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H.B. 200 Enrolled

             1     

REVISOR'S STATUTE

             2     
2013 GENERAL SESSION

             3     
STATE OF UTAH

             4     
Chief Sponsor: Brad L. Dee

             5     
Senate Sponsor: Ralph Okerlund

             6     
             7      LONG TITLE
             8      General Description:
             9          This bill modifies parts of the Utah Code to make technical corrections, including
             10      eliminating references to repealed provisions, making minor wording changes, updating
             11      cross-references, and correcting numbering.
             12      Highlighted Provisions:
             13          This bill:
             14          .    modifies parts of the Utah Code to make technical corrections, including
             15      eliminating references to repealed provisions, making minor wording changes,
             16      updating cross-references, correcting numbering, and fixing errors that were created
             17      from the previous year's session.
             18      Money Appropriated in this Bill:
             19          None
             20      Other Special Clauses:
             21          None
             22      Utah Code Sections Affected:
             23      AMENDS:
             24          11-36a-306, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 47
             25          11-49-202, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 202
             26          11-49-407, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 202
             27          13-49-204, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 375
             28          17-16-21, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 123
             29          17B-2a-608, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 159


             30          19-6-902, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 38
             31          25-6-14, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 89
             32          26-3-7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 391
             33          26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 161
             34          26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 161
             35      and 347
             36          26-18-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 402
             37          26-36a-206, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 179
             38          34A-5-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 101
             39          35A-8-414, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 212
             40          38-1a-201, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 278
             41          51-7-15, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 285
             42          51-7-18.2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 285
             43          53-3-207, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 144
             44          53-5a-102, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             45          53A-1a-506, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 66
             46          53A-3-425, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 425
             47          53A-25b-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 291
             48          54-17-801, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 182
             49          57-1-24.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 164
             50          57-14-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 45
             51          58-3a-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             52          58-9-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 353
             53          58-13-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 3 and 382
             54          58-17b-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 280
             55          58-17b-309, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 234 and 344
             56          58-22-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 14
             57          58-22-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 259


             58          58-22-503, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             59          58-26a-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 265 and 382
             60          58-28-307, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 220
             61          58-37-10, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 153
             62          58-37c-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             63          58-37c-17, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 155
             64          58-37d-2, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 156
             65          58-47b-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 159
             66          59-2-1109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 366
             67          63A-12-111, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 377
             68          63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 91
             69      and last amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347
             70          63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 91
             71      and renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347 and last amended
             72      by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347
             73          63G-7-701, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             74          63I-1-209, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 9 and 212
             75          63I-1-213, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 15
             76          63I-1-235, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 212
             77          63I-1-258, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 82, 234, and 349
             78          63I-2-261, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 372
             79          63I-2-267, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 427
             80          67-1a-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 35
             81          67-19-13.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 266
             82          76-1-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1974, Chapter 32
             83          76-1-501, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
             84          76-3-202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 355
             85          76-3-203.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 320 and 366


             86          76-4-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 230
             87          76-4-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 342
             88          76-5-307, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 343
             89          76-6-107, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 300
             90          76-6-412, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 257
             91          76-6-1102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 164
             92          76-7-305.5, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 314
             93          76-8-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 12
             94          76-9-702, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 303
             95          76-9-702.1, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 303
             96          76-9-702.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 320
             97          76-9-1008, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 21
             98          76-10-104.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 154
             99          76-10-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 114
             100          76-10-526, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 270
             101          76-10-919, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 154
             102          76-10-1201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 297
             103          77-36-2.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 113
             104          77-38-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 260
             105          77-38-303, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 260
             106          77-41-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 145
             107          78A-6-1302, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 316
             108          78B-2-313, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 79
             109          78B-6-121, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 340
             110      REPEALS:
             111          53A-8-101, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 2
             112          58-40-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             113     


             114      Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
             115          Section 1. Section 11-36a-306 is amended to read:
             116           11-36a-306. Certification of impact fee analysis.
             117          (1) An impact fee facilities plan shall include a written certification from the person or
             118      entity that prepares the impact fee facilities plan that states the following:
             119      "I certify that the attached impact fee facilities plan:
             120      1. includes only the costs of public facilities that are:
             121          a. allowed under the Impact Fees Act; and
             122          b. actually incurred; or
             123          c. projected to be incurred or encumbered within six years after the day on which each
             124      impact fee is paid;
             125      2. does not include:
             126          a. costs of operation and maintenance of public facilities;
             127          b. costs for qualifying public facilities that will raise the level of service for the
             128      facilities, through impact fees, above the level of service that is supported by existing residents;
             129      or
             130          c. an expense for overhead, unless the expense is calculated pursuant to a methodology
             131      that is consistent with generally accepted cost accounting practices and the methodological
             132      standards set forth by the federal Office of Management and Budget for federal grant
             133      reimbursement; and
             134      3. complies in each and every relevant respect with the Impact Fees Act."
             135          (2) An impact fee analysis shall include a written certification from the person or entity
             136      that prepares the impact fee analysis which states as follows:
             137      "I certify that the attached impact fee analysis:
             138      1. includes only the costs of public facilities that are:
             139          a. allowed under the Impact Fees Act; and
             140          b. actually incurred; or
             141          c. projected to be incurred or encumbered within six years after the day on which each


             142      impact fee is paid;
             143      2. does not include:
             144          a. costs of operation and maintenance of public facilities;
             145          b. costs for qualifying public facilities that will raise the level of service for the
             146      facilities, through impact fees, above the level of service that is supported by existing residents;
             147      or
             148          c. an expense for overhead, unless the expense is calculated pursuant to a methodology
             149      that is consistent with generally accepted cost accounting practices and the methodological
             150      standards set forth by the federal Office of Management and Budget for federal grant
             151      reimbursement;
             152      3. offsets costs with grants or other alternate sources of payment; and
             153      4. complies in each and every relevant respect with the Impact Fees Act."
             154          Section 2. Section 11-49-202 is amended to read:
             155           11-49-202. Meetings -- Staff.
             156          (1) The commission shall meet for the purpose of reviewing an ethics complaint when:
             157          (a) except otherwise expressly provided in this chapter, called to meet at the discretion
             158      of the chair; or
             159          (b) a majority of members agree to meet.
             160          (2) A majority of the commission is a quorum.
             161          (3) (a) The commission shall prepare, on an annual basis, a summary data report that
             162      contains:
             163          (i) a general description of the activities of the commission during the past year;
             164          (ii) the number of ethics complaints filed with the commission;
             165          (iii) the number of ethics complaints dismissed in accordance with Section 11-49-602 ;
             166          (iv) the number of ethics complaints reviewed by the commission in accordance with
             167      Section 11-49-701 ;
             168          (v) an executive summary of each complaint review in accordance with Section
             169      11-49-701 ; and


             170          (vi) an accounting of the commission's budget and expenditures.
             171          (b) The summary data report shall be submitted to the [Government Operations and]
             172      Political Subdivisions Interim Committee on an annual basis.
             173          (c) The summary data report shall be a public record.
             174          (4) (a) The Senate and the House of Representatives shall employ staff for the
             175      commission at a level that is reasonable to assist the commission in performing its duties as
             176      established in this chapter.
             177          (b) The Legislative Management Committee shall:
             178          (i) authorize each staff position for the commission; and
             179          (ii) approve the employment of each staff member for the commission.
             180          (c) Staff for the commission shall work only for the commission and may not perform
             181      services for the Senate, House of Representatives, other legislative offices, or a political
             182      subdivision.
             183          (5) A meeting held by the commission is subject to Title 52, Chapter 4, Open and
             184      Public Meetings Act, unless otherwise provided.
             185          Section 3. Section 11-49-407 is amended to read:
             186           11-49-407. Communications of commission members.
             187          (1) As used in this section, "third party" means a person who is not a member of the
             188      commission or staff to the commission.
             189          (2) While a complaint is under review by the commission, a member of the
             190      commission may not initiate or consider any communications concerning the complaint with a
             191      third party unless:
             192          (a) the communication is expressly permitted under the procedures established by this
             193      chapter; or
             194          (b) the communication is made by the third party, in writing, simultaneously to:
             195          (i) all members of the commission; and
             196          (ii) a staff member of the commission.
             197          (3) While the commission is reviewing a complaint under this chapter, a commission


             198      member may communicate outside of [the meetings] a meeting, hearing, or [deliberations]
             199      deliberation with another member of, or staff to, the commission, only if the member's
             200      communication does not materially compromise the member's responsibility to independently
             201      review and make decisions in relation to the complaint.
             202          Section 4. Section 13-49-204 is amended to read:
             203           13-49-204. Bonds -- Exemption -- Statements dependent on posting bond.
             204          (1) Except as provided in Subsection (5), an immigration consultant shall post a cash
             205      bond or surety bond:
             206          (a) in the amount $50,000; and
             207          (b) payable to the division for the benefit of any person damaged by a fraud,
             208      misstatement, misrepresentation, unlawful act, omission, or failure to provide services of an
             209      immigration consultant, or an agent, representative, or employee of an immigration consultant.
             210          (2) A bond required under this section shall be:
             211          (a) in a form approved by the attorney general; and
             212          (b) conditioned upon the faithful compliance of an immigration consultant with this
             213      chapter and division rules.
             214          (3) (a) If a surety bond posted by an immigration consultant under this section is
             215      canceled due to the person's negligence, the division may assess a $300 reinstatement fee.
             216          (b) No part of a bond posted by an immigration consultant under this section may be
             217      withdrawn:
             218          (i) during the period the registration under this chapter is in effect; or
             219          (ii) while a revocation proceeding is pending against the person.
             220          (4) (a) A bond posted under this section by an immigration consultant may be forfeited
             221      if the person's registration under this chapter is revoked.
             222          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (4)(a), the division may make a claim against a bond
             223      posted by an immigration consultant for money owed the division under this [division] chapter
             224      without the commission first revoking the immigration consultant's registration.
             225          (5) The requirements of this section do not apply to an employee of a nonprofit,


             226      tax-exempt corporation who assists clients to complete an application document in an
             227      immigration matter, free of charge or for a fee, including reasonable costs, consistent with that
             228      authorized by the Board of Immigration Appeals under 8 C.F.R. Sec. 292.2.
             229          (6) A person may not disseminate by any means a statement indicating that the person
             230      is an immigration consultant, engages in the business of an immigration consultant, or proposes
             231      to engage in the business of an immigration consultant, unless the person has posted a bond
             232      under this section that is maintained throughout the period covered by the statement, such as a
             233      listing in a telephone book.
             234          (7) An immigration consultant may not make or authorize the making of an oral or
             235      written reference to the immigration consultant's compliance with the bonding requirements of
             236      this section except as provided in this chapter.
             237          Section 5. Section 17-16-21 is amended to read:
             238           17-16-21. Fees of county officers.
             239          (1) As used in this section, "county officer" means all of the county officers
             240      enumerated in Section 17-53-101 except county recorders, county constables, and county
             241      sheriffs.
             242          (2) (a) Each county officer shall collect, in advance, for exclusive county use and
             243      benefit:
             244          (i) all fees established by the county legislative body under Section 17-53-211 ; and
             245          (ii) any other fees authorized or required by law.
             246          (b) As long as the Children's Legal Defense Account is authorized by Section
             247      51-9-408 , the county clerk shall:
             248          (i) assess $10 in addition to whatever fee for a marriage license is established under
             249      authority of this section [and in addition to the $20 assessed for the displaced homemaker
             250      program]; and
             251          (ii) transmit $10 from each marriage license fee to the Division of Finance for deposit
             252      in the Children's Legal Defense Account.
             253          (c) (i) As long as the Division of Child and Family Services, created in Section


             254      62A-4a-103 , has the responsibility under Section 62A-4a-105 to provide services, including
             255      temporary shelter, for victims of domestic violence, the county clerk shall:
             256          (A) collect $10 in addition to whatever fee for a marriage license is established under
             257      authority of this section, in addition to the amount described in Subsection (2)(b), if an
             258      applicant chooses, as provided in Subsection (2)(c)(ii), to pay the additional $10; and
             259          (B) to the extent actually paid, transmit $10 from each marriage license fee to the
             260      Division of Finance for distribution to the Division of Child and Family Services for the
             261      operation of shelters for victims of domestic violence.
             262          (ii) (A) The county clerk shall provide a method for an applicant for a marriage license
             263      to choose to pay the additional $10 referred to in Subsection (2)(c)(i).
             264          (B) An applicant for a marriage license may choose not to pay the additional $10
             265      referred to in Subsection (2)(c)(i) without affecting the applicant's ability to be issued a
             266      marriage license.
             267          (3) This section does not apply to any fees currently being assessed by the state but
             268      collected by county officers.
             269          Section 6. Section 17B-2a-608 is amended to read:
             270           17B-2a-608. Limit on property tax authority -- Exceptions.
             271          (1) As used in this section, "elected official" means a metropolitan water district board
             272      of trustee member who is elected to the board of trustees by metropolitan water district voters
             273      at an election held for that purpose.
             274          (2) The board of trustees of a metropolitan water district may not collect property tax
             275      revenue in a tax year beginning on or after January 1, 2015, that would exceed the certified tax
             276      rate under Section 59-2-924 unless:
             277          (a) the members of the board of trustees are all elected officials; or
             278          (b) the proposed tax levy has previously been approved by:
             279          (i) a majority of the metropolitan water district voters at an election held for that
             280      purpose; or
             281          (ii) the legislative body of each municipality that appoints a member to the board of


             282      trustees under Section [ 17B-2a-204 ] 17B-2a-604 .
             283          Section 7. Section 19-6-902 is amended to read:
             284           19-6-902. Definitions.
             285          As used in this part:
             286          (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board, as defined in
             287      Section 19-1-106 , within the Department of Environmental Quality.
             288          (2) "Certified decontamination specialist" means an individual who has met the
             289      standards for certification as a decontamination specialist and has been certified by the board
             290      under Subsection 19-6-906 (2).
             291          (3) "Contaminated" or "contamination" means:
             292          (a) polluted by hazardous materials that cause property to be unfit for human habitation
             293      or use due to immediate or long-term health hazards; or
             294          (b) that a property is polluted by hazardous materials as a result of the use, production,
             295      or presence of methamphetamine in excess of decontamination standards adopted by the
             296      Department of Health under Section 26-51-201 .
             297          (4) "Contamination list" means a list maintained by the local health department of
             298      properties:
             299          (a) reported to the local health department under Section 19-6-903 ; and
             300          (b) determined by the local health department to be contaminated.
             301          (5) (a) "Decontaminated" means property that at one time was contaminated, but the
             302      contaminants have been removed.
             303          (b) "Decontaminated" for a property that was contaminated by the use, production, or
             304      presence of methamphetamine means that the property satisfies decontamination standards
             305      adopted by the Department of Health under Section 26-51-201 .
             306          (6) "Hazardous materials":
             307          (a) has the same meaning as "hazardous or dangerous [materials"] material" as defined
             308      in Section 58-37d-3 ; and
             309          (b) includes any illegally manufactured controlled substances.


             310          (7) "Health department" means a local health department under Title 26A, Local
             311      Health Authorities.
             312          (8) "Owner of record":
             313          (a) means the owner of real property as shown on the records of the county recorder in
             314      the county where the property is located; and
             315          (b) may include an individual, financial institution, company, corporation, or other
             316      entity.
             317          (9) "Property":
             318          (a) means any real property, site, structure, part of a structure, or the grounds
             319      surrounding a structure; and
             320          (b) includes single-family residences, outbuildings, garages, units of multiplexes,
             321      condominiums, apartment buildings, warehouses, hotels, motels, boats, motor vehicles, trailers,
             322      manufactured housing, shops, or booths.
             323          (10) "Reported property" means property that is the subject of a law enforcement report
             324      under Section 19-6-903 .
             325          Section 8. Section 25-6-14 is amended to read:
             326           25-6-14. Restricting transfers of trust interests.
             327          (1) (a) For trusts created on or after December 31, 2003, a settlor who in writing
             328      irrevocably transfers property in trust to a trust having as trustee a company defined in
             329      Subsection 7-5-1 (1)(d) who holds some or all of the trust assets in this state in a savings
             330      account [described in Subsection] as defined in Section 7-1-103 [(29)], a certificate of deposit, a
             331      brokerage account, a trust company fiduciary account, or account or deposit located in this state
             332      that is similar to such an account may provide that the income or principal interest of the settlor
             333      as beneficiary of the trust may not be either voluntarily or involuntarily transferred before
             334      payment or delivery to the settlor as beneficiary by the trustee. The provision shall be
             335      considered to be a restriction on the transfer of the settlor's beneficial interest in the trust that is
             336      enforceable under applicable nonbankruptcy law within the meaning of Section 541(c)(2) of
             337      the Bankruptcy Code or successor provision.


             338          (b) This Subsection (1) applies to:
             339          (i) any form of transfer into trust including:
             340          (A) conveyance; or
             341          (B) assignment; and
             342          (ii) transfers of:
             343          (A) personal property;
             344          (B) interests in personal property;
             345          (C) real property; or
             346          (D) interests in real property.
             347          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(c), if a trust has a restriction as provided in
             348      Subsection (1)(a), a creditor or other claimant of the settlor may not satisfy a claim, or liability
             349      on it, in either law or equity, out of the settlor's transfer or settlor's beneficial interest in the
             350      trust.
             351          (b) For the purposes of Subsection (2)(a), a creditor includes one holding or seeking to
             352      enforce a judgment entered by a court or other body having adjudicative authority as well as
             353      one with a right to payment, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated, unliquidated,
             354      fixed, contingent, matured, unmatured, disputed, undisputed, legal, equitable, secured, or
             355      unsecured.
             356          (c) A restriction provided under Subsection (1) does not prevent a creditor or person
             357      described in Subsection (2)(a) from satisfying a claim or liability out of the settlor's beneficial
             358      interest in or transfer into trust if:
             359          (i) the claim is a judgment, order, decree, or other legally enforceable decision or ruling
             360      resulting from a judicial, arbitration, mediation, or administrative proceeding commenced prior
             361      to or within three years after the trust is created;
             362          (ii) the settlor's transfer into trust is made with actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud
             363      that creditor;
             364          (iii) the trust provides that the settlor may revoke or terminate all or part of the trust
             365      without the consent of a person who has a substantial beneficial interest in the trust and the


             366      interest would be adversely affected by the exercise of the settlor's power to revoke or
             367      terminate all or part of the trust;
             368          (iv) the trust requires that all or a part of the trust's income or principal, or both must be
             369      distributed to the settlor as beneficiary;
             370          (v) the claim is for a payment owed by a settlor under a child support judgment or
             371      order;
             372          (vi) the transfer is made when the settlor is insolvent or the transfer renders the settlor
             373      insolvent;
             374          (vii) the claim is for recovery of public assistance received by the settlor allowed under
             375      Title 26, Chapter 19, Medical Benefits Recovery Act;
             376          (viii) the claim is a tax or other amount owed by the settlor to any governmental entity;
             377          (ix) the claim is by a spouse or former spouse of the settlor on account of an agreement
             378      or order for the payment of support or alimony or for a division or distribution of property;
             379          (x) (A) the settlor transferred assets into the trust that:
             380          (I) were listed in a written representation of the settlor's assets given to a claimant to
             381      induce the claimant to enter into a transaction or agreement with the settlor; or
             382          (II) were transferred from the settlor's control in breach of any written agreement,
             383      covenant, or security interest between the settlor and the claimant; or
             384          (B) without limiting the claimant's right to pursue assets not held by the trust, a
             385      claimant described in Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A) may only foreclose or execute upon an asset in
             386      the trust listed in the written representation described in Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A)(I) or
             387      transferred in breach of a written agreement, covenant, or security interest as provided in
             388      Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A)(II) to the extent of the settlor's interest in that asset when it was
             389      transferred to the trust or the equivalent value of that asset at the time of foreclosure or
             390      execution if the original asset was sold or traded by the trust; or
             391          (xi) the claim is a judgment, award, order, sentence, fine, penalty, or other
             392      determination of liability of the settlor for conduct of the settlor constituting fraud, intentional
             393      infliction of harm, or a crime.


             394          (d) The statute of limitations for actions to satisfy a claim or liability out of the settlor's
             395      beneficial interest in or transfer into trust under Subsections (2)(c)(ii), (v), (vii), (viii), (ix), (x),
             396      and (xi) is the statute of limitations applicable to the underlying action.
             397          (e) For the purposes of Subsection (2)(c) "revoke or terminate" does not include:
             398          (i) a power to veto a distribution from the trust;
             399          (ii) a testamentary special power of appointment or similar power;
             400          (iii) the right to receive a distribution of income, principal, or both in the discretion of
             401      another, including a trustee other than the settlor, an interest in a charitable remainder unitrust
             402      or charitable remainder annuity trust as defined in Internal Revenue Code Section 664 or
             403      successor provision, or a right to receive principal subject to an ascertainable standard set forth
             404      in the trust; or
             405          (iv) the power to appoint nonsubordinate advisers or trust protectors who can remove
             406      and appoint trustees, who can direct, consent to or disapprove distributions, or is the power to
             407      serve as an investment director or appoint an investment director under Section 75-7-906 .
             408          (3) The satisfaction of a claim under Subsection (2)(c) is limited to that part of the trust
             409      or transfer to which it applies.
             410          (4) (a) If a trust has a restriction as provided under Subsection (1), the restriction
             411      prevents anyone, including a person listed in Subsection (2)(a), from asserting any cause of
             412      action or claim for relief against a trustee or anyone involved in the counseling, drafting,
             413      preparation, execution, or funding of the trust for:
             414          (i) conspiracy to commit a fraudulent conveyance;
             415          (ii) aiding and abetting a fraudulent conveyance; or
             416          (iii) participating in the trust transaction.
             417          (b) A person prevented from asserting a cause of action or claim for relief under this
             418      Subsection (4) may assert a cause of action only against:
             419          (i) the trust assets; or
             420          (ii) the settlor or beneficiary to the extent allowed under Subsection 25-6-5 (1)(a).
             421          (5) In any action brought under Subsection (2)(c), the burden to prove the matter by


             422      clear and convincing evidence shall be upon the creditor.
             423          (6) For purposes of this section, the transfer shall be considered to have been made on
             424      the date the property was originally transferred in trust.
             425          (7) The courts of this state shall have exclusive jurisdiction over any action brought
             426      under this section.
             427          (8) If a trust or a property transfer to a trust is voided or set aside under Subsection
             428      (2)(c), the trust or property transfer shall be voided or set aside only to the extent necessary to
             429      satisfy:
             430          (a) the settlor's debt to the creditor or other person at whose instance the trust or
             431      property transfer is voided or set aside; and
             432          (b) the costs and attorney fees allowed by the court.
             433          (9) If a trust or a property transfer to a trust is voided or set aside under Subsection
             434      (2)(c) and the court is satisfied that the trustee did not act in bad faith in accepting or
             435      administering the property that is the subject of the trust:
             436          (a) the trustee has a first and paramount lien against the property that is the subject of
             437      the trust in an amount equal to the entire cost properly incurred by the trustee in a defense of
             438      the action or proceedings to void or set aside the trust or the property transfer, including
             439      attorney fees;
             440          (b) the trust or property transfer that is voided or set aside is subject to the proper fees,
             441      costs, preexisting rights, claims, and interest of the trustee and any predecessor trustee if the
             442      trustee and predecessor trustee did not act in bad faith; and
             443          (c) any beneficiary, including the settlor, may retain a distribution made by exercising a
             444      trust power or discretion vested in the trustee of the trust, if the power or discretion was
             445      properly exercised before the commencement of the action or proceeding to void or set aside
             446      the trust or property transfer.
             447          (10) If at least one trustee is a trust company as defined in Subsection 7-5-1 (1)(d), then
             448      individuals may also serve as cotrustees.
             449          Section 9. Section 26-3-7 is amended to read:


             450           26-3-7. Disclosure of health data -- Limitations.
             451          The department may not disclose any identifiable health data unless:
             452          (1) one of the following persons has consented to the disclosure:
             453          (a) the individual;
             454          (b) the next-of-kin if the individual is deceased;
             455          (c) the parent or legal guardian if the individual is a minor or mentally incompetent; or
             456          (d) a person holding a power of attorney covering such matters on behalf of the
             457      individual;
             458          (2) the disclosure is to a governmental entity in this or another state or the federal
             459      government, provided that:
             460          (a) the data will be used for a purpose for which they were collected by the department;
             461      and
             462          (b) the recipient enters into a written agreement satisfactory to the department agreeing
             463      to protect such data in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and department rule
             464      and not permit further disclosure without prior approval of the department;
             465          (3) the disclosure is to an individual or organization, for a specified period, solely for
             466      bona fide research and statistical purposes, determined in accordance with department rules,
             467      and the department determines that the data are required for the research and statistical
             468      purposes proposed and the requesting individual or organization enters into a written
             469      agreement satisfactory to the department to protect the data in accordance with this chapter and
             470      department rule and not permit further disclosure without prior approval of the department;
             471          (4) the disclosure is to a governmental entity for the purpose of conducting an audit,
             472      evaluation, or investigation of the department and such governmental entity agrees not to use
             473      those data for making any determination affecting the rights, benefits, or entitlements of any
             474      individual to whom the health data relates;
             475          (5) the disclosure is of specific medical or epidemiological information to authorized
             476      personnel within the department, local health departments, public health authorities, official
             477      health agencies in other states, the United States Public Health Service, the Centers for Disease


             478      Control and Prevention (CDC), or agencies responsible to enforce quarantine, when necessary
             479      to continue patient services or to undertake public health efforts to control communicable,
             480      infectious, acute, chronic, or any other disease or health hazard that the department considers to
             481      be dangerous or important or that may affect the public health;
             482          (6) (a) the disclosure is of specific medical or epidemiological information to a "health
             483      care provider" as defined in Section 78B-3-403 , health care personnel, or public health
             484      personnel who has a legitimate need to have access to the information in order to assist the
             485      patient or to protect the health of others closely associated with the patient[. This]; and
             486          (b) this Subsection (6) does not create a duty to warn third parties;
             487          (7) the disclosure is necessary to obtain payment from an insurer or other third-party
             488      payor in order for the department to obtain payment or to coordinate benefits for a patient; or
             489          (8) the disclosure is to the subject of the identifiable health data.
             490          Section 10. Section 26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             491           26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13). Dental benefits.
             492          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8), the division shall establish a competitive
             493      bid process to bid out Medicaid dental benefits under this chapter.
             494          (b) The division may bid out the Medicaid dental benefits separately from other
             495      program benefits.
             496          (2) The division shall use the following criteria to evaluate dental bids:
             497          (a) ability to manage dental expenses;
             498          (b) proven ability to handle dental insurance;
             499          (c) efficiency of claim paying procedures;
             500          (d) provider contracting, discounts, and adequacy of network; and
             501          (e) other criteria established by the department.
             502          (3) The division shall request bids for the program's benefits:
             503          (a) in 2011; and
             504          (b) at least once every five years thereafter.
             505          (4) The division's contract with dental plans for the program's benefits shall include


             506      risk sharing provisions in which the dental plan must accept 100% of the risk for any difference
             507      between the division's premium payments per client and actual dental expenditures.
             508          (5) The division may not award contracts to:
             509          (a) more than three responsive bidders under this section; or
             510          (b) an insurer that does not have a current license in the state.
             511          (6) (a) The division may cancel the request for proposals if:
             512          (i) there are no responsive bidders; or
             513          (ii) the division determines that accepting the bids would increase the program's costs.
             514          (b) If the division cancels the request for proposals under Subsection (6)(a), the
             515      division shall report to the Health and Human Services Interim Committee regarding the
             516      reasons for the decision.
             517          (7) Title 63G, Chapter 6, Utah Procurement Code, shall apply to this section.
             518          (8) (a) The division may:
             519          (i) establish a dental health care delivery system and payment reform pilot program for
             520      Medicaid dental benefits to increase access to cost effective and quality dental health care by
             521      increasing the number of dentists available for Medicaid dental services; and
             522          (ii) target specific Medicaid populations or geographic areas in the state.
             523          (b) The pilot program shall establish compensation models for dentists and dental
             524      hygienists that:
             525          (i) increase access to quality, cost effective dental care; and
             526          (ii) use funds from the Division of Family Health and Preparedness that are available to
             527      reimburse dentists for educational loans in exchange for the dentist agreeing to serve Medicaid
             528      and under-served populations.
             529          (c) The division may amend the state plan and apply to the Secretary of Health and
             530      Human Services for waivers or pilot programs if necessary to establish the new dental care
             531      delivery and payment reform model. The division shall evaluate the pilot program's effect on
             532      the cost of dental care and access to dental care for the targeted Medicaid populations. The
             533      division shall report to the Legislature's Health and Human Services Interim Committee by


             534      November 30th of each year that the pilot project is in effect.
             535          Section 11. Section 26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             536           26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13). Dental benefits.
             537          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8), the division shall establish a competitive
             538      bid process to bid out Medicaid dental benefits under this chapter.
             539          (b) The division may bid out the Medicaid dental benefits separately from other
             540      program benefits.
             541          (2) The division shall use the following criteria to evaluate dental bids:
             542          (a) ability to manage dental expenses;
             543          (b) proven ability to handle dental insurance;
             544          (c) efficiency of claim paying procedures;
             545          (d) provider contracting, discounts, and adequacy of network; and
             546          (e) other criteria established by the department.
             547          (3) The division shall request bids for the program's benefits:
             548          (a) in 2011; and
             549          (b) at least once every five years thereafter.
             550          (4) The division's contract with dental plans for the program's benefits shall include
             551      risk sharing provisions in which the dental plan must accept 100% of the risk for any difference
             552      between the division's premium payments per client and actual dental expenditures.
             553          (5) The division may not award contracts to:
             554          (a) more than three responsive bidders under this section; or
             555          (b) an insurer that does not have a current license in the state.
             556          (6) (a) The division may cancel the request for proposals if:
             557          (i) there are no responsive bidders; or
             558          (ii) the division determines that accepting the bids would increase the program's costs.
             559          (b) If the division cancels the request for proposals under Subsection (6)(a), the
             560      division shall report to the Health and Human Services Interim Committee regarding the
             561      reasons for the decision.


             562          (7) Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code, shall apply to this section.
             563          (8) (a) The division may:
             564          (i) establish a dental health care delivery system and payment reform pilot program for
             565      Medicaid dental benefits to increase access to cost effective and quality dental health care by
             566      increasing the number of dentists available for Medicaid dental services; and
             567          (ii) target specific Medicaid populations or geographic areas in the state.
             568          (b) The pilot program shall establish compensation models for dentists and dental
             569      hygienists that:
             570          (i) increase access to quality, cost effective dental care; and
             571          (ii) use funds from the Division of Family Health and Preparedness that are available to
             572      reimburse dentists for educational loans in exchange for the dentist agreeing to serve Medicaid
             573      and under-served populations.
             574          (c) The division may amend the state plan and apply to the Secretary of Health and
             575      Human Services for waivers or pilot programs if necessary to establish the new dental care
             576      delivery and payment reform model. The division shall evaluate the pilot program's effect on
             577      the cost of dental care and access to dental care for the targeted Medicaid populations. The
             578      division shall report to the Legislature's Health and Human Services Interim Committee by
             579      November 30th of each year that the pilot project is in effect.
             580          Section 12. Section 26-18-402 is amended to read:
             581           26-18-402. Medicaid Restricted Account.
             582          (1) There is created a restricted account in the General Fund known as the Medicaid
             583      Restricted Account.
             584          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3), the following shall be deposited into the
             585      Medicaid Restricted Account:
             586          (i) any general funds appropriated to the department for the state plan for medical
             587      assistance or for the Division of Health Care Financing that are not expended by the
             588      department in the fiscal year for which the general funds were appropriated and which are not
             589      otherwise designated as nonlapsing shall lapse into the Medicaid Restricted Account;


             590          (ii) any unused state funds that are associated with the Medicaid program, as defined in
             591      Section 26-18-2 , from the Department of Workforce Services and the Department of Human
             592      Services; and
             593          (iii) any penalties imposed and collected under:
             594          (A) Section 17B-2a-818.5 ;
             595          (B) Section 19-1-206 ;
             596          [(D)] (C) Section 63A-5-205 ;
             597          [(E)] (D) Section 63C-9-403 ; [or]
             598          [(F)] (E) Section 72-6-107.5 [.]; or
             599          [(C)] (F) Section 79-2-404 [;].
             600          (b) The account shall earn interest and all interest earned shall be deposited into the
             601      account.
             602          (c) The Legislature may appropriate money in the restricted account to fund programs
             603      that expand medical assistance coverage and private health insurance plans to low income
             604      persons who have not traditionally been served by Medicaid, including the Utah Children's
             605      Health Insurance Program created in Chapter 40.
             606          (3) For fiscal years 2008-09, 2009-10, 2010-11, 2011-12, and 2012-13 the following
             607      funds are nonlapsing:
             608          (a) any general funds appropriated to the department for the state plan for medical
             609      assistance, or for the Division of Health Care Financing that are not expended by the
             610      department in the fiscal year in which the general funds were appropriated; and
             611          (b) funds described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii).
             612          Section 13. Section 26-36a-206 is amended to read:
             613           26-36a-206. Penalties and interest.
             614          (1) A facility that fails to pay any assessment or file a return as required under this
             615      chapter, within the time required by this chapter, shall pay, in addition to the assessment,
             616      penalties and interest established by the department.
             617          (2) (a) Consistent with Subsection (2)(b), the department shall adopt rules in


             618      accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, which establish
             619      reasonable penalties and interest for the violations described in Subsection (1).
             620          (b) If a hospital fails to timely pay the full amount of a quarterly assessment, the
             621      department shall add to the assessment:
             622          (i) a penalty equal to 5% of the quarterly amount not paid on or before the due date;
             623      and
             624          (ii) on the last day of each quarter after the due date until the assessed amount and the
             625      penalty imposed under Subsection (2)(b)(i) are paid in full, an additional 5% penalty on:
             626          (A) any unpaid quarterly assessment; and
             627          (B) any unpaid penalty assessment.
             628          (c) The division may waive, reduce, or compromise the penalties and interest provided
             629      for in this section in the same manner as provided in Subsection 59-1-401 [(8)](13).
             630          Section 14. Section 34A-5-106 is amended to read:
             631           34A-5-106. Discriminatory or prohibited employment practices -- Permitted
             632      practices.
             633          (1) It is a discriminatory or prohibited employment practice to take any action
             634      described in Subsections (1)(a) through (f).
             635          (a) (i) An employer may not refuse to hire, promote, discharge, demote, or terminate
             636      any person, or to retaliate against, harass, or discriminate in matters of compensation or in
             637      terms, privileges, and conditions of employment against any person otherwise qualified,
             638      because of:
             639          (A) race;
             640          (B) color;
             641          (C) sex;
             642          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             643          (E) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older;
             644          (F) religion;
             645          (G) national origin; or


             646          (H) disability.
             647          (ii) A person may not be considered "otherwise qualified," unless that person possesses
             648      the following required by an employer for any particular job, job classification, or position:
             649          (A) education;
             650          (B) training;
             651          (C) ability, with or without reasonable accommodation;
             652          (D) moral character;
             653          (E) integrity;
             654          (F) disposition to work;
             655          (G) adherence to reasonable rules and regulations; and
             656          (H) other job related qualifications required by an employer.
             657          (iii) (A) As used in this chapter, "to discriminate in matters of compensation" means
             658      the payment of differing wages or salaries to employees having substantially equal experience,
             659      responsibilities, and skill for the particular job.
             660          (B) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(A):
             661          (I) nothing in this chapter prevents increases in pay as a result of longevity with the
             662      employer, if the salary increases are uniformly applied and available to all employees on a
             663      substantially proportional basis; and
             664          (II) nothing in this section prohibits an employer and employee from agreeing to a rate
             665      of pay or work schedule designed to protect the employee from loss of Social Security payment
             666      or benefits if the employee is eligible for those payments.
             667          (b) An employment agency may not:
             668          (i) refuse to list and properly classify for employment, or refuse to refer an individual
             669      for employment, in a known available job for which the individual is otherwise qualified,
             670      because of:
             671          (A) race;
             672          (B) color;
             673          (C) sex;


             674          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             675          (E) religion;
             676          (F) national origin;
             677          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             678          (H) disability; or
             679          (ii) comply with a request from an employer for referral of applicants for employment
             680      if the request indicates either directly or indirectly that the employer discriminates in
             681      employment on account of:
             682          (A) race;
             683          (B) color;
             684          (C) sex;
             685          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             686          (E) religion;
             687          (F) national origin;
             688          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             689          (H) disability.
             690          (c) A labor organization may not exclude any individual otherwise qualified from full
             691      membership rights in the labor organization, expel the individual from membership in the labor
             692      organization, or otherwise discriminate against or harass any of the labor organization's
             693      members in full employment of work opportunity, or representation, because of:
             694          (i) race;
             695          (ii) sex;
             696          (iii) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             697          (iv) religion;
             698          (v) national origin;
             699          (vi) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             700          (vii) disability.
             701          (d) Unless based upon a bona fide occupational qualification, or required by and given


             702      to an agency of government for security reasons, an employer, employment agency, or labor
             703      organization may not print, or circulate, or cause to be printed or circulated, any statement,
             704      advertisement, or publication, use any form of application for employment or membership, or
             705      make any inquiry in connection with prospective employment or membership that expresses,
             706      either directly or indirectly:
             707          (i) any limitation, specification, or discrimination as to:
             708          (A) race;
             709          (B) color;
             710          (C) religion;
             711          (D) sex;
             712          (E) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             713          (F) national origin;
             714          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             715          (H) disability; or
             716          (ii) the intent to make any limitation, specification, or discrimination described in
             717      Subsection (1)(d)(i).
             718          (e) A person, whether or not an employer, an employment agency, a labor organization,
             719      or the employees or members of an employer, employment agency, or labor organization, may
             720      not:
             721          (i) aid, incite, compel, or coerce the doing of an act defined in this section to be a
             722      discriminatory or prohibited employment practice;
             723          (ii) obstruct or prevent any person from complying with this chapter, or any order
             724      issued under this chapter; or
             725          (iii) attempt, either directly or indirectly, to commit any act prohibited in this section.
             726          (f) (i) An employer, labor organization, joint apprenticeship committee, or vocational
             727      school, providing, coordinating, or controlling apprenticeship programs, or providing,
             728      coordinating, or controlling on-the-job-training programs, instruction, training, or retraining
             729      programs may not:


             730          (A) deny to, or withhold from, any qualified person, the right to be admitted to, or
             731      participate in any apprenticeship training program, on-the-job-training program, or other
             732      occupational instruction, training or retraining program because of:
             733          (I) race;
             734          (II) color;
             735          (III) sex;
             736          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             737          (V) religion;
             738          (VI) national origin;
             739          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             740          (VIII) disability;
             741          (B) discriminate against or harass any qualified person in that person's pursuit of
             742      programs described in Subsection (1)(f)(i)(A), or to discriminate against such a person in the
             743      terms, conditions, or privileges of programs described in Subsection (1)(f)(i)(A), because of:
             744          (I) race;
             745          (II) color;
             746          (III) sex;
             747          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             748          (V) religion;
             749          (VI) national origin;
             750          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             751          (VIII) disability; or
             752          (C) except as provided in Subsection (1)(f)(ii), print, publish, or cause to be printed or
             753      published, any notice or advertisement relating to employment by the employer, or membership
             754      in or any classification or referral for employment by a labor organization, or relating to any
             755      classification or referral for employment by an employment agency, indicating any preference,
             756      limitation, specification, or discrimination based on:
             757          (I) race;


             758          (II) color;
             759          (III) sex;
             760          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             761          (V) religion;
             762          (VI) national origin;
             763          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             764          (VIII) disability.
             765          (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(f)(i)(C), if the following is a bona fide
             766      occupational qualification for employment, a notice or advertisement described in Subsection
             767      (1)(f)(i)(C) may indicate a preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on:
             768          (A) race;
             769          (B) color;
             770          (C) religion;
             771          (D) sex;
             772          (E) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             773          (F) age;
             774          (G) national origin; or
             775          (H) disability.
             776          (2) Nothing contained in Subsections (1)(a) through (1)(f) shall be construed to
             777      prevent:
             778          (a) the termination of employment of an individual who, with or without reasonable
             779      accommodation, is physically, mentally, or emotionally unable to perform the duties required
             780      by that individual's employment;
             781          (b) the variance of insurance premiums or coverage on account of age; or
             782          (c) a restriction on the activities of individuals licensed by the liquor authority with
             783      respect to persons under 21 years of age.
             784          (3) (a) It is not a discriminatory or prohibited employment practice:
             785          (i) for an employer to hire and employ employees, for an employment agency to


             786      classify or refer for employment any individual, for a labor organization to classify its
             787      membership or to classify or refer for employment any individual or for an employer, labor
             788      organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship or other training
             789      or retraining programs to admit or employ any individual in any such program, on the basis of
             790      religion, sex, pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions, age, national origin, or
             791      disability in those certain instances where religion, sex, pregnancy, childbirth, or
             792      pregnancy-related conditions, age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older, national origin,
             793      or disability is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal
             794      operation of that particular business or enterprise;
             795          (ii) for a school, college, university, or other educational institution to hire and employ
             796      employees of a particular religion if:
             797          (A) the school, college, university, or other educational institution is, in whole or in
             798      substantial part, owned, supported, controlled, or managed by a particular religious corporation,
             799      association, or society; or
             800          (B) the curriculum of the school, college, university, or other educational institution is
             801      directed toward the propagation of a particular religion;
             802          (iii) for an employer to give preference in employment to:
             803          (A) the employer's:
             804          (I) spouse;
             805          (II) child; or
             806          (III) son-in-law or daughter-in-law;
             807          (B) any person for whom the employer is or would be liable to furnish financial
             808      support if those persons were unemployed;
             809          (C) any person to whom the employer during the preceding six months has furnished
             810      more than one-half of total financial support regardless of whether or not the employer was or
             811      is legally obligated to furnish support; or
             812          (D) any person whose education or training was substantially financed by the employer
             813      for a period of two years or more.


             814          (b) Nothing in this chapter applies to any business or enterprise on or near an Indian
             815      reservation with respect to any publicly announced employment practice of the business or
             816      enterprise under which preferential treatment is given to any individual because that individual
             817      is a native American Indian living on or near an Indian reservation.
             818          (c) Nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted to require any employer, employment
             819      agency, labor organization, vocational school, joint labor-management committee, or
             820      apprenticeship program subject to this chapter to grant preferential treatment to any individual
             821      or to any group because of the race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or disability of the
             822      individual or group on account of an imbalance which may exist with respect to the total
             823      number or percentage of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or
             824      disability employed by any employer, referred or classified for employment by an employment
             825      agency or labor organization, admitted to membership or classified by any labor organization,
             826      or admitted to or employed in, any apprenticeship or other training program, in comparison
             827      with the total number or percentage of persons of that race, color, religion, sex, age, national
             828      origin, or disability in any community or county or in the available work force in any
             829      community or county.
             830          (4) It is not a discriminatory or prohibited practice with respect to age to observe the
             831      terms of a bona fide seniority system or any bona fide employment benefit plan such as a
             832      retirement, pension, or insurance plan that is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this
             833      chapter, except that no such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire an individual.
             834          (5) Notwithstanding Subsection (4), or any other statutory provision to the contrary, a
             835      person may not be subject to involuntary termination or retirement from employment on the
             836      basis of age alone, if the individual is 40 years of age or older, except:
             837          (a) under Subsection (6); and
             838          (b) when age is a bona fide occupational qualification.
             839          (6) Nothing in this section prohibits compulsory retirement of an employee who has
             840      attained at least 65 years of age, and who, for the two-year period immediately before
             841      retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, if:


             842          (a) that employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit
             843      from the employee's employer's pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation
             844      plan, or any combination of those plans; and
             845          (b) the benefit described in Subsection (6)(a) equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000.
             846          Section 15. Section 35A-8-414 is amended to read:
             847           35A-8-414. Property and funds of authority declared public property --
             848      Exemption from taxes -- Alternative agreement with public body.
             849          (1) The property and funds of an authority are declared to be public property used for
             850      essential public, governmental, and charitable purposes.
             851          (2) (a) Subject to Subsections (2)(b) and (c), the property and authority are exempt
             852      from all taxes and special assessments of a public body.
             853          (b) This tax exemption does not apply to any portion of a project used for a
             854      profit-making enterprise.
             855          (c) In taxing these portions appropriate allowance shall be made for any expenditure by
             856      an authority for utilities or other public services it provides to serve the property.
             857          (3) In lieu of taxes on its exempt property an authority may agree to make payments to
             858      a public body if the authority finds that making the payments is consistent with the
             859      maintenance of the low-rent character of housing projects and the achievement of the purposes
             860      of this part.
             861          Section 16. Section 38-1a-201 is amended to read:
             862           38-1a-201. Establishment of State Construction Registry -- Filing index.
             863          (1) Subject to receiving adequate funding through a legislative appropriation and
             864      contracting with an approved third party vendor as provided in Section 38-1a-202 , the division
             865      shall establish and maintain the State Construction Registry to:
             866          (a) (i) assist in protecting public health, safety, and welfare; and
             867          (ii) promote a fair working environment;
             868          (b) be overseen by the division with the assistance of the designated agent;
             869          (c) provide a central repository for all required notices;


             870          (d) make accessible, by way of an Internet website:
             871          (i) the filing and review of required notices; and
             872          (ii) the transmitting of building permit information under Subsection 38-1a-205 (1) and
             873      the reviewing of that information;
             874          (e) accommodate:
             875          (i) electronic filing of required notices and electronic transmitting of building permit
             876      information described in Subsection (1)(d)(ii); and
             877          (ii) the filing of required notices by alternate means, including United States mail,
             878      telefax, or any other method as the division provides by rule;
             879          (f) (i) provide electronic notification for up to three email addresses for each interested
             880      person who requests to receive notification under Section 38-1a-204 from the designated agent;
             881      and
             882          (ii) provide alternate means of providing notification to a person who makes a filing by
             883      alternate means, including United States mail, telefax, or any other method as the division
             884      prescribes by rule; and
             885          (g) provide hard-copy printing of electronic receipts for an individual filing evidencing
             886      the date and time of the individual filing and the content of the individual filing.
             887          (2) The designated agent shall index filings in the registry by:
             888          (a) the name of the owner;
             889          (b) the name of the original contractor;
             890          (c) subdivision, development, or other project name, if any;
             891          (d) lot or parcel number;
             892          (e) the address of the project property;
             893          (f) entry number;
             894          (g) the name of the county in which the project property is located;
             895          (h) for [construction] private projects [that are not government projects]:
             896          (i) the tax parcel identification number of each parcel included in the project property;
             897      and


             898          (ii) the building permit number;
             899          (i) for government projects, the government project-identifying information; and
             900          (j) any other identifier that the division considers reasonably appropriate in
             901      collaboration with the designated agent.
             902          Section 17. Section 51-7-15 is amended to read:
             903           51-7-15. Bonds of state treasurer and other public treasurers -- Reports to
             904      council.
             905          (1) (a) The state treasurer, county, city, and town treasurers, the clerk or treasurer of
             906      each school district, and any other public treasurers that the council designates by rule shall be
             907      bonded in an amount of not less than that established by the council.
             908          (b) The council shall base the minimum bond amount on the amount of public funds
             909      normally in the treasurer's possession or control.
             910          (2) (a) When a public treasurer deposits or invests public funds as authorized by this
             911      chapter, he and his bondsmen are not liable for any loss of public funds invested or deposited
             912      unless the loss is caused by the malfeasance of the treasurer or of any member of his staff.
             913          (b) A public treasurer and his bondsmen are liable for any loss for any reason from
             914      deposits or investments not made in conformity with this chapter and the rules of the council.
             915          (3) (a) Each public treasurer shall file a written report with the council on or before
             916      January 31 and July 31 of each year.
             917          (b) The report shall contain:
             918          (i) the information about the deposits and investments of that treasurer during the
             919      preceding six months ending December 31 and June 30, respectively, that the council requires
             920      by rule; and
             921          (ii) information detailing the nature and extent of interest rate contracts permitted by
             922      Subsection 51-7-17 [(2)](3).
             923          (c) The public treasurer shall make copies of the report available to the public at his
             924      offices during normal business hours.
             925          Section 18. Section 51-7-18.2 is amended to read:


             926           51-7-18.2. Public treasurer's reports -- Contents.
             927          (1) The council may:
             928          (a) require any public treasurer to prepare and file with it a written report in a form
             929      prescribed by the council containing the information required by this section; and
             930          (b) specify that the report will contain the information required by this section for any
             931      date.
             932          (2) The council shall require the report to include information:
             933          (a) specifying the amount of public funds in the public treasurer's possession or
             934      control;
             935          (b) detailing the nature and extent of the deposit and investment of those funds;
             936          (c) detailing the rate of return on each deposit or investment; and
             937          (d) detailing the nature and extent of interest rate contracts authorized by Subsection
             938      51-7-17 [(2)](3).
             939          (3) The public treasurer shall file the report with the council within 10 days after he
             940      receives the council's request.
             941          (4) Each public treasurer shall make copies of any reports required by this section
             942      available for inspection by the public at his office during normal business hours.
             943          Section 19. Section 53-3-207 is amended to read:
             944           53-3-207. License certificates or driving privilege cards issued to drivers by class
             945      of motor vehicle -- Contents -- Release of anatomical gift information -- Temporary
             946      licenses or driving privilege cards -- Minors' licenses, cards, and permits -- Violation.
             947          (1) As used in this section:
             948          (a) "driving privilege" means the privilege granted under this chapter to drive a motor
             949      vehicle;
             950          (b) "governmental entity" means the state and its political subdivisions as defined in
             951      this Subsection (1);
             952          (c) "political subdivision" means any county, city, town, school district, public transit
             953      district, community development and renewal agency, special improvement or taxing district,


             954      local district, special service district, an entity created by an interlocal agreement adopted under
             955      Title 11, Chapter 13, Interlocal Cooperation Act, or other governmental subdivision or public
             956      corporation; and
             957          (d) "state" means this state, and includes any office, department, agency, authority,
             958      commission, board, institution, hospital, college, university, children's justice center, or other
             959      instrumentality of the state.
             960          (2) (a) The division shall issue to every person privileged to drive a motor vehicle, a
             961      regular license certificate, a limited-term license certificate, or a driving privilege card
             962      indicating the type or class of motor vehicle the person may drive.
             963          (b) A person may not drive a class of motor vehicle unless granted the privilege in that
             964      class.
             965          (3) (a) Every regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving
             966      privilege card shall bear:
             967          (i) the distinguishing number assigned to the person by the division;
             968          (ii) the name, birth date, and Utah residence address of the person;
             969          (iii) a brief description of the person for the purpose of identification;
             970          (iv) any restrictions imposed on the license under Section 53-3-208 ;
             971          (v) a photograph of the person;
             972          (vi) a photograph or other facsimile of the person's signature;
             973          (vii) an indication whether the person intends to make an anatomical gift under Title
             974      26, Chapter 28, Revised Uniform Anatomical Gift Act, unless the driving privilege is extended
             975      under Subsection 53-3-214 (3); and
             976          (viii) except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), if the person states that the person is a
             977      veteran of the United States military on the application for a driver license in accordance with
             978      Section 53-3-205 and provides verification that the person was honorably discharged from the
             979      United States military, an indication that the person is a United States military veteran for a
             980      regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate issued on or after July 1, 2011.
             981          (b) A regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate issued to any person


             982      younger than 21 years on a portrait-style format as required in Subsection (5)(b)(i) is not
             983      required to include an indication that the person is a United States military veteran under
             984      Subsection (3)(a)(viii).
             985          (c) A new license certificate issued by the division may not bear the person's Social
             986      Security number.
             987          (d) (i) The regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving
             988      privilege card shall be of an impervious material, resistant to wear, damage, and alteration.
             989          (ii) Except as provided under Subsection (4)(b), the size, form, and color of the regular
             990      license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card shall be as
             991      prescribed by the commissioner.
             992          (iii) The commissioner may also prescribe the issuance of a special type of limited
             993      regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card under
             994      Subsection 53-3-220 (4).
             995          (4) (a) (i) The division, upon determining after an examination that an applicant is
             996      mentally and physically qualified to be granted a driving privilege, may issue to an applicant a
             997      receipt for the fee if the applicant is eligible for a regular license certificate or limited-term
             998      license certificate.
             999          (ii) (A) The division shall issue a temporary regular license certificate or temporary
             1000      limited-term license certificate allowing the person to drive a motor vehicle while the division
             1001      is completing its investigation to determine whether the person is entitled to be granted a
             1002      driving privilege.
             1003          (B) A temporary regular license certificate or a temporary limited-term license
             1004      certificate issued under this Subsection (4) shall be recognized and have the same rights and
             1005      privileges as a regular license certificate or a limited-term license certificate.
             1006          (b) The temporary regular license certificate or temporary limited-term license
             1007      certificate shall be in the person's immediate possession while driving a motor vehicle, and it is
             1008      invalid when the person's regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate has been
             1009      issued or when, for good cause, the privilege has been refused.


             1010          (c) The division shall indicate on the temporary regular license certificate or temporary
             1011      limited-term license certificate a date after which it is not valid as a temporary license.
             1012          (d) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (4)(d)(ii), the division may not issue a
             1013      temporary driving privilege card or other temporary permit to an applicant for a driving
             1014      privilege card.
             1015          (ii) The division may issue a learner permit issued in accordance with Section
             1016      53-3-210.5 to an applicant for a driving privilege card.
             1017          (5) (a) The division shall distinguish learner permits, temporary permits, regular
             1018      license certificates, limited-term license certificates, and driving privilege cards issued to any
             1019      person younger than 21 years of age by use of plainly printed information or the use of a color
             1020      or other means not used for other regular license certificates, limited-term license certificates,
             1021      or driving privilege cards.
             1022          (b) The division shall distinguish a regular license certificate, limited-term license
             1023      certificate, or driving privilege card issued to any person:
             1024          (i) younger than 21 years of age by use of a portrait-style format not used for other
             1025      regular license certificates, limited-term license certificates, or driving privilege cards and by
             1026      plainly printing the date the regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or
             1027      driving privilege card holder is 21 years of age, which is the legal age for purchasing an
             1028      alcoholic beverage or alcoholic product under Section [ 32B-14-403 ] 32B-4-403 ; and
             1029          (ii) younger than 19 years of age, by plainly printing the date the regular license
             1030      certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card holder is 19 years of age,
             1031      which is the legal age for purchasing tobacco products under Section 76-10-104 .
             1032          (6) The division shall distinguish a limited-term license certificate by clearly indicating
             1033      on the document:
             1034          (a) that it is temporary; and
             1035          (b) its expiration date.
             1036          (7) (a) The division shall only issue a driving privilege card to a person whose privilege
             1037      was obtained without providing evidence of lawful presence in the United States as required


             1038      under Subsection 53-3-205 (8).
             1039          (b) The division shall distinguish a driving privilege card from a license certificate by:
             1040          (i) use of a format, color, font, or other means; and
             1041          (ii) clearly displaying on the front of the driving privilege card a phrase substantially
             1042      similar to "FOR DRIVING PRIVILEGES ONLY -- NOT VALID FOR IDENTIFICATION".
             1043          (8) The provisions of Subsection (5)(b) do not apply to a learner permit, temporary
             1044      permit, temporary regular license certificate, temporary limited-term license certificate, or any
             1045      other temporary permit.
             1046          (9) The division shall issue temporary license certificates of the same nature, except as
             1047      to duration, as the license certificates that they temporarily replace, as are necessary to
             1048      implement applicable provisions of this section and Section 53-3-223 .
             1049          (10) (a) A governmental entity may not accept a driving privilege card as proof of
             1050      personal identification.
             1051          (b) A driving privilege card may not be used as a document providing proof of a
             1052      person's age for any government required purpose.
             1053          (11) A person who violates Subsection (2)(b) is guilty of a class C misdemeanor.
             1054          (12) Unless otherwise provided, the provisions, requirements, classes, endorsements,
             1055      fees, restrictions, and sanctions under this code apply to a:
             1056          (a) driving privilege in the same way as a license or limited-term license issued under
             1057      this chapter; and
             1058          (b) limited-term license certificate or driving privilege card in the same way as a
             1059      regular license certificate issued under this chapter.
             1060          Section 20. Section 53-5a-102 is amended to read:
             1061           53-5a-102. Uniform firearm laws.
             1062          (1) The individual right to keep and bear arms being a constitutionally protected right
             1063      under Article I, Section 6 of the Utah Constitution, the Legislature finds the need to provide
             1064      uniform civil and criminal firearm laws throughout the state.
             1065          (2) Except as specifically provided by state law, a local authority or state entity may


             1066      not:
             1067          (a) prohibit an individual from owning, possessing, purchasing, selling, transferring,
             1068      transporting, or keeping a firearm at the individual's place of residence, property, business, or
             1069      in any vehicle lawfully in the individual's possession or lawfully under the individual's control;
             1070      or
             1071          (b) require an individual to have a permit or license to purchase, own, possess,
             1072      transport, or keep a firearm.
             1073          (3) In conjunction with Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, this section is uniformly
             1074      applicable throughout this state and in all its political subdivisions and municipalities.
             1075          (4) All authority to regulate firearms is reserved to the state except where the
             1076      Legislature specifically delegates responsibility to local authorities or state entities.
             1077          (5) Unless specifically authorized by the Legislature by statute, a local authority or
             1078      state entity may not enact, establish, or enforce any ordinance, regulation, rule, or policy
             1079      pertaining to firearms that in any way inhibits or restricts the possession or use of firearms on
             1080      either public or private property.
             1081          (6) As used in this section:
             1082          (a) "firearm" has the same meaning as defined in [Subsection] Section 76-10-501 [(9)];
             1083      and
             1084          (b) "local authority or state entity" includes public school districts, public schools, and
             1085      state institutions of higher education.
             1086          (7) Nothing in this section restricts or expands private property rights.
             1087          Section 21. Section 53A-1a-506 is amended to read:
             1088           53A-1a-506. Eligible students.
             1089          (1) As used in this section:
             1090          (a) "District school" means a public school under the control of a local school board
             1091      elected pursuant to Title 20A, Chapter 14, Nomination and Election of State and Local School
             1092      Boards.
             1093          (b) "Refugee" means a person who is eligible to receive benefits and services from the


             1094      federal Office of Refugee Resettlement.
             1095          (2) All resident students of the state qualify for admission to a charter school, subject
             1096      to the limitations set forth in this section and Section 53A-1a-506.5 .
             1097          (3) (a) A charter school shall enroll an eligible student who submits a timely
             1098      application, unless the number of applications exceeds the capacity of a program, class, grade
             1099      level, or the charter school.
             1100          (b) If the number of applications exceeds the capacity of a program, class, grade level,
             1101      or the charter school, students shall be selected on a random basis, except as provided in
             1102      Subsections (4) through (6).
             1103          (4) A charter school may give an enrollment preference to:
             1104          (a) a student of a parent who has actively participated in the development of the charter
             1105      school;
             1106          (b) siblings of students presently enrolled in the charter school;
             1107          (c) a student of a parent who is employed by the charter school;
             1108          (d) students [matriculating] articulating between charter schools offering similar
             1109      programs that are governed by the same governing body;
             1110          (e) students [matriculating] articulating from one charter school to another pursuant to
             1111      [a matriculation] an articulation agreement between the charter schools that is approved by the
             1112      State Charter School Board; or
             1113          (f) students who reside within:
             1114          (i) the school district in which the charter school is located;
             1115          (ii) the municipality in which the charter school is located; or
             1116          (iii) a two-mile radius from the charter school.
             1117          (5) If a district school converts to charter status, the charter school shall give an
             1118      enrollment preference to students who would have otherwise attended it as a district school.
             1119          (6) (a) A charter school whose mission is to enhance learning opportunities for
             1120      refugees or children of refugee families may give an enrollment preference to refugees or
             1121      children of refugee families.


             1122          (b) A charter school whose mission is to enhance learning opportunities for English
             1123      language learners may give an enrollment preference to English language learners.
             1124          (7) A charter school may not discriminate in its admission policies or practices on the
             1125      same basis as other public schools may not discriminate in their admission policies and
             1126      practices.
             1127          Section 22. Section 53A-3-425 is amended to read:
             1128           53A-3-425. Association leave -- District policy.
             1129          (1) As used in this section:
             1130          (a) "Association leave" means leave from a school district employee's regular school
             1131      responsibilities granted for that employee to spend time for association, employee association,
             1132      or union duties.
             1133          (b) "Employee association" means an association that:
             1134          (i) negotiates employee salaries, benefits, contracts, or other conditions of employment;
             1135      or
             1136          (ii) performs union duties.
             1137          (2) Except as provided in Subsection (3), a local school board may not allow paid
             1138      association leave for a school district employee to perform an employee association or union
             1139      duty.
             1140          (3) (a) A local school board may allow paid association leave for a school district
             1141      employee to perform an employee association duty if:
             1142          (i) the duty performed by the employee on paid association leave will directly benefit
             1143      the school district, including representing the school district's licensed educators:
             1144          (A) on a board or committee, such as the school district's foundation, a curriculum
             1145      development board, insurance committee, or catastrophic leave committee;
             1146          (B) at a school district leadership meeting; or
             1147          (C) at a workshop or meeting conducted by the school district's local school board;
             1148          (ii) the duty performed by the employee on paid association leave does not include
             1149      political activity, including:


             1150          (A) advocating for or against a candidate for public office in a partisan or nonpartisan
             1151      election;
             1152          (B) soliciting a contribution for a political action committee, a political issues
             1153      committee, a registered political party, or a candidate, as defined in Section 20A-11-101 ; or
             1154          (C) initiating, drafting, soliciting signatures for, or advocating for or against a ballot
             1155      proposition, as defined in Section 20A-1-102 ; and
             1156          (iii) the local school board ensures compliance with the requirements of Subsections
             1157      (4)(a) through (g).
             1158          (b) Prior to a school district employee's participation in paid or unpaid association
             1159      leave, a local school board shall adopt a written policy that governs association leave.
             1160          (c) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(d), a local school board policy that governs
             1161      association leave shall require reimbursement to the school district of the costs for an
             1162      employee, including benefits, for the time that the employee is:
             1163          (i) on unpaid association leave; or
             1164          (ii) participating in a paid association leave activity that does not provide a direct
             1165      benefit to the school district.
             1166          (d) For a school district that allowed association leave described in Subsections
             1167      (3)(c)(i) and (ii) prior to January 1, 2011, the local school board policy that governs association
             1168      leave may allow up to 10 days of association leave before requiring a reimbursement described
             1169      in Subsection (3)(c).
             1170          (e) A reimbursement required under Subsection (3)(c), (d), or (4)(g) may be provided
             1171      by an employee, association, or union.
             1172          (4) If a local school board adopts a policy to allow paid association leave, the policy
             1173      shall include procedures and controls to:
             1174          (a) ensure that the duties performed by employees on paid association leave directly
             1175      benefit the school district;
             1176          (b) require the school district to document the use and approval of paid association
             1177      leave;


             1178          (c) require school district supervision of employees on paid association leave;
             1179          (d) require the school district to account for the costs and expenses of paid association
             1180      leave;
             1181          (e) ensure that during the hours of paid association leave a school district employee
             1182      may not engage in political activity, including:
             1183          (i) advocating for or against a candidate for public office in a partisan or nonpartisan
             1184      election;
             1185          (ii) soliciting a contribution for a political action committee, a political issues
             1186      committee, a registered political party, or a candidate, as defined in Section 20A-11-101 ; and
             1187          (iii) initiating, drafting, soliciting signatures for, or advocating for or against a ballot
             1188      proposition, as defined in Section 20A-1-102 ;
             1189          (f) ensure that association leave is only paid out of school district funds when the paid
             1190      association leave directly benefits the district; and
             1191          (g) require the reimbursement to the school district of the cost of paid association leave
             1192      activities that do not provide a direct benefit to education within the school district.
             1193          (5) If a local school board adopts a policy to allow paid association leave, that policy
             1194      shall indicate that a willful violation of this section or of a policy adopted in accordance with
             1195      Subsection (3) or (4) may be used for disciplinary action under Section 53A-8a-502 .
             1196          Section 23. Section 53A-25b-201 is amended to read:
             1197           53A-25b-201. Authority of the State Board of Education -- Rulemaking --
             1198      Superintendent -- Advisory Council.
             1199          (1) The State Board of Education is the governing board of the Utah Schools for the
             1200      Deaf and the Blind.
             1201          (2) (a) The board shall appoint a superintendent for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and
             1202      the Blind.
             1203          (b) The board shall make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             1204      Administrative Rulemaking Act, regarding the qualifications, terms of employment, and duties
             1205      of the superintendent for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.


             1206          (3) The superintendent shall:
             1207          (a) subject to the approval of the board, appoint an associate superintendent to
             1208      administer the Utah School for the Deaf based on:
             1209          (i) demonstrated competency as an expert educator of deaf persons; and
             1210          (ii) knowledge of school management and the instruction of deaf persons;
             1211          (b) subject to the approval of the board, appoint an associate superintendent to
             1212      administer the Utah School for the Blind based on:
             1213          (i) demonstrated competency as an expert educator of blind persons; and
             1214          (ii) knowledge of school management and the instruction of blind persons, including an
             1215      understanding of the unique needs and education of deafblind persons.
             1216          (4) (a) The board shall:
             1217          (i) establish [the] an Advisory Council for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind
             1218      and appoint no more than 11 members to the advisory council;
             1219          (ii) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             1220      Rulemaking Act, regarding the operation of the advisory council; and
             1221          (iii) receive and consider the advice and recommendations of the advisory council but
             1222      is not obligated to follow the recommendations of the advisory council.
             1223          (b) The advisory council described in Subsection (4)(a) shall include at least:
             1224          (i) two members who are blind;
             1225          (ii) two members who are deaf; and
             1226          (iii) two members who are deafblind or parents of a deafblind child.
             1227          (5) The board shall approve the annual budget and expenditures of the Utah Schools
             1228      for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1229          (6) (a) On or before the November interim meeting each year, the board shall report to
             1230      the Education Interim Committee on the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1231          (b) The report shall be presented verbally and in written form to the Education Interim
             1232      Committee and shall include:
             1233          (i) a financial report;


             1234          (ii) a report on the activities of the superintendent and associate superintendents;
             1235          (iii) a report on activities to involve parents and constituency and advocacy groups in
             1236      the governance of the school; and
             1237          (iv) a report on student achievement including:
             1238          (A) student academic achievement data, including longitudinal data for both current
             1239      and previous students served by the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind;
             1240          (B) graduation rates; and
             1241          (C) students exiting the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind and their educational
             1242      placement after exiting the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1243          Section 24. Section 54-17-801 is amended to read:
             1244           54-17-801. Definitions.
             1245          As used in this part:
             1246          (1) "Contract customer" means a person who executes or will execute a renewable
             1247      energy contract with a qualified utility.
             1248          (2) "Qualified utility" means an electric corporation that serves more than 200,000
             1249      retail customers in the state.
             1250          (3) "Renewable energy contract" means a contract under this [section] part for the
             1251      delivery of electricity from one or more renewable energy facilities to a contract customer
             1252      requiring the use of a qualified utility's transmission or distribution system to deliver the
             1253      electricity from a renewable energy facility to the contract customer.
             1254          (4) "Renewable energy facility":
             1255          (a) except as provided in Subsection (4)(b), has the same meaning as renewable energy
             1256      source defined in Section 54-17-601 ; and
             1257          (b) does not include an electric generating facility whose costs have been included in a
             1258      qualified utility's rates as a facility providing electric service to the qualified utility's system.
             1259          Section 25. Section 57-1-24.3 is amended to read:
             1260           57-1-24.3. Notices to default trustor -- Opportunity to negotiate foreclosure relief.
             1261          (1) As used in this section:


             1262          (a) "Default trustor" means a trustor under a trust deed that secures a loan that the
             1263      beneficiary or servicer claims is in default.
             1264          (b) "Foreclosure relief" means a mortgage modification program or other foreclosure
             1265      relief option offered by a beneficiary or servicer.
             1266          (c) "Loan" means an obligation incurred for personal, family, or household purposes,
             1267      evidenced by a promissory note or other credit agreement for which a trust deed encumbering
             1268      owner-occupied residential property is given as security.
             1269          (d) "Owner-occupied residential property" means real property that is occupied by its
             1270      owner as the owner's primary residence.
             1271          (e) "Servicer" means an entity, retained by the beneficiary:
             1272          (i) for the purpose of receiving a scheduled periodic payment from a borrower pursuant
             1273      to the terms of a loan; or
             1274          (ii) that meets the definition of servicer under 12 U.S.C. Sec. 2605(i)(2) with respect to
             1275      residential mortgage loans.
             1276          (f) "Single point of contact" means a person who, as the designated representative of
             1277      the beneficiary or servicer, is authorized to:
             1278          (i) coordinate and ensure effective communication with a default trustor concerning:
             1279          (A) foreclosure proceedings initiated by the beneficiary or servicer relating to the trust
             1280      property; and
             1281          (B) any foreclosure relief offered by or acceptable to the beneficiary or servicer; and
             1282          (ii) direct all foreclosure proceedings initiated by the beneficiary or servicer relating to
             1283      the trust property, including:
             1284          (A) the filing of a notice of default under Section 57-1-24 and any cancellation of a
             1285      notice of default;
             1286          (B) the publication of a notice of trustee's sale under Section 57-1-25 ; and
             1287          (C) the postponement of a trustee's sale under Section 57-1-27 or this section.
             1288          (2) (a) Before a notice of default is filed for record under Section 57-1-24 , a beneficiary
             1289      or servicer shall:


             1290          (i) designate a single point of contact; and
             1291          (ii) send notice by United States mail to the default trustor.
             1292          (b) A notice under Subsection (2)(a)(ii) shall:
             1293          (i) advise the default trustor of the intent of the beneficiary or servicer to file a notice of
             1294      default;
             1295          (ii) state:
             1296          (A) the nature of the default;
             1297          (B) the total amount the default trustor is required to pay in order to cure the default
             1298      and avoid the filing of a notice of default, itemized by the type and amount of each component
             1299      part of the total cure amount; and
             1300          (C) the date by which the default trustor is required to pay the amount to cure the
             1301      default and avoid the filing of a notice of default;
             1302          (iii) disclose the name, telephone number, email address, and mailing address of the
             1303      single point of contact designated by the beneficiary or servicer; and
             1304          (iv) direct the default trustor to contact the single point of contact regarding foreclosure
             1305      relief available through the beneficiary or servicer for which a default trustor may apply, if the
             1306      beneficiary or servicer offers foreclosure relief.
             1307          (3) Before the expiration of the three-month period described in Subsection 57-1-24 (2),
             1308      a default trustor may apply directly with the single point of contact for any available
             1309      foreclosure relief.
             1310          (4) A default trustor shall, within the time required by the beneficiary or servicer,
             1311      provide all financial and other information requested by the single point of contact to enable
             1312      the beneficiary or servicer to determine whether the default trustor qualifies for the foreclosure
             1313      relief for which the default trustor applies.
             1314          (5) The single point of contact shall:
             1315          (a) inform the default trustor about and make available to the default [trust] trustor any
             1316      available foreclosure relief;
             1317          (b) undertake reasonable and good faith efforts, consistent with applicable law, to


             1318      consider the default trustor for foreclosure relief for which the default trustor is eligible;
             1319          (c) ensure timely and appropriate communication with the default trustor concerning
             1320      foreclosure relief for which the default trustor applies; and
             1321          (d) notify the default trustor by United States mail of the decision of the beneficiary or
             1322      servicer regarding the foreclosure relief for which the default trustor applies.
             1323          (6) Notice of a trustee's sale may not be given under Section 57-1-25 with respect to
             1324      the trust property of a default trustor who has applied for foreclosure relief until after the single
             1325      point of contact provides the notice required by Subsection (5)(d).
             1326          (7) A beneficiary or servicer may cause a notice of a trustee's sale to be given with
             1327      respect to the trust property of a default trustor who has applied for foreclosure relief if, in the
             1328      exercise of the sole discretion of the beneficiary or servicer, the beneficiary or servicer:
             1329          (a) determines that the default trustor does not qualify for the foreclosure relief for
             1330      which the default trustor has applied; or
             1331          (b) elects not to enter into a written agreement with the default trustor to implement the
             1332      foreclosure relief.
             1333          (8) (a) A beneficiary or servicer may postpone a trustee's sale of the trust property in
             1334      order to allow further time for negotiations relating to foreclosure relief.
             1335          (b) A postponement of a trustee's sale under Subsection (8)(a) does not require the
             1336      trustee to file for record a new or additional notice of default under Section 57-1-24 .
             1337          (9) A beneficiary or servicer shall cause the cancellation of a notice of default filed
             1338      under Section 57-1-24 on the trust property of a default trustor if the beneficiary or servicer:
             1339          (a) determines that the default trustor qualifies for the foreclosure relief for which the
             1340      default trustor has applied; and
             1341          (b) enters into a written agreement with the default trustor to implement the foreclosure
             1342      relief.
             1343          (10) This section may not be construed to require a beneficiary or servicer to:
             1344          (a) establish foreclosure relief; or
             1345          (b) approve an application for foreclosure relief submitted by a default trustor.


             1346          (11) A beneficiary and servicer shall each take reasonable measures to ensure that their
             1347      respective practices in the foreclosure of owner-occupied residential property and any
             1348      foreclosure relief with respect to a loan:
             1349          (a) comply with all applicable federal and state fair lending statutes; and
             1350          (b) ensure appropriate treatment of default trustors in the foreclosure process.
             1351          (12) This section does not apply if the beneficiary under a trust deed securing a loan is
             1352      an individual.
             1353          (13) A beneficiary or servicer is considered to have complied with the requirements of
             1354      this section if the beneficiary or servicer designates and uses a single point of contact in
             1355      compliance with federal law, rules, regulations, guidance, or guidelines governing the
             1356      beneficiary or servicer and issued by, as applicable, the Board of Governors of the Federal
             1357      Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of
             1358      the Currency, the National Credit Union Administration, or the Consumer Financial Protection
             1359      Bureau.
             1360          (14) The failure of a beneficiary or servicer to comply with a requirement of this
             1361      section does not affect the validity of a trustee's sale of the trust property to a bona fide
             1362      purchaser.
             1363          Section 26. Section 57-14-2 is amended to read:
             1364           57-14-2. Definitions.
             1365          As used in this chapter:
             1366          [(4)] (1) "Charge" means the admission price or fee asked in return for permission to
             1367      enter or go upon the land.
             1368          [(1)] (2) (a) "Land" means any land within the territorial limits of Utah.
             1369          (b) "Land" includes roads, railway corridors, water, water courses, private ways and
             1370      buildings, structures, and machinery or equipment when attached to the realty.
             1371          [(2)] (3) "Owner" includes the possessor of any interest in the land, whether public or
             1372      private land, a tenant, a lessor, a lessee, and an occupant or person in control of the premises.
             1373          [(5)] (4) "Person" includes any person, regardless of age, maturity, or experience, who


             1374      enters upon or uses land for recreational purposes.
             1375          [(3)] (5) "Recreational purpose" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following or
             1376      any combination thereof:
             1377          (a) hunting;
             1378          (b) fishing;
             1379          (c) swimming;
             1380          (d) skiing;
             1381          (e) snowshoeing;
             1382          (f) camping;
             1383          (g) picnicking;
             1384          (h) hiking;
             1385          (i) studying nature;
             1386          (j) waterskiing;
             1387          (k) engaging in water sports;
             1388          (l) engaging in equestrian activities;
             1389          (m) using boats;
             1390          (n) mountain biking;
             1391          (o) riding narrow gauge rail cars on a narrow gauge track that does not exceed 24 inch
             1392      gauge;
             1393          (p) using off-highway vehicles or recreational vehicles;
             1394          (q) viewing or enjoying historical, archaeological, scenic, or scientific sites; and
             1395          (r) aircraft operations.
             1396          Section 27. Section 58-3a-502 is amended to read:
             1397           58-3a-502. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
             1398          (1) (a) If upon inspection or investigation, the division concludes that a person has
             1399      violated Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-3a-501 or any rule or order
             1400      issued with respect to Section 58-3a-501 , and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the
             1401      director or the director's designee from within the division for each alternative respectively,


             1402      shall promptly issue a citation to the person according to this chapter and any pertinent rules,
             1403      attempt to negotiate a stipulated settlement, or notify the person to appear before an
             1404      adjudicative proceeding conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             1405          (i) A person who violates Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-3a-501
             1406      or any rule or order issued with respect to Section 58-3a-501 , as evidenced by an uncontested
             1407      citation, a stipulated settlement, or by a finding of violation in an adjudicative proceeding, may
             1408      be assessed a fine pursuant to this Subsection (1) and may, in addition to or in lieu of, be
             1409      ordered to cease and desist from violating Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section
             1410      58-3a-501 or any rule or order issued with respect to this section.
             1411          (ii) Except for a cease and desist order, the licensure sanctions cited in Section
             1412      58-3a-401 may not be assessed through a citation.
             1413          (b) A citation shall:
             1414          (i) be in writing;
             1415          (ii) describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including a reference to the
             1416      provision of the chapter, rule, or order alleged to have been violated;
             1417          (iii) clearly state that the recipient must notify the division in writing within 20
             1418      calendar days of service of the citation if the recipient wishes to contest the citation at a hearing
             1419      conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act; and
             1420          (iv) clearly explain the consequences of failure to timely contest the citation or to make
             1421      payment of any fines assessed by the citation within the time specified in the citation.
             1422          (c) The division may issue a notice in lieu of a citation.
             1423          (d) Each citation issued under this section, or a copy of each citation, may be served
             1424      upon [any] a person upon whom a summons may be served in accordance with the Utah Rules
             1425      of Civil Procedure and may be made personally or upon the person's agent by a division
             1426      investigator or by any person specially designated by the director or by mail.
             1427          (e) If within 20 calendar days from the service of the citation, the person to whom the
             1428      citation was issued fails to request a hearing to contest the citation, the citation becomes the
             1429      final order of the division and is not subject to further agency review. The period to contest a


             1430      citation may be extended by the division for cause.
             1431          (f) The division may refuse to issue or renew, suspend, revoke, or place on probation
             1432      the license of a licensee who fails to comply with a citation after it becomes final.
             1433          (g) The failure of an applicant for licensure to comply with a citation after it becomes
             1434      final is a ground for denial of license.
             1435          (h) No citation may be issued under this section after the expiration of six months
             1436      following the occurrence of any violation.
             1437          (i) The director or the director's designee shall assess fines according to the following:
             1438          (i) for a first offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $1,000;
             1439          (ii) for a second offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $2,000;
             1440      and
             1441          (iii) for any subsequent offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to
             1442      $2,000 for each day of continued offense.
             1443          (2) An action initiated for a first or second offense which has not yet resulted in a final
             1444      order of the division shall not preclude initiation of any subsequent action for a second or
             1445      subsequent offense during the pendency of any preceding action. The final order on a
             1446      subsequent action shall be considered a second or subsequent offense, respectively, provided
             1447      the preceding action resulted in a first or second offense, respectively.
             1448          (3) Any penalty which is not paid may be collected by the director by either referring
             1449      the matter to a collection agency or bringing an action in the district court of the county in
             1450      which the person against whom the penalty is imposed resides or in the county where the office
             1451      of the director is located. Any county attorney or the attorney general of the state shall provide
             1452      legal assistance and advice to the director in any action to collect the penalty. In any action
             1453      brought to enforce the provisions of this section, reasonable attorney's fees and costs shall be
             1454      awarded to the division.
             1455          Section 28. Section 58-9-102 is amended to read:
             1456           58-9-102. Definitions.
             1457          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:


             1458          (1) "Authorizing agent" means a person legally entitled to authorize the cremation of
             1459      human remains.
             1460          (2) "Beneficiary" means the individual who, at the time of the [beneficiary's]
             1461      individual's death, is to receive the benefit of the property and services purchased under a
             1462      preneed funeral arrangement.
             1463          (3) "Board" means the Board of Funeral Service created in Section 58-9-201 .
             1464          (4) "Body part" means:
             1465          (a) a limb or other portion of the anatomy that is removed from a person or human
             1466      remains for medical purposes during treatment, surgery, biopsy, autopsy, or medical research;
             1467      or
             1468          (b) a human body or any portion of a body that has been donated to science for medical
             1469      research purposes.
             1470          (5) "Buyer" means a person who purchases a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1471          (6) "Calcination" means a process in which a dead human body is reduced by intense
             1472      heat to a residue that is not as substantive as the residue that follows cremation.
             1473          (7) "Cremated remains" means all the remains of a cremated body recovered after the
             1474      completion of the cremation process, including pulverization which leaves only bone fragments
             1475      reduced to unidentifiable dimensions and may possibly include the residue of foreign matter
             1476      including casket material, bridgework, or eyeglasses that were cremated with the human
             1477      remains.
             1478          (8) "Cremation" means the technical process, using direct flame and heat, that reduces
             1479      human remains to bone fragments through heat and evaporation and includes the processing
             1480      and usually the pulverization of the bone fragments.
             1481          (9) "Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which the cremation
             1482      process takes place and which is used exclusively for the cremation of human remains.
             1483          (10) "Cremation container" means the container:
             1484          (a) in which the human remains are transported to the crematory and placed in the
             1485      cremation chamber for cremation; and


             1486          (b) that meets substantially all of the following standards:
             1487          (i) composed of readily combustible materials suitable for cremation;
             1488          (ii) able to be closed in order to provide a complete covering for the human remains;
             1489          (iii) resistant to leakage or spillage;
             1490          (iv) rigid enough for handling with ease; and
             1491          (v) able to provide protection for the health, safety, and personal integrity of crematory
             1492      personnel.
             1493          (11) "Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the cremation
             1494      chamber and the holding facility.
             1495          (12) "Direct disposition" means the disposition of a dead human body:
             1496          (a) as quickly as law allows;
             1497          (b) without preparation of the body by embalming; and
             1498          (c) without an attendant funeral service or graveside service.
             1499          (13) "Disposition" means the final disposal of a dead human body by:
             1500          (a) earth interment;
             1501          (b) above ground burial;
             1502          (c) cremation;
             1503          (d) calcination;
             1504          (e) burial at sea;
             1505          (f) delivery to a medical institution; or
             1506          (g) other lawful means.
             1507          (14) "Embalming" means replacing body fluids in a dead human body with preserving
             1508      and disinfecting chemicals.
             1509          (15) (a) "Funeral merchandise" means any of the following into which a dead human
             1510      body is placed in connection with the transportation or disposition of the body:
             1511          (i) a vault;
             1512          (ii) a casket; or
             1513          (iii) other personal property.


             1514          (b) "Funeral merchandise" does not include:
             1515          (i) a mausoleum crypt;
             1516          (ii) an interment receptacle preset in a cemetery; or
             1517          (iii) a columbarium niche.
             1518          (16) "Funeral service" means a service, rite, or ceremony performed:
             1519          (a) with respect to the death of a human; and
             1520          (b) with the body of the deceased present.
             1521          (17) "Funeral service director" means an individual licensed under this chapter who
             1522      may engage in all lawful professional activities regulated and defined under the practice of
             1523      funeral service.
             1524          (18) (a) "Funeral service establishment" means a place of business at a specific street
             1525      address or location licensed under this chapter that is devoted to:
             1526          (i) the embalming, care, custody, shelter, preparation for burial, and final disposition of
             1527      dead human bodies; and
             1528          (ii) the furnishing of services, merchandise, and products purchased from the
             1529      establishment as a preneed provider under a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1530          (b) "Funeral service establishment" includes:
             1531          (i) all portions of the business premises and all tools, instruments, and supplies used in
             1532      the preparation and embalming of dead human bodies for burial, cremation, and final
             1533      disposition as defined by division rule; and
             1534          (ii) a facility used by the business in which funeral services may be conducted.
             1535          (19) "Funeral service intern" means an individual licensed under this chapter who is
             1536      permitted to:
             1537          (a) assist a funeral service director in the embalming or other preparation of a dead
             1538      human body for disposition;
             1539          (b) assist a funeral service director in the cremation, calcination, or pulverization of a
             1540      dead human body or its remains; and
             1541          (c) perform other funeral service activities under the supervision of a funeral service


             1542      director.
             1543          (20) "Graveside service" means a funeral service held at the location of disposition.
             1544          (21) "Memorial service" means a service, rite, or ceremony performed:
             1545          (a) with respect to the death of a human; and
             1546          (b) without the body of the deceased present.
             1547          (22) "Practice of funeral service" means:
             1548          (a) supervising the receipt of custody and transportation of a dead human body to
             1549      prepare the body for:
             1550          (i) disposition; or
             1551          (ii) shipment to another location;
             1552          (b) entering into a contract with a person to provide professional services regulated
             1553      under this chapter;
             1554          (c) embalming or otherwise preparing a dead human body for disposition;
             1555          (d) supervising the arrangement or conduct of:
             1556          (i) a funeral service;
             1557          (ii) a graveside service; or
             1558          (iii) a memorial service;
             1559          (e) cremation, calcination, or pulverization of a dead human body or the body's
             1560      remains;
             1561          (f) supervising the arrangement of:
             1562          (i) a disposition; or
             1563          (ii) a direct disposition;
             1564          (g) facilitating:
             1565          (i) a disposition; or
             1566          (ii) a direct disposition;
             1567          (h) supervising the sale of funeral merchandise by a funeral establishment;
             1568          (i) managing or otherwise being responsible for the practice of funeral service in a
             1569      licensed funeral service establishment;


             1570          (j) supervising the sale of a preneed funeral arrangement; and
             1571          (k) contracting with or employing individuals to sell a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1572          (23) (a) "Preneed funeral arrangement" means a written or oral agreement sold in
             1573      advance of the death of the beneficiary under which a person agrees with a buyer to provide at
             1574      the death of the beneficiary any of the following as are typically provided in connection with a
             1575      disposition:
             1576          (i) goods;
             1577          (ii) services, including:
             1578          (A) embalming services; and
             1579          (B) funeral directing services;
             1580          (iii) real property; or
             1581          (iv) personal property, including:
             1582          (A) a casket;
             1583          (B) another primary container;
             1584          (C) a cremation or transportation container;
             1585          (D) an outer burial container;
             1586          (E) a vault;
             1587          (F) a grave liner;
             1588          (G) funeral clothing and accessories;
             1589          (H) a monument;
             1590          (I) a grave marker; and
             1591          (J) a cremation urn.
             1592          (b) "Preneed funeral arrangement" does not include a policy or product of life
             1593      insurance providing a death benefit cash payment upon the death of the beneficiary which is
             1594      not limited to providing the products or services described in Subsection (23)(a).
             1595          (24) "Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the
             1596      completion of the cremation process to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual means.
             1597          (25) "Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the


             1598      completion of the cremation and processing to granulated particles by manual or mechanical
             1599      means.
             1600          (26) "Sales agent" means an individual licensed under this chapter as a preneed funeral
             1601      arrangement sales agent.
             1602          (27) "Temporary container" means a receptacle for cremated remains usually made of
             1603      cardboard, plastic, or similar material designed to hold the cremated remains until an urn or
             1604      other permanent container is acquired.
             1605          (28) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-9-501 .
             1606          (29) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-9-502 .
             1607          (30) "Urn" means a receptacle designed to permanently encase the cremated remains.
             1608          Section 29. Section 58-13-5 is amended to read:
             1609           58-13-5. Information relating to adequacy and quality of medical care --
             1610      Immunity from liability.
             1611          (1) As used in this section, "health care provider" has the same meaning as defined in
             1612      Section 78B-3-403 .
             1613          (2) (a) The division, and the boards within the division that act regarding the health
             1614      care providers defined in this section, shall adopt rules to establish procedures to obtain
             1615      information concerning the quality and adequacy of health care rendered to patients by those
             1616      health care providers.
             1617          (b) It is the duty of an individual licensed under Title 58, Occupations and Professions,
             1618      as a health care provider to furnish information known to him with respect to health care
             1619      rendered to patients by any health care provider licensed under Title 58, Occupations and
             1620      Professions, as the division or a board may request during the course of the performance of its
             1621      duties.
             1622          (3) A health care facility as defined in Section 26-21-2 which employs, grants
             1623      privileges to, or otherwise permits a licensed health care provider to engage in licensed practice
             1624      within the health care facility, and any professional society of licensed health care providers,
             1625      shall report any of the following events in writing to the division within 60 days after the event


             1626      occurs regarding the licensed health care provider:
             1627          (a) terminating employment of an employee for cause related to the employee's practice
             1628      as a licensed health care provider;
             1629          (b) terminating or restricting privileges for cause to engage in any act or practice
             1630      related to practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1631          (c) terminating, suspending, or restricting membership or privileges associated with
             1632      membership in a professional association for acts of unprofessional, unlawful, incompetent, or
             1633      negligent conduct related to practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1634          (d) subjecting a licensed health care provider to disciplinary action for a period of more
             1635      than 30 days;
             1636          (e) a finding that a licensed health care provider has violated professional standards or
             1637      ethics;
             1638          (f) a finding of incompetence in practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1639          (g) a finding of acts of moral turpitude by a licensed health care provider; or
             1640          (h) a finding that a licensed health care provider is engaged in abuse of alcohol or
             1641      drugs.
             1642          (4) This section does not prohibit any action by a health care facility, or professional
             1643      society comprised primarily of licensed health care providers to suspend, restrict, or revoke the
             1644      employment, privileges, or membership of a health care provider.
             1645          (5) The data and information obtained in accordance with this section is classified as a
             1646      "protected" record under Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management
             1647      Act.
             1648          (6) (a) Any person or organization furnishing information in accordance with this
             1649      section in response to the request of the division or a board, or voluntarily, is immune from
             1650      liability with respect to information provided in good faith and without malice, which good
             1651      faith and lack of malice is presumed to exist absent clear and convincing evidence to the
             1652      contrary.
             1653          (b) The members of the board are immune from liability for any decisions made or


             1654      actions taken in response to information acquired by the board if those decisions or actions are
             1655      made in good faith and without malice, which good faith and lack of malice is presumed to
             1656      exist absent clear and convincing evidence to the contrary.
             1657          (7) An individual who is a member of a hospital administration, board, committee,
             1658      department, medical staff, or professional organization of health care providers [is], and any
             1659      hospital, other health care entity, or professional organization conducting or sponsoring the
             1660      review, is immune from liability arising from participation in a review of a health care
             1661      provider's professional ethics, medical competence, moral turpitude, or substance abuse.
             1662          (8) This section does not exempt a person licensed under Title 58, Occupations and
             1663      Professions, from complying with any reporting requirements established under state or federal
             1664      law.
             1665          Section 30. Section 58-17b-103 is amended to read:
             1666           58-17b-103. Administrative inspections.
             1667          (1) The division may for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the provisions of
             1668      this chapter, require a self-audit or enter and inspect the business premises of a person:
             1669          (a) licensed under Part 3, Licensing; or
             1670          (b) who is engaged in activities that require a license under Part 3, Licensing.
             1671          (2) Before conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division shall, after
             1672      identifying the person in charge:
             1673          (a) give proper identification;
             1674          (b) request to see the applicable license or licenses;
             1675          (c) describe the nature and purpose of the inspection; and
             1676          (d) provide, upon request, the authority of the division to conduct the inspection and
             1677      the penalty for refusing to permit the inspection as provided in Section 58-17b-504 .
             1678          (3) In conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division may, after meeting
             1679      the requirements of Subsection (2):
             1680          (a) examine any record, prescription, order, drug, device, equipment, machine,
             1681      electronic device or media, or area related to activities for which a license has been issued or is


             1682      required by Part 3, Licensing, for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the applicable
             1683      provisions of this chapter;
             1684          (b) take a drug or device for further analysis if considered necessary;
             1685          (c) temporarily seize a drug or device which is suspected to be adulterated, misbranded,
             1686      outdated, or otherwise in violation of this chapter, pending an adjudicative proceeding on the
             1687      matter;
             1688          (d) box and seal drugs suspected to be adulterated, outdated, misbranded, or otherwise
             1689      in violation of this chapter; and
             1690          (e) dispose of or return any drug or device obtained under this Subsection (3) in
             1691      accordance with procedures established by division rule.
             1692          (4) An inspection conducted under Subsection (1) shall be during regular business
             1693      hours.
             1694          (5) If, upon inspection, the division concludes that a person has violated the provisions
             1695      of this chapter or Chapter 37, Utah Control Substances Act, or any rule or order issued with
             1696      respect to those chapters, and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the director or the
             1697      director's designee shall promptly issue a fine or citation to the licensee in accordance with
             1698      Section 58-17b-504 .
             1699          Section 31. Section 58-17b-309 is amended to read:
             1700           58-17b-309. Exemptions from licensure.
             1701          (1) For purposes of this section:
             1702          (a) "Cosmetic drug":
             1703          (i) means a prescription drug that is:
             1704          (A) for the purpose of promoting attractiveness or altering the appearance of an
             1705      individual; and
             1706          (B) listed as a cosmetic drug subject to the exemption under this section by the division
             1707      by administrative rule or has been expressly approved for online dispensing, whether or not it is
             1708      dispensed online or through a physician's office; and
             1709          (ii) does not include a prescription drug that is:


             1710          (A) a controlled substance;
             1711          (B) compounded by the physician; or
             1712          (C) prescribed or used for the patient for the purpose of diagnosing, curing, or
             1713      preventing a disease.
             1714          (b) "Injectable weight loss drug":
             1715          (i) means an injectable prescription drug:
             1716          (A) prescribed to promote weight loss; and
             1717          (B) listed as an injectable prescription drug subject to exemption under this section by
             1718      the division by administrative rule; and
             1719          (ii) does not include a prescription drug that is a controlled substance.
             1720          (c) "Prescribing practitioner" means an individual licensed under:
             1721          (i) Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act, as an advanced practice registered nurse with
             1722      prescriptive practice;
             1723          (ii) Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act;
             1724          (iii) Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act; or
             1725          (iv) Chapter 70a, Physician Assistant Act.
             1726          (2) In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Sections 58-1-307 and
             1727      58-17b-309.5 , the following individuals may engage in the acts or practices described in this
             1728      section without being licensed under this chapter:
             1729          (a) if the individual is described in Subsections (2)(b), (d), [and] or (e), the individual
             1730      notifies the division in writing of the individual's intent to dispense a drug under this
             1731      subsection;
             1732          (b) a person selling or providing contact lenses in accordance with Section 58-16a-801 ;
             1733          (c) an individual engaging in the practice of pharmacy technician under the direct
             1734      personal supervision of a pharmacist while making satisfactory progress in an approved
             1735      program as defined in division rule;
             1736          (d) a prescribing practitioner who prescribes and dispenses a cosmetic drug or an
             1737      injectable weight loss drug to the prescribing practitioner's patient in accordance with


             1738      Subsection (4); or
             1739          (e) an optometrist, as defined in Section 58-16a-102 , acting within the optometrist's
             1740      scope of practice as defined in Section 58-16a-601 , who prescribes and dispenses a cosmetic
             1741      drug to the optometrist's patient in accordance with Subsection (4).
             1742          (3) In accordance with Subsection 58-1-303 (1)(a), an individual exempt under
             1743      Subsection (2)(c) must take all examinations as required by division rule following completion
             1744      of an approved curriculum of education, within the required time frame. This exemption
             1745      expires immediately upon notification of a failing score of an examination, and the individual
             1746      may not continue working as a pharmacy technician even under direct supervision.
             1747          (4) A prescribing practitioner or optometrist is exempt from licensing under the
             1748      provisions of this part if the prescribing practitioner or optometrist:
             1749          (a) (i) writes a prescription for a drug the prescribing practitioner or optometrist has the
             1750      authority to dispense under Subsection (4)(b); and
             1751          (ii) informs the patient:
             1752          (A) that the prescription may be filled at a pharmacy or dispensed in the prescribing
             1753      practitioner's or optometrist's office;
             1754          (B) of the directions for appropriate use of the drug;
             1755          (C) of potential side-effects to the use of the drug; and
             1756          (D) how to contact the prescribing practitioner or optometrist if the patient has
             1757      questions or concerns regarding the drug;
             1758          (b) dispenses a cosmetic drug or injectable weight loss drug only to the prescribing
             1759      practitioner's patients or for an optometrist, dispenses a cosmetic drug only to the optometrist's
             1760      patients;
             1761          (c) follows labeling, record keeping, patient counseling, storage, purchasing and
             1762      distribution, operating, treatment, and quality of care requirements established by
             1763      administrative rule adopted by the division in consultation with the boards listed in Subsection
             1764      (5)(a); and
             1765          (d) follows USP-NF 797 standards for sterile compounding if the drug dispensed to


             1766      patients is reconstituted or compounded.
             1767          (5) (a) The division, in consultation with the board under this chapter and the relevant
             1768      professional board, including the Physician Licensing Board, the Osteopathic Physician
             1769      Licensing Board, the Physician Assistant Licensing Board, the Board of Nursing, the
             1770      Optometrist Licensing Board, or the Online Prescribing, Dispensing, and Facilitation Board,
             1771      shall adopt administrative rules pursuant to Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             1772      Rulemaking Act to designate:
             1773          (i) the prescription drugs that may be dispensed as a cosmetic drug or weight loss drug
             1774      under this section; and
             1775          (ii) the requirements under Subsection (4)(c).
             1776          (b) When making a determination under Subsection (1)(a), the division and boards
             1777      listed in Subsection (5)(a)[,] may consider any federal Food and Drug Administration
             1778      indications or approval associated with a drug when adopting a rule to designate a prescription
             1779      drug that may be dispensed under this section.
             1780          (c) The division may inspect the office of a prescribing practitioner or optometrist who
             1781      is dispensing under the provisions of this section, in order to determine whether the prescribing
             1782      practitioner or optometrist is in compliance with the provisions of this section. If a prescribing
             1783      practitioner or optometrist chooses to dispense under the provisions of this section, the
             1784      prescribing practitioner or optometrist consents to the jurisdiction of the division to inspect the
             1785      prescribing practitioner's or optometrist's office and determine if the provisions of this section
             1786      are being met by the prescribing practitioner [and] or optometrist.
             1787          (d) If a prescribing practitioner or optometrist violates a provision of this section, the
             1788      prescribing practitioner or optometrist may be subject to discipline under:
             1789          (i) this chapter; and
             1790          (ii) (A) Chapter 16a, Utah Optometry Practice Act;
             1791          (B) Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act;
             1792          (C) Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act;
             1793          (D) Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act;


             1794          (E) Chapter 70a, Physician Assistant Act; or
             1795          (F) Chapter 83, Online Prescribing, Dispensing, and Facilitation Act.
             1796          (6) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(e), this section does not restrict or limit the
             1797      scope of practice of an optometrist or optometric physician licensed under Chapter 16a, Utah
             1798      Optometry Practice Act.
             1799          Section 32. Section 58-22-102 is amended to read:
             1800           58-22-102. Definitions.
             1801          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             1802          (1) "Board" means the Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors
             1803      Licensing Board created in Section 58-22-201 .
             1804          (2) "Building" means a structure which has human occupancy or habitation as its
             1805      principal purpose, and includes the structural, mechanical, and electrical systems, utility
             1806      services, and other facilities required for the building, and is otherwise governed by the State
             1807      Construction Code or an approved code under Title 15A, State Construction and Fire Codes
             1808      Act.
             1809          (3) "Complete construction plans" means a final set of plans, specifications, and reports
             1810      for a building or structure that normally includes:
             1811          (a) floor plans;
             1812          (b) elevations;
             1813          (c) site plans;
             1814          (d) foundation, structural, and framing detail;
             1815          (e) electrical, mechanical, and plumbing design;
             1816          (f) information required by the energy code;
             1817          (g) specifications and related calculations as appropriate; and
             1818          (h) all other documents required to obtain a building permit.
             1819          (4) "EAC/ABET" means the Engineering Accreditation Commission/Accreditation
             1820      Board for Engineering and Technology.
             1821          (5) "Fund" means the Professional Engineer, Professional Structural Engineer, and


             1822      Professional Land Surveyor Education and Enforcement Fund created in Section 58-22-103 .
             1823          (6) "NCEES" means the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and
             1824      Surveying.
             1825          (7) "Principal" means a licensed professional engineer, professional structural engineer,
             1826      or professional land surveyor having responsible charge of an organization's professional
             1827      engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying practice.
             1828          (8) "Professional engineer" means a person licensed under this chapter as a
             1829      professional engineer.
             1830          (9) (a) "Professional engineering or the practice of engineering" means a service or
             1831      creative work, the adequate performance of which requires engineering education, training, and
             1832      experience in the application of special knowledge of the mathematical, physical, and
             1833      engineering sciences to the service or creative work as consultation, investigation, evaluation,
             1834      planning, design, and design coordination of engineering works and systems, planning the use
             1835      of land and water, facility programming, performing engineering surveys and studies, and the
             1836      review of construction for the purpose of monitoring compliance with drawings and
             1837      specifications; any of which embraces these services or work, either public or private, in
             1838      connection with any utilities, structures, buildings, machines, equipment, processes, work
             1839      systems, projects, and industrial or consumer products or equipment of a mechanical, electrical,
             1840      hydraulic, pneumatic, or thermal nature, and including other professional services as may be
             1841      necessary to the planning, progress, and completion of any engineering services.
             1842          (b) The practice of professional engineering does not include the practice of
             1843      architecture as defined in Section 58-3a-102 , but a licensed professional engineer may perform
             1844      architecture work as is incidental to the practice of engineering.
             1845          (10) "Professional engineering intern" means a person who:
             1846          (a) has completed the education requirements to become a professional engineer;
             1847          (b) has passed the fundamentals of engineering examination; and
             1848          (c) is engaged in obtaining the four years of qualifying experience for licensure under
             1849      the direct supervision of a licensed professional engineer.


             1850          (11) "Professional land surveying or the practice of land surveying" means a service or
             1851      work, the adequate performance of which requires the application of special knowledge of the
             1852      principles of mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant
             1853      requirements of law for adequate evidence to the act of measuring and locating lines, angles,
             1854      elevations, natural and man-made features in the air, on the surface of the earth, within
             1855      underground workings, and on the beds of bodies of water for the purpose of determining areas
             1856      and volumes, for the monumenting or locating of property boundaries or points controlling
             1857      boundaries, and for the platting and layout of lands and subdivisions of lands, including the
             1858      topography, alignment and grades of streets, and for the preparation and perpetuation of maps,
             1859      record plats, field notes records, and property descriptions that represent these surveys and
             1860      other duties as sound surveying practices could direct.
             1861          (12) "Professional land surveyor" means an individual licensed under this chapter as a
             1862      professional land surveyor.
             1863          (13) "Professional structural engineer" means a person licensed under this chapter as a
             1864      professional structural engineer.
             1865          (14) "Professional structural engineering or the practice of structural engineering"
             1866      means a service or creative work in the following areas, and may be further defined by rule by
             1867      the division in collaboration with the board:
             1868          (a) providing structural engineering services for significant structures including:
             1869          (i) buildings and other structures representing a substantial hazard to human life, which
             1870      include:
             1871          (A) buildings and other structures whose primary occupancy is public assembly with an
             1872      occupant load greater than 300;
             1873          (B) buildings and other structures with elementary school, secondary school, or day
             1874      care facilities with an occupant load greater than 250;
             1875          (C) buildings and other structures with an occupant load greater than 500 for colleges
             1876      or adult education facilities;
             1877          (D) health care facilities with an occupant load of 50 or more resident patients, but not


             1878      having surgery or emergency treatment facilities;
             1879          (E) jails and detention facilities with a gross area greater than 3,000 square feet; or
             1880          (F) an occupancy with an occupant load greater than 5,000;
             1881          (ii) buildings and other structures designated as essential facilities, including:
             1882          (A) hospitals and other health care facilities having surgery or emergency treatment
             1883      facilities with a gross area greater than 3,000 square feet;
             1884          (B) fire, rescue, and police stations and emergency vehicle garages with a mean height
             1885      greater than 24 feet or a gross area greater than 5,000 square feet;
             1886          (C) designated earthquake, hurricane, or other emergency shelters with a gross area
             1887      greater than 3,000 square feet;
             1888          (D) designated emergency preparedness, communication, and operation centers and
             1889      other buildings required for emergency response with a mean height more than 24 feet or a
             1890      gross area greater than 5,000 square feet;
             1891          (E) power-generating stations and other public utility facilities required as emergency
             1892      backup facilities with a gross area greater then 3,000 square feet;
             1893          (F) structures with a mean height more than 24 feet or a gross area greater than 5,000
             1894      square feet containing highly toxic materials as defined by the division by rule, where the
             1895      quantity of the material exceeds the maximum allowable quantities set by the division by rule;
             1896      and
             1897          (G) aviation control towers, air traffic control centers, and emergency aircraft hangars
             1898      at commercial service and cargo air services airports as defined by the Federal Aviation
             1899      Administration with a mean height greater than 35 feet or a gross area greater than 20,000
             1900      square feet; and
             1901          (iii) buildings and other structures requiring special consideration, including:
             1902          (A) structures or buildings that are:
             1903          (I) normally occupied by human beings; and
             1904          (II) five stories or more in height; or
             1905          (III) that have an average roof height more than 60 feet above the average ground level


             1906      measured at the perimeter of the structure; or
             1907          (B) all buildings over 200,000 aggregate gross square feet in area; and
             1908          (b) includes the definition of professional engineering or the practice of professional
             1909      engineering as provided in Subsection (9).
             1910          (15) "Structure" means that which is built or constructed, an edifice or building of any
             1911      kind, or a piece of work artificially built up or composed of parts joined together in a definite
             1912      manner, and as otherwise governed by the State Construction Code or an approved code under
             1913      Title 15A, State Construction and Fire Codes Act.
             1914          (16) "Supervision of an employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter of a licensee"
             1915      means that a licensed professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional
             1916      land surveyor is responsible for and personally reviews, corrects when necessary, and approves
             1917      work performed by an employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter under the direction of the
             1918      licensee, and may be further defined by rule by the division in collaboration with the board.
             1919          (17) "TAC/ABET" means the Technology Accreditation Commission/Accreditation
             1920      Board for Engineering and Technology.
             1921          (18) "Unlawful conduct" is defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-22-501 .
             1922          (19) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 may be further defined
             1923      by rule by the division in collaboration with the board.
             1924          Section 33. Section 58-22-201 is amended to read:
             1925           58-22-201. Board.
             1926          (1) There is created a Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors
             1927      Licensing Board. The board shall consist of four licensed professional engineers, one licensed
             1928      professional structural engineer, one licensed professional land surveyor, and one member from
             1929      the general public. The composition of the four professional engineers on the board shall be
             1930      representative of the various professional engineering disciplines.
             1931          (2) The board shall be appointed and shall serve in accordance with Section 58-1-201 .
             1932      The members of the board who are professional engineers shall be appointed from among
             1933      nominees recommended by representative engineering societies in this state. The member of


             1934      the board who is a land surveyor shall be appointed from among nominees recommended by
             1935      representative professional land surveyor societies.
             1936          (3) The duties and responsibilities of the board shall be in accordance with Sections
             1937      58-1-202 and 58-1-203 . In addition, the board shall designate one of its members on a
             1938      permanent or rotating basis to:
             1939          (a) assist the division in reviewing complaints concerning the unlawful or
             1940      unprofessional conduct of a [license] licensee; and
             1941          (b) advise the division in its investigation of these complaints.
             1942          (4) A board member who has, under Subsection (3), reviewed a complaint or advised
             1943      in its investigation may be disqualified from participating with the board when the board serves
             1944      as a presiding officer in an adjudicative proceeding concerning the complaint.
             1945          Section 34. Section 58-22-503 is amended to read:
             1946           58-22-503. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
             1947          (1) (a) If upon inspection or investigation, the division concludes that a person has
             1948      violated Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-22-501 or any rule or order
             1949      issued with respect to Section 58-22-501 , and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the
             1950      director or the director's designee from within the division for each alternative respectively,
             1951      shall promptly issue a citation to the person according to this chapter and any pertinent rules,
             1952      attempt to negotiate a stipulated settlement, or notify the person to appear before an
             1953      adjudicative proceeding conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             1954          (i) A person who violates Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-22-501
             1955      or any rule or order issued with respect to Section 58-22-501 , as evidenced by an uncontested
             1956      citation, a stipulated settlement, or by a finding of violation in an adjudicative proceeding, may
             1957      be assessed a fine pursuant to this Subsection (1) and may, in addition to or in lieu of, be
             1958      ordered to cease and desist from violating Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section
             1959      58-22-501 or any rule or order issued with respect to this section.
             1960          (ii) Except for a cease and desist order, the licensure sanctions cited in Section
             1961      58-22-401 may not be assessed through a citation.


             1962          (b) A citation shall:
             1963          (i) be in writing;
             1964          (ii) describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including a reference to the
             1965      provision of the chapter, rule, or order alleged to have been violated;
             1966          (iii) clearly state that the recipient must notify the division in writing within 20
             1967      calendar days of service of the citation if the recipient wishes to contest the citation at a hearing
             1968      conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act; and
             1969          (iv) clearly explain the consequences of failure to timely contest the citation or to make
             1970      payment of any fines assessed by the citation within the time specified in the citation.
             1971          (c) The division may issue a notice in lieu of a citation.
             1972          (d) Each citation issued under this section, or a copy of each citation, may be served
             1973      upon [any] a person upon whom a summons may be served in accordance with the Utah Rules
             1974      of Civil Procedure and may be made personally or upon the person's agent by a division
             1975      investigator or by any person specially designated by the director or by mail.
             1976          (e) If within 20 calendar days from the service of the citation, the person to whom the
             1977      citation was issued fails to request a hearing to contest the citation, the citation becomes the
             1978      final order of the division and is not subject to further agency review. The period to contest a
             1979      citation may be extended by the division for cause.
             1980          (f) The division may refuse to issue or renew, suspend, revoke, or place on probation
             1981      the license of a licensee who fails to comply with a citation after it becomes final.
             1982          (g) The failure of an applicant for licensure to comply with a citation after it becomes
             1983      final is a ground for denial of license.
             1984          (h) No citation may be issued under this section after the expiration of six months
             1985      following the occurrence of any violation.
             1986          (i) The director or the director's designee shall assess fines according to the following:
             1987          (i) for a first offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $1,000;
             1988          (ii) for a second offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $2,000;
             1989      and


             1990          (iii) for any subsequent offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to
             1991      $2,000 for each day of continued offense.
             1992          (2) An action initiated for a first or second offense which has not yet resulted in a final
             1993      order of the division shall not preclude initiation of any subsequent action for a second or
             1994      subsequent offense during the pendency of any preceding action. The final order on a
             1995      subsequent action shall be considered a second or subsequent offense, respectively, provided
             1996      the preceding action resulted in a first or second offense, respectively.
             1997          (3) Any penalty which is not paid may be collected by the director by either referring
             1998      the matter to a collection agency or bringing an action in the district court of the county in
             1999      which the person against whom the penalty is imposed resides or in the county where the office
             2000      of the director is located. Any county attorney or the attorney general of the state shall provide
             2001      legal assistance and advice to the director in any action to collect the penalty. In any action
             2002      brought to enforce the provisions of this section, reasonable attorney's fees and costs shall be
             2003      awarded to the division.
             2004          Section 35. Section 58-26a-102 is amended to read:
             2005           58-26a-102. Definitions.
             2006          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             2007          (1) "Accounting experience" means applying accounting and auditing skills and
             2008      principles that are taught as a part of the professional education qualifying a person for
             2009      licensure under this chapter and generally accepted by the profession, under the supervision of
             2010      a licensed certified public accountant.
             2011          (2) "AICPA" means the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
             2012          (3) (a) "Attest and attestation engagement" means providing any or all of the following
             2013      financial statement services:
             2014          (i) an audit or other engagement to be performed in accordance with the Statements on
             2015      Auditing Standards (SAS);
             2016          (ii) a review of a financial statement to be performed in accordance with the Statements
             2017      on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS);


             2018          (iii) an examination of prospective financial information to be performed in accordance
             2019      with the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE); or
             2020          (iv) an engagement to be performed in accordance with the standards of the PCAOB.
             2021          (b) The standards specified in this definition shall be adopted by reference by the
             2022      division under its rulemaking authority in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             2023      Administrative Rulemaking Act, and shall be those developed for general application by
             2024      recognized national accountancy organizations such as the AICPA and the PCAOB.
             2025          (4) "Board" means the Utah Board of Accountancy created in Section 58-26a-201 .
             2026          (5) "Certified Public Accountant" or "CPA" means an individual currently licensed by
             2027      this state or any other state, district, or territory of the United States of America to practice
             2028      public accountancy or who has been granted a license as a certified public accountant under
             2029      prior law or this chapter.
             2030          (6) "Certified Public Accountant firm" or "CPA firm" means a qualified business entity
             2031      holding a valid registration as a Certified Public Accountant firm under this chapter.
             2032          (7) "Client" means the person who retains a licensee for the performance of one or
             2033      more of the services included in the definition of the practice of public accountancy. "Client"
             2034      does not include a CPA's employer when the licensee works in a salaried or hourly rate
             2035      position.
             2036          (8) "Compilation" means providing a service to be performed in accordance with
             2037      Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) that is presenting, in
             2038      the form of financial statements, information that is the representation of management or
             2039      owners, without undertaking to express any assurance on the statements.
             2040          (9) "Experience" means:
             2041          (a) accounting experience; or
             2042          (b) professional experience.
             2043          (10) "Licensee" means the holder of a current valid license issued under this chapter.
             2044          (11) "NASBA" means the National Association of State Boards of Accountancy.
             2045          (12) "PCAOB" means the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.


             2046          (13) "Practice of public accounting" means the offer to perform or the performance by
             2047      a person holding himself out as a certified public accountant of one or more kinds of services
             2048      involving the use of auditing or accounting skills including the issuance of reports or opinions
             2049      on financial statements, performing attestation engagements, the performance of one or more
             2050      kinds of advisory or consulting services, or the preparation of tax returns or the furnishing of
             2051      advice on tax matters for a client.
             2052          (14) "Peer review" means a study, appraisal, or review of one or more aspects of the
             2053      professional work of a person or qualified business entity in the practice of public accountancy,
             2054      by a licensee or any other qualified person in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this
             2055      chapter and who is not affiliated with the person or qualified business entity being reviewed.
             2056          (15) "Principal place of business" means the office location designated by the licensee
             2057      for purposes of substantial equivalency and licensure by endorsement.
             2058          (16) "Professional experience" means experience lawfully obtained while licensed as a
             2059      certified public accountant in another jurisdiction, recognized by rule, in the practice of public
             2060      accountancy performed for a client, which includes expression of assurance or opinion.
             2061          (17) "Qualified business entity" means a sole proprietorship, corporation, limited
             2062      liability company, or partnership engaged in the practice of public accountancy.
             2063          (18) "Qualified continuing professional education" means a formal program of
             2064      education that contributes directly to the professional competence of a certified public
             2065      accountant.
             2066          (19) "Qualifying examinations" means:
             2067          (a) the AICPA Uniform CPA Examination;
             2068          (b) the AICPA Examination of Professional Ethics for CPAs;
             2069          (c) the Utah Laws and Rules Examination; and
             2070          (d) any other examination approved by the board and adopted by the division by rule in
             2071      accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             2072          (20) (a) "Report" means:
             2073          (i) when used with reference to financial statements, an opinion, report or other form of


             2074      language that:
             2075          (A) states or implies assurance as to the reliability of any financial statements; or
             2076          (B) implies that the person or firm issuing it has special knowledge or competence in
             2077      accounting or auditing and specifically includes compilations and reviews; such an implication
             2078      of special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of names or
             2079      titles indicating that the person or firm is a public accountant or auditor, or from the language
             2080      of the report itself; or
             2081          (ii) any disclaimer of opinion when it is conventionally understood to imply any
             2082      positive assurance as to the reliability of the financial statements referred to or language
             2083      suggesting special competence on the part of the person or firm issuing such language; and it
             2084      includes any other form of language that is conventionally understood to imply such assurance
             2085      or such special knowledge or competence.
             2086          (b) "Report" does not include a financial statement prepared by an unlicensed person if:
             2087          (i) that financial statement has a cover page which includes essentially the following
             2088      language: "I (we) have prepared the accompanying financial statements of (name of entity) as
             2089      of (time period) for the (period) then ended. This presentation is limited to preparing, in the
             2090      form of financial statements, information that is the representation of management (owners). I
             2091      (we) have not audited or reviewed the accompanying financial statements and accordingly do
             2092      not express an opinion or any other form of assurance on them."; and
             2093          (ii) the cover page and any related footnotes do not use the terms "compilation,"
             2094      "review," "audit," "generally accepted auditing standards," "generally accepted accounting
             2095      principles," or other similar terms.
             2096          (21) "Review of financial statements" means performing inquiry and analytical
             2097      procedures which provide a reasonable basis for expressing limited assurance that there are no
             2098      material modifications that should be made to the statements in order for them to be in
             2099      conformity with generally accepted accounting principles or, if applicable, with another
             2100      comprehensive basis of accounting; and, the issuance of a report on the financial statements
             2101      stating that a review was performed in accordance with the standards established by the


             2102      American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
             2103          (22) (a) "Substantial equivalency" means a determination by the division in
             2104      collaboration with the board or its designee that:
             2105          (i) the education, examination, and experience requirements set forth in the statutes and
             2106      administrative rules of another jurisdiction are comparable to or exceed the education,
             2107      examination, and experience requirements set forth in the Uniform Accountancy Act; or
             2108          (ii) an individual CPA's education, examination, and experience qualifications are
             2109      comparable to or exceed the education, examination, and experience requirements set forth in
             2110      the Uniform Accountancy Act.
             2111          (b) In ascertaining whether an individual's qualifications are substantially equivalent as
             2112      used in this chapter, the division in collaboration with the board shall take into account the
             2113      qualifications without regard to the sequence in which the education, examination, and
             2114      experience requirements were attained.
             2115          (23) "Uniform Accountancy Act" means the model public accountancy legislation
             2116      developed and promulgated by national accounting and regulatory associations that contains
             2117      standardized definitions and regulations for the practice of public accounting as recognized by
             2118      the division in collaboration with the board.
             2119          (24) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-26a-501 .
             2120          (25) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-26a-502 and
             2121      as may be further defined by rule.
             2122          (26) "Year of experience" means 2,000 hours of cumulative experience.
             2123          Section 36. Section 58-28-307 is amended to read:
             2124           58-28-307. Exemptions from chapter.
             2125          In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307 this chapter does not
             2126      apply to:
             2127          (1) any person who practices veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry upon any
             2128      animal owned by him, and the employee of that person when the practice is upon an animal
             2129      owned by his employer, and incidental to his employment, except:


             2130          (a) this exemption does not apply to any person, or his employee, when the ownership
             2131      of an animal was acquired for the purpose of circumventing this chapter; and
             2132          (b) this exemption does not apply to the administration, dispensing, or prescribing of a
             2133      prescription drug, or nonprescription drug intended for off label use, unless the administration,
             2134      dispensing, or prescribing of the drug is obtained through an existing veterinarian-patient
             2135      relationship;
             2136          (2) any person who as a student at a veterinary college approved by the board engages
             2137      in the practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry as part of his academic training
             2138      and under the direct supervision and control of a licensed veterinarian, if that practice is during
             2139      the last two years of the college course of instruction and does not exceed an 18-month
             2140      duration;
             2141          (3) a veterinarian who is an officer or employee of the government of the United
             2142      States, or the state, or its political subdivisions, and technicians under his supervision, while
             2143      engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry for that government;
             2144          (4) any person while engaged in the vaccination of poultry, pullorum testing, typhoid
             2145      testing of poultry, and related poultry disease control activity;
             2146          (5) any person who is engaged in bona fide and legitimate medical, dental,
             2147      pharmaceutical, or other scientific research, if that practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, or
             2148      dentistry is directly related to, and a necessary part of, that research;
             2149          (6) veterinarians licensed under the laws of another state rendering professional
             2150      services in association with licensed veterinarians of this state for a period not to exceed 90
             2151      days;
             2152          (7) registered pharmacists of this state engaged in the sale of veterinary supplies,
             2153      instruments, and medicines, if the sale is at his regular place of business;
             2154          (8) any person in this state engaged in the sale of veterinary supplies, instruments, and
             2155      medicines, except prescription drugs which must be sold in compliance with state and federal
             2156      regulations, if the supplies, instruments, and medicines are sold in original packages bearing
             2157      adequate identification and directions for application and administration and the sale is made in


             2158      the regular course of, and at the regular place of business;
             2159          (9) any person rendering emergency first aid to animals in those areas where a licensed
             2160      veterinarian is not available, and if suspicious reportable diseases are reported immediately to
             2161      the state veterinarian;
             2162          (10) any person performing or teaching nonsurgical bovine artificial insemination;
             2163          (11) any person affiliated with an institution of higher education who teaches
             2164      nonsurgical bovine embryo transfer or any technician trained by or approved by an institution
             2165      of higher education who performs nonsurgical bovine embryo transfer, but only if any
             2166      prescription drug used in the procedure is prescribed and administered under the direction of a
             2167      veterinarian licensed to practice in Utah;
             2168          (12) (a) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal
             2169      chiropractic by a chiropractic physician licensed under Chapter 73, Chiropractic Physician
             2170      Practice Act, who has completed an animal chiropractic course approved by the American
             2171      Veterinary Chiropractic Association or the division;
             2172          (b) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal physical
             2173      therapy by a physical therapist licensed under Chapter 24b, Physical Therapy Practice Act, who
             2174      has completed at least 100 hours of animal physical therapy training, including quadruped
             2175      anatomy and hands-on training, approved by the division;
             2176          (c) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal massage
             2177      therapy by a massage therapist licensed under Chapter 47b, Massage Therapy Practice Act,
             2178      who has completed at least 60 hours of animal massage therapy training, including quadruped
             2179      anatomy and hands-on training, approved by the division; and
             2180          (d) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of acupuncture by an
             2181      acupuncturist licensed under Chapter 72, Acupuncture Licensing Act, who has completed a
             2182      course of study on animal acupuncture approved by the division;
             2183          (13) unlicensed assistive personnel performing duties appropriately delegated to the
             2184      unlicensed assistive personnel in accordance with Section 58-28-502 ;
             2185          (14) an animal shelter employee who is:


             2186          (a) acting under the indirect supervision of a licensed veterinarian; and
             2187          (b) performing animal euthanasia in the course and scope of employment; and
             2188          (15) an individual providing appropriate training for animals[,]; however, this
             2189      exception does not include diagnosing any medical condition, or prescribing or dispensing any
             2190      prescription drugs or therapeutics.
             2191          Section 37. Section 58-37-10 is amended to read:
             2192           58-37-10. Search warrants -- Administrative inspection warrants -- Inspections
             2193      and seizures of property without warrant.
             2194          (1) Search warrants relating to offenses involving controlled substances may be
             2195      authorized pursuant to the Utah Rules of Criminal Procedure.
             2196          (2) Issuance and execution of administrative inspection warrants shall be as follows:
             2197          (a) Any judge or magistrate of this state within his jurisdiction upon proper oath or
             2198      affirmation showing probable cause, may issue warrants for the purpose of conducting
             2199      administrative inspections authorized by this act or regulations thereunder and seizures of
             2200      property appropriate to such inspections. Probable cause for purposes of this act exists upon
             2201      showing a valid public interest in the effective enforcement of the act or rules promulgated
             2202      thereunder sufficient to justify administrative inspection of the area, premises, building, or
             2203      conveyance in the circumstances specified in the application for the warrant.
             2204          (b) A warrant shall issue only upon an affidavit of an officer or employee duly
             2205      designated and having knowledge of the facts alleged sworn to before a judge or magistrate
             2206      which establish the grounds for issuing the warrant. If the judge or magistrate is satisfied that
             2207      grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe they exist, he shall
             2208      issue a warrant identifying the area, premises, building, or conveyance to be inspected, the
             2209      purpose of the inspection, and if appropriate, the type of property to be inspected, if any. The
             2210      warrant shall:
             2211          (i) state the grounds for its issuance and the name of each person whose affidavit has
             2212      been taken to support it;
             2213          (ii) be directed to a person authorized by Section 58-37-9 of this act to execute it;


             2214          (iii) command the person to whom it is directed to inspect the area, premises, building,
             2215      or conveyance identified for the purpose specified and if appropriate, direct the seizure of the
             2216      property specified;
             2217          (iv) identify the item or types of property to be seized, if any; and
             2218          (v) direct that it be served during normal business hours and designate the judge or
             2219      magistrate to whom it shall be returned.
             2220          (c) A warrant issued pursuant to this section must be executed and returned within 10
             2221      days after its date unless, upon a showing of a need for additional time, the court instructs
             2222      otherwise in the warrant. If property is seized pursuant to a warrant, the person executing the
             2223      warrant shall give to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken a
             2224      copy of the warrant and a receipt for the property taken or leave the copy and receipt at the
             2225      place where the property was taken. Return of the warrant shall be made promptly and be
             2226      accompanied by a written inventory of any property taken. The inventory shall be made in the
             2227      presence of the person executing the warrant and of the person from whose possession or
             2228      premises the property was taken, if they are present, or in the presence of at least one credible
             2229      person other than the person executing the warrant. A copy of the inventory shall be delivered
             2230      to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken and to the applicant
             2231      for the warrant.
             2232          (d) The judge or magistrate who issued the warrant under this section shall attach a
             2233      copy of the return and all other papers to the warrant and file them with the court.
             2234          (3) The department is authorized to make administrative inspections of controlled
             2235      premises in accordance with the following provisions:
             2236          (a) For purposes of this section only, "controlled premises" means:
             2237          (i) Places where persons licensed or exempted from licensing requirements under this
             2238      act are required to keep records.
             2239          (ii) Places including factories, warehouses, establishments, and conveyances where
             2240      persons licensed or exempted from licensing requirements are permitted to possess,
             2241      manufacture, compound, process, sell, deliver, or otherwise dispose of any controlled


             2242      substance.
             2243          (b) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant a law enforcement officer
             2244      or employee designated in Section 58-37-9 , upon presenting the warrant and appropriate
             2245      credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, has the right to enter controlled premises
             2246      for the purpose of conducting an administrative inspection.
             2247          (c) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant, a law enforcement
             2248      officer or employee designated in Section 58-37-9 has the right:
             2249          (i) To inspect and copy records required by this chapter.
             2250          (ii) To inspect within reasonable limits and a reasonable manner, the controlled
             2251      premises and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished material, containers, and labeling
             2252      found, and except as provided in Subsection (3)(e), all other things including records, files,
             2253      papers, processes, controls, and facilities subject to regulation and control by this chapter or by
             2254      rules promulgated by the department.
             2255          (iii) To inventory and take stock of any controlled substance and obtain samples of any
             2256      substance.
             2257          (d) This section shall not be construed to prevent the inspection of books and records
             2258      without a warrant pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued by a court or the department
             2259      nor shall it be construed to prevent entries and administrative inspections including seizures of
             2260      property without a warrant:
             2261          (i) with the consent of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled
             2262      premises;
             2263          (ii) in situations presenting imminent danger to health or safety;
             2264          (iii) in situations involving inspection of conveyances where there is reasonable cause
             2265      to believe that the mobility of the conveyance makes it impracticable to obtain a warrant;
             2266          (iv) in any other exceptional or emergency circumstance where time or opportunity to
             2267      apply for a warrant is lacking; and
             2268          (v) in all other situations where a warrant is not constitutionally required.
             2269          (e) No inspection authorized by this section shall extend to financial data, sales data,


             2270      other than shipment data, or pricing data unless the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the
             2271      controlled premises consents in writing.
             2272          Section 38. Section 58-37c-3 is amended to read:
             2273           58-37c-3. Definitions.
             2274          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             2275          (1) "Board" means the Controlled Substance Precursor Advisory Board created in
             2276      Section 58-37c-4 .
             2277          (2) "Controlled substance precursor" includes a chemical reagent and means any of the
             2278      following:
             2279          (a) Phenyl-2-propanone;
             2280          (b) Methylamine;
             2281          (c) Ethylamine;
             2282          (d) D-lysergic acid;
             2283          (e) Ergotamine and its salts;
             2284          (f) Diethyl malonate;
             2285          (g) Malonic acid;
             2286          (h) Ethyl malonate;
             2287          (i) Barbituric acid;
             2288          (j) Piperidine and its salts;
             2289          (k) N-acetylanthranilic acid and its salts;
             2290          (l) Pyrrolidine;
             2291          (m) Phenylacetic acid and its salts;
             2292          (n) Anthranilic acid and its salts;
             2293          (o) Morpholine;
             2294          (p) Ephedrine;
             2295          (q) Pseudoephedrine;
             2296          (r) Norpseudoephedrine;
             2297          (s) Phenylpropanolamine;


             2298          (t) Benzyl cyanide;
             2299          (u) Ergonovine and its salts;
             2300          (v) 3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone;
             2301          (w) propionic anhydride;
             2302          (x) Insosafrole;
             2303          (y) Safrole;
             2304          (z) Piperonal;
             2305          (aa) N-Methylephedrine;
             2306          (bb) N-ethylephedrine;
             2307          (cc) N-methylpseudoephedrine;
             2308          (dd) N-ethylpseudoephedrine;
             2309          (ee) Hydriotic acid;
             2310          (ff) gamma butyrolactone (GBL), including butyrolactone, 1,2 butanolide,
             2311      2-oxanolone, tetrahydro-2-furanone, dihydro-2(3H)-furanone, and tetramethylene glycol, but
             2312      not including gamma aminobutric acid (GABA);
             2313          (gg) 1,4 butanediol;
             2314          (hh) any salt, isomer, or salt of an isomer of the chemicals listed in Subsections (2)(a)
             2315      through (gg);
             2316          (ii) Crystal iodine;
             2317          (jj) Iodine at concentrations greater than 1.5% by weight in a solution or matrix;
             2318          (kk) Red phosphorous, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.7 ;
             2319          (ll) anhydrous ammonia, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.9 ;
             2320          (mm) any controlled substance precursor listed under the provisions of the Federal
             2321      Controlled Substances Act which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             2322      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 ; and
             2323          (nn) any chemical which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             2324      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 .
             2325          (3) "Deliver," "delivery," "transfer," or "furnish" means the actual, constructive, or


             2326      attempted transfer of a controlled substance precursor.
             2327          (4) "Matrix" means something, as a substance, in which something else originates,
             2328      develops, or is contained.
             2329          (5) "Person" means any individual, group of individuals, proprietorship, partnership,
             2330      joint venture, corporation, or organization of any type or kind.
             2331          (6) "Practitioner" means a physician, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian,
             2332      pharmacist, scientific investigator, pharmacy, hospital, pharmaceutical manufacturer, or other
             2333      person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research
             2334      with respect to, administer, or use in teaching[,] or chemical analysis a controlled substance in
             2335      the course of professional practice or research in this state.
             2336          (7) (a) "Regulated distributor" means a person within the state who provides, sells,
             2337      furnishes, transfers, or otherwise supplies a listed controlled substance precursor chemical in a
             2338      regulated transaction.
             2339          (b) "Regulated distributor" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             2340      this chapter.
             2341          (8) (a) "Regulated purchaser" means any person within the state who receives a listed
             2342      controlled substance precursor chemical in a regulated transaction.
             2343          (b) "Regulated purchaser" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             2344      this chapter.
             2345          (9) "Regulated transaction" means any actual, constructive or attempted:
             2346          (a) transfer, distribution, delivery, or furnishing by a person within the state to another
             2347      person within or outside of the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical; or
             2348          (b) purchase or acquisition by any means by a person within the state from another
             2349      person within or outside the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical.
             2350          (10) "Retail distributor" means a grocery store, general merchandise store, drug store,
             2351      or other entity or person whose activities as a distributor are limited almost exclusively to sales
             2352      for personal use:
             2353          (a) in both number of sales and volume of sales; and


             2354          (b) either directly to walk-in customers or in face-to-face transactions by direct sales.
             2355          (11) "Threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical" means any amount of a
             2356      controlled substance precursor or a specified amount of a controlled substance precursor in a
             2357      matrix; however, the division may exempt from the provisions of this chapter a specific
             2358      controlled substance precursor in a specific amount and in certain types of transactions which
             2359      provisions for exemption shall be defined by the division by rule adopted pursuant to Title
             2360      63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             2361          (12) "Unlawful conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 includes knowingly and
             2362      intentionally:
             2363          (a) engaging in a regulated transaction without first being appropriately licensed or
             2364      exempted from licensure under this chapter;
             2365          (b) acting as a regulated distributor and selling, transferring, or in any other way
             2366      conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person within the state who is not appropriately
             2367      licensed or exempted from licensure as a regulated purchaser, or selling, transferring, or
             2368      otherwise conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person outside of the state and
             2369      failing to report the transaction as required;
             2370          (c) acting as a regulated purchaser and purchasing or in any other way obtaining a
             2371      controlled substance precursor from a person within the state who is not a licensed regulated
             2372      distributor, or purchasing or otherwise obtaining a controlled substance precursor from a
             2373      person outside of the state and failing to report the transaction as required;
             2374          (d) engaging in a regulated transaction and failing to submit reports and keep required
             2375      records of inventories required under the provisions of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to
             2376      this chapter;
             2377          (e) making any false statement in any application for license, in any record to be kept,
             2378      or on any report submitted as required under this chapter;
             2379          (f) with the intent of causing the evasion of the recordkeeping or reporting
             2380      requirements of this chapter and rules related to this chapter, receiving or distributing any listed
             2381      controlled substance precursor chemical in any manner designed so that the making of records


             2382      or filing of reports required under this chapter is not required;
             2383          (g) failing to take immediate steps to comply with licensure, reporting, or
             2384      recordkeeping requirements of this chapter because of lack of knowledge of those
             2385      requirements, upon becoming informed of the requirements;
             2386          (h) presenting false or fraudulent identification where or when receiving or purchasing
             2387      a listed controlled substance precursor chemical;
             2388          (i) creating a chemical mixture for the purpose of evading any licensure, reporting or
             2389      recordkeeping requirement of this chapter or rules related to this chapter, or receiving a
             2390      chemical mixture created for that purpose;
             2391          (j) if the person is at least 18 years of age, employing, hiring, using, persuading,
             2392      inducing, enticing, or coercing another person under 18 years of age to violate any provision of
             2393      this chapter, or assisting in avoiding detection or apprehension for any violation of this chapter
             2394      by any federal, state, or local law enforcement official; and
             2395          (k) obtaining or attempting to obtain or to possess any controlled substance precursor
             2396      or any combination of controlled substance precursors knowing or having a reasonable cause to
             2397      believe that the controlled substance precursor is intended to be used in the unlawful
             2398      manufacture of any controlled substance.
             2399          (13) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-102 and as may be further
             2400      defined by rule includes the following:
             2401          (a) violation of any provision of this chapter, the Controlled Substance Act of this state
             2402      or any other state, or the Federal Controlled Substance Act; and
             2403          (b) refusing to allow agents or representatives of the division or authorized law
             2404      enforcement personnel to inspect inventories or controlled substance precursors or records or
             2405      reports relating to purchases and sales or distribution of controlled substance precursors as such
             2406      records and reports are required under this chapter.
             2407          Section 39. Section 58-37c-17 is amended to read:
             2408           58-37c-17. Inspection authority.
             2409          For the purpose of inspecting, copying, and auditing records and reports required under


             2410      this chapter and rules adopted pursuant thereto, and for the purpose of inspecting [an] and
             2411      auditing inventories of listed controlled substance precursors, the director, or his authorized
             2412      agent, and law enforcement personnel of any federal, state, or local law enforcement agency is
             2413      authorized to enter the premises of regulated distributors and regulated purchasers during
             2414      normal business hours to conduct administrative inspections.
             2415          Section 40. Section 58-37d-2 is amended to read:
             2416           58-37d-2. Purpose.
             2417          The clandestine production of methamphetamine, other amphetamines, phencyclidine,
             2418      narcotic analgesic analogs, so-called "designer drugs,"[,] various hallucinogens, cocaine and
             2419      methamphetamine base "crack" cocaine and methamphetamine "ice" respectively, has
             2420      increased dramatically throughout the western states and Utah. These highly technical illegal
             2421      operations create substantial dangers to the general public and environment from fire,
             2422      explosions, and the release of toxic chemicals. By their very nature these activities often
             2423      involve a number of persons in a conspiratorial enterprise to bring together all necessary
             2424      components for clandestine production, to thwart regulation and detection, and to distribute the
             2425      final product. Therefore, the Legislature enacts the following Utah Clandestine Laboratory Act
             2426      for prosecution of specific illegal laboratory operations. With regard to the controlled
             2427      substances specified herein, this act shall control, notwithstanding the prohibitions and
             2428      penalties in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.
             2429          Section 41. Section 58-47b-301 is amended to read:
             2430           58-47b-301. Licensure required.
             2431          (1) An individual shall hold a license issued under this chapter in order to engage in the
             2432      practice of massage therapy, except as specifically provided in Section 58-1-307 or
             2433      58-47b-304 .
             2434          (2) An individual shall have a license in order to:
             2435          (a) represent himself as a massage therapist or massage apprentice;
             2436          (b) [represents] represent himself as providing a service that is within the practice of
             2437      massage therapy or [uses] use the word massage or any other word to describe such services; or


             2438          (c) [charges] charge or [receives] receive a fee or any consideration for providing a
             2439      service that is within the practice of massage therapy.
             2440          Section 42. Section 59-2-1109 is amended to read:
             2441           59-2-1109. Indigent persons -- Deferral or abatement -- Application -- County
             2442      authority to make refunds.
             2443          (1) A person under the age of 65 years is not eligible for a deferral or abatement
             2444      provided for poor people under Sections 59-2-1107 and 59-2-1108 unless:
             2445          (a) the county finds that extreme hardship would prevail if the grants were not made; or
             2446          (b) the person has a disability.
             2447          (2) (a) An application for the deferral or abatement shall be filed on or before
             2448      September 1 with the county in which the property is located.
             2449          (b) The application shall include a signed statement setting forth the eligibility of the
             2450      applicant for the deferral or abatement.
             2451          (c) Both husband and wife shall sign the application if the husband and wife seek a
             2452      deferral or abatement on a residence:
             2453          (i) in which they both reside; and
             2454          (ii) which they own as joint tenants.
             2455          (d) A county may extend the deadline for filing under Subsection (2)(a) until December
             2456      31 if the county finds that good cause exists to extend the deadline.
             2457          (3) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (3):
             2458          (i) "Property taxes due" means the taxes due on a person's property:
             2459          (A) for which an abatement is granted by a county under Section 59-2-1107 ; and
             2460          (B) for the calendar year for which the abatement is granted.
             2461          (ii) "Property taxes paid" is an amount equal to the sum of:
             2462          (A) the amount of the property taxes the person paid for the taxable year for which the
             2463      person is applying for the abatement; and
             2464          (B) the amount of the abatement the county grants under Section 59-2-1107 .
             2465          (b) A county granting an abatement to a person under Section 59-2-1107 shall refund


             2466      to that person an amount equal to the amount by which the person's property taxes paid exceed
             2467      the person's property taxes due, if that amount is $1 or more.
             2468          (4) For purposes of this section:
             2469          (a) a poor person is any person:
             2470          (i) whose total household income as defined in Section 59-2-1202 is less than the
             2471      maximum household income certified to a homeowner's credit under Subsection 59-2-1208 (1);
             2472          (ii) who resides for not less than 10 months of each year in the residence for which the
             2473      tax relief, deferral, or abatement is requested; and
             2474          (iii) who is unable to meet the tax assessed on the person's residential property as the
             2475      tax becomes due; and
             2476          (b) "residence" includes a mobile home as defined under Section [ 70D-2-401 ]
             2477      70D-2-102 .
             2478          (5) If the claimant is the grantor of a trust holding title to real or tangible personal
             2479      property on which an abatement or deferral is claimed, the claimant may claim the portion of
             2480      the abatement or deferral under Section 59-2-1107 or 59-2-1108 and be treated as the owner of
             2481      that portion of the property held in trust for which the claimant proves to the satisfaction of the
             2482      county that:
             2483          (a) title to the portion of the trust will revest in the claimant upon the exercise of a
             2484      power:
             2485          (i) by:
             2486          (A) the claimant as grantor of the trust;
             2487          (B) a nonadverse party; or
             2488          (C) both the claimant and a nonadverse party; and
             2489          (ii) regardless of whether the power is a power:
             2490          (A) to revoke;
             2491          (B) to terminate;
             2492          (C) to alter;
             2493          (D) to amend; or


             2494          (E) to appoint;
             2495          (b) the claimant is obligated to pay the taxes on that portion of the trust property
             2496      beginning January 1 of the year the claimant claims the abatement or deferral; and
             2497          (c) the claimant meets the requirements under this part for the abatement or deferral.
             2498          (6) The commission shall adopt rules to implement this section.
             2499          (7) Any poor person may qualify for:
             2500          (a) the deferral of taxes under Section 59-2-1108 ;
             2501          (b) if the person meets the requisites of this section, for the abatement of taxes under
             2502      Section 59-2-1107 ; or
             2503          (c) both:
             2504          (i) the deferral described in Subsection (7)(a); and
             2505          (ii) the abatement described in Subsection (7)(b).
             2506          Section 43. Section 63A-12-111 is amended to read:
             2507           63A-12-111. Government records ombudsman.
             2508          (1) (a) The director of the division shall appoint a government records ombudsman.
             2509          (b) The government records ombudsman may not be a member of the records
             2510      committee.
             2511          (2) The government records ombudsman shall:
             2512          (a) be familiar with the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records
             2513      Access and Management Act;
             2514          (b) serve as a resource for a person who is making or responding to a records request or
             2515      filing an appeal relating to a records request;
             2516          (c) upon request, attempt to mediate disputes between requestors and responders; and
             2517          (d) on an annual basis, report to the Government Operations [and Political
             2518      Subdivisions] Interim Committee on the work performed by the government records
             2519      ombudsman during the previous year.
             2520          (3) The government records ombudsman may not testify, or be compelled to testify,
             2521      before the records committee, another administrative body, or a court regarding a matter that


             2522      the government records ombudsman provided services in relation to under this section.
             2523          Section 44. Section 63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             2524           63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13). Powers and duties of board.
             2525          (1) Except as otherwise provided in Section 63G-6-104 and Subsection
             2526      63G-6-208 (1)(b), the policy board shall:
             2527          (a) make rules, consistent with this chapter, governing the procurement, management,
             2528      and control of any and all supplies, services, technology, and construction to be procured by the
             2529      state; and
             2530          (b) consider and decide matters of policy within the provisions of this chapter,
             2531      including those referred to it by the chief procurement officer.
             2532          (2) (a) The policy board may:
             2533          (i) audit and monitor the implementation of its rules and the requirements of this
             2534      chapter;
             2535          (ii) upon the request of a local public procurement unit, review that procurement unit's
             2536      proposed rules to ensure that they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter; and
             2537          (iii) approve the use of innovative procurement methods proposed by local public
             2538      procurement units.
             2539          (b) Except as provided in Section 63G-6-807 , the policy board may not exercise
             2540      authority [over the award or administration of]:
             2541          (i) over the award or administration of any particular [contact] contract; or
             2542          (ii) over any dispute, claim, or litigation pertaining to any particular contract.
             2543          Section 45. Section 63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             2544           63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13). Powers and duties of board.
             2545          (1) In addition to making rules in accordance with Section 63G-6a-402 and the other
             2546      provisions of this chapter, the board shall consider and decide matters of policy within the
             2547      provisions of this chapter, including those referred to it by the chief procurement officer.
             2548          (2) (a) The board may:
             2549          (i) audit and monitor the implementation of its rules and the requirements of this


             2550      chapter;
             2551          (ii) upon the request of a local public procurement unit, review that local public
             2552      procurement unit's proposed rules to ensure that they are not inconsistent with the provisions of
             2553      this chapter or rules made by the board; and
             2554          (iii) approve the use of innovative procurement processes.
             2555          (b) Except as provided in Section 63G-6a-1702 , the board may not exercise authority
             2556      over [the award or administration of]:
             2557          (i) the award or administration of any particular contract; or
             2558          (ii) any dispute, claim, or litigation pertaining to any particular contract.
             2559          (3) The board does not have authority over a matter involving:
             2560          (a) a non-executive state procurement unit;
             2561          (b) a local government unit; or
             2562          (c) except as otherwise expressly provided in this chapter, a local public procurement
             2563      unit.
             2564          Section 46. Section 63G-7-701 is amended to read:
             2565           63G-7-701. Payment of claim or judgment against state -- Presentment for
             2566      payment.
             2567          (1) [(a)] Each claim, as defined by Subsection 63G-7-102 (1), that is approved by the
             2568      state or any final judgment obtained against the state shall be presented for payment to:
             2569          [(i)] (a) the state risk manager; or
             2570          [(ii)] (b) the office, agency, institution, or other instrumentality involved, if payment by
             2571      that instrumentality is otherwise permitted by law.
             2572          [(b)] (2) If payment of the claim is not authorized by law, the judgment or claim shall
             2573      be presented to the board of examiners for action as provided in Section 63G-9-301 .
             2574          [(c)] (3) If a judgment against the state is reduced by the operation of Section
             2575      63G-7-604 , the claimant may submit the excess claim to the board of examiners.
             2576          Section 47. Section 63I-1-209 is amended to read:
             2577           63I-1-209. Repeal dates, Title 9.


             2578          [(1)] Title 9, Chapter 1, Part 8, Commission on National and Community Service Act,
             2579      is repealed July 1, 2014.
             2580          [(2) Subsection 35A-8-302 (6), defining "qualifying city," is repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2581          [(3) Subsection 35A-8-305 (2), related to a grant for fiscal year 2011-12 only, is
             2582      repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2583          [(4) The language in Subsection 35A-8-307(2) that reads "except for Subsection
             2584      35A-8-305 (2)" is repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2585          [(5) Subsection 35A-8-307 (3), requiring the Permanent Community Impact Fund
             2586      Board to make a finding before making a grant to a city under Subsection 35A-8-305 (2), is
             2587      repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2588          Section 48. Section 63I-1-213 is amended to read:
             2589           63I-1-213. Repeal dates, Title 13.
             2590          [Title 13, Chapter 16, Motor Fuel Marketing Act, is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2591          Section 49. Section 63I-1-235 is amended to read:
             2592           63I-1-235. Repeal dates, Title 35A.
             2593          (1) Title 35A, Utah Workforce Services Code, is repealed July 1, 2015.
             2594          [(2) Section 35A-3-114 , the Displaced Homemaker Program, together with the
             2595      provision for funding that program contained in Subsection 17-16-21 (2)(b), is repealed July 1,
             2596      2012.]
             2597          [(3)] (2) Title 35A, Chapter 8, Part 7, Utah Housing Corporation Act, is repealed July
             2598      1, 2016.
             2599          [(4)] (3) Title 35A, Chapter 8, Part 18, Transitional Housing and Community
             2600      Development Advisory Council, is repealed July 1, 2014.
             2601          Section 50. Section 63I-1-258 is amended to read:
             2602           63I-1-258. Repeal dates, Title 58.
             2603          (1) Title 58, Chapter 9, Funeral Services Licensing Act, is repealed July 1, 2018.
             2604          (2) Title 58, Chapter 13, Health Care Providers Immunity from Liability Act, is
             2605      repealed July 1, 2016.


             2606          [(13)] (3) Section 58-13-2.5 is repealed July 1, 2013.
             2607          [(3)] (4) Title 58, Chapter 15, Health Facility Administrator Act, is repealed July 1,
             2608      2015.
             2609          [(4)] (5) Section 58-17b-309.5 is repealed July 1, 2015.
             2610          [(5)] (6) Title 58, Chapter 20a, Environmental Health Scientist Act, is repealed July 1,
             2611      2013.
             2612          [(6)] (7) Title 58, Chapter 40, Recreational Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2613      2023.
             2614          [(7)] (8) Title 58, Chapter 41, Speech-language Pathology and Audiology Licensing
             2615      Act, is repealed July 1, 2019.
             2616          [(8)] (9) Title 58, Chapter 42a, Occupational Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2617      2015.
             2618          [(9)] (10) Title 58, Chapter 46a, Hearing Instrument Specialist Licensing Act, is
             2619      repealed July 1, 2013.
             2620          [(10)] (11) Title 58, Chapter 47b, Massage Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2621      2014.
             2622          [(11)] (12) Section 58-69-302.5 is repealed on July 1, 2015.
             2623          [(12)] (13) Title 58, Chapter 72, Acupuncture Licensing Act, is repealed July 1, 2017.
             2624          Section 51. Section 63I-2-261 is amended to read:
             2625           63I-2-261. Repeal dates -- Title 61.
             2626          [Section 61-2c-205.1 is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2627          Section 52. Section 63I-2-267 is amended to read:
             2628           63I-2-267. Repeal dates -- Title 67.
             2629          [Section 67-19a-101.5 is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2630          Section 53. Section 67-1a-2 is amended to read:
             2631           67-1a-2. Duties enumerated.
             2632          (1) The lieutenant governor shall:
             2633          (a) perform duties delegated by the governor, including assignments to serve in any of


             2634      the following capacities:
             2635          (i) as the head of any one department, if so qualified, with the consent of the Senate,
             2636      and, upon appointment at the pleasure of the governor and without additional compensation;
             2637          (ii) as the chairperson of any cabinet group organized by the governor or authorized by
             2638      law for the purpose of advising the governor or coordinating intergovernmental or
             2639      interdepartmental policies or programs;
             2640          (iii) as liaison between the governor and the state Legislature to coordinate and
             2641      facilitate the governor's programs and budget requests;
             2642          (iv) as liaison between the governor and other officials of local, state, federal, and
             2643      international governments or any other political entities to coordinate, facilitate, and protect the
             2644      interests of the state;
             2645          (v) as personal advisor to the governor, including advice on policies, programs,
             2646      administrative and personnel matters, and fiscal or budgetary matters; and
             2647          (vi) as chairperson or member of any temporary or permanent boards, councils,
             2648      commissions, committees, task forces, or other group appointed by the governor;
             2649          (b) serve on all boards and commissions in lieu of the governor, whenever so
             2650      designated by the governor;
             2651          (c) serve as the chief election officer of the state as required by Subsection (2);
             2652          (d) keep custody of the Great Seal of Utah;
             2653          (e) keep a register of, and attest, the official acts of the governor;
             2654          (f) affix the Great Seal, with an attestation, to all official documents and instruments to
             2655      which the official signature of the governor is required; and
             2656          (g) furnish a certified copy of all or any part of any law, record, or other instrument
             2657      filed, deposited, or recorded in the office of the lieutenant governor to any person who requests
             2658      it and pays the fee.
             2659          (2) (a) As the chief election officer, the lieutenant governor shall:
             2660          (i) exercise general supervisory authority over all elections;
             2661          (ii) exercise direct authority over the conduct of elections for federal, state, and


             2662      multicounty officers and statewide or multicounty ballot propositions and any recounts
             2663      involving those races;
             2664          (iii) assist county clerks in unifying the election ballot;
             2665          (iv) (A) prepare election information for the public as required by statute and as
             2666      determined appropriate by the lieutenant governor; and
             2667          (B) make the information under Subsection (2)(a)(iv)(A) available to the public and to
             2668      news media on the Internet and in other forms as required by statute or as determined
             2669      appropriate by the lieutenant governor;
             2670          (v) receive and answer election questions and maintain an election file on opinions
             2671      received from the attorney general;
             2672          (vi) maintain a current list of registered political parties as defined in Section
             2673      20A-8-101 ;
             2674          (vii) maintain election returns and statistics;
             2675          (viii) certify to the governor the names of those persons who have received the highest
             2676      number of votes for any office;
             2677          (ix) ensure that all voting equipment purchased by the state complies with the
             2678      requirements of Subsection 20A-5-302 (2) and Sections 20A-5-402.5 and 20A-5-402.7 ;
             2679          (x) conduct the study described in Section 67-1a-14 ; and
             2680          (xi) perform other election duties as provided in Title 20A, Election Code.
             2681          (b) As chief election officer, the lieutenant governor may not assume the
             2682      responsibilities assigned to the county clerks, city recorders, town clerks, or other local election
             2683      officials by Title 20A, Election Code.
             2684          (3) (a) The lieutenant governor shall:
             2685          (i) (A) determine a new city's classification under Section 10-2-301 upon the city's
             2686      incorporation under Title 10, Chapter 2, Part 1, Incorporation, based on the city's population
             2687      using the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee; and
             2688          (B) (I) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the new city belongs based on
             2689      the city's population; and


             2690          (II) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2691      city's legislative body;
             2692          (ii) (A) determine the classification under Section 10-2-301 of a consolidated
             2693      municipality upon the consolidation of multiple municipalities under Title 10, Chapter 2, Part
             2694      6, Consolidation of Municipalities, using population information from:
             2695          (I) each official census or census estimate of the United States Bureau of the Census;
             2696      or
             2697          (II) the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee, if the
             2698      population of a municipality is not available from the United States Bureau of the Census; and
             2699          (B) (I) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the consolidated municipality
             2700      belongs based on the municipality's population; and
             2701          (II) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2702      consolidated municipality's legislative body; and
             2703          (iii) monitor the population of each municipality using population information from:
             2704          (A) each official census or census estimate of the United States Bureau of the Census;
             2705      or
             2706          (B) the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee, if the
             2707      population of a municipality is not available from the United States Bureau of the Census.
             2708          (b) If the applicable population figure under Subsection (3)(a)(ii) or (iii) indicates that
             2709      a municipality's population has increased beyond the population for its current class, the
             2710      lieutenant governor shall:
             2711          (i) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the municipality belongs based on
             2712      the increased population figure; and
             2713          (ii) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2714      legislative body of the municipality whose class has changed.
             2715          (c) (i) If the applicable population figure under Subsection (3)(a)(ii) or (iii) indicates
             2716      that a municipality's population has decreased below the population for its current class, the
             2717      lieutenant governor shall send written notification of that fact to the municipality's legislative


             2718      body.
             2719          (ii) Upon receipt of a petition under Subsection 10-2-302 (2) from a municipality whose
             2720      population has decreased below the population for its current class, the lieutenant governor
             2721      shall:
             2722          (A) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the municipality belongs based
             2723      on the decreased population figure; and
             2724          (B) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2725      legislative body of the municipality whose class has changed.
             2726          Section 54. Section 67-19-13.5 is amended to read:
             2727           67-19-13.5. Department provides payroll services to executive branch agencies --
             2728      Report.
             2729          (1) As used in this section:
             2730          (a) (i) "Executive branch entity" means a department, division, agency, board, or office
             2731      within the executive branch of state government that employs a person who is paid through the
             2732      central payroll system developed by the Division of Finance as of December 31, 2011.
             2733          (ii) "Executive branch entity" does not include the Offices of the Attorney General,
             2734      State Treasurer, State Auditor, [Department] or Departments of Transportation, [Department
             2735      of] Technology Services, or [the Department of] Natural Resources.
             2736          (b) (i) "Payroll services" means using the central payroll system as directed by the
             2737      Division of Finance to:
             2738          (A) enter and validate payroll reimbursements, which include reimbursements for
             2739      mileage, a service award, and other wage types;
             2740          (B) calculate, process, and validate a retirement;
             2741          (C) enter a leave adjustment; and
             2742          (D) certify payroll by ensuring an entry complies with a rule or policy adopted by the
             2743      department or the Division of Finance.
             2744          (ii) "Payroll services" does not mean:
             2745          (A) a function related to payroll that is performed by an employee of the Division of


             2746      Finance;
             2747          (B) a function related to payroll that is performed by an executive branch agency on
             2748      behalf of a person who is not an employee of the executive branch agency;
             2749          (C) the entry of time worked by an executive branch agency employee into the central
             2750      payroll system; or
             2751          (D) approval or verification by a supervisor or designee of the entry of time worked.
             2752          (2) (a) Except as provided by Subsection (2)(b), on or before September 19, 2012, the
             2753      department shall provide payroll services to all executive branch entities.
             2754          (b) On or before June 30, 2013, the department shall provide payroll services to the
             2755      Department of Public Safety for an employee who is certified by the Peace Officer Standards
             2756      and Training Division.
             2757          (3) (a) After September 19, 2012, an executive branch entity, other than the
             2758      department, the Division of Finance, or the Department of Public Safety, may not create a
             2759      full-time equivalent position or part-time position, or request an appropriation to fund a
             2760      full-time equivalent position or part-time position for the purpose of providing payroll services
             2761      to the entity.
             2762          (b) After June 30, 2013, the Department of Public Safety may not create a full-time
             2763      equivalent position or part-time position, or request an appropriation to fund a full-time
             2764      equivalent position or part-time position for the purpose of providing payroll services.
             2765          (4) The Department of Transportation, the Department of Technology Services, and the
             2766      Department of Natural Resources shall report on the inability to transfer payroll services to the
             2767      department or the progress of transferring payroll services to the department:
             2768          (a) to the Government Operations Interim Committee before October 30, 2012; and
             2769          (b) to the Infrastructure and General Government Appropriations Subcommittee on or
             2770      before February 11, 2013.
             2771          Section 55. Section 76-1-403 is amended to read:
             2772           76-1-403. Former prosecution barring subsequent prosecution for offense out of
             2773      same episode.


             2774          (1) If a defendant has been prosecuted for one or more offenses arising out of a single
             2775      criminal episode, a subsequent prosecution for the same or a different offense arising out of the
             2776      same criminal episode is barred if:
             2777          (a) the subsequent prosecution is for an offense that was or should have been tried
             2778      under Subsection 76-1-402 (2) in the former prosecution; and
             2779          (b) the former prosecution:
             2780          (i) resulted in acquittal; [or]
             2781          (ii) resulted in conviction; [or]
             2782          (iii) was improperly terminated; or
             2783          (iv) was terminated by a final order or judgment for the defendant that has not been
             2784      reversed, set aside, or vacated and that necessarily required a determination inconsistent with a
             2785      fact that must be established to secure conviction in the subsequent prosecution.
             2786          (2) There is an acquittal if the prosecution resulted in a finding of not guilty by the trier
             2787      of facts or in a determination that there was insufficient evidence to warrant conviction. A
             2788      finding of guilty of a lesser included offense is an acquittal of the greater offense even though
             2789      the conviction for the lesser included offense is subsequently reversed, set aside, or vacated.
             2790          (3) There is a conviction if the prosecution resulted in a judgment of guilt that has not
             2791      been reversed, set aside, or vacated; a verdict of guilty that has not been reversed, set aside, or
             2792      vacated and that is capable of supporting a judgment; or a plea of guilty accepted by the court.
             2793          (4) There is an improper termination of prosecution if the termination takes place
             2794      before the verdict, is for reasons not amounting to an acquittal, and takes place after a jury has
             2795      been impaneled and sworn to try the defendant, or, if the jury trial is waived, after the first
             2796      witness is sworn. However, termination of prosecution is not improper if:
             2797          (a) the defendant consents to the termination; [or]
             2798          (b) the defendant waives his right to object to the termination; or
             2799          (c) the court finds and states for the record that the termination is necessary because:
             2800          (i) it is physically impossible to proceed with the trial in conformity with the law; [or]
             2801          (ii) there is a legal defect in the proceeding not attributable to the state that would make


             2802      any judgment entered upon a verdict reversible as a matter of law; [or]
             2803          (iii) prejudicial conduct in or out of the courtroom not attributable to the state makes it
             2804      impossible to proceed with the trial without injustice to the defendant or the state; [or]
             2805          (iv) the jury is unable to agree upon a verdict; or
             2806          (v) false statements of a juror on voir dire prevent a fair trial.
             2807          Section 56. Section 76-1-501 is amended to read:
             2808           76-1-501. Presumption of innocence -- "Element of the offense" defined.
             2809          (1) A defendant in a criminal proceeding is presumed to be innocent until each element
             2810      of the offense charged against him is proved beyond a reasonable doubt. In the absence of
             2811      [such] this proof, the defendant shall be acquitted.
             2812          (2) As used in this part the words "element of the offense" mean:
             2813          (a) The conduct, attendant circumstances, or results of conduct proscribed, prohibited,
             2814      or forbidden in the definition of the offense;
             2815          (b) The culpable mental state required.
             2816          (3) The existence of jurisdiction and venue are not elements of the offense but shall be
             2817      established by a preponderance of the evidence.
             2818          Section 57. Section 76-3-202 is amended to read:
             2819           76-3-202. Paroled persons -- Termination or discharge from sentence -- Time
             2820      served on parole -- Discretion of Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2821          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(b), every person committed to the state
             2822      prison to serve an indeterminate term and later released on parole shall, upon completion of
             2823      three years on parole outside of confinement and without violation, be terminated from the
             2824      person's sentence unless the parole is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2825          (b) Every person committed to the state prison to serve an indeterminate term and later
             2826      released on parole on or after July 1, 2008, and who was convicted of any felony offense under
             2827      Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person, or any attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to
             2828      commit any of these felony offenses, shall complete a term of parole that extends through the
             2829      expiration of the person's maximum sentence, unless the parole is earlier terminated by the


             2830      Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2831          (2) Every person convicted of a second degree felony for violating Section 76-5-404 ,
             2832      forcible sexual abuse, or 76-5-404.1 , sexual abuse of a child and aggravated sexual abuse of a
             2833      child, or attempting, conspiring, or soliciting the commission of a violation of any of those
             2834      sections, and who is paroled before July 1, 2008, shall, upon completion of 10 years parole
             2835      outside of confinement and without violation, [shall] be terminated from the sentence unless
             2836      the person is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2837          (3) (a) Every person convicted of a first degree felony for committing any offense listed
             2838      in Subsection (3)(b), or attempting, conspiring, or soliciting the commission of a violation of
             2839      any of those sections, shall complete a term of lifetime parole outside of confinement and
             2840      without violation unless the person is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2841          (b) The offenses referred to in Subsection (3)(a) are:
             2842          (i) Section 76-5-301.1 , child kidnapping;
             2843          (ii) Subsection 76-5-302 (1)(b)(vi), aggravated kidnapping involving a sexual offense;
             2844          (iii) Section 76-5-402 , rape;
             2845          (iv) Section 76-5-402.1 , rape of a child;
             2846          (v) Section 76-5-402.2 , object rape;
             2847          (vi) Section 76-5-402.3 , object rape of a child;
             2848          (vii) Subsection 76-5-403 (2), forcible sodomy;
             2849          (viii) Section 76-5-403.1 , sodomy on a child;
             2850          (ix) Section 76-5-404.1 , sexual abuse of a child and aggravated sexual abuse of a child;
             2851      or
             2852          (x) Section 76-5-405 , aggravated sexual assault.
             2853          (4) Any person who violates the terms of parole, while serving parole, for any offense
             2854      under Subsection (1), (2), or (3), shall at the discretion of the Board of Pardons and Parole be
             2855      recommitted to prison to serve the portion of the balance of the term as determined by the
             2856      Board of Pardons and Parole, but not to exceed the maximum term.
             2857          (5) In order for a parolee convicted on or after May 5, 1997, to be eligible for early


             2858      termination from parole, the parolee must provide to the Board of Pardons and Parole:
             2859          (a) evidence that the parolee has completed high school classwork and has obtained a
             2860      high school graduation diploma, a GED certificate, or a vocational certificate; or
             2861          (b) documentation of the inability to obtain one of the items listed in Subsection (5)(a)
             2862      because of:
             2863          (i) a diagnosed learning disability; or
             2864          (ii) other justified cause.
             2865          (6) Any person paroled following a former parole revocation may not be discharged
             2866      from the person's sentence until:
             2867          (a) the person has served the applicable period of parole under this section outside of
             2868      confinement and without violation;
             2869          (b) the person's maximum sentence has expired; or
             2870          (c) the Board of Pardons and Parole orders the person to be discharged from the
             2871      sentence.
             2872          (7) (a) All time served on parole, outside of confinement and without violation,
             2873      constitutes service of the total sentence but does not preclude the requirement of serving the
             2874      applicable period of parole under this section, outside of confinement and without violation.
             2875          (b) Any time a person spends outside of confinement after commission of a parole
             2876      violation does not constitute service of the total sentence unless the person is exonerated at a
             2877      parole revocation hearing.
             2878          (c) (i) Any time a person spends in confinement awaiting a hearing before the Board of
             2879      Pardons and Parole or a decision by the board concerning revocation of parole constitutes
             2880      service of the sentence.
             2881          (ii) In the case of exoneration by the board, the time spent is included in computing the
             2882      total parole term.
             2883          (8) When any parolee without authority from the Board of Pardons and Parole absents
             2884      himself from the state or avoids or evades parole supervision, the period of absence, avoidance,
             2885      or evasion tolls the parole period.


             2886          (9) (a) While on parole, time spent in confinement outside the state may not be credited
             2887      toward the service of any Utah sentence.
             2888          (b) Time in confinement outside the state or in the custody of any tribal authority or the
             2889      United States government for a conviction obtained in another jurisdiction tolls the expiration
             2890      of the Utah sentence.
             2891          (10) This section does not preclude the Board of Pardons and Parole from paroling or
             2892      discharging an inmate at any time within the discretion of the Board of Pardons and Parole
             2893      unless otherwise specifically provided by law.
             2894          (11) A parolee sentenced to lifetime parole may petition the Board of Pardons and
             2895      Parole for termination of lifetime parole.
             2896          Section 58. Section 76-3-203.5 is amended to read:
             2897           76-3-203.5. Habitual violent offender -- Definition -- Procedure -- Penalty.
             2898          (1) As used in this section:
             2899          (a) "Felony" means any violation of a criminal statute of the state, any other state, the
             2900      United States, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States for which the
             2901      maximum punishment the offender may be subjected to exceeds one year in prison.
             2902          (b) "Habitual violent offender" means a person convicted within the state of any violent
             2903      felony and who on at least two previous occasions has been convicted of a violent felony and
             2904      committed to either prison in Utah or an equivalent correctional institution of another state or
             2905      of the United States either at initial sentencing or after revocation of probation.
             2906          (c) "Violent felony" means:
             2907          (i) any of the following offenses, or any attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit
             2908      any of the following offenses punishable as a felony:
             2909          (A) aggravated arson, arson, knowingly causing a catastrophe, and criminal mischief,
             2910      Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
             2911          (B) assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-102.5 ;
             2912          (C) disarming a police officer, Section 76-5-102.8 ;
             2913          (D) aggravated assault, Section 76-5-103 ;


             2914          (E) aggravated assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-103.5 ;
             2915          (F) mayhem, Section 76-5-105 ;
             2916          (G) stalking, Subsection 76-5-106.5 (2) or (3);
             2917          (H) threat of terrorism, Section 76-5-107.3 ;
             2918          (I) child abuse, Subsection 76-5-109 (2)(a) or (b);
             2919          (J) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, Section 76-5-109.1 ;
             2920          (K) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, Section 76-5-110 ;
             2921          (L) abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-111 ;
             2922          (M) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-112.5 ;
             2923          (N) criminal homicide offenses under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
             2924          (O) kidnapping, child kidnapping, and aggravated kidnapping under Title 76, Chapter
             2925      5, Part 3, Kidnapping, Trafficking, and Smuggling;
             2926          (P) rape, Section 76-5-402 ;
             2927          (Q) rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.1 ;
             2928          (R) object rape, Section 76-5-402.2 ;
             2929          (S) object rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.3 ;
             2930          (T) forcible sodomy, Section 76-5-403 ;
             2931          (U) sodomy on a child, Section 76-5-403.1 ;
             2932          (V) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ;
             2933          (W) aggravated sexual abuse of a child or sexual abuse of a child, Section 76-5-404.1 ;
             2934          (X) aggravated sexual assault, Section 76-5-405 ;
             2935          (Y) sexual exploitation of a minor, Section 76-5b-201 ;
             2936          (Z) sexual exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5b-202 ;
             2937          (AA) aggravated burglary and burglary of a dwelling under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2,
             2938      Burglary and Criminal Trespass;
             2939          (BB) aggravated robbery and robbery under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
             2940          (CC) theft by extortion under Subsection 76-6-406 (2)(a) or (b);
             2941          (DD) tampering with a witness under Subsection 76-8-508 (1);


             2942          (EE) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant under Section 76-8-508.3 ;
             2943          (FF) tampering with a juror under Subsection 76-8-508.5 (2)(c);
             2944          (GG) extortion to dismiss a criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509 if by any
             2945      threat or by use of force theft by extortion has been committed pursuant to Subsections
             2946      76-6-406 (2)(a), (b), and (i);
             2947          (HH) possession, use, or removal of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under
             2948      Subsections 76-10-306 (3) through (6);
             2949          (II) unlawful delivery of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under Section
             2950      76-10-307 ;
             2951          (JJ) purchase or possession of a dangerous weapon or handgun by a restricted person
             2952      under Section 76-10-503 ;
             2953          (KK) unlawful discharge of a firearm under Section 76-10-508 ;
             2954          (LL) aggravated exploitation of prostitution under Subsection 76-10-1306 (1)(a);
             2955          (MM) bus hijacking under Section 76-10-1504 ; and
             2956          (NN) discharging firearms and hurling missiles under Section 76-10-1505 ; or
             2957          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
             2958      any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute a violent
             2959      felony as defined in this Subsection (1) if committed in this state.
             2960          (2) If a person is convicted in this state of a violent felony by plea or by verdict and the
             2961      trier of fact determines beyond a reasonable doubt that the person is a habitual violent offender
             2962      under this section, the penalty for a:
             2963          (a) third degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony;
             2964          (b) second degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony; or
             2965          (c) first degree felony remains the penalty for a first degree penalty except:
             2966          (i) the convicted person is not eligible for probation; and
             2967          (ii) the Board of Pardons and Parole shall consider that the convicted person is a
             2968      habitual violent offender as an aggravating factor in determining the length of incarceration.
             2969          (3) (a) The prosecuting attorney, or grand jury if an indictment is returned, shall


             2970      provide notice in the information or indictment that the defendant is subject to punishment as a
             2971      habitual violent offender under this section. Notice shall include the case number, court, and
             2972      date of conviction or commitment of any case relied upon by the prosecution.
             2973          (b) (i) The defendant shall serve notice in writing upon the prosecutor if the defendant
             2974      intends to deny that:
             2975          (A) the defendant is the person who was convicted or committed;
             2976          (B) the defendant was represented by counsel or had waived counsel; or
             2977          (C) the defendant's plea was understandingly or voluntarily entered.
             2978          (ii) The notice of denial shall be served not later than five days prior to trial and shall
             2979      state in detail the defendant's contention regarding the previous conviction and commitment.
             2980          (4) (a) If the defendant enters a denial under Subsection (3)(b) and if the case is tried to
             2981      a jury, the jury may not be told, until after it returns its verdict on the underlying felony charge,
             2982      of the:
             2983          (i) defendant's previous convictions for violent felonies, except as otherwise provided
             2984      in the Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             2985          (ii) allegation against the defendant of being a habitual violent offender.
             2986          (b) If the jury's verdict is guilty, the defendant shall be tried regarding the allegation of
             2987      being an habitual violent offender by the same jury, if practicable, unless the defendant waives
             2988      the jury, in which case the allegation shall be tried immediately to the court.
             2989          (c) (i) Before or at the time of sentencing the trier of fact shall determine if this section
             2990      applies.
             2991          (ii) The trier of fact shall consider any evidence presented at trial and the prosecution
             2992      and the defendant shall be afforded an opportunity to present any necessary additional
             2993      evidence.
             2994          (iii) Before sentencing under this section, the trier of fact shall determine whether this
             2995      section is applicable beyond a reasonable doubt.
             2996          (d) If any previous conviction and commitment is based upon a plea of guilty or no
             2997      contest, there is a rebuttable presumption that the conviction and commitment were regular and


             2998      lawful in all respects if the conviction and commitment occurred after January 1, 1970. If the
             2999      conviction and commitment occurred prior to January 1, 1970, the burden is on the prosecution
             3000      to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant was then represented by
             3001      counsel or had lawfully waived the right to have counsel present, and that the defendant's plea
             3002      was understandingly and voluntarily entered.
             3003          (e) If the trier of fact finds this section applicable, the court shall enter that specific
             3004      finding on the record and shall indicate in the order of judgment and commitment that the
             3005      defendant has been found by the trier of fact to be a habitual violent offender and is sentenced
             3006      under this section.
             3007          (5) (a) The sentencing enhancement provisions of Section 76-3-407 supersede the
             3008      provisions of this section.
             3009          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), the "violent felony" offense defined in
             3010      Subsection (1)(c) shall include any felony sexual offense violation of Title 76, Chapter 5, Part
             3011      4, Sexual Offenses, to determine if the convicted person is a habitual violent offender.
             3012          (6) The sentencing enhancement described in this section does not apply if:
             3013          (a) the offense for which the person is being sentenced is:
             3014          (i) a grievous sexual offense;
             3015          (ii) child kidnapping, Section 76-5-301.1 ;
             3016          (iii) aggravated kidnapping, Section 76-5-302 ; or
             3017          (iv) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ; and
             3018          (b) applying the sentencing enhancement provided for in this section would result in a
             3019      lower maximum penalty than the penalty provided for under the section that describes the
             3020      offense for which the person is being sentenced.
             3021          Section 59. Section 76-4-203 is amended to read:
             3022           76-4-203. Criminal solicitation -- Elements.
             3023          (1) An actor commits criminal solicitation if, with intent that a felony be committed, he
             3024      solicits, requests, commands, offers to hire, or importunes another person to engage in specific
             3025      conduct that under the circumstances as the actor believes them to be would be a felony or


             3026      would cause the other person to be a party to the commission of a felony.
             3027          (2) An actor may be convicted under this section only if the solicitation is made under
             3028      circumstances strongly corroborative of the actor's intent that the offense be committed.
             3029          (3) It is not a defense under this section that the person solicited by the actor:
             3030          (a) does not agree to act upon the solicitation;
             3031          (b) does not commit an overt act;
             3032          (c) does not engage in conduct constituting a substantial step toward the commission of
             3033      any offense;
             3034          (d) is not criminally responsible for the felony solicited;
             3035          (e) was acquitted, was not prosecuted or convicted, or was convicted of a different
             3036      offense or of a different type or degree of offense; or
             3037          (f) is immune from prosecution.
             3038          (4) It is not a defense under this section that the actor:
             3039          (a) belongs to a class of persons that by definition is legally incapable of committing
             3040      the offense in an individual capacity; or
             3041          (b) fails to communicate with the person he solicits to commit an offense, if the intent
             3042      of the actor's conduct was to effect the communication.
             3043          (5) Nothing in this section prevents an actor who otherwise solicits, requests,
             3044      commands, encourages, or intentionally aids another person to engage in conduct which
             3045      constitutes an offense from being prosecuted and convicted as a party to the offense under
             3046      Section 76-2-202 if the person solicited actually commits the offense.
             3047          Section 60. Section 76-4-401 is amended to read:
             3048           76-4-401. Enticing a minor -- Elements -- Penalties.
             3049          (1) As used in this section:
             3050          (a) "Minor" means a person who is under the age of 18.
             3051          (b) "Text messaging" means a communication in the form of electronic text or one or
             3052      more electronic images sent by the actor from a telephone or computer to another person's
             3053      telephone or computer by addressing the communication to the person's telephone number.


             3054          (2) (a) A person commits enticement of a minor when the person knowingly uses or
             3055      attempts to use the Internet or text messaging to solicit, seduce, lure, or entice a minor or
             3056      another person that the actor believes to be a minor to engage in any sexual activity which is a
             3057      violation of state criminal law.
             3058          (b) A person commits enticement of a minor when the person knowingly uses the
             3059      Internet or text messaging to:
             3060          (i) initiate contact with a minor or a person the actor believes to be a minor; and
             3061          (ii) subsequently to the action under Subsection (2)(b)(i), by any electronic or written
             3062      means, solicits, seduces, lures, or entices, or attempts to solicit, seduce, lure, or entice the
             3063      minor or a person the actor believes to be the minor to engage in any sexual activity which is a
             3064      violation of state criminal law.
             3065          (3) It is not a defense to the crime of enticing a minor under Subsection (2), or an
             3066      attempt to commit this offense, that a law enforcement officer or an undercover operative who
             3067      is working with a law enforcement agency was involved in the detection or investigation of the
             3068      offense.
             3069          (4) An enticement of a minor under Subsection (2)(a) or (b) with the intent to commit:
             3070          (a) a first degree felony is a:
             3071          (i) second degree felony upon the first conviction for violation of this Subsection
             3072      (4)(a); and
             3073          (ii) first degree felony punishable by imprisonment for an indeterminate term of not
             3074      fewer than three years and which may be for life, upon a second or any subsequent conviction
             3075      for a violation of this Subsection (4)(a);
             3076          (b) a second degree felony is a third degree felony;
             3077          (c) a third degree felony is a class A misdemeanor;
             3078          (d) a class A misdemeanor is a class B misdemeanor; and
             3079          (e) a class B misdemeanor is a class C misdemeanor.
             3080          (5) (a) When a person who commits a felony violation of this section has been
             3081      previously convicted of an offense under Subsection (5)(b), the court may not in any way


             3082      shorten the prison sentence, and the court may not:
             3083          (i) grant probation;
             3084          (ii) suspend the execution or imposition of the sentence;
             3085          (iii) enter a judgment for a lower category of offense; or
             3086          (iv) order hospitalization.
             3087          (b) The sections referred to in Subsection (5)(a) are:
             3088          (i) Section 76-4-401 , enticing a minor;
             3089          (ii) Section 76-5-301.1 , child kidnapping;
             3090          (iii) Section 76-5-402 , rape;
             3091          (iv) Section 76-5-402.1 , rape of a child;
             3092          (v) Section 76-5-402.2 , object rape;
             3093          (vi) Section 76-5-402.3 , object rape of a child;
             3094          (vii) Subsection 76-5-403 (2), forcible sodomy;
             3095          (viii) Section 76-5-403.1 , sodomy on a child;
             3096          (ix) Section 76-5-404 , forcible sexual abuse;
             3097          (x) Section 76-5-404.1 , sexual abuse of a child and aggravated sexual abuse of a child;
             3098          (xi) Section 76-5-405 , aggravated sexual assault;
             3099          (xii) any offense in any other state or federal jurisdiction which constitutes or would
             3100      constitute a crime in Subsections [(4)] (5)(b)(i) through (xi); or
             3101          (xiii) the attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses in
             3102      Subsections [(4)] (5)(b)(i) through (xii).
             3103          Section 61. Section 76-5-307 is amended to read:
             3104           76-5-307. Definitions.
             3105          As used in Sections 76-5-308 through [ 76-5-312 ] 76-5-310 of this part:
             3106          (1) "Family member" means a person's parent, grandparent, sibling, or any other person
             3107      related to the person by consanguinity or affinity to the second degree.
             3108          (2) "Smuggling of human beings" means the transportation or procurement of
             3109      transportation for one or more persons by an actor who knows or has reason to know that the


             3110      person or persons transported or to be transported are not:
             3111          (a) citizens of the United States;
             3112          (b) permanent resident aliens; or
             3113          (c) otherwise lawfully in this state or entitled to be in this state.
             3114          Section 62. Section 76-6-107 is amended to read:
             3115           76-6-107. Graffiti defined -- Penalties -- Removal costs -- Reimbursement
             3116      liability.
             3117          (1) As used in this section:
             3118          (a) "Etching" means defacing, damaging, or destroying hard surfaces by means of a
             3119      chemical action which uses any caustic cream, gel, liquid, or solution.
             3120          (b) "Graffiti" means any form of unauthorized printing, writing, spraying, scratching,
             3121      affixing, etching, or inscribing on the property of another regardless of the content or the nature
             3122      of the material used in the commission of the act.
             3123          (c) "Victim" means the person or entity whose property was defaced by the graffiti and
             3124      bears the expense for its removal.
             3125          (2) Graffiti is a:
             3126          (a) second degree felony if the damage caused is in excess of $5,000;
             3127          (b) third degree felony if the damage caused is in excess of $1,000;
             3128          (c) class A misdemeanor if the damage caused is equal to or in excess of $300; and
             3129          (d) class B misdemeanor if the damage caused is less than $300.
             3130          (3) Damages under Subsection (2) include removal costs, repair costs, or replacement
             3131      costs, whichever is less.
             3132          (4) The court, upon conviction or adjudication, shall order restitution to the victim in
             3133      the amount of removal, repair, or replacement costs.
             3134          (5) An additional amount of $1,000 in restitution shall be added to removal costs if the
             3135      graffiti is positioned on an overpass or an underpass, requires that traffic be interfered with in
             3136      order to remove it, or the entity responsible for the area in which the clean-up is to take place
             3137      must provide assistance in order for the removal to take place safely.


             3138          (6) A person who voluntarily, and at his own expense, removes graffiti for which he is
             3139      responsible may be credited for the removal costs against restitution ordered by a court.
             3140          Section 63. Section 76-6-412 is amended to read:
             3141           76-6-412. Theft -- Classification of offenses -- Action for treble damages.
             3142          (1) Theft of property and services as provided in this chapter is punishable:
             3143          (a) as a second degree felony if the:
             3144          (i) value of the property or services is or exceeds $5,000;
             3145          (ii) property stolen is a firearm or an operable motor vehicle;
             3146          (iii) actor is armed with a dangerous weapon, as defined in Section 76-1-601 , at the
             3147      time of the theft; or
             3148          (iv) property is stolen from the person of another;
             3149          (b) as a third degree felony if:
             3150          (i) the value of the property or services is or exceeds $1,500 but is less than $5,000;
             3151          (ii) the actor has been twice before convicted of any of the offenses listed in this
             3152      Subsection (1)(b)(ii), if each prior offense was committed within 10 years of the date of the
             3153      current conviction or the date of the offense upon which the current conviction is based:
             3154          (A) any theft, any robbery, or any burglary with intent to commit theft;
             3155          (B) any offense under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 5, Fraud; or
             3156          (C) any attempt to commit any offense under Subsection (1)(b)(ii)(A) or (B);
             3157          (iii) in a case not amounting to a second-degree felony, the property taken is a stallion,
             3158      mare, colt, gelding, cow, heifer, steer, ox, bull, calf, sheep, goat, mule, jack, jenny, swine,
             3159      poultry, or a fur-bearing animal raised for commercial purposes; or
             3160          (iv) (A) the value of property or services is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;
             3161          (B) the theft occurs on a property where the offender has committed any theft within
             3162      the past five years; and
             3163          (C) the offender has received written notice from the merchant prohibiting the offender
             3164      from entering the property pursuant to Section 78B-3-108 ; or
             3165          (c) as a class A misdemeanor if:


             3166          (i) the value of the property stolen is or exceeds $500 but is less than $1,500;
             3167          (ii) (A) the value of property or services is less than $500;
             3168          (B) the theft occurs on a property where the offender has committed any theft within
             3169      the past five years; and
             3170          (C) the offender has received written notice from the merchant prohibiting the offender
             3171      from entering the property pursuant to Section 78B-3-108 ; or
             3172          (d) as a class B misdemeanor if the value of the property stolen is less than $500 and
             3173      the theft is not an offense under Subsection (1)(c).
             3174          (2) Any individual who violates Subsection 76-6-408 (1) or Section 76-6-413 , or
             3175      commits theft of property described in Subsection 76-6-412 (1)(b)(iii), is civilly liable for three
             3176      times the amount of actual damages, if any sustained by the plaintiff, and for costs of suit and
             3177      reasonable attorney fees.
             3178          Section 64. Section 76-6-1102 is amended to read:
             3179           76-6-1102. Identity fraud crime.
             3180          (1) As used in this part, "personal identifying information" may include:
             3181          (a) name;
             3182          (b) birth date;
             3183          (c) address;
             3184          (d) telephone number;
             3185          (e) drivers license number;
             3186          (f) Social Security number;
             3187          (g) place of employment;
             3188          (h) employee identification numbers or other personal identification numbers;
             3189          (i) mother's maiden name;
             3190          (j) electronic identification numbers;
             3191          (k) electronic signatures under Title 46, Chapter 4, Uniform Electronic Transactions
             3192      Act; or
             3193          (l) any other numbers or information that can be used to access a person's financial


             3194      resources or medical information, except for numbers or information that can be prosecuted as
             3195      financial transaction card offenses under Sections 76-6-506 through [ 76-6-506.4 ] 76-6-506.6 .
             3196          (2) (a) A person is guilty of identity fraud when that person:
             3197          (i) obtains personal identifying information of another person whether that person is
             3198      alive or deceased; and
             3199          (ii) knowingly or intentionally uses, or attempts to use, that information with fraudulent
             3200      intent, including to obtain, or attempt to obtain, credit, goods, services, employment, any other
             3201      thing of value, or medical information.
             3202          (b) It is not a defense to a violation of Subsection (2)(a) that the person did not know
             3203      that the personal information belonged to another person.
             3204          (3) Identity fraud is:
             3205          (a) except as provided in Subsection (3)(b)(ii), a third degree felony if the value of the
             3206      credit, goods, services, employment, or any other thing of value is less than $5,000; or
             3207          (b) a second degree felony if:
             3208          (i) the value of the credit, goods, services, employment, or any other thing of value is
             3209      or exceeds $5,000; or
             3210          (ii) the use described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii) of personal identifying information
             3211      results, directly or indirectly, in bodily injury to another person.
             3212          (4) Multiple violations may be aggregated into a single offense, and the degree of the
             3213      offense is determined by the total value of all credit, goods, services, or any other thing of
             3214      value used, or attempted to be used, through the multiple violations.
             3215          (5) When a defendant is convicted of a violation of this section, the court shall order
             3216      the defendant to make restitution to any victim of the offense or state on the record the reason
             3217      the court does not find ordering restitution to be appropriate.
             3218          (6) Restitution under Subsection (5) may include:
             3219          (a) payment for any costs incurred, including attorney fees, lost wages, and
             3220      replacement of checks; and
             3221          (b) the value of the victim's time incurred due to the offense:


             3222          (i) in clearing the victim's credit history or credit rating;
             3223          (ii) in any civil or administrative proceedings necessary to satisfy or resolve any debt,
             3224      lien, or other obligation of the victim or imputed to the victim and arising from the offense; and
             3225          (iii) in attempting to remedy any other intended or actual harm to the victim incurred as
             3226      a result of the offense.
             3227          Section 65. Section 76-7-305.5 is amended to read:
             3228           76-7-305.5. Requirements for printed materials and informational video.
             3229          (1) In order to ensure that a woman's consent to an abortion is truly an informed
             3230      consent, the Department of Health shall, in accordance with the requirements of this section:
             3231          (a) publish printed materials; and
             3232          (b) produce an informational video.
             3233          (2) The printed materials and the informational video described in Subsection (1) shall:
             3234          (a) be scientifically accurate, comprehensible, and presented in a truthful,
             3235      nonmisleading manner;
             3236          (b) present adoption as a preferred and positive choice and alternative to abortion;
             3237          (c) be printed and produced in a manner that conveys the state's preference for
             3238      childbirth over abortion;
             3239          (d) state that the state prefers childbirth over abortion;
             3240          (e) state that it is unlawful for any person to coerce a woman to undergo an abortion;
             3241          (f) state that any physician who performs an abortion without obtaining the woman's
             3242      informed consent or without providing her a private medical consultation in accordance with
             3243      the requirements of this section, may be liable to her for damages in a civil action at law;
             3244          (g) provide information on resources and public and private services available to assist
             3245      a pregnant woman, financially or otherwise, during pregnancy, at childbirth, and while the
             3246      child is dependent, including:
             3247          (i) medical assistance benefits for prenatal care, childbirth, and neonatal care;
             3248          (ii) services and supports available under Section 35A-3-308 ;
             3249          (iii) other financial aid that may be available during an adoption; and


             3250          (iv) services available from public adoption agencies, private adoption agencies, and
             3251      private attorneys whose practice includes adoption;
             3252          (h) describe the adoption-related expenses that may be paid under Section 76-7-203 ;
             3253          (i) describe the persons who may pay the adoption related expenses described in
             3254      Subsection (2)(h);
             3255          (j) describe the legal responsibility of the father of a child to assist in child support,
             3256      even if the father has agreed to pay for an abortion;
             3257          (k) describe the services available through the Office of Recovery Services, within the
             3258      Department of Human Services, to establish and collect the support described in Subsection
             3259      (2)(j);
             3260          (l) state that private adoption is legal;
             3261          (m) in accordance with Subsection (3), describe the probable anatomical and
             3262      physiological characteristics of an unborn child at two-week gestational increments from
             3263      fertilization to full term, including:
             3264          (i) brain and heart function; and
             3265          (ii) the presence and development of external members and internal organs;
             3266          (n) describe abortion procedures used in current medical practice at the various stages
             3267      of growth of the unborn child, including:
             3268          (i) the medical risks associated with each procedure;
             3269          (ii) the risk related to subsequent childbearing that are associated with each procedure;
             3270      and
             3271          (iii) the consequences of each procedure to the unborn child at various stages of fetal
             3272      development;
             3273          (o) describe the possible detrimental psychological effects of abortion;
             3274          (p) describe the medical risks associated with carrying a child to term; and
             3275          (q) include relevant information on the possibility of an unborn child's survival at the
             3276      two-week gestational increments described in Subsection (2)(m).
             3277          (3) The information described in Subsection (2)(m) shall be accompanied by the


             3278      following for each gestational increment described in Subsection (2)(m):
             3279          (a) pictures or video segments that accurately represent the normal development of an
             3280      unborn child at that stage of development; and
             3281          (b) the dimensions of the fetus at that stage of development.
             3282          (4) The printed material and video described in Subsection (1) may include a toll-free
             3283      24-hour telephone number that may be called in order to obtain, orally, a list and description of
             3284      services, agencies, and adoption attorneys in the locality of the caller.
             3285          (5) In addition to the requirements described in Subsection (2), the printed material
             3286      described in Subsection (1)(a) shall:
             3287          (a) be printed in a typeface large enough to be clearly legible;
             3288          (b) in accordance with Subsection (6), include a geographically indexed list of public
             3289      and private services and agencies available to assist a woman, financially or otherwise, through
             3290      pregnancy, at childbirth, and while the child is dependent;
             3291          (c) except as provided in Subsection (7), include a separate brochure that contains
             3292      truthful, nonmisleading information regarding:
             3293          (i) the ability of an unborn child to experience pain during an abortion procedure;
             3294          (ii) the measures that may be taken, including the administration of an anesthetic or
             3295      analgesic to an unborn child, to alleviate or eliminate pain to an unborn child during an
             3296      abortion procedure;
             3297          (iii) the effectiveness and advisability of taking the measures described in Subsection
             3298      (5)(c)(ii); and
             3299          (iv) potential medical risks to a pregnant woman that are associated with the
             3300      administration of an anesthetic or analgesic to an unborn child during an abortion procedure.
             3301          (6) The list described in Subsection (5)(b) shall include:
             3302          (a) private attorneys whose practice includes adoption; and
             3303          (b) the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of each person listed under
             3304      Subsection (5)(b) or (6)(a).
             3305          (7) A person or facility is not required to provide the information described in


             3306      Subsection (5)(c) to a patient or potential patient, if the abortion is to be performed:
             3307          (a) on an unborn child who is less than 20 weeks gestational age at the time of the
             3308      abortion; or
             3309          (b) on an unborn child who is at least 20 weeks gestational age at the time of the
             3310      abortion, if:
             3311          (i) the abortion is being performed for a reason described in Subsection
             3312      76-7-302 (3)(b)(i); and
             3313          (ii) due to a serious medical emergency, time does not permit compliance with the
             3314      requirement to provide the information described in Subsection (5)(c).
             3315          (8) In addition to the requirements described in Subsection (2), the video described in
             3316      Subsection (1)(b) shall:
             3317          (a) make reference to the list described in Subsection (5)(b); and
             3318          (b) show an ultrasound of the heartbeat of an unborn child at:
             3319          (i) four weeks from conception;
             3320          (ii) six to eight weeks from conception; and
             3321          (iii) each month after [ten] 10 weeks gestational age, up to 14 weeks gestational age.
             3322          Section 66. Section 76-8-109 is amended to read:
             3323           76-8-109. Failure to disclose conflict of interest.
             3324          (1) As used in this section:
             3325          (a) "Conflict of interest" means an action that is taken by a regulated officeholder that
             3326      the officeholder reasonably believes may cause direct financial benefit or detriment to the
             3327      officeholder, a member of the officeholder's immediate family, or an entity that the officeholder
             3328      is required to disclose under the provisions of this section, and that benefit or detriment is
             3329      distinguishable from the effects of that action on the public or on the officeholder's profession,
             3330      occupation, or association generally.
             3331          (b) "Entity" means a corporation, a partnership, a limited liability company, a limited
             3332      partnership, a sole proprietorship, an association, a cooperative, a trust, an organization, a joint
             3333      venture, a governmental entity, an unincorporated organization, or any other legal entity,


             3334      whether established primarily for the purpose of gain or economic profit or not.
             3335          (c) "Filer" means the individual filing a financial declaration under this section.
             3336          (d) "Immediate family" means the regulated officeholder's spouse and children living
             3337      in the officeholder's immediate household.
             3338          (e) "Income" means earnings, compensation, or any other payment made to an
             3339      individual for gain, regardless of source, whether denominated as wages, salary, commission,
             3340      pay, bonus, severance pay, incentive pay, contract payment, interest, per diem, expenses,
             3341      reimbursement, dividends, or otherwise.
             3342          (f) "Regulated officeholder" means an individual that is required to file a financial
             3343      disclosure under the provisions and requirements of this section.
             3344          (g) "State constitutional officer" means the governor, the lieutenant governor, the state
             3345      auditor, the state treasurer, or the attorney general.
             3346          (2) (a) Before or during the execution of any order, settlement, declaration, contract, or
             3347      any other official act of office in which a state constitutional officer has actual knowledge that
             3348      the officer has a conflict of interest which is not stated on the financial disclosure form required
             3349      under Subsection (4), the officer shall publicly declare that the officer may have a conflict of
             3350      interest and what that conflict of interest is.
             3351          (b) Before or during any vote on legislation or any legislative matter in which a
             3352      legislator has actual knowledge that the legislator has a conflict of interest which is not stated
             3353      on the [the] financial disclosure form required under Subsection (4), the legislator shall orally
             3354      declare to the committee or body before which the matter is pending that the legislator may
             3355      have a conflict of interest and what that conflict is.
             3356          (c) Before or during any vote on any rule, resolution, order, or any other board matter
             3357      in which a member of the State Board of Education has actual knowledge that the member has
             3358      a conflict of interest which is not stated on the financial disclosure form required under
             3359      Subsection (4), the member shall orally declare to the board that the member may have a
             3360      conflict of interest and what that conflict of interest is.
             3361          (3) Any public declaration of a conflict of interest that is made under Subsection (2)


             3362      shall be noted:
             3363          (a) on the official record of the action taken, for a state constitutional officer;
             3364          (b) in the minutes of the committee meeting or in the Senate or House Journal, as
             3365      applicable, for a legislator; or
             3366          (c) in the minutes of the meeting or on the official record of the action taken, for a
             3367      member of the State Board of Education.
             3368          (4) (a) The following individuals shall file a financial disclosure form:
             3369          (i) a state constitutional officer, to be due on the tenth day of January of each year, or
             3370      the following business day if the due date falls on a weekend or holiday;
             3371          (ii) a legislator, at the following times:
             3372          (A) on the first day of each general session of the Legislature; and
             3373          (B) each time the legislator changes employment;
             3374          (iii) a member of the State Board of Education, at the following times:
             3375          (A) on the tenth day of January of each year, or the following business day if the due
             3376      date falls on a weekend or holiday; and
             3377          (B) each time the member changes employment.
             3378          (b) The financial disclosure form shall include:
             3379          (i) the filer's name;
             3380          (ii) the name and address of the filer's primary employer;
             3381          (iii) a brief description of the filer's employment, including the filer's occupation and,
             3382      as applicable, job title;
             3383          (iv) for each entity in which the filer is an owner or an officer:
             3384          (A) the name of the entity;
             3385          (B) a brief description of the type of business or activity conducted by the entity; and
             3386          (C) the filer's position in the entity;
             3387          (v) for each entity that has paid $5,000 or more in income to the filer within the
             3388      one-year period ending immediately before the date of the disclosure form:
             3389          (A) the name of the entity; and


             3390          (B) a brief description of the type of business [of] or activity conducted by the entity;
             3391          (vi) for each entity in which the filer holds any stocks or bonds having a fair market
             3392      value of $5,000 or more as of the date of the disclosure form, but excluding funds that are
             3393      managed by a third party, including blind trusts, managed investment accounts, and mutual
             3394      funds:
             3395          (A) the name of the entity; and
             3396          (B) a brief description of the type of business or activity conducted by the entity;
             3397          (vii) for each entity not listed in Subsections (4)(b)(iv) through (4)(b)(vi), in which the
             3398      filer serves on the board of directors or in any other type of formal advisory capacity:
             3399          (A) the name of the entity or organization;
             3400          (B) a brief description of the type of business or activity conducted by the entity; and
             3401          (C) the type of advisory position held by the filer;
             3402          (viii) at the option of the filer, any real property in which the filer holds an ownership
             3403      or other financial interest that the filer believes may constitute a conflict of interest, including:
             3404          (A) a description of the real property; and
             3405          (B) a description of the type of interest held by the filer in the property;
             3406          (ix) the name of the filer's spouse and any other adult residing in the filer's household
             3407      that is not related by blood or marriage, as applicable;
             3408          (x) a brief description of the employment and occupation of the filer's spouse and any
             3409      other adult residing in the filer's household that is not related by blood or marriage, as
             3410      applicable;
             3411          (xi) at the option of the filer, a description of any other matter or interest that the filer
             3412      believes may constitute a conflict of interest;
             3413          (xii) the date the form was completed;
             3414          (xiii) a statement that the filer believes that the form is true and accurate to the best of
             3415      the filer's knowledge; and
             3416          (xiv) the signature of the filer.
             3417          (c) (i) The financial disclosure shall be filed with:


             3418          (A) the secretary of the Senate, for a legislator that is a senator;
             3419          (B) the chief clerk of the House of Representatives, for a legislator that is a
             3420      representative; or
             3421          (C) the lieutenant governor, for all other regulated officeholders.
             3422          (ii) The lieutenant governor, the secretary of the Senate, and the chief clerk of the
             3423      House of Representatives shall ensure that blank financial disclosure forms are available on the
             3424      Internet and at their offices.
             3425          (d) Financial disclosure forms that are filed under the procedures and requirements of
             3426      this section shall be made available to the public:
             3427          (i) on the Internet; and
             3428          (ii) at the office where the form was filed.
             3429          (e) This section's requirement to disclose a conflict of interest does not prohibit a
             3430      regulated officeholder from voting or acting on any matter.
             3431          (5) A regulated officeholder who violates the requirements of Subsection (2) is guilty
             3432      of a class B misdemeanor.
             3433          Section 67. Section 76-9-702 is amended to read:
             3434           76-9-702. Lewdness.
             3435          (1) A person is guilty of lewdness if the person under circumstances not amounting to
             3436      rape, object rape, forcible sodomy, forcible sexual abuse, aggravated sexual assault, or an
             3437      attempt to commit any of these offenses, performs any of the following acts in a public place or
             3438      under circumstances which the person should know will likely cause affront or alarm to, on, or
             3439      in the presence of another who is 14 years of age or older:
             3440          (a) an act of sexual intercourse or sodomy;
             3441          (b) exposes his or her genitals, the female breast below the top of the areola, the
             3442      buttocks, the anus, or the pubic area;
             3443          (c) masturbates; or
             3444          (d) any other act of lewdness.
             3445          (2) (a) A person convicted the first or second time of a violation of Subsection (1) is


             3446      guilty of a class B misdemeanor, except under Subsection (2)(b).
             3447          (b) A person convicted of a violation of Subsection (1) is guilty of a third degree felony
             3448      if at the time of the violation:
             3449          (i) the person is a sex offender as defined in Section 77-27-21.7 ;
             3450          (ii) the person has been previously convicted two or more times of violating Subsection
             3451      (1); or
             3452          (iii) the person has previously been convicted of a violation of Subsection (1) and has
             3453      also previously been convicted of a violation of Section 76-9-702.5 .
             3454          (c) (i) For purposes of this Subsection (2) and Subsection [ 77-27-21.5 (1)(n)]
             3455      77-41-102 (16), a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to a charge under this section that is held in
             3456      abeyance under Title 77, Chapter 2a, Pleas in Abeyance, is the equivalent of a conviction.
             3457          (ii) This Subsection (2)(c) also applies if the charge under this Subsection (2) has been
             3458      subsequently reduced or dismissed in accordance with the plea in abeyance agreement.
             3459          (3) A woman's breast feeding, including breast feeding in any location where the
             3460      woman otherwise may rightfully be, does not under any circumstance constitute a lewd act,
             3461      irrespective of whether or not the breast is covered during or incidental to feeding.
             3462          Section 68. Section 76-9-702.1 is amended to read:
             3463           76-9-702.1. Sexual battery.
             3464          (1) A person is guilty of sexual battery if the person, under circumstances not
             3465      amounting to an offense under Subsection (2), intentionally touches, whether or not through
             3466      clothing, the anus, buttocks, or any part of the genitals of another person, or the breast of a
             3467      female person, and the actor's conduct is under circumstances the actor knows or should know
             3468      will likely cause affront or alarm to the person touched.
             3469          (2) Offenses referred to in Subsection (1) are:
             3470          (a) rape, Section 76-5-402 ;
             3471          (b) rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.1 ;
             3472          (c) object rape, Section 76-5-402.2 ;
             3473          (d) object rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.3 ;


             3474          (e) forcible sodomy, Subsection 76-5-403 (2);
             3475          (f) sodomy on a child, Section 76-5-403.1 ;
             3476          (g) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ;
             3477          (h) sexual abuse of a child, Subsection 76-5-404.1 (2);
             3478          (i) aggravated sexual abuse of a child, Subsection 76-5-404.1 (4);
             3479          (j) aggravated sexual assault, Section 76-5-405 ; and
             3480          (k) an attempt to commit any offense under this Subsection (2).
             3481          (3) Sexual battery is a class A misdemeanor.
             3482          (4) For purposes of Subsection [ 77-27-21.5 (1)(n)] 77-41-102 (16) only, a plea of guilty
             3483      or nolo contendere to a charge under this section that is held in abeyance under Title 77,
             3484      Chapter 2a, Pleas in Abeyance, is the equivalent of a conviction. This Subsection (4) also
             3485      applies if the charge under this section has been subsequently reduced or dismissed in
             3486      accordance with the plea in abeyance agreement.
             3487          Section 69. Section 76-9-702.5 is amended to read:
             3488           76-9-702.5. Lewdness involving a child.
             3489          (1) A person is guilty of lewdness involving a child if the person under circumstances
             3490      not amounting to rape of a child, object rape of a child, sodomy upon a child, sexual abuse of a
             3491      child, aggravated sexual abuse of a child, or an attempt to commit any of those offenses,
             3492      intentionally or knowingly does any of the following to, or in the presence of, a child who is
             3493      under 14 years of age:
             3494          (a) performs an act of sexual intercourse or sodomy;
             3495          (b) exposes his or her genitals, the female breast below the top of the areola, the
             3496      buttocks, the anus, or the pubic area:
             3497          (i) in a public place; or
             3498          (ii) in a private place:
             3499          (A) under circumstances the person should know will likely cause affront or alarm; or
             3500          (B) with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of the actor or the child;
             3501          (c) masturbates;


             3502          (d) under circumstances not amounting to sexual exploitation of a child under Section
             3503      76-5b-201 , causes a child under the age of 14 years to expose his or her genitals, anus, or
             3504      breast, if female, to the actor, with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of the actor
             3505      or the child; or
             3506          (e) performs any other act of lewdness.
             3507          (2) (a) Lewdness involving a child is a class A misdemeanor, except under Subsection
             3508      (2)(b).
             3509          (b) Lewdness involving a child is a third degree felony if at the time of the violation:
             3510          (i) the person is a sex offender as defined in Section 77-27-21.7 ; or
             3511          (ii) the person has previously been convicted of a violation of this section.
             3512          Section 70. Section 76-9-1008 is amended to read:
             3513           76-9-1008. Proof of immigration status required to receive public benefits.
             3514          (1) (a) An agency that provides state or local public benefits as defined in 8 U.S.C. Sec.
             3515      1621 shall comply with Section [ 63G-11-104 ] 63G-12-402 and shall also comply with this
             3516      section, except:
             3517          (i) as provided in Subsection [ 63G-11-104 (4)] 63G-12-402 (3)(g) or (k); or
             3518          (ii) when compliance is exempted by federal law or when compliance could reasonably
             3519      be expected to be grounds for the federal government to withhold federal Medicaid funding.
             3520          (b) The agency shall verify a person's lawful presence in the United States by requiring
             3521      that the applicant under this section sign a certificate under penalty of perjury, stating that the
             3522      applicant:
             3523          (i) is a United States citizen; or
             3524          (ii) is a qualified alien as defined by 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1641.
             3525          (c) The certificate under Subsection (1)(b) shall include a statement advising the signer
             3526      that providing false information subjects the signer to penalties for perjury.
             3527          (d) The signature under this Subsection (1) may be executed in person or
             3528      electronically.
             3529          (e) When an applicant who is a qualified alien has executed the certificate under this


             3530      section, the applicant's eligibility for benefits shall be verified by the agency through the federal
             3531      SAVE program or an equivalent program designated by the United States Department of
             3532      Homeland Security.
             3533          (2) Any person who knowingly and willfully makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent
             3534      statement of representation in a certificate executed under this section is guilty of public
             3535      assistance fraud under Section 76-8-1205 .
             3536          (3) If the certificate constitutes a false claim of United States citizenship under 18
             3537      U.S.C. Sec. 911, the agency requiring the certificate shall file a complaint with the United
             3538      States Attorney for the applicable federal judicial district based upon the venue in which the
             3539      certificate was executed.
             3540          (4) Agencies may, with the concurrence of the Utah Attorney General, adopt variations
             3541      to the requirements of the provisions of this section that provide for adjudication of unique
             3542      individual circumstances where the verification procedures in this section would impose
             3543      unusual hardship on a legal resident of this state.
             3544          (5) If an agency under Subsection (1) receives verification that a person making an
             3545      application for any benefit, service, or license is not a qualified alien, the agency shall provide
             3546      the information to the local law enforcement agency for enforcement of Section 76-8-1205
             3547      unless prohibited by federal mandate.
             3548          Section 71. Section 76-10-104.1 is amended to read:
             3549           76-10-104.1. Providing tobacco paraphernalia to minors -- Penalties.
             3550          (1) For purposes of this section:
             3551          (a) "Provides":
             3552          (i) includes selling, giving, furnishing, sending, or causing to be sent; and
             3553          (ii) does not include the acts of the United States Postal Service or other common
             3554      carrier when engaged in the business of transporting and delivering packages for others or the
             3555      acts of a person, whether compensated or not, who transports or delivers a package for another
             3556      person without any reason to know of the package's content.
             3557          (b) "Tobacco paraphernalia":


             3558          (i) means any equipment, product, or material of any kind which is used, intended for
             3559      use, or designed for use to package, repackage, store, contain, conceal, ingest, inhale, or
             3560      otherwise introduce a cigar, cigarette, or tobacco in any form into the human body, including:
             3561          (A) metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without
             3562      screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;
             3563          (B) water pipes;
             3564          (C) carburetion tubes and devices;
             3565          (D) smoking and carburetion masks;
             3566          (E) roach clips: meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a cigarette, that
             3567      has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;
             3568          (F) chamber pipes;
             3569          (G) carburetor pipes;
             3570          (H) electric pipes;
             3571          (I) air-driven pipes;
             3572          (J) chillums;
             3573          (K) bongs; and
             3574          (L) ice pipes or chillers; and
             3575          (ii) does not include matches or lighters.
             3576          (2) (a) It is unlawful for a person to[,] knowingly, intentionally, recklessly, or with
             3577      criminal negligence provide any tobacco paraphernalia to any person under 19 years of age.
             3578          (b) A person who violates this section is guilty of a class C misdemeanor on the first
             3579      offense and a class B misdemeanor on subsequent offenses.
             3580          Section 72. Section 76-10-501 is amended to read:
             3581           76-10-501. Definitions.
             3582          As used in this part:
             3583          (1) (a) "Antique firearm" means:
             3584          (i) any firearm, including any firearm with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or
             3585      similar type of ignition system, manufactured in or before 1898; or


             3586          (ii) a firearm that is a replica of any firearm described in this Subsection (1)(a), if the
             3587      replica:
             3588          (A) is not designed or redesigned for using rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed
             3589      ammunition; or
             3590          (B) uses rimfire or centerfire fixed ammunition which is:
             3591          (I) no longer manufactured in the United States; and
             3592          (II) is not readily available in ordinary channels of commercial trade; or
             3593          (iii) (A) that is a muzzle loading rifle, shotgun, or pistol; and
             3594          (B) is designed to use black powder, or a black powder substitute, and cannot use fixed
             3595      ammunition.
             3596          (b) "Antique firearm" does not include:
             3597          (i) a weapon that incorporates a firearm frame or receiver;
             3598          (ii) a firearm that is converted into a muzzle loading weapon; or
             3599          (iii) a muzzle loading weapon that can be readily converted to fire fixed ammunition by
             3600      replacing the:
             3601          (A) barrel;
             3602          (B) bolt;
             3603          (C) breechblock; or
             3604          (D) any combination of Subsection (1)(b)(iii)(A), (B), or (C).
             3605          (2) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Identification created in Section 53-10-201
             3606      within the Department of Public Safety.
             3607          (3) (a) "Concealed dangerous weapon" means a dangerous weapon that is:
             3608          (i) covered, hidden, or secreted in a manner that the public would not be aware of its
             3609      presence; and
             3610          (ii) readily accessible for immediate use.
             3611          (b) A dangerous weapon is not a concealed dangerous weapon if it is a firearm which is
             3612      unloaded and is securely encased.
             3613          (4) "Criminal history background check" means a criminal background check


             3614      conducted by a licensed firearms dealer on every purchaser of a handgun, except a Federal
             3615      Firearms Licensee, through the bureau or the local law enforcement agency where the firearms
             3616      dealer conducts business.
             3617          (5) "Curio or relic firearm" means a firearm that:
             3618          (a) is of special interest to a collector because of a quality that is not associated with
             3619      firearms intended for:
             3620          (i) sporting use;
             3621          (ii) use as an offensive weapon; or
             3622          (iii) use as a defensive weapon;
             3623          (b) (i) was manufactured at least 50 years before the current date; and
             3624          (ii) is not a replica of a firearm described in Subsection (5)(b)(i);
             3625          (c) is certified by the curator of a municipal, state, or federal museum that exhibits
             3626      firearms to be a curio or relic of museum interest;
             3627          (d) derives a substantial part of its monetary value:
             3628          (i) from the fact that the firearm is:
             3629          (A) novel;
             3630          (B) rare; or
             3631          (C) bizarre; or
             3632          (ii) because of the firearm's association with an historical:
             3633          (A) figure;
             3634          (B) period; or
             3635          (C) event; and
             3636          (e) has been designated as a curio or relic firearm by the director of the United States
             3637      Treasury Department Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms under 27 C.F.R. Sec. [178.11]
             3638      478.11.
             3639          (6) (a) "Dangerous weapon" means an item that in the manner of its use or intended use
             3640      is capable of causing death or serious bodily injury.
             3641          (b) The following factors shall be used in determining whether a knife, or another item,


             3642      object, or thing not commonly known as a dangerous weapon is a dangerous weapon:
             3643          (i) the character of the instrument, object, or thing;
             3644          (ii) the character of the wound produced, if any;
             3645          (iii) the manner in which the instrument, object, or thing was used; and
             3646          (iv) the other lawful purposes for which the instrument, object, or thing may be used.
             3647          (c) "Dangerous weapon" does not include an explosive, chemical, or incendiary device
             3648      as defined by Section 76-10-306 .
             3649          (7) "Dealer" means a person who is:
             3650          (a) licensed under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923; and
             3651          (b) engaged in the business of selling, leasing, or otherwise transferring a handgun,
             3652      whether the person is a retail or wholesale dealer, pawnbroker, or otherwise.
             3653          (8) "Enter" means intrusion of the entire body.
             3654          (9) "Federal Firearms Licensee" means a person who:
             3655          (a) holds a valid Federal Firearms License issued under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923; and
             3656          (b) is engaged in the activities authorized by the specific category of license held.
             3657          (10) (a) "Firearm" means a pistol, revolver, shotgun, short barrel shotgun, rifle or short
             3658      barrel rifle, or a device that could be used as a dangerous weapon from which is expelled a
             3659      projectile by action of an explosive.
             3660          (b) As used in Sections 76-10-526 and 76-10-527 , "firearm" does not include an
             3661      antique firearm.
             3662          (11) "Firearms transaction record form" means a form created by the bureau to be
             3663      completed by a person purchasing, selling, or transferring a handgun from a dealer in the state.
             3664          (12) "Fully automatic weapon" means a firearm which fires, is designed to fire, or can
             3665      be readily restored to fire, automatically more than one shot without manual reloading by a
             3666      single function of the trigger.
             3667          (13) (a) "Handgun" means a pistol, revolver, or other firearm of any description, loaded
             3668      or unloaded, from which a shot, bullet, or other missile can be discharged, the length of which,
             3669      not including any revolving, detachable, or magazine breech, does not exceed 12 inches.


             3670          (b) As used in Sections 76-10-520 , 76-10-521 , and 76-10-522 , "handgun" and "pistol
             3671      or revolver" do not include an antique firearm.
             3672          (14) "House of worship" means a church, temple, synagogue, mosque, or other
             3673      building set apart primarily for the purpose of worship in which religious services are held and
             3674      the main body of which is kept for that use and not put to any other use inconsistent with its
             3675      primary purpose.
             3676          (15) "Prohibited area" means a place where it is unlawful to discharge a firearm.
             3677          (16) "Readily accessible for immediate use" means that a firearm or other dangerous
             3678      weapon is carried on the person or within such close proximity and in such a manner that it can
             3679      be retrieved and used as readily as if carried on the person.
             3680          (17) "Residence" means an improvement to real property used or occupied as a primary
             3681      or secondary residence.
             3682          (18) "Securely encased" means not readily accessible for immediate use, such as held
             3683      in a gun rack, or in a closed case or container, whether or not locked, or in a trunk or other
             3684      storage area of a motor vehicle, not including a glove box or console box.
             3685          (19) "Short barrel shotgun" or "short barrel rifle" means a shotgun having a barrel or
             3686      barrels of fewer than 18 inches in length, or in the case of a rifle, having a barrel or barrels of
             3687      fewer than 16 inches in length, or a dangerous weapon made from a rifle or shotgun by
             3688      alteration, modification, or otherwise, if the weapon as modified has an overall length of fewer
             3689      than 26 inches.
             3690          (20) "State entity" means a department, commission, board, council, agency,
             3691      institution, officer, corporation, fund, division, office, committee, authority, laboratory, library,
             3692      unit, bureau, panel, or other administrative unit of the state.
             3693          (21) "Violent felony" has the same meaning as defined in Section 76-3-203.5 .
             3694          Section 73. Section 76-10-526 is amended to read:
             3695           76-10-526. Criminal background check prior to purchase of a firearm -- Fee --
             3696      Exemption for concealed firearm permit holders and law enforcement officers.
             3697          (1) For purposes of this section, "valid permit to carry a concealed firearm" does not


             3698      include a temporary permit issued under Section 53-5-705 .
             3699          (2) (a) To establish personal identification and residence in this state for purposes of
             3700      this part, a dealer shall require an individual receiving a firearm to present one photo
             3701      identification on a form issued by a governmental agency of the state.
             3702          (b) A dealer may not accept a driving privilege card issued under Section 53-3-207 as
             3703      proof of identification for the purpose of establishing personal identification and residence in
             3704      this state as required under this Subsection (2).
             3705          (3) (a) A criminal history background check is required for the sale of a firearm by a
             3706      licensed firearm dealer in the state.
             3707          (b) Subsection (3)(a) does not apply to the sale of a firearm to a Federal Firearms
             3708      Licensee.
             3709          (4) (a) An individual purchasing a firearm from a dealer shall consent in writing to a
             3710      criminal background check, on a form provided by the bureau.
             3711          (b) The form shall contain the following information:
             3712          (i) the dealer identification number;
             3713          (ii) the name and address of the individual receiving the firearm;
             3714          (iii) the date of birth, height, weight, eye color, and hair color of the individual
             3715      receiving the firearm; and
             3716          (iv) the Social Security number or any other identification number of the individual
             3717      receiving the firearm.
             3718          (5) (a) The dealer shall send the information required by Subsection (4) to the bureau
             3719      immediately upon its receipt by the dealer.
             3720          (b) A dealer may not sell or transfer a firearm to an individual until the dealer has
             3721      provided the bureau with the information in Subsection (4) and has received approval from the
             3722      bureau under Subsection (7).
             3723          (6) The dealer shall make a request for criminal history background information by
             3724      telephone or other electronic means to the bureau and shall receive approval or denial of the
             3725      inquiry by telephone or other electronic means.


             3726          (7) When the dealer calls for or requests a criminal history background check, the
             3727      bureau shall:
             3728          (a) review the criminal history files, including juvenile court records, to determine if
             3729      the individual is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transferring a firearm by state or
             3730      federal law;
             3731          (b) inform the dealer that:
             3732          (i) the records indicate the individual is prohibited; or
             3733          (ii) the individual is approved for purchasing, possessing, or transferring a firearm;
             3734          (c) provide the dealer with a unique transaction number for that inquiry; and
             3735          (d) provide a response to the requesting dealer during the call for a criminal
             3736      background check, or by return call, or other electronic means, without delay, except in case of
             3737      electronic failure or other circumstances beyond the control of the bureau, the bureau shall
             3738      advise the dealer of the reason for the delay and give the dealer an estimate of the length of the
             3739      delay.
             3740          (8) (a) The bureau may not maintain any records of the criminal history background
             3741      check longer than 20 days from the date of the dealer's request, if the bureau determines that
             3742      the individual receiving the firearm is not prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
             3743      transferring the firearm under state or federal law.
             3744          (b) However, the bureau shall maintain a log of requests containing the dealer's federal
             3745      firearms number, the transaction number, and the transaction date for a period of 12 months.
             3746          (9) If the criminal history background check discloses information indicating that the
             3747      individual attempting to purchase the firearm is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
             3748      transferring a firearm, the bureau shall inform the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction
             3749      where the individual resides.
             3750          (10) If an individual is denied the right to purchase a firearm under this section, the
             3751      individual may review the individual's criminal history information and may challenge or
             3752      amend the information as provided in Section 53-10-108 .
             3753          (11) The bureau shall make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah


             3754      Administrative Rulemaking Act, to ensure the identity, confidentiality, and security of all
             3755      records provided by the bureau under this part are in conformance with the requirements of the
             3756      Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act, Pub. L. No. 103-159, 107 Stat. 1536 (1993).
             3757          (12) (a) (i) A dealer shall collect a criminal history background check fee of $7.50 for
             3758      the sale of a firearm under this section.
             3759          (ii) This fee remains in effect until changed by the bureau through the process under
             3760      Section 63J-1-504 .
             3761          (b) (i) The dealer shall forward at one time all fees collected for criminal history
             3762      background checks performed during the month to the bureau by the last day of the month
             3763      following the sale of a firearm.
             3764          (ii) The bureau shall deposit the fees in the General Fund as dedicated credits to cover
             3765      the cost of administering and conducting the criminal history background check program.
             3766          (13) An individual with a concealed firearm permit issued under Title 53, Chapter 5,
             3767      Part 7, Concealed Firearm Act, is exempt from the background check and corresponding fee
             3768      required in this section for the purchase of a firearm if:
             3769          (a) the individual presents the individual's concealed firearm permit to the dealer prior
             3770      to purchase of the firearm; and
             3771          (b) the dealer verifies with the bureau that the individual's concealed firearm permit is
             3772      valid.
             3773          (14) A law enforcement officer, as defined in Section 53-13-103 , is exempt from the
             3774      background check fee required in this section for the purchase of a personal firearm to be
             3775      carried while off-duty if the law enforcement officer verifies current employment by providing
             3776      a letter of good standing from the officer's commanding officer and current law enforcement
             3777      photo identification. This section may only be used by a law enforcement officer to purchase a
             3778      personal firearm once in a 24-month period.
             3779          Section 74. Section 76-10-919 is amended to read:
             3780           76-10-919. Person may bring action for injunctive relief and damages -- Treble
             3781      damages -- Recovery of actual damages or civil penalty by state or political subdivisions


             3782      -- Immunity of political subdivisions from damages, costs, or attorney fees.
             3783          (1) (a) A person who is a citizen of this state or a resident of this state and who is
             3784      injured or is threatened with injury in his business or property by a violation of the Utah
             3785      Antitrust Act may bring an action for injunctive relief and damages, regardless of whether the
             3786      person dealt directly or indirectly with the defendant. This remedy is in addition to any other
             3787      remedies provided by law. It may not diminish or offset any other remedy.
             3788          (b) Subject to the provisions of Subsections (3), (4), and (5), the court shall award three
             3789      times the amount of damages sustained, plus the cost of suit and [a] reasonable attorney fees, in
             3790      addition to granting any appropriate temporary, preliminary, or permanent injunctive relief.
             3791          (2) (a) If the court determines that a judgment in the amount of three times the damages
             3792      awarded plus attorney fees and costs will directly cause the insolvency of the defendant, the
             3793      court shall reduce the amount of judgment to the highest sum that would not cause the
             3794      defendant's insolvency.
             3795          (b) The court may not reduce a judgment to an amount less than the amount of
             3796      damages sustained plus the costs of suit and [a] reasonable attorney fees.
             3797          (3) The state or any of its political subdivisions may recover the actual damages it
             3798      sustains, or the civil penalty provided by the Utah Antitrust Act, in addition to injunctive relief,
             3799      costs of suit, and reasonable attorney fees.
             3800          (4) No damages, costs, or attorney fees may be recovered under this section:
             3801          (a) from any political subdivision;
             3802          (b) from the official or employee of any political subdivision acting in an official
             3803      capacity; or
             3804          (c) against any person based on any official action directed by a political subdivision or
             3805      its official or employee acting in an official capacity.
             3806          (5) Subsection (4) does not apply to cases filed before April 27, 1987, unless the
             3807      defendant establishes and the court determines that in light of all the circumstances, including
             3808      the posture of litigation and the availability of alternative relief, it would be inequitable not to
             3809      apply Subsection (4) to a pending case.


             3810          (6) When a defendant has been sued in one or more actions by both direct and indirect
             3811      purchasers, whether in state court or federal court, a defendant shall be entitled to prove as a
             3812      partial or complete defense to a claim for damages that the damages incurred by the plaintiff or
             3813      plaintiffs have been passed on to others who are entitled to recover so as to avoid duplication
             3814      of recovery of damages. In an action by indirect purchasers, any damages or settlement
             3815      amounts paid to direct purchasers for the same alleged antitrust violations shall constitute a
             3816      defense in the amount paid on a claim by indirect purchasers under this chapter so as to avoid
             3817      duplication of recovery of damages.
             3818          (7) It shall be presumed, in the absence of proof to the contrary, that the injured
             3819      persons who dealt directly with the defendant incurred at least 1/3 of the damages, and shall,
             3820      therefore, recover at least 1/3 of the awarded damages. It shall also be presumed, in the
             3821      absence of proof to the contrary, that the injured persons who dealt indirectly with the
             3822      defendant incurred at least 1/3 of the damages, and shall, therefore, recover at least 1/3 of the
             3823      awarded damages. The final 1/3 of the damages shall be awarded by the court to those injured
             3824      persons determined by the court as most likely to have absorbed the damages.
             3825          (8) There is a presumption, in the absence of proof to the contrary and subject to
             3826      Subsection (7), that each level in a product's or service's distribution chain passed on any and
             3827      all increments in its cost due to an increase in the cost of an ingredient or a component product
             3828      or service that was caused by a violation of this chapter. This amount will be presumed, in the
             3829      absence of evidence to the contrary, to be equal to the change in the cost, in dollars and cents,
             3830      of the ingredient, component product, or service to its first purchaser.
             3831          (9) The attorney general shall be notified by the plaintiff about the filing of any class
             3832      action involving antitrust violations that includes plaintiffs from this state. The attorney
             3833      general shall receive a copy of each filing from each plaintiff. The attorney general may, in his
             3834      or her discretion, intervene or file amicus briefs in the case, and may be heard on the question
             3835      of the fairness or appropriateness of any proposed settlement agreement.
             3836          (10) If, in a class action or parens patriae action filed under this chapter, including the
             3837      settlement of any action, it is not feasible to return any part of the recovery to the injured


             3838      plaintiffs, the court shall order the residual funds be applied to benefit the specific class of
             3839      injured plaintiffs, to improve antitrust enforcement generally by depositing the residual funds
             3840      into the Attorney General Litigation Fund created by Section 76-10-922 , or both.
             3841          (11) In any action brought under this chapter, the court shall approve all attorney fees
             3842      and arrangements for the payment of attorney fees, including contingency fee agreements.
             3843          Section 75. Section 76-10-1201 is amended to read:
             3844           76-10-1201. Definitions.
             3845          For the purpose of this part:
             3846          (1) "Blinder rack" means an opaque cover that covers the lower 2/3 of a material so
             3847      that the lower 2/3 of the material is concealed from view.
             3848          (2) "Contemporary community standards" means those current standards in the
             3849      vicinage where an offense alleged under this part has occurred, is occurring, or will occur.
             3850          (3) "Distribute" means to transfer possession of materials whether with or without
             3851      consideration.
             3852          (4) "Exhibit" means to show.
             3853          (5) (a) "Harmful to minors" means that quality of any description or representation, in
             3854      whatsoever form, of nudity, sexual conduct, sexual excitement, or sadomasochistic abuse when
             3855      it:
             3856          (i) taken as a whole, appeals to the prurient interest in sex of minors;
             3857          (ii) is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community as a whole with
             3858      respect to what is suitable material for minors; and
             3859          (iii) taken as a whole, does not have serious value for minors.
             3860          (b) Serious value includes only serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value for
             3861      minors.
             3862          (6) (a) "Knowingly," regarding material or a performance, means an awareness,
             3863      whether actual or constructive, of the character of the material or performance.
             3864          (b) As used in this Subsection (6), a person has constructive knowledge if a reasonable
             3865      inspection or observation under the circumstances would have disclosed the nature of the


             3866      subject matter and if a failure to inspect or observe is either for the purpose of avoiding the
             3867      disclosure or is criminally negligent as described in Section 76-2-103 .
             3868          (7) "Material" means anything printed or written or any picture, drawing, photograph,
             3869      motion picture, or pictorial representation, or any statue or other figure, or any recording or
             3870      transcription, or any mechanical, chemical, or electrical reproduction, or anything which is or
             3871      may be used as a means of communication. Material includes undeveloped photographs,
             3872      molds, printing plates, and other latent representational objects.
             3873          (8) "Minor" means any person less than 18 years of age.
             3874          (9) "Negligently" means simple negligence, the failure to exercise that degree of care
             3875      that a reasonable and prudent person would exercise under like or similar circumstances.
             3876          (10) "Nudity" means:
             3877          (a) the showing of the human male or female genitals, pubic area, or buttocks, with less
             3878      than an opaque covering;
             3879          (b) the showing of a female breast with less than an opaque covering, or any portion of
             3880      the female breast below the top of the areola; or
             3881          (c) the depiction of covered male genitals in a discernibly turgid state.
             3882          (11) "Performance" means any physical human bodily activity, whether engaged in
             3883      alone or with other persons, including singing, speaking, dancing, acting, simulating, or
             3884      pantomiming.
             3885          (12) "Public place" includes a place to which admission is gained by payment of a
             3886      membership or admission fee, however designated, notwithstanding its being designated a
             3887      private club or by words of like import.
             3888          (13) "Sado[-]masochistic abuse" means:
             3889          (a) flagellation or torture by or upon a person who is nude or clad in undergarments, a
             3890      mask, or in a revealing or bizarre costume; or
             3891          (b) the condition of being fettered, bound, or otherwise physically restrained on the part
             3892      of a person clothed as described in Subsection (13)(a).
             3893          (14) "Sexual conduct" means acts of masturbation, sexual intercourse, or any touching


             3894      of a person's clothed or unclothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if the person is a female,
             3895      breast, whether alone or between members of the same or opposite sex or between humans and
             3896      animals in an act of apparent or actual sexual stimulation or gratification.
             3897          (15) "Sexual excitement" means a condition of human male or female genitals when in
             3898      a state of sexual stimulation or arousal, or the sensual experiences of humans engaging in or
             3899      witnessing sexual conduct or nudity.
             3900          Section 76. Section 77-36-2.5 is amended to read:
             3901           77-36-2.5. Conditions for release after arrest for domestic violence -- Jail release
             3902      agreements -- Jail release court orders.
             3903          (1) (a) Upon arrest for domestic violence, and before the person is released on bail,
             3904      recognizance, or otherwise, the person may not personally contact the alleged victim of
             3905      domestic violence.
             3906          (b) A person who violates Subsection (1)(a) is guilty of a class B misdemeanor.
             3907          (2) Upon arrest for domestic violence, a person may not be released on bail,
             3908      recognizance, or otherwise prior to the close of the next court day following the arrest, unless
             3909      as a condition of that release the person is ordered by the court or agrees in writing that until
             3910      further order of the court, the person will:
             3911          (a) have no personal contact with the alleged victim;
             3912          (b) not threaten or harass the alleged victim; and
             3913          (c) not knowingly enter onto the premises of the alleged victim's residence or any
             3914      premises temporarily occupied by the alleged victim.
             3915          (3) (a) The jail release agreement or jail release court order expires at midnight on the
             3916      day on which the person arrested appears in person or by video for arraignment or an initial
             3917      appearance.
             3918          (b) (i) If criminal charges have not been filed against the arrested person, the court
             3919      may, for good cause and in writing, extend the jail release agreement or jail release court order
             3920      beyond the time period under Subsection (3)(a) as provided in Subsection (3)(b)(ii).
             3921          (ii) (A) The court may extend a jail release agreement or jail release court order under


             3922      Subsection (3)(b)(i) to no longer than midnight of the third business day after the arrested
             3923      person's first court appearance.
             3924          (B) If criminal charges are filed against the arrested person within the three business
             3925      days under Subsection (3)(b)(ii)(A), the jail release agreement or the jail release court order
             3926      continues in effect until the arrested person appears in person or by video at the arrested
             3927      person's next scheduled court appearance.
             3928          (c) If criminal charges have been filed against the arrested person the court may, upon
             3929      the request of the prosecutor or the victim or upon the court's own motion, issue a pretrial
             3930      protective order.
             3931          (4) As a condition of release, the court may order the defendant to participate in an
             3932      electronic or other monitoring program and to pay the costs associated with the program.
             3933          (5) (a) Subsequent to an arrest for domestic violence, an alleged victim may waive in
             3934      writing any or all of the release conditions described in Subsection (2)(a) or (c). Upon waiver,
             3935      those release conditions do not apply to the alleged perpetrator.
             3936          (b) A court or magistrate may modify the release conditions described in Subsections
             3937      [(1)] (2)(a) or (c), in writing or on the record, and only for good cause shown.
             3938          (6) (a) When a person is released pursuant to Subsection (2), the releasing agency shall
             3939      notify the arresting law enforcement agency of the release, conditions of release, and any
             3940      available information concerning the location of the victim. The arresting law enforcement
             3941      agency shall then make a reasonable effort to notify the victim of that release.
             3942          (b) (i) When a person is released pursuant to Subsection (2) based on a written jail
             3943      release agreement, the releasing agency shall transmit that information to the statewide
             3944      domestic violence network described in Section 78B-7-113 .
             3945          (ii) When a person is released pursuant to Subsection (2) or (3) based upon a jail
             3946      release court order or if a jail release agreement is modified pursuant to Subsection (5)(b), the
             3947      court shall transmit that order to the statewide domestic violence network described in Section
             3948      78B-7-113 .
             3949          (iii) A copy of the jail release court order or written jail release agreement shall be


             3950      given to the person by the releasing agency before the person is released.
             3951          (c) This Subsection (6) does not create or increase liability of a law enforcement officer
             3952      or agency, and the good faith immunity provided by Section 77-36-8 is applicable.
             3953          (7) (a) If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that a person has
             3954      violated a jail release court order or jail release agreement executed pursuant to Subsection (2)
             3955      the officer shall, without a warrant, arrest the alleged violator.
             3956          (b) Any person who knowingly violates a jail release court order or jail release
             3957      agreement executed pursuant to Subsection (2) is guilty as follows:
             3958          (i) if the original arrest was for a felony, an offense under this section is a third degree
             3959      felony; or
             3960          (ii) if the original arrest was for a misdemeanor, an offense under this section is a class
             3961      A misdemeanor.
             3962          (c) City attorneys may prosecute class A misdemeanor violations under this section.
             3963          (8) An individual who was originally arrested for a felony under this chapter and
             3964      released pursuant to this section may subsequently be held without bail if there is substantial
             3965      evidence to support a new felony charge against him.
             3966          (9) At the time an arrest for domestic violence is made, the arresting officer shall
             3967      provide the alleged victim with written notice containing:
             3968          (a) the release conditions described in Subsection (2), and notice that those release
             3969      conditions shall be ordered by a court or must be agreed to by the alleged perpetrator prior to
             3970      release;
             3971          (b) notification of the penalties for violation of any jail release court order or any jail
             3972      release agreement executed under Subsection (2);
             3973          (c) notification that the alleged perpetrator is to personally appear in court on the next
             3974      day the court is open for business after the day of the arrest;
             3975          (d) the address of the appropriate court in the district or county in which the alleged
             3976      victim resides;
             3977          (e) the availability and effect of any waiver of the release conditions; and


             3978          (f) information regarding the availability of and procedures for obtaining civil and
             3979      criminal protective orders with or without the assistance of an attorney.
             3980          (10) At the time an arrest for domestic violence is made, the arresting officer shall
             3981      provide the alleged perpetrator with written notice containing:
             3982          (a) notification that the alleged perpetrator may not contact the alleged victim before
             3983      being released;
             3984          (b) the release conditions described in Subsection (2) and notice that those release
             3985      conditions shall be ordered by a court or shall be agreed to by the alleged perpetrator prior to
             3986      release;
             3987          (c) notification of the penalties for violation of any jail release court order or any
             3988      written jail release agreement executed under Subsection (2); and
             3989          (d) notification that the alleged perpetrator is to personally appear in court on the next
             3990      day the court is open for business after the day of the arrest.
             3991          (11) (a) If the alleged perpetrator fails to personally appear in court as scheduled, the
             3992      jail release court order or jail release agreement does not expire and continues in effect until the
             3993      alleged perpetrator makes the personal appearance in court as required by Section 77-36-2.6 .
             3994          (b) If, when the alleged perpetrator personally appears in court as required by Section
             3995      77-36-2.6 , criminal charges have not been filed against the arrested person, the court may allow
             3996      the jail release court order or jail release agreement to expire at midnight on the day of the
             3997      court appearance or may extend it for good cause.
             3998          (12) In addition to the provisions of Subsections (2) through (8), because of the unique
             3999      and highly emotional nature of domestic violence crimes, the high recidivism rate of violent
             4000      offenders, and the demonstrated increased risk of continued acts of violence subsequent to the
             4001      release of an offender who has been arrested for domestic violence, it is the finding of the
             4002      Legislature that domestic violence crimes, as defined in Section 77-36-1 , are crimes for which
             4003      bail may be denied if there is substantial evidence to support the charge, and if the court finds
             4004      by clear and convincing evidence that the alleged perpetrator would constitute a substantial
             4005      danger to an alleged victim of domestic violence if released on bail.


             4006          Section 77. Section 77-38-302 is amended to read:
             4007           77-38-302. Definitions.
             4008          As used in this part:
             4009          (1) "Convicted person" means a person who has been convicted of a crime.
             4010          (2) "Conviction" means an adjudication by a federal or state court resulting from a trial
             4011      or plea, including a plea of no contest, nolo contendere, a finding of not guilty due to insanity,
             4012      or not guilty but having a mental illness regardless of whether the sentence was imposed or
             4013      suspended.
             4014          (3) "Fund" means the Crime Victim Reparations Fund created in Section 51-9-404 .
             4015          (4) "Memorabilia" means any tangible property of a [defendant] convicted person or a
             4016      representative or assignee of a [defendant] convicted person, the value of which is enhanced by
             4017      the notoriety gained from the criminal activity for which the person was convicted.
             4018          (5) "Notoriety of crimes contract" means a contract or other agreement with a
             4019      convicted person, or a representative or assignee of a convicted person, with respect to:
             4020          (a) the reenactment of a crime in any manner including a movie, book, magazine
             4021      article, Internet website, recording, phonograph record, radio or television presentation, or live
             4022      entertainment of any kind;
             4023          (b) the expression of the convicted person's thoughts, feelings, opinions, or emotions
             4024      regarding a crime involving or causing personal injury, death, or property loss as a direct result
             4025      of the crime; or
             4026          (c) the payment or exchange of any money or other consideration or the proceeds or
             4027      profits that directly or indirectly result from the notoriety of the crime.
             4028          (6) "Office" means the Utah Office for Victims of Crime.
             4029          (7) "Profit" means any income or benefit:
             4030          (a) over and above the fair market value of tangible property that is received upon the
             4031      sale or transfer of memorabilia; or
             4032          (b) any money, negotiable instruments, securities, or other consideration received or
             4033      contracted for gain which is traceable to a notoriety of crimes contract.


             4034          Section 78. Section 77-38-303 is amended to read:
             4035           77-38-303. Profit from sale of memorabilia or notoriety of crimes contract --
             4036      Deposit in Crime Victim Reparations Fund -- Penalty.
             4037          (1) Any convicted person or a representative or assignee of a convicted person who
             4038      receives a profit from the sale or transfer of memorabilia shall remit to the fund:
             4039          (a) a complete, itemized accounting of the transaction, including:
             4040          (i) a description of each item sold;
             4041          (ii) the amount received for each item;
             4042          (iii) the estimated fair market value of each item; and
             4043          (iv) the name and address of the purchaser of each item; and
             4044          (b) a check or money order for the amount of the profit, which shall be the difference
             4045      between the amount received for the item and the estimated fair market value of the item.
             4046          (2) Any person who willfully violates Subsection (1) may be assessed a civil penalty of
             4047      up to $1,000 per item sold or transferred or three times the amount of the unremitted profit,
             4048      whichever is greater.
             4049          (3) (a) Any person or entity who enters into a notoriety of crime contract with a
             4050      convicted person or with a representative or assignee of a convicted person shall pay to the
             4051      fund any profit which by the terms of the contract would otherwise be owing to the convicted
             4052      person or representative or assignee of the convicted person.
             4053          (b) A convicted person or a representative or assignee of a convicted person who has
             4054      received any profit from a notoriety of crime contract shall remit the profit to the fund. Any
             4055      future profit which, by the terms of the contract, would otherwise be owing to the convicted
             4056      person or a representative or assignee of a convicted person shall be paid to the fund as
             4057      required under Subsection (3)(a).
             4058          (4) Upon receipt of [monies] money under Subsection (3), the office shall distribute the
             4059      amounts to the victim of the crime from which the profits are derived if any restitution remains
             4060      outstanding. If no restitution is outstanding, the [monies] money shall be deposited into the
             4061      fund.


             4062          (5) (a) Any person or entity who willfully violates Subsection (3) may be assessed a
             4063      civil penalty of up to $1,000,000.00, or up to three times the total value of the original notoriety
             4064      of crime contract, whichever is greater.
             4065          (b) Any civil penalty ordered under this Subsection shall be paid to the fund.
             4066          (6) The prosecuting agency or the attorney general may bring an action to enforce the
             4067      provisions of this chapter in the court of conviction.
             4068          (7) A court shall enter an order to remit funds as provided in this chapter if it finds by a
             4069      preponderance of the evidence any violation of Subsection (1) or (3).
             4070          Section 79. Section 77-41-103 is amended to read:
             4071           77-41-103. Department duties.
             4072          (1) The department, to assist in investigating kidnapping and sex-related crimes, and in
             4073      apprehending offenders, shall:
             4074          (a) develop and operate a system to collect, analyze, maintain, and disseminate
             4075      information on offenders and sex and kidnap offenses;
             4076          (b) make information listed in Subsection 77-41-110 (4) available to the public; and
             4077          (c) share information provided by an offender under this chapter that may not be made
             4078      available to the public under Subsection 77-41-110 (4), but only:
             4079          (i) for the purposes under this chapter; or
             4080          (ii) in accordance with Section 63G-2-206 .
             4081          (2) Any law enforcement agency shall, in the manner prescribed by the department,
             4082      inform the department of:
             4083          (a) the receipt of a report or complaint of an offense listed in Subsection
             4084      77-41-102 [(7)](9) or [(14)] (16), within three business days; and
             4085          (b) the arrest of a person suspected of any of the offenses listed in Subsection
             4086      77-41-102 [(7)](9) or [(14)] (16), within five business days.
             4087          (3) Upon convicting a person of any of the offenses listed in Subsection
             4088      77-41-102 [(7)](9) or [(14)] (16), the convicting court shall within three business days forward a
             4089      copy of the judgment and sentence to the department.


             4090          (4) The department shall:
             4091          (a) provide the following additional information when available:
             4092          (i) the crimes the offender has been convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for;
             4093          (ii) a description of the offender's primary and secondary targets; and
             4094          (iii) any other relevant identifying information as determined by the department;
             4095          (b) maintain the Sex Offender and Kidnap Offender Notification and Registration
             4096      website; and
             4097          (c) ensure that the registration information collected regarding an offender's enrollment
             4098      or employment at an educational institution is:
             4099          (i) (A) promptly made available to any law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction
             4100      where the institution is located if the educational institution is an institution of higher
             4101      education; or
             4102          (B) promptly made available to the district superintendent of the school district where
             4103      the offender is enrolled if the educational institution is an institution of primary education; and
             4104          (ii) entered into the appropriate state records or data system.
             4105          Section 80. Section 78A-6-1302 is amended to read:
             4106           78A-6-1302. Procedure -- Standard.
             4107          (1) When a motion is filed pursuant to Section 78A-6-1301 raising the issue of a
             4108      minor's competency to proceed, or when the court raises the issue of a minor's competency to
             4109      proceed, the juvenile court in which proceedings are pending shall stay all delinquency
             4110      proceedings.
             4111          (2) If a motion for inquiry is opposed by either party, the court shall, prior to granting
             4112      or denying the motion, hold a limited hearing solely for the purpose of determining the
             4113      sufficiency of the motion. If the court finds that the allegations of incompetency raise a bona
             4114      fide doubt as to the minor's competency to proceed, it shall enter an order for an evaluation of
             4115      the minor's competency to proceed, and shall set a date for a hearing on the issue of the minor's
             4116      competency.
             4117          (3) After the granting of a motion, and prior to a full competency hearing, the court


             4118      may order the Department of Human Services to evaluate the minor and to report to the court
             4119      concerning the minor's mental condition.
             4120          (4) The minor shall be evaluated by a mental health examiner with experience in
             4121      juvenile forensic evaluations and juvenile brain development, who is not involved in the
             4122      current treatment of the minor. If it becomes apparent that the minor may be not competent
             4123      due to an intellectual disability or related condition, the examiner shall be experienced in
             4124      intellectual disability or related condition evaluations of minors.
             4125          (5) The petitioner or other party, as directed by the court, shall provide all information
             4126      and materials to the examiners relevant to a determination of the minor's competency
             4127      including:
             4128          (a) the motion;
             4129          (b) the arrest or incident reports pertaining to the charged offense;
             4130          (c) the minor's known delinquency history information;
             4131          (d) known prior mental health evaluations and treatments; and
             4132          (e) consistent with 20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232G (b)(1)(E)(ii)(I), records pertaining to the
             4133      minor's education.
             4134          (6) The minor's parents or guardian, the prosecutor, defense attorney, and guardian ad
             4135      litem, shall cooperate in providing the relevant information and materials to the examiners.
             4136          (7) In conducting the evaluation and in the report determining if a minor is competent
             4137      to proceed as defined in Subsection 78A-6-105 (30), the examiner shall consider the impact of a
             4138      mental disorder, intellectual disability, or related condition on a minor's present capacity to:
             4139          (a) comprehend and appreciate the charges or allegations;
             4140          (b) disclose to counsel pertinent facts, events, or states of mind;
             4141          (c) comprehend and appreciate the range and nature of possible penalties, if applicable,
             4142      that may be imposed in the proceedings against the minor;
             4143          (d) engage in reasoned choice of legal strategies and options;
             4144          (e) understand the adversarial nature of the proceedings;
             4145          (f) manifest appropriate courtroom behavior; and


             4146          (g) testify relevantly, if applicable.
             4147          (8) In addition to the requirements of Subsection (7), the examiner's written report
             4148      shall:
             4149          (a) identify the specific matters referred for evaluation;
             4150          (b) describe the procedures, techniques, and tests used in the evaluation and the
             4151      purpose or purposes for each;
             4152          (c) state the examiner's clinical observations, findings, and opinions on each issue
             4153      referred for evaluation by the court, and indicate specifically those issues, if any, on which the
             4154      examiner could not give an opinion;
             4155          (d) state the likelihood that the minor will attain competency and the amount of time
             4156      estimated to achieve it; and
             4157          (e) identify the sources of information used by the examiner and present the basis for
             4158      the examiner's clinical findings and opinions.
             4159          (9) The examiner shall provide an initial report to the court, the prosecuting and
             4160      defense attorneys, and the guardian ad litem, if applicable, within 30 days of the receipt of the
             4161      court's order. If the examiner informs the court that additional time is needed, the court may
             4162      grant, taking into consideration the custody status of the minor, up to an additional 30 days to
             4163      provide the report to the court and counsel. The examiner must provide the report within 60
             4164      days from the receipt of the court's order unless, for good cause shown, the court authorizes an
             4165      additional period of time to complete the evaluation and provide the report. The report shall
             4166      inform the court of the examiner's opinion concerning the competency and the likelihood of the
             4167      minor to attain competency within a year. In the alternative, the examiner may inform the court
             4168      in writing that additional time is needed to complete the report.
             4169          (10) Any statement made by the minor in the course of any competency evaluation,
             4170      whether the evaluation is with or without the consent of the minor, any testimony by the
             4171      examiner based upon any statement, and any other fruits of the statement may not be admitted
             4172      in evidence against the minor in any delinquency or criminal proceeding except on an issue
             4173      respecting the mental condition on which the minor has introduced evidence. The evidence


             4174      may be admitted, however, where relevant to a determination of the minor's competency.
             4175          (11) Prior to evaluating the minor, examiners shall specifically advise the minor and
             4176      the parents or guardian of the limits of confidentiality as provided under Subsection (10).
             4177          (12) When the report is received the court shall set a date for a competency hearing
             4178      which shall be held in not less than five and not more than 15 days, unless the court enlarges
             4179      the time for good cause.
             4180          (13) A minor shall be presumed competent unless the court, by a preponderance of the
             4181      evidence, finds the minor not competent to proceed. The burden of proof is upon the
             4182      proponent of incompetency to proceed.
             4183          (14) (a) Following the hearing, the court shall determine by a preponderance of
             4184      evidence whether the minor is:
             4185          (i) competent to proceed;
             4186          (ii) not competent to proceed with a substantial probability that the minor may attain
             4187      competency in the foreseeable future; or
             4188          (iii) not competent to proceed without a substantial probability that the minor may
             4189      attain competency in the foreseeable future.
             4190          (b) If the court enters a finding pursuant to Subsection (14)(a)(i), the court shall
             4191      proceed with the delinquency proceedings.
             4192          (c) If the court enters a finding pursuant to Subsection (14)(a)(ii), the court shall
             4193      proceed consistent with Section 78A-6-1303 .
             4194          (d) If the court enters a finding pursuant to Subsection (14)(a)(iii), the court shall
             4195      terminate the competency proceeding, dismiss the delinquency charges without prejudice, and
             4196      release the minor from any custody order related to the pending delinquency proceeding, unless
             4197      the prosecutor informs the court that commitment proceedings pursuant to Title 62A, Chapter
             4198      5, Services for People with Disabilities, or Title 62A, Chapter 15, Substance Abuse and Mental
             4199      Health Act, will be initiated. These commitment proceedings shall be initiated within seven
             4200      days after the court's order, unless the court enlarges the time for good cause shown. The
             4201      minor may be ordered to remain in custody until the commitment proceedings have been


             4202      concluded.
             4203          (15) If the court finds the minor not competent to proceed, its order shall contain
             4204      findings addressing each of the factors in Subsection (7).
             4205          Section 81. Section 78B-2-313 is amended to read:
             4206           78B-2-313. Action to recover deficiency after short sale.
             4207          (1) As used in this section:
             4208          (a) "Deficiency" means the balance owed to a secured lender under a secured loan after
             4209      completion of a short sale of the secured property.
             4210          (b) "Obligor" means the person or persons obligated to pay a secured loan.
             4211          (c) "Secured lender" means the person or persons to whom the obligation under a
             4212      secured loan is owed.
             4213          (d) "Secured loan" means a loan or other credit for personal, family, or household
             4214      purposes secured by a mortgage or trust deed on secured property.
             4215          (e) "Secured property" means single-family, residential real property located in the
             4216      state that is the subject of a mortgage or trust deed to secure a secured loan.
             4217          (f) "Short sale" means a sale:
             4218          (i) of secured property;
             4219          (ii) by the owner of the secured property;
             4220          (iii) that results in the secured lender being paid less than the balance owing under the
             4221      secured loan; and
             4222          (iv) made with the secured lender's consent and resulting in the secured lender
             4223      releasing the mortgage or reconveying the trust deed on the secured property.
             4224          (2) An action to recover a deficiency is barred unless it is commenced no more than
             4225      three months after the date of recording of a release of mortgage or reconveyance of trust deed
             4226      with respect to secured property and resulting from a short sale of that property.
             4227          (3) Subsection (2) does not apply if the obligor or owner engaged in fraud in
             4228      connection with the short sale.
             4229          (4) Subsection (2) does not apply to an agreement that:


             4230          (a) is executed:
             4231          (i) between one or more obligors under a [secure] secured loan and the secured lender;
             4232      and
             4233          (ii) in connection with a short sale; and
             4234          (b) obligates an obligor to pay some or all of a deficiency.
             4235          Section 82. Section 78B-6-121 is amended to read:
             4236           78B-6-121. Consent of unmarried biological father.
             4237          (1) Except as provided in Subsections (2)(a) and 78B-6-122 (1), and subject to
             4238      [Subsection] Subsections (5) and (6), with regard to a child who is placed with prospective
             4239      adoptive parents more than six months after birth, consent of an unmarried biological father is
             4240      not required unless the unmarried biological father:
             4241          (a) (i) developed a substantial relationship with the child by:
             4242          (A) visiting the child monthly, unless the unmarried biological father was physically or
             4243      financially unable to visit the child on a monthly basis; or
             4244          (B) engaging in regular communication with the child or with the person or authorized
             4245      agency that has lawful custody of the child;
             4246          (ii) took some measure of responsibility for the child and the child's future; and
             4247          (iii) demonstrated a full commitment to the responsibilities of parenthood by financial
             4248      support of the child of a fair and reasonable sum in accordance with the father's ability; or
             4249          (b) (i) openly lived with the child:
             4250          (A) (I) for a period of at least six months during the one-year period immediately
             4251      preceding the day on which the child is placed with prospective adoptive parents; or
             4252          (II) if the child is less than one year old, for a period of at least six months during the
             4253      period of time beginning on the day on which the child is born and ending on the day on which
             4254      the child is placed with prospective adoptive parents; and
             4255          (B) immediately preceding placement of the child with prospective adoptive parents;
             4256      and
             4257          (ii) openly held himself out to be the father of the child during the six-month period


             4258      described in Subsection (1)(b)(i)(A).
             4259          (2) (a) If an unmarried biological father was prevented from complying with a
             4260      requirement of Subsection (1) by the person or authorized agency having lawful custody of the
             4261      child, the unmarried biological father is not required to comply with that requirement.
             4262          (b) The subjective intent of an unmarried biological father, whether expressed or
             4263      otherwise, that is unsupported by evidence that the requirements in Subsection (1) have been
             4264      met, shall not preclude a determination that the father failed to meet the requirements of
             4265      Subsection (1).
             4266          (3) Except as provided in Subsections (6) and 78B-6-122 (1), and subject to Subsection
             4267      (5), with regard to a child who is six months of age or less at the time the child is placed with
             4268      prospective adoptive parents, consent of an unmarried biological father is not required unless,
             4269      prior to the time the mother executes her consent for adoption or relinquishes the child for
             4270      adoption, the unmarried biological father:
             4271          (a) initiates proceedings in a district court of Utah to establish paternity under Title
             4272      78B, Chapter 15, Utah Uniform Parentage Act;
             4273          (b) files with the court that is presiding over the paternity proceeding a sworn affidavit:
             4274          (i) stating that he is fully able and willing to have full custody of the child;
             4275          (ii) setting forth his plans for care of the child; and
             4276          (iii) agreeing to a court order of child support and the payment of expenses incurred in
             4277      connection with the mother's pregnancy and the child's birth;
             4278          (c) consistent with Subsection (4), files notice of the commencement of paternity
             4279      proceedings, described in Subsection (3)(a), with the state registrar of vital statistics within the
             4280      Department of Health, in a confidential registry established by the department for that purpose;
             4281      and
             4282          (d) offered to pay and paid, during the pregnancy and after the child's birth, a fair and
             4283      reasonable amount of the expenses incurred in connection with the mother's pregnancy and the
             4284      child's birth, in accordance with his financial ability, unless:
             4285          (i) he did not have actual knowledge of the pregnancy;


             4286          (ii) he was prevented from paying the expenses by the person or authorized agency
             4287      having lawful custody of the child; or
             4288          (iii) the mother refuses to accept the unmarried biological father's offer to pay the
             4289      expenses described in this Subsection (3)(d).
             4290          (4) The notice described in Subsection (3)(c) is considered filed when it is entered into
             4291      the registry described in Subsection (3)(c).
             4292          (5) Unless his ability to assert the right to consent has been lost for failure to comply
             4293      with Section 78B-6-110.1 , or lost under another provision of Utah law, an unmarried biological
             4294      father shall have at least one business day after the child's birth to fully and strictly comply with
             4295      the requirements of Subsection (3).
             4296          (6) Consent of an unmarried biological father is not required under this section if:
             4297          (a) the court determines, in accordance with the requirements and procedures of Title
             4298      78A, Chapter 6, Part 5, Termination of Parental Rights Act, that the unmarried biological
             4299      father's rights should be terminated, based on the petition of any interested party;
             4300          (b) (i) a declaration of paternity declaring the unmarried biological father to be the
             4301      father of the child is rescinded under Section 78B-15-306 ; and
             4302          (ii) the unmarried biological father fails to comply with Subsection (3) within 10
             4303      business days after the day that notice of the rescission described in Subsection (6)(b)(i) is
             4304      mailed by the Office of Vital Records within the Department of Health as provided in Section
             4305      78B-15-306 ; or
             4306          (c) the unmarried biological father is notified under Section 78B-6-110.1 and fails to
             4307      preserve his rights in accordance with the requirements of that section.
             4308          (7) Unless the adoptee is conceived or born within a marriage, the petitioner in an
             4309      adoption proceeding shall, prior to entrance of a final decree of adoption, file with the court a
             4310      certificate from the state registrar of vital statistics within the Department of Health, stating:
             4311          (a) that a diligent search has been made of the registry of notices from unmarried
             4312      biological fathers described in Subsection (3)(c); and
             4313          (b) (i) that no filing has been found pertaining to the father of the child in question; or


             4314          (ii) if a filing is found, the name of the putative father and the time and date of filing.
             4315          Section 83. Repealer.
             4316          This bill repeals:
             4317          Section 53A-8-101, Short title.
             4318          Section 58-40-5, License requirements.


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