for each factory
             1483      built home the dealer sells that, as of the date of the sale, has not been permanently affixed to
             1484      real property and converted to real property as provided in Section 70D-2-401 . The fee shall be


             1485      payable within 30 days following the close of each calendar quarter for all units sold during
             1486      that calendar quarter. The fee shall be deposited in a restricted account as provided in Section
             1487      58-56-17.5 .
             1488          (2) A principal real estate broker, associate broker, or sales agent exempt from
             1489      registration as a dealer under Section 58-56-16 who sells a factory built home that has not been
             1490      permanently affixed to real property shall close the sale only through a qualified escrow agent
             1491      in this state registered with the Insurance Department or the Department of Financial
             1492      Institutions.
             1493          (3) An escrow agent through which a sale is closed under Subsection (2) shall remit all
             1494      required sales tax to the state.
             1495          Section 28. Section 58-60-205 is amended to read:
             1496           58-60-205. Qualifications for licensure or certification as a clinical social worker,
             1497      certified social worker, and social service worker.
             1498          (1) An applicant for licensure as a clinical social worker shall:
             1499          (a) submit an application on a form provided by the division;
             1500          (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             1501          (c) be of good moral character;
             1502          (d) produce certified transcripts from an accredited institution of higher education
             1503      recognized by the division in collaboration with the board verifying satisfactory completion of
             1504      an education and earned degree as follows:
             1505          (i) an earned master's degree in social work resulting from completion of an education
             1506      program accredited by the Council on Social Work Education; or
             1507          (ii) an earned doctoral degree in social work that results from successful completion of
             1508      a clinical concentration and practicum approved by the division and defined by rule under
             1509      Section 58-1-203 ;
             1510          (e) have completed a minimum of 4,000 hours of clinical social work training as
             1511      defined by division rule under Section 58-1-203 in not less than two years and under the
             1512      supervision of a clinical social worker supervisor approved by the division in collaboration
             1513      with the board;
             1514          (f) document successful completion of not less than 1,000 hours of supervised training
             1515      in mental health therapy obtained after completion of the education requirement in Subsection


             1516      (1)(d), which training may be included as part of the 4,000 hours of training in Subsection
             1517      (1)(e), and of which documented evidence demonstrates not less than 100 of the hours were
             1518      obtained under the direct personal face to face supervision of a clinical social worker approved
             1519      by the division in collaboration with the board;
             1520          (g) have completed a case work, group work, or family treatment course sequence with
             1521      a clinical practicum in content as defined by rule under Section 58-1-203 ; and
             1522          (h) pass the examination requirement established by rule under Section 58-1-203 .
             1523          (2) An applicant for licensure as a certified social worker shall:
             1524          (a) submit an application on a form provided by the division;
             1525          (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             1526          (c) be of good moral character;
             1527          (d) produce certified transcripts from an accredited institution of higher education
             1528      recognized by the division in collaboration with the Social Worker Licensing Board verifying
             1529      satisfactory completion of an education and an earned degree as follows:
             1530          (i) a social work education program accredited by the Council on Social Work
             1531      Education and an earned master's degree resulting from completion of that program; or
             1532          (ii) an education program that contains approved clinical social work concentration and
             1533      practicum in content as defined by rule under Section 58-1-203 and an earned doctorate
             1534      resulting from completion of that program; and
             1535          (e) pass the examination requirement established by rule under Section 58-1-203 .
             1536          (3) (a) An applicant for certification as a certified social worker intern shall meet the
             1537      requirements of Subsections (2)(a), (b), (c), and (d).
             1538          (b) Certification under Subsection (3)(a) is limited to the time necessary to pass the
             1539      examination required under Subsection (2)(e) or six months, whichever occurs first.
             1540          (c) A certified social worker intern may provide mental health therapy under the
             1541      general supervision of a clinical social worker.
             1542          (4) An applicant for licensure as a social service worker shall:
             1543          (a) submit an application on a form provided by the division;
             1544          (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             1545          (c) be of good moral character;
             1546          (d) produce certified transcripts from an accredited institution of higher education


             1547      recognized by the division in collaboration with the Social Worker Licensing Board verifying
             1548      satisfactory completion of an earned degree resulting from education as follows:
             1549          (i) a bachelor's degree in a social work program accredited by the Council on Social
             1550      Work Education;
             1551          (ii) a master's degree in a field approved by the division in collaboration with the social
             1552      worker board;
             1553          (iii) a bachelor's degree in any field if the applicant:
             1554          (A) [except as provided in Subsection 58-60-205.2 (2),] has completed at least three
             1555      semester hours, or the equivalent, in each of the following areas:
             1556          (I) social welfare policy;
             1557          (II) human growth and development; and
             1558          (III) social work practice methods, as defined by rule; and
             1559          (B) provides documentation that the applicant has completed at least 2,000 hours of
             1560      qualifying experience under the supervision of a mental health therapist, which experience is
             1561      approved by the division in collaboration with the Social Worker Licensing Board, and which
             1562      is performed after completion of the requirements to obtain the bachelor's degree required
             1563      under this Subsection (4); or
             1564          (iv) successful completion of the first academic year of a Council on Social Work
             1565      Education approved master's of social work curriculum and practicum; and
             1566          (e) pass the examination requirement established by rule under Section 58-1-203 .
             1567          (5) The division shall ensure that the rules for an examination described under
             1568      Subsections (1)(h), (2)(e), and (4)(e) allow additional time to complete the examination if
             1569      requested by an applicant who is:
             1570          (a) a foreign born legal resident of the United States for whom English is a second
             1571      language; or
             1572          (b) an enrolled member of a federally recognized Native American tribe.
             1573          Section 29. Section 58-60-206 is amended to read:
             1574           58-60-206. Qualifications for admission to examination.
             1575          All applicants for admission to [any] an examination qualifying an individual for
             1576      licensure under this part shall, before taking the examination:
             1577          (1) submit an application for examination [and licensure] on a form provided by the


             1578      division;
             1579          (2) pay the fee established for the examination; and
             1580          (3) certify under penalty of perjury as evidenced by notarized signature on the
             1581      application for examination [and licensure] that the applicant:
             1582          (a) has completed the education requirement and been awarded the earned degree
             1583      required for licensure; or
             1584          (b) has only one semester, or the equivalent, remaining before the applicant completes
             1585      the education requirement for earning the degree that is required for licensure.
             1586          Section 30. Section 58-60-508 is amended to read:
             1587           58-60-508. Substance use disorder counselor supervisor's qualifications --
             1588      Functions.
             1589          (1) A mental health therapist supervisor of a substance use disorder counselor shall:
             1590          (a) be qualified by education or experience to treat substance use disorders;
             1591          (b) be currently working in the substance use disorder treatment field;
             1592          (c) review substance use disorder counselor assessment procedures and
             1593      recommendations;
             1594          (d) provide substance use disorder diagnosis and other mental health diagnoses in
             1595      accordance with Subsection 58-60-102 (7);
             1596          (e) supervise the development of a treatment plan;
             1597          (f) approve the treatment plan; and
             1598          (g) provide direct supervision for not more than five persons, unless granted an
             1599      exception in writing from the board and the division.
             1600          (2) A supervisor of a certified substance use disorder counselor, certified substance use
             1601      disorder counselor intern, certified advanced substance use disorder counselor, certified
             1602      advanced substance use disorder counselor intern, or licensed substance use disorder counselor
             1603      may:
             1604          (a) be a licensed advanced substance use disorder counselor with:
             1605          (i) until July 1, 2014, at least two years of experience as a substance use disorder
             1606      counselor; or
             1607          (ii) beginning on July 1, 2014, at least two years of experience as a licensed advanced
             1608      substance use disorder counselor; [or]


             1609          (b) be currently working in the substance use disorder field; and
             1610          (c) provide direct supervision for no more than three persons, unless granted an
             1611      exception in writing from the board and the division.
             1612          Section 31. Section 58-61-201 is amended to read:
             1613           58-61-201. Board.
             1614          (1) There is created the Psychologist Licensing Board consisting of four licensed
             1615      psychologists and one member from the general public.
             1616          (2) The board shall be appointed, serve terms, and be compensated in accordance with
             1617      Section 58-1-201 .
             1618          (3) The duties and responsibilities of the board are in accordance with Sections
             1619      58-1-202 and 58-1-203 . In addition, the board shall:
             1620          (a) designate one of its members on a permanent or rotating basis to assist the division
             1621      in review of complaints concerning unlawful or unprofessional practice by a licensee in the
             1622      profession regulated by the board and to advise the division regarding the conduct of
             1623      investigations of the complaints; and
             1624          (b) disqualify [any] a member from acting as presiding officer in [any] an
             1625      administrative procedure in which that member has previously reviewed the complaint or
             1626      advised the division.
             1627          Section 32. Section 58-61-304 is amended to read:
             1628           58-61-304. Qualifications for licensure by examination or endorsement.
             1629          (1) An applicant for licensure as a psychologist based upon education, clinical training,
             1630      and examination shall:
             1631          (a) submit an application on a form provided by the division;
             1632          (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             1633          (c) be of good moral character;
             1634          (d) produce certified transcripts of credit verifying satisfactory completion of a doctoral
             1635      degree in psychology that includes specific core course work established by division rule under
             1636      Section 58-1-203 , from an institution of higher education whose doctoral program, at the time
             1637      the applicant received the doctoral degree, met approval criteria established by division rule
             1638      made in consultation with the board;
             1639          (e) have completed a minimum of 4,000 hours of psychology training as defined by


             1640      division rule under Section 58-1-203 in not less than two years and under the supervision of a
             1641      psychologist supervisor approved by the division in collaboration with the board;
             1642          (f) to be qualified to engage in mental health therapy, document successful completion
             1643      of not less than 1,000 hours of supervised training in mental health therapy obtained after
             1644      completion of a master's level of education in psychology, which training may be included as
             1645      part of the 4,000 hours of training required in Subsection (1)(e), and for which documented
             1646      evidence demonstrates not less than one hour of supervision for each 40 hours of supervised
             1647      training was obtained under the direct personal face to face supervision of a psychologist
             1648      approved by the division in collaboration with the board;
             1649          (g) pass the examination requirement established by division rule under Section
             1650      58-1-203 ; and
             1651          (h) meet with the board, upon request for good cause, for the purpose of evaluating the
             1652      applicant's qualifications for licensure.
             1653          (2) An applicant for licensure as a psychologist by endorsement based upon licensure
             1654      in another jurisdiction shall:
             1655          (a) submit an application on a form provided by the division;
             1656          (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504 ;
             1657          (c) be of good moral character and professional standing, and not have any disciplinary
             1658      action pending or in effect against the applicant's psychologist license in any jurisdiction;
             1659          (d) have passed the Utah Psychologist Law and Ethics Examination established by
             1660      division rule;
             1661          (e) provide satisfactory evidence the applicant is currently licensed in another state,
             1662      district, or territory of the United States, or in any other jurisdiction approved by the division in
             1663      collaboration with the board;
             1664          (f) provide satisfactory evidence the applicant has actively practiced psychology in that
             1665      jurisdiction for not less than 2,000 hours or one year, whichever is greater;
             1666          (g) provide satisfactory evidence that:
             1667          (i) the education, supervised experience, examination, and all other requirements for
             1668      licensure in that jurisdiction at the time the applicant obtained licensure were substantially
             1669      equivalent to the licensure requirements for a psychologist in Utah at the time the applicant
             1670      obtained licensure in the other jurisdiction; or


             1671          (ii) the applicant is:
             1672          (A) a current holder of [diplomate] Board Certified Specialist status in good standing
             1673      from the American Board of Professional Psychology;
             1674          (B) currently credentialed as a health service provider in psychology by the National
             1675      Register of Health Service Providers in Psychology; or
             1676          (C) currently holds a Certificate of Professional Qualification (CPQ) granted by the
             1677      Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards; and
             1678          (h) meet with the board, upon request for good cause, for the purpose of evaluating the
             1679      applicant's qualifications for licensure.
             1680          (3) (a) An applicant for certification as a psychology resident shall comply with the
             1681      provisions of Subsections (1)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (h).
             1682          (b) (i) An individual's certification as a psychology resident is limited to the period of
             1683      time necessary to complete clinical training as described in Subsections (1)(e) and (f) and
             1684      extends not more than one year from the date the minimum requirement for training is
             1685      completed, unless the individual presents satisfactory evidence to the division and the
             1686      Psychologist Licensing Board that the individual is making reasonable progress toward passing
             1687      the qualifying examination or is otherwise on a course reasonably expected to lead to licensure
             1688      as a psychologist.
             1689          (ii) The period of time under Subsection (3)(b)(i) may not exceed two years past the
             1690      date the minimum supervised clinical training requirement has been completed.
             1691          Section 33. Section 58-67-102 is amended to read:
             1692           58-67-102. Definitions.
             1693          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             1694          (1) "Ablative procedure" means a procedure that is expected to excise, vaporize,
             1695      disintegrate, or remove living tissue, including the use of carbon dioxide lasers and erbium:
             1696      YAG lasers, and excluding hair removal.
             1697          (2) "ACGME" means the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education of the
             1698      American Medical Association.
             1699          (3) "Administrative penalty" means a monetary fine or citation imposed by the division
             1700      for acts or omissions determined to constitute unprofessional or unlawful conduct, in
             1701      accordance with a fine schedule established by the division in collaboration with the board, as a


             1702      result of an adjudicative proceeding conducted in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4,
             1703      Administrative Procedures Act.
             1704          (4) "Board" means the Physicians Licensing Board created in Section 58-67-201 .
             1705          (5) (a) "Cosmetic medical device" means tissue altering energy based devices that have
             1706      the potential for altering living tissue and that are used to perform ablative or nonablative
             1707      procedures, such as American National Standards Institute (ANSI) designated Class IIIb and
             1708      Class IV lasers, intense pulsed light, radio frequency devices, and lipolytic devices, and
             1709      excludes ANSI designated Class IIIa and lower powered devices.
             1710          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), if an ANSI designated Class IIIa and lower
             1711      powered device is being used to perform an ablative procedure, the device is included in the
             1712      definition of cosmetic medical device under Subsection (5)(a).
             1713          (6) "Cosmetic medical procedure":
             1714          (a) includes the use of cosmetic medical devices to perform ablative or nonablative
             1715      procedures; and
             1716          (b) does not include a treatment of the ocular globe such as refractive surgery.
             1717          (7) "Diagnose" means:
             1718          (a) to examine in any manner another person, parts of a person's body, substances,
             1719      fluids, or materials excreted, taken, or removed from a person's body, or produced by a person's
             1720      body, to determine the source, nature, kind, or extent of a disease or other physical or mental
             1721      condition;
             1722          (b) to attempt to conduct an examination or determination described under Subsection
             1723      (7)(a);
             1724          (c) to hold oneself out as making or to represent that one is making an examination or
             1725      determination as described in Subsection (7)(a); or
             1726          (d) to make an examination or determination as described in Subsection (7)(a) upon or
             1727      from information supplied directly or indirectly by another person, whether or not in the
             1728      presence of the person making or attempting the diagnosis or examination.
             1729          (8) "LCME" means the Liaison Committee on Medical Education of the American
             1730      Medical Association.
             1731          (9) "Medical assistant" means an unlicensed individual working under the [direct and
             1732      immediate] indirect supervision of a licensed physician and surgeon and engaged in specific


             1733      tasks assigned by the licensed physician and surgeon in accordance with the standards and
             1734      ethics of the profession.
             1735          (10) (a) (i) "Nonablative procedure" means a procedure that is expected or intended to
             1736      alter living tissue, but is not intended or expected to excise, vaporize, disintegrate, or remove
             1737      living tissue.
             1738          (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (10)(a)(i), nonablative procedure includes hair
             1739      removal.
             1740          (b) "Nonablative procedure" does not include:
             1741          (i) a superficial procedure as defined in Section 58-1-102 ;
             1742          (ii) the application of permanent make-up; or
             1743          (iii) the use of photo therapy and lasers for neuromusculoskeletal treatments that are
             1744      performed by an individual licensed under this title who is acting within the individual's scope
             1745      of practice.
             1746          (11) "Physician" means both physicians and surgeons licensed under Section
             1747      58-67-301 , Utah Medical Practice Act, and osteopathic physicians and surgeons licensed under
             1748      Section 58-68-301 , Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act.
             1749          (12) (a) "Practice of medicine" means:
             1750          (i) to diagnose, treat, correct, administer anesthesia, or prescribe for any human
             1751      disease, ailment, injury, infirmity, deformity, pain or other condition, physical or mental, real
             1752      or imaginary, including to perform cosmetic medical procedures, or to attempt to do so, by any
             1753      means or instrumentality, and by an individual in Utah or outside the state upon or for any
             1754      human within the state;
             1755          (ii) when a person not licensed as a physician directs a licensee under this chapter to
             1756      withhold or alter the health care services that the licensee has ordered;
             1757          (iii) to maintain an office or place of business for the purpose of doing any of the acts
             1758      described in Subsection (12)(a) whether or not for compensation; or
             1759          (iv) to use, in the conduct of any occupation or profession pertaining to the diagnosis or
             1760      treatment of human diseases or conditions in any printed material, stationery, letterhead,
             1761      envelopes, signs, or advertisements, the designation "doctor," "doctor of medicine,"
             1762      "physician," "surgeon," "physician and surgeon," "Dr.," "M.D.," or any combination of these
             1763      designations in any manner which might cause a reasonable person to believe the individual


             1764      using the designation is a licensed physician and surgeon, and if the party using the designation
             1765      is not a licensed physician and surgeon, the designation must additionally contain the
             1766      description of the branch of the healing arts for which the person has a license, provided that an
             1767      individual who has received an earned degree of doctor of medicine degree but is not a licensed
             1768      physician and surgeon in Utah may use the designation "M.D." if it is followed by "Not
             1769      Licensed" or "Not Licensed in Utah" in the same size and style of lettering.
             1770          (b) The practice of medicine does not include:
             1771          (i) except for an ablative medical procedure as provided in Subsection (12)(b)(ii), the
             1772      conduct described in Subsection (12)(a)(i) that is performed in accordance with a license issued
             1773      under another chapter of this title;
             1774          (ii) an ablative cosmetic medical procedure if the scope of practice for the person
             1775      performing the ablative cosmetic medical procedure includes the authority to operate or
             1776      perform a surgical procedure; or
             1777          (iii) conduct under Subsection 58-67-501 (2).
             1778          (13) "Prescription device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine,
             1779      contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, and any component
             1780      part or accessory, which is required under federal or state law to be prescribed by a practitioner
             1781      and dispensed by or through a person or entity licensed under this chapter or exempt from
             1782      licensure under this chapter.
             1783          (14) "Prescription drug" means a drug that is required by federal or state law or rule to
             1784      be dispensed only by prescription or is restricted to administration only by practitioners.
             1785          (15) "SPEX" means the Special Purpose Examination of the Federation of State
             1786      Medical Boards.
             1787          (16) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-67-501 .
             1788          (17) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-67-502 , and
             1789      as may be further defined by division rule.
             1790          Section 34. Section 58-67-305 is amended to read:
             1791           58-67-305. Exemptions from licensure.
             1792          In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307 , the following
             1793      individuals may engage in the described acts or practices without being licensed under this
             1794      chapter:


             1795          (1) an individual rendering aid in an emergency, when no fee or other consideration of
             1796      value for the service is charged, received, expected, or contemplated;
             1797          (2) an individual administering a domestic or family remedy;
             1798          (3) (a) (i) a person engaged in the sale of vitamins, health foods, dietary supplements,
             1799      herbs, or other products of nature, the sale of which is not otherwise prohibited by state or
             1800      federal law; and
             1801          (ii) a person acting in good faith for religious reasons, as a matter of conscience, or
             1802      based on a personal belief, when obtaining or providing any information regarding health care
             1803      and the use of any product under Subsection (3)(a)(i); and
             1804          (b) Subsection (3)(a) does not:
             1805          (i) allow a person to diagnose any human disease, ailment, injury, infirmity, deformity,
             1806      pain, or other condition; or
             1807          (ii) prohibit providing truthful and non-misleading information regarding any of the
             1808      products under Subsection (3)(a)(i);
             1809          (4) a person engaged in good faith in the practice of the religious tenets of any church
             1810      or religious belief, without the use of prescription drugs;
             1811          (5) an individual authorized by the Department of Health under Section 26-1-30 , to
             1812      draw blood pursuant to Subsection 41-6a-523 (1)(a)(vi), 53-10-405 (2)(a)(vi), or
             1813      72-10-502 (5)(a)(vi);
             1814          (6) a medical assistant while working under the [direct and immediate] indirect
             1815      supervision of a licensed physician and surgeon, to the extent the medical assistant:
             1816          (a) is engaged in tasks appropriately delegated by the supervisor in accordance with the
             1817      standards and ethics of the practice of medicine;
             1818          (b) does not perform surgical procedures;
             1819          (c) does not prescribe prescription medications; H. [ and ]
             1819a          (d) does not administer anesthesia, anesthesia does not mean a local anesthetic for
             1819b      minor procedural use; and
             1820           [ (d) ] (e) .H does not engage in other medical practices or procedures as defined by
             1820a      division rule
             1821      in collaboration with the board;
             1822          (7) an individual engaging in the practice of medicine when:
             1823          (a) the individual is licensed in good standing as a physician in another state with no
             1824      licensing action pending and no less than 10 years of professional experience;
             1825          (b) the services are rendered as a public service and for a noncommercial purpose;


             1826          (c) no fee or other consideration of value is charged, received, expected, or
             1827      contemplated for the services rendered beyond an amount necessary to cover the proportionate
             1828      cost of malpractice insurance; and
             1829          (d) the individual does not otherwise engage in unlawful or unprofessional conduct;
             1830          (8) an individual providing expert testimony in a legal proceeding; and
             1831          (9) an individual who is invited by a school, association, society, or other body
             1832      approved by the division to conduct a clinic or demonstration of the practice of medicine in
             1833      which patients are treated, if:
             1834          (a) the individual does not establish a place of business in this state;
             1835          (b) the individual does not regularly engage in the practice of medicine in this state;
             1836          (c) the individual holds a current license in good standing to practice medicine issued
             1837      by another state, district or territory of the United States, or Canada;
             1838          (d) the primary purpose of the event is the training of others in the practice of
             1839      medicine; and
             1840          (e) neither the patient nor an insurer is billed for the services performed.
             1841          Section 35. Section 58-67-806 is amended to read:
             1842           58-67-806. Representation of medical specialization.
             1843          (1) A physician may not represent to another person that the physician is certified in a
             1844      medical specialty or certified by a particular board unless:
             1845          (a) the physician includes in the representation the name of:
             1846          (i) the certification board or entity; and
             1847          (ii) the medical specialty for which the physician is certified; and
             1848          (b) the board or certification entity meets the requirements of Subsection (2).
             1849          (2) A certification entity or board under Subsection (1) shall meet the following
             1850      qualifications:
             1851          (a) be included in the American Board of Medical Specialties or an American
             1852      Osteopathic Association Certifying Board; [and] or
             1853          (b) (i) require an Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or American
             1854      Osteopathic Association approved [post-graduate] postgraduate training program that provides
             1855      complete training in the specialty or [sub-specialty; or] subspeciality; and
             1856          (ii) be certified or had prior certification by the member board of the American Board


             1857      of Medical Specialties or an American Osteopathic Certifying Board.
             1858          Section 36. Section 58-68-102 is amended to read:
             1859           58-68-102. Definitions.
             1860          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             1861          (1) "Ablative procedure" means a procedure that is expected to excise, vaporize,
             1862      disintegrate, or remove living tissue, including the use of carbon dioxide lasers and erbium:
             1863      YAG lasers, and excluding hair removal.
             1864          (2) "ACGME" means the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education of the
             1865      American Medical Association.
             1866          (3) "Administrative penalty" means a monetary fine imposed by the division for acts or
             1867      omissions determined to constitute unprofessional or unlawful conduct, as a result of an
             1868      adjudicative proceeding conducted in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative
             1869      Procedures Act.
             1870          (4) "AOA" means the American Osteopathic Association.
             1871          (5) "Board" means the Osteopathic Physician and Surgeon's Licensing Board created in
             1872      Section 58-68-201 .
             1873          (6) (a) "Cosmetic medical device" means tissue altering energy based devices that have
             1874      the potential for altering living tissue and that are used to perform ablative or nonablative
             1875      procedures, such as American National Standards Institute (ANSI) designated Class IIIb and
             1876      Class IV lasers, intense pulsed light, radio frequency devices, and lipolytic devices and
             1877      excludes ANSI designated Class IIIa and lower powered devices.
             1878          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (6)(a), if an ANSI designated Class IIIa and lower
             1879      powered device is being used to perform an ablative procedure, the device is included in the
             1880      definition of cosmetic medical device under Subsection (6)(a).
             1881          (7) "Cosmetic medical procedure":
             1882          (a) includes the use of cosmetic medical devices to perform ablative or nonablative
             1883      procedures; and
             1884          (b) does not include a treatment of the ocular globe such as refractive surgery.
             1885          (8) "Diagnose" means:
             1886          (a) to examine in any manner another person, parts of a person's body, substances,
             1887      fluids, or materials excreted, taken, or removed from a person's body, or produced by a person's


             1888      body, to determine the source, nature, kind, or extent of a disease or other physical or mental
             1889      condition;
             1890          (b) to attempt to conduct an examination or determination described under Subsection
             1891      (8)(a);
             1892          (c) to hold oneself out as making or to represent that one is making an examination or
             1893      determination as described in Subsection (8)(a); or
             1894          (d) to make an examination or determination as described in Subsection (8)(a) upon or
             1895      from information supplied directly or indirectly by another person, whether or not in the
             1896      presence of the person making or attempting the diagnosis or examination.
             1897          (9) "Medical assistant" means an unlicensed individual working under the [direct and
             1898      immediate ] indirect supervision of a licensed osteopathic physician and surgeon and engaged
             1899      in specific tasks assigned by the licensed osteopathic physician and surgeon in accordance with
             1900      the standards and ethics of the profession.
             1901          (10) (a) (i) "Nonablative procedure" means a procedure that is expected or intended to
             1902      alter living tissue, but is not expected or intended to excise, vaporize, disintegrate, or remove
             1903      living tissue.
             1904          (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (10)(a)(i), nonablative procedure includes hair
             1905      removal.
             1906          (b) "Nonablative procedure" does not include:
             1907          (i) a superficial procedure as defined in Section 58-1-102 ;
             1908          (ii) the application of permanent make-up; or
             1909          (iii) the use of photo therapy lasers for neuromusculoskeletal treatments that are
             1910      preformed by an individual licensed under this title who is acting within the individual's scope
             1911      of practice.
             1912          (11) "Physician" means both physicians and surgeons licensed under Section
             1913      58-67-301 , Utah Medical Practice Act, and osteopathic physicians and surgeons licensed under
             1914      Section 58-68-301 , Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act.
             1915          (12) (a) "Practice of osteopathic medicine" means:
             1916          (i) to diagnose, treat, correct, administer anesthesia, or prescribe for any human
             1917      disease, ailment, injury, infirmity, deformity, pain, or other condition, physical or mental, real
             1918      or imaginary, or to attempt to do so, by any means or instrumentality, which in whole or in part


             1919      is based upon emphasis of the importance of the musculoskeletal system and manipulative
             1920      therapy in the maintenance and restoration of health, by an individual in Utah or outside of the
             1921      state upon or for any human within the state;
             1922          (ii) when a person not licensed as a physician directs a licensee under this chapter to
             1923      withhold or alter the health care services that the licensee has ordered;
             1924          (iii) to maintain an office or place of business for the purpose of doing any of the acts
             1925      described in Subsection (12)(a) whether or not for compensation; or
             1926          (iv) to use, in the conduct of any occupation or profession pertaining to the diagnosis or
             1927      treatment of human diseases or conditions, in any printed material, stationery, letterhead,
             1928      envelopes, signs, or advertisements, the designation "doctor," "doctor of osteopathic medicine,"
             1929      "osteopathic physician," "osteopathic surgeon," "osteopathic physician and surgeon," "Dr.,"
             1930      "D.O.," or any combination of these designations in any manner which might cause a
             1931      reasonable person to believe the individual using the designation is a licensed osteopathic
             1932      physician, and if the party using the designation is not a licensed osteopathic physician, the
             1933      designation must additionally contain the description of the branch of the healing arts for which
             1934      the person has a license, provided that an individual who has received an earned degree of
             1935      doctor of osteopathic medicine but is not a licensed osteopathic physician and surgeon in Utah
             1936      may use the designation "D.O." if it is followed by "Not Licensed" or "Not Licensed in Utah"
             1937      in the same size and style of lettering.
             1938          (b) The practice of osteopathic medicine does not include:
             1939          (i) except for an ablative medical procedure as provided in Subsection (12)(b)(ii), the
             1940      conduct described in Subsection (12)(a)(i) that is performed in accordance with a license issued
             1941      under another chapter of this title;
             1942          (ii) an ablative cosmetic medical procedure if the scope of practice for the person
             1943      performing the ablative cosmetic medical procedure includes the authority to operate or
             1944      perform a surgical procedure; or
             1945          (iii) conduct under Subsection 58-68-501 (2).
             1946          (13) "Prescription device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine,
             1947      contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, and any component
             1948      part or accessory, which is required under federal or state law to be prescribed by a practitioner
             1949      and dispensed by or through a person or entity licensed under this chapter or exempt from


             1950      licensure under this chapter.
             1951          (14) "Prescription drug" means a drug that is required by federal or state law or rule to
             1952      be dispensed only by prescription or is restricted to administration only by practitioners.
             1953          (15) "SPEX" means the Special Purpose Examination of the Federation of State
             1954      Medical Boards.
             1955          (16) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-68-501 .
             1956          (17) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-68-502 and as
             1957      may be further defined by division rule.
             1958          Section 37. Section 58-68-305 is amended to read:
             1959           58-68-305. Exemptions from licensure.
             1960          In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307 , the following
             1961      individuals may engage in the described acts or practices without being licensed under this
             1962      chapter:
             1963          (1) an individual rendering aid in an emergency, when no fee or other consideration of
             1964      value for the service is charged, received, expected, or contemplated;
             1965          (2) an individual administering a domestic or family remedy;
             1966          (3) (a) (i) a person engaged in the lawful sale of vitamins, health foods, dietary
             1967      supplements, herbs, or other products of nature, the sale of which is not otherwise prohibited
             1968      by state or federal law; and
             1969          (ii) a person acting in good faith for religious reasons, as a matter of conscience, or
             1970      based on a personal belief, when obtaining or providing any information regarding health care
             1971      and the use of any product under Subsection (3)(a)(i); and
             1972          (b) Subsection (3)(a) does not:
             1973          (i) permit a person to diagnose any human disease, ailment, injury, infirmity,
             1974      deformity, pain, or other condition; or
             1975          (ii) prohibit providing truthful and non-misleading information regarding any of the
             1976      products under Subsection (3)(a)(i);
             1977          (4) a person engaged in good faith in the practice of the religious tenets of any church
             1978      or religious belief without the use of prescription drugs;
             1979          (5) an individual authorized by the Department of Health under Section 26-1-30 , to
             1980      draw blood pursuant to Subsection 41-6a-523 (1)(a)(vi), 53-10-405 (2)(a)(vi), or


             1981      72-10-502 (5)(a)(vi);
             1982          (6) a medical assistant while working under the [direct and immediate] indirect
             1983      supervision of a licensed osteopathic physician, to the extent the medical assistant:
             1984          (a) is engaged in tasks appropriately delegated by the supervisor in accordance with the
             1985      standards and ethics of the practice of medicine;
             1986          (b) does not perform surgical procedures;
             1987          (c) does not prescribe prescription medications; H. [ and ]
             1987a          (d) does not administer anesthesia, anesthesia does not mean a local anesthetic for
             1987b      minor procedural use; and
             1988           [ (d) ] (e) .H does not engage in other medical practices or procedures as defined by division
             1988a      rule
             1989      in collaboration with the board;
             1990          (7) an individual engaging in the practice of osteopathic medicine when:
             1991          (a) the individual is licensed in good standing as an osteopathic physician in another
             1992      state with no licensing action pending and no less than 10 years of professional experience;
             1993          (b) the services are rendered as a public service and for a noncommercial purpose;
             1994          (c) no fee or other consideration of value is charged, received, expected, or
             1995      contemplated for the services rendered beyond an amount necessary to cover the proportionate
             1996      cost of malpractice insurance; and
             1997          (d) the individual does not otherwise engage in unlawful or unprofessional conduct;
             1998          (8) an individual providing expert testimony in a legal proceeding; and
             1999          (9) an individual who is invited by a school, association, society, or other body
             2000      approved by the division in collaboration with the board to conduct a clinic or demonstration of
             2001      the practice of medicine in which patients are treated, if:
             2002          (a) the individual does not establish a place of business in this state;
             2003          (b) the individual does not regularly engage in the practice of medicine in this state;
             2004          (c) the individual holds a current license in good standing to practice medicine issued
             2005      by another state, district or territory of the United States, or Canada;
             2006          (d) the primary purpose of the event is the training of others in the practice of
             2007      medicine; and
             2008          (e) neither the patient nor an insurer is billed for the services performed.
             2009          Section 38. Repealer.
             2010          This bill repeals:
             2011          Section 58-37c-4, Board.


             2012          Section 58-61-303, Status of licenses held on the effective date of this chapter.




Legislative Review Note
    as of 11-15-12 1:08 PM


Office of Legislative Research and General Counsel


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