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H.B. 200 Enrolled

             1     

REVISOR'S STATUTE

             2     
2013 GENERAL SESSION

             3     
STATE OF UTAH

             4     
Chief Sponsor: Brad L. Dee

             5     
Senate Sponsor: Ralph Okerlund

             6     
             7      LONG TITLE
             8      General Description:
             9          This bill modifies parts of the Utah Code to make technical corrections, including
             10      eliminating references to repealed provisions, making minor wording changes, updating
             11      cross-references, and correcting numbering.
             12      Highlighted Provisions:
             13          This bill:
             14          .    modifies parts of the Utah Code to make technical corrections, including
             15      eliminating references to repealed provisions, making minor wording changes,
             16      updating cross-references, correcting numbering, and fixing errors that were created
             17      from the previous year's session.
             18      Money Appropriated in this Bill:
             19          None
             20      Other Special Clauses:
             21          None
             22      Utah Code Sections Affected:
             23      AMENDS:
             24          11-36a-306, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 47
             25          11-49-202, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 202
             26          11-49-407, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 202
             27          13-49-204, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 375
             28          17-16-21, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 123
             29          17B-2a-608, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 159


             30          19-6-902, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 38
             31          25-6-14, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 89
             32          26-3-7, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 391
             33          26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 161
             34          26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 161
             35      and 347
             36          26-18-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 402
             37          26-36a-206, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 179
             38          34A-5-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 101
             39          35A-8-414, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 212
             40          38-1a-201, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 278
             41          51-7-15, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 285
             42          51-7-18.2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 285
             43          53-3-207, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 144
             44          53-5a-102, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             45          53A-1a-506, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 66
             46          53A-3-425, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 425
             47          53A-25b-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 291
             48          54-17-801, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 182
             49          57-1-24.3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 164
             50          57-14-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 45
             51          58-3a-502, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             52          58-9-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 353
             53          58-13-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 3 and 382
             54          58-17b-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 280
             55          58-17b-309, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 234 and 344
             56          58-22-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 14
             57          58-22-201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1996, Chapter 259


             58          58-22-503, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             59          58-26a-102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapters 265 and 382
             60          58-28-307, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 220
             61          58-37-10, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2007, Chapter 153
             62          58-37c-3, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             63          58-37c-17, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 155
             64          58-37d-2, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1992, Chapter 156
             65          58-47b-301, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1998, Chapter 159
             66          59-2-1109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 366
             67          63A-12-111, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 377
             68          63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 91
             69      and last amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347
             70          63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13), as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 91
             71      and renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347 and last amended
             72      by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 347
             73          63G-7-701, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             74          63I-1-209, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 9 and 212
             75          63I-1-213, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 15
             76          63I-1-235, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 212
             77          63I-1-258, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapters 82, 234, and 349
             78          63I-2-261, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 372
             79          63I-2-267, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 427
             80          67-1a-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 35
             81          67-19-13.5, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 266
             82          76-1-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1974, Chapter 32
             83          76-1-501, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1973, Chapter 196
             84          76-3-202, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 355
             85          76-3-203.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapters 320 and 366


             86          76-4-203, as last amended by Laws of Utah 1993, Chapter 230
             87          76-4-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 342
             88          76-5-307, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 343
             89          76-6-107, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 300
             90          76-6-412, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 257
             91          76-6-1102, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2009, Chapter 164
             92          76-7-305.5, as repealed and reenacted by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 314
             93          76-8-109, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 12
             94          76-9-702, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 303
             95          76-9-702.1, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 303
             96          76-9-702.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 320
             97          76-9-1008, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 21
             98          76-10-104.1, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 154
             99          76-10-501, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 114
             100          76-10-526, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 270
             101          76-10-919, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2010, Chapter 154
             102          76-10-1201, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 297
             103          77-36-2.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2011, Chapter 113
             104          77-38-302, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 260
             105          77-38-303, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 260
             106          77-41-103, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 145
             107          78A-6-1302, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 316
             108          78B-2-313, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 79
             109          78B-6-121, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2012, Chapter 340
             110      REPEALS:
             111          53A-8-101, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1988, Chapter 2
             112          58-40-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2008, Chapter 382
             113     


             114      Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
             115          Section 1. Section 11-36a-306 is amended to read:
             116           11-36a-306. Certification of impact fee analysis.
             117          (1) An impact fee facilities plan shall include a written certification from the person or
             118      entity that prepares the impact fee facilities plan that states the following:
             119      "I certify that the attached impact fee facilities plan:
             120      1. includes only the costs of public facilities that are:
             121          a. allowed under the Impact Fees Act; and
             122          b. actually incurred; or
             123          c. projected to be incurred or encumbered within six years after the day on which each
             124      impact fee is paid;
             125      2. does not include:
             126          a. costs of operation and maintenance of public facilities;
             127          b. costs for qualifying public facilities that will raise the level of service for the
             128      facilities, through impact fees, above the level of service that is supported by existing residents;
             129      or
             130          c. an expense for overhead, unless the expense is calculated pursuant to a methodology
             131      that is consistent with generally accepted cost accounting practices and the methodological
             132      standards set forth by the federal Office of Management and Budget for federal grant
             133      reimbursement; and
             134      3. complies in each and every relevant respect with the Impact Fees Act."
             135          (2) An impact fee analysis shall include a written certification from the person or entity
             136      that prepares the impact fee analysis which states as follows:
             137      "I certify that the attached impact fee analysis:
             138      1. includes only the costs of public facilities that are:
             139          a. allowed under the Impact Fees Act; and
             140          b. actually incurred; or
             141          c. projected to be incurred or encumbered within six years after the day on which each


             142      impact fee is paid;
             143      2. does not include:
             144          a. costs of operation and maintenance of public facilities;
             145          b. costs for qualifying public facilities that will raise the level of service for the
             146      facilities, through impact fees, above the level of service that is supported by existing residents;
             147      or
             148          c. an expense for overhead, unless the expense is calculated pursuant to a methodology
             149      that is consistent with generally accepted cost accounting practices and the methodological
             150      standards set forth by the federal Office of Management and Budget for federal grant
             151      reimbursement;
             152      3. offsets costs with grants or other alternate sources of payment; and
             153      4. complies in each and every relevant respect with the Impact Fees Act."
             154          Section 2. Section 11-49-202 is amended to read:
             155           11-49-202. Meetings -- Staff.
             156          (1) The commission shall meet for the purpose of reviewing an ethics complaint when:
             157          (a) except otherwise expressly provided in this chapter, called to meet at the discretion
             158      of the chair; or
             159          (b) a majority of members agree to meet.
             160          (2) A majority of the commission is a quorum.
             161          (3) (a) The commission shall prepare, on an annual basis, a summary data report that
             162      contains:
             163          (i) a general description of the activities of the commission during the past year;
             164          (ii) the number of ethics complaints filed with the commission;
             165          (iii) the number of ethics complaints dismissed in accordance with Section 11-49-602 ;
             166          (iv) the number of ethics complaints reviewed by the commission in accordance with
             167      Section 11-49-701 ;
             168          (v) an executive summary of each complaint review in accordance with Section
             169      11-49-701 ; and


             170          (vi) an accounting of the commission's budget and expenditures.
             171          (b) The summary data report shall be submitted to the [Government Operations and]
             172      Political Subdivisions Interim Committee on an annual basis.
             173          (c) The summary data report shall be a public record.
             174          (4) (a) The Senate and the House of Representatives shall employ staff for the
             175      commission at a level that is reasonable to assist the commission in performing its duties as
             176      established in this chapter.
             177          (b) The Legislative Management Committee shall:
             178          (i) authorize each staff position for the commission; and
             179          (ii) approve the employment of each staff member for the commission.
             180          (c) Staff for the commission shall work only for the commission and may not perform
             181      services for the Senate, House of Representatives, other legislative offices, or a political
             182      subdivision.
             183          (5) A meeting held by the commission is subject to Title 52, Chapter 4, Open and
             184      Public Meetings Act, unless otherwise provided.
             185          Section 3. Section 11-49-407 is amended to read:
             186           11-49-407. Communications of commission members.
             187          (1) As used in this section, "third party" means a person who is not a member of the
             188      commission or staff to the commission.
             189          (2) While a complaint is under review by the commission, a member of the
             190      commission may not initiate or consider any communications concerning the complaint with a
             191      third party unless:
             192          (a) the communication is expressly permitted under the procedures established by this
             193      chapter; or
             194          (b) the communication is made by the third party, in writing, simultaneously to:
             195          (i) all members of the commission; and
             196          (ii) a staff member of the commission.
             197          (3) While the commission is reviewing a complaint under this chapter, a commission


             198      member may communicate outside of [the meetings] a meeting, hearing, or [deliberations]
             199      deliberation with another member of, or staff to, the commission, only if the member's
             200      communication does not materially compromise the member's responsibility to independently
             201      review and make decisions in relation to the complaint.
             202          Section 4. Section 13-49-204 is amended to read:
             203           13-49-204. Bonds -- Exemption -- Statements dependent on posting bond.
             204          (1) Except as provided in Subsection (5), an immigration consultant shall post a cash
             205      bond or surety bond:
             206          (a) in the amount $50,000; and
             207          (b) payable to the division for the benefit of any person damaged by a fraud,
             208      misstatement, misrepresentation, unlawful act, omission, or failure to provide services of an
             209      immigration consultant, or an agent, representative, or employee of an immigration consultant.
             210          (2) A bond required under this section shall be:
             211          (a) in a form approved by the attorney general; and
             212          (b) conditioned upon the faithful compliance of an immigration consultant with this
             213      chapter and division rules.
             214          (3) (a) If a surety bond posted by an immigration consultant under this section is
             215      canceled due to the person's negligence, the division may assess a $300 reinstatement fee.
             216          (b) No part of a bond posted by an immigration consultant under this section may be
             217      withdrawn:
             218          (i) during the period the registration under this chapter is in effect; or
             219          (ii) while a revocation proceeding is pending against the person.
             220          (4) (a) A bond posted under this section by an immigration consultant may be forfeited
             221      if the person's registration under this chapter is revoked.
             222          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (4)(a), the division may make a claim against a bond
             223      posted by an immigration consultant for money owed the division under this [division] chapter
             224      without the commission first revoking the immigration consultant's registration.
             225          (5) The requirements of this section do not apply to an employee of a nonprofit,


             226      tax-exempt corporation who assists clients to complete an application document in an
             227      immigration matter, free of charge or for a fee, including reasonable costs, consistent with that
             228      authorized by the Board of Immigration Appeals under 8 C.F.R. Sec. 292.2.
             229          (6) A person may not disseminate by any means a statement indicating that the person
             230      is an immigration consultant, engages in the business of an immigration consultant, or proposes
             231      to engage in the business of an immigration consultant, unless the person has posted a bond
             232      under this section that is maintained throughout the period covered by the statement, such as a
             233      listing in a telephone book.
             234          (7) An immigration consultant may not make or authorize the making of an oral or
             235      written reference to the immigration consultant's compliance with the bonding requirements of
             236      this section except as provided in this chapter.
             237          Section 5. Section 17-16-21 is amended to read:
             238           17-16-21. Fees of county officers.
             239          (1) As used in this section, "county officer" means all of the county officers
             240      enumerated in Section 17-53-101 except county recorders, county constables, and county
             241      sheriffs.
             242          (2) (a) Each county officer shall collect, in advance, for exclusive county use and
             243      benefit:
             244          (i) all fees established by the county legislative body under Section 17-53-211 ; and
             245          (ii) any other fees authorized or required by law.
             246          (b) As long as the Children's Legal Defense Account is authorized by Section
             247      51-9-408 , the county clerk shall:
             248          (i) assess $10 in addition to whatever fee for a marriage license is established under
             249      authority of this section [and in addition to the $20 assessed for the displaced homemaker
             250      program]; and
             251          (ii) transmit $10 from each marriage license fee to the Division of Finance for deposit
             252      in the Children's Legal Defense Account.
             253          (c) (i) As long as the Division of Child and Family Services, created in Section


             254      62A-4a-103 , has the responsibility under Section 62A-4a-105 to provide services, including
             255      temporary shelter, for victims of domestic violence, the county clerk shall:
             256          (A) collect $10 in addition to whatever fee for a marriage license is established under
             257      authority of this section, in addition to the amount described in Subsection (2)(b), if an
             258      applicant chooses, as provided in Subsection (2)(c)(ii), to pay the additional $10; and
             259          (B) to the extent actually paid, transmit $10 from each marriage license fee to the
             260      Division of Finance for distribution to the Division of Child and Family Services for the
             261      operation of shelters for victims of domestic violence.
             262          (ii) (A) The county clerk shall provide a method for an applicant for a marriage license
             263      to choose to pay the additional $10 referred to in Subsection (2)(c)(i).
             264          (B) An applicant for a marriage license may choose not to pay the additional $10
             265      referred to in Subsection (2)(c)(i) without affecting the applicant's ability to be issued a
             266      marriage license.
             267          (3) This section does not apply to any fees currently being assessed by the state but
             268      collected by county officers.
             269          Section 6. Section 17B-2a-608 is amended to read:
             270           17B-2a-608. Limit on property tax authority -- Exceptions.
             271          (1) As used in this section, "elected official" means a metropolitan water district board
             272      of trustee member who is elected to the board of trustees by metropolitan water district voters
             273      at an election held for that purpose.
             274          (2) The board of trustees of a metropolitan water district may not collect property tax
             275      revenue in a tax year beginning on or after January 1, 2015, that would exceed the certified tax
             276      rate under Section 59-2-924 unless:
             277          (a) the members of the board of trustees are all elected officials; or
             278          (b) the proposed tax levy has previously been approved by:
             279          (i) a majority of the metropolitan water district voters at an election held for that
             280      purpose; or
             281          (ii) the legislative body of each municipality that appoints a member to the board of


             282      trustees under Section [ 17B-2a-204 ] 17B-2a-604 .
             283          Section 7. Section 19-6-902 is amended to read:
             284           19-6-902. Definitions.
             285          As used in this part:
             286          (1) "Board" means the Solid and Hazardous Waste Control Board, as defined in
             287      Section 19-1-106 , within the Department of Environmental Quality.
             288          (2) "Certified decontamination specialist" means an individual who has met the
             289      standards for certification as a decontamination specialist and has been certified by the board
             290      under Subsection 19-6-906 (2).
             291          (3) "Contaminated" or "contamination" means:
             292          (a) polluted by hazardous materials that cause property to be unfit for human habitation
             293      or use due to immediate or long-term health hazards; or
             294          (b) that a property is polluted by hazardous materials as a result of the use, production,
             295      or presence of methamphetamine in excess of decontamination standards adopted by the
             296      Department of Health under Section 26-51-201 .
             297          (4) "Contamination list" means a list maintained by the local health department of
             298      properties:
             299          (a) reported to the local health department under Section 19-6-903 ; and
             300          (b) determined by the local health department to be contaminated.
             301          (5) (a) "Decontaminated" means property that at one time was contaminated, but the
             302      contaminants have been removed.
             303          (b) "Decontaminated" for a property that was contaminated by the use, production, or
             304      presence of methamphetamine means that the property satisfies decontamination standards
             305      adopted by the Department of Health under Section 26-51-201 .
             306          (6) "Hazardous materials":
             307          (a) has the same meaning as "hazardous or dangerous [materials"] material" as defined
             308      in Section 58-37d-3 ; and
             309          (b) includes any illegally manufactured controlled substances.


             310          (7) "Health department" means a local health department under Title 26A, Local
             311      Health Authorities.
             312          (8) "Owner of record":
             313          (a) means the owner of real property as shown on the records of the county recorder in
             314      the county where the property is located; and
             315          (b) may include an individual, financial institution, company, corporation, or other
             316      entity.
             317          (9) "Property":
             318          (a) means any real property, site, structure, part of a structure, or the grounds
             319      surrounding a structure; and
             320          (b) includes single-family residences, outbuildings, garages, units of multiplexes,
             321      condominiums, apartment buildings, warehouses, hotels, motels, boats, motor vehicles, trailers,
             322      manufactured housing, shops, or booths.
             323          (10) "Reported property" means property that is the subject of a law enforcement report
             324      under Section 19-6-903 .
             325          Section 8. Section 25-6-14 is amended to read:
             326           25-6-14. Restricting transfers of trust interests.
             327          (1) (a) For trusts created on or after December 31, 2003, a settlor who in writing
             328      irrevocably transfers property in trust to a trust having as trustee a company defined in
             329      Subsection 7-5-1 (1)(d) who holds some or all of the trust assets in this state in a savings
             330      account [described in Subsection] as defined in Section 7-1-103 [(29)], a certificate of deposit, a
             331      brokerage account, a trust company fiduciary account, or account or deposit located in this state
             332      that is similar to such an account may provide that the income or principal interest of the settlor
             333      as beneficiary of the trust may not be either voluntarily or involuntarily transferred before
             334      payment or delivery to the settlor as beneficiary by the trustee. The provision shall be
             335      considered to be a restriction on the transfer of the settlor's beneficial interest in the trust that is
             336      enforceable under applicable nonbankruptcy law within the meaning of Section 541(c)(2) of
             337      the Bankruptcy Code or successor provision.


             338          (b) This Subsection (1) applies to:
             339          (i) any form of transfer into trust including:
             340          (A) conveyance; or
             341          (B) assignment; and
             342          (ii) transfers of:
             343          (A) personal property;
             344          (B) interests in personal property;
             345          (C) real property; or
             346          (D) interests in real property.
             347          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(c), if a trust has a restriction as provided in
             348      Subsection (1)(a), a creditor or other claimant of the settlor may not satisfy a claim, or liability
             349      on it, in either law or equity, out of the settlor's transfer or settlor's beneficial interest in the
             350      trust.
             351          (b) For the purposes of Subsection (2)(a), a creditor includes one holding or seeking to
             352      enforce a judgment entered by a court or other body having adjudicative authority as well as
             353      one with a right to payment, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated, unliquidated,
             354      fixed, contingent, matured, unmatured, disputed, undisputed, legal, equitable, secured, or
             355      unsecured.
             356          (c) A restriction provided under Subsection (1) does not prevent a creditor or person
             357      described in Subsection (2)(a) from satisfying a claim or liability out of the settlor's beneficial
             358      interest in or transfer into trust if:
             359          (i) the claim is a judgment, order, decree, or other legally enforceable decision or ruling
             360      resulting from a judicial, arbitration, mediation, or administrative proceeding commenced prior
             361      to or within three years after the trust is created;
             362          (ii) the settlor's transfer into trust is made with actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud
             363      that creditor;
             364          (iii) the trust provides that the settlor may revoke or terminate all or part of the trust
             365      without the consent of a person who has a substantial beneficial interest in the trust and the


             366      interest would be adversely affected by the exercise of the settlor's power to revoke or
             367      terminate all or part of the trust;
             368          (iv) the trust requires that all or a part of the trust's income or principal, or both must be
             369      distributed to the settlor as beneficiary;
             370          (v) the claim is for a payment owed by a settlor under a child support judgment or
             371      order;
             372          (vi) the transfer is made when the settlor is insolvent or the transfer renders the settlor
             373      insolvent;
             374          (vii) the claim is for recovery of public assistance received by the settlor allowed under
             375      Title 26, Chapter 19, Medical Benefits Recovery Act;
             376          (viii) the claim is a tax or other amount owed by the settlor to any governmental entity;
             377          (ix) the claim is by a spouse or former spouse of the settlor on account of an agreement
             378      or order for the payment of support or alimony or for a division or distribution of property;
             379          (x) (A) the settlor transferred assets into the trust that:
             380          (I) were listed in a written representation of the settlor's assets given to a claimant to
             381      induce the claimant to enter into a transaction or agreement with the settlor; or
             382          (II) were transferred from the settlor's control in breach of any written agreement,
             383      covenant, or security interest between the settlor and the claimant; or
             384          (B) without limiting the claimant's right to pursue assets not held by the trust, a
             385      claimant described in Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A) may only foreclose or execute upon an asset in
             386      the trust listed in the written representation described in Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A)(I) or
             387      transferred in breach of a written agreement, covenant, or security interest as provided in
             388      Subsection (2)(c)(x)(A)(II) to the extent of the settlor's interest in that asset when it was
             389      transferred to the trust or the equivalent value of that asset at the time of foreclosure or
             390      execution if the original asset was sold or traded by the trust; or
             391          (xi) the claim is a judgment, award, order, sentence, fine, penalty, or other
             392      determination of liability of the settlor for conduct of the settlor constituting fraud, intentional
             393      infliction of harm, or a crime.


             394          (d) The statute of limitations for actions to satisfy a claim or liability out of the settlor's
             395      beneficial interest in or transfer into trust under Subsections (2)(c)(ii), (v), (vii), (viii), (ix), (x),
             396      and (xi) is the statute of limitations applicable to the underlying action.
             397          (e) For the purposes of Subsection (2)(c) "revoke or terminate" does not include:
             398          (i) a power to veto a distribution from the trust;
             399          (ii) a testamentary special power of appointment or similar power;
             400          (iii) the right to receive a distribution of income, principal, or both in the discretion of
             401      another, including a trustee other than the settlor, an interest in a charitable remainder unitrust
             402      or charitable remainder annuity trust as defined in Internal Revenue Code Section 664 or
             403      successor provision, or a right to receive principal subject to an ascertainable standard set forth
             404      in the trust; or
             405          (iv) the power to appoint nonsubordinate advisers or trust protectors who can remove
             406      and appoint trustees, who can direct, consent to or disapprove distributions, or is the power to
             407      serve as an investment director or appoint an investment director under Section 75-7-906 .
             408          (3) The satisfaction of a claim under Subsection (2)(c) is limited to that part of the trust
             409      or transfer to which it applies.
             410          (4) (a) If a trust has a restriction as provided under Subsection (1), the restriction
             411      prevents anyone, including a person listed in Subsection (2)(a), from asserting any cause of
             412      action or claim for relief against a trustee or anyone involved in the counseling, drafting,
             413      preparation, execution, or funding of the trust for:
             414          (i) conspiracy to commit a fraudulent conveyance;
             415          (ii) aiding and abetting a fraudulent conveyance; or
             416          (iii) participating in the trust transaction.
             417          (b) A person prevented from asserting a cause of action or claim for relief under this
             418      Subsection (4) may assert a cause of action only against:
             419          (i) the trust assets; or
             420          (ii) the settlor or beneficiary to the extent allowed under Subsection 25-6-5 (1)(a).
             421          (5) In any action brought under Subsection (2)(c), the burden to prove the matter by


             422      clear and convincing evidence shall be upon the creditor.
             423          (6) For purposes of this section, the transfer shall be considered to have been made on
             424      the date the property was originally transferred in trust.
             425          (7) The courts of this state shall have exclusive jurisdiction over any action brought
             426      under this section.
             427          (8) If a trust or a property transfer to a trust is voided or set aside under Subsection
             428      (2)(c), the trust or property transfer shall be voided or set aside only to the extent necessary to
             429      satisfy:
             430          (a) the settlor's debt to the creditor or other person at whose instance the trust or
             431      property transfer is voided or set aside; and
             432          (b) the costs and attorney fees allowed by the court.
             433          (9) If a trust or a property transfer to a trust is voided or set aside under Subsection
             434      (2)(c) and the court is satisfied that the trustee did not act in bad faith in accepting or
             435      administering the property that is the subject of the trust:
             436          (a) the trustee has a first and paramount lien against the property that is the subject of
             437      the trust in an amount equal to the entire cost properly incurred by the trustee in a defense of
             438      the action or proceedings to void or set aside the trust or the property transfer, including
             439      attorney fees;
             440          (b) the trust or property transfer that is voided or set aside is subject to the proper fees,
             441      costs, preexisting rights, claims, and interest of the trustee and any predecessor trustee if the
             442      trustee and predecessor trustee did not act in bad faith; and
             443          (c) any beneficiary, including the settlor, may retain a distribution made by exercising a
             444      trust power or discretion vested in the trustee of the trust, if the power or discretion was
             445      properly exercised before the commencement of the action or proceeding to void or set aside
             446      the trust or property transfer.
             447          (10) If at least one trustee is a trust company as defined in Subsection 7-5-1 (1)(d), then
             448      individuals may also serve as cotrustees.
             449          Section 9. Section 26-3-7 is amended to read:


             450           26-3-7. Disclosure of health data -- Limitations.
             451          The department may not disclose any identifiable health data unless:
             452          (1) one of the following persons has consented to the disclosure:
             453          (a) the individual;
             454          (b) the next-of-kin if the individual is deceased;
             455          (c) the parent or legal guardian if the individual is a minor or mentally incompetent; or
             456          (d) a person holding a power of attorney covering such matters on behalf of the
             457      individual;
             458          (2) the disclosure is to a governmental entity in this or another state or the federal
             459      government, provided that:
             460          (a) the data will be used for a purpose for which they were collected by the department;
             461      and
             462          (b) the recipient enters into a written agreement satisfactory to the department agreeing
             463      to protect such data in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and department rule
             464      and not permit further disclosure without prior approval of the department;
             465          (3) the disclosure is to an individual or organization, for a specified period, solely for
             466      bona fide research and statistical purposes, determined in accordance with department rules,
             467      and the department determines that the data are required for the research and statistical
             468      purposes proposed and the requesting individual or organization enters into a written
             469      agreement satisfactory to the department to protect the data in accordance with this chapter and
             470      department rule and not permit further disclosure without prior approval of the department;
             471          (4) the disclosure is to a governmental entity for the purpose of conducting an audit,
             472      evaluation, or investigation of the department and such governmental entity agrees not to use
             473      those data for making any determination affecting the rights, benefits, or entitlements of any
             474      individual to whom the health data relates;
             475          (5) the disclosure is of specific medical or epidemiological information to authorized
             476      personnel within the department, local health departments, public health authorities, official
             477      health agencies in other states, the United States Public Health Service, the Centers for Disease


             478      Control and Prevention (CDC), or agencies responsible to enforce quarantine, when necessary
             479      to continue patient services or to undertake public health efforts to control communicable,
             480      infectious, acute, chronic, or any other disease or health hazard that the department considers to
             481      be dangerous or important or that may affect the public health;
             482          (6) (a) the disclosure is of specific medical or epidemiological information to a "health
             483      care provider" as defined in Section 78B-3-403 , health care personnel, or public health
             484      personnel who has a legitimate need to have access to the information in order to assist the
             485      patient or to protect the health of others closely associated with the patient[. This]; and
             486          (b) this Subsection (6) does not create a duty to warn third parties;
             487          (7) the disclosure is necessary to obtain payment from an insurer or other third-party
             488      payor in order for the department to obtain payment or to coordinate benefits for a patient; or
             489          (8) the disclosure is to the subject of the identifiable health data.
             490          Section 10. Section 26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             491           26-18-2.6 (Superseded 05/01/13). Dental benefits.
             492          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8), the division shall establish a competitive
             493      bid process to bid out Medicaid dental benefits under this chapter.
             494          (b) The division may bid out the Medicaid dental benefits separately from other
             495      program benefits.
             496          (2) The division shall use the following criteria to evaluate dental bids:
             497          (a) ability to manage dental expenses;
             498          (b) proven ability to handle dental insurance;
             499          (c) efficiency of claim paying procedures;
             500          (d) provider contracting, discounts, and adequacy of network; and
             501          (e) other criteria established by the department.
             502          (3) The division shall request bids for the program's benefits:
             503          (a) in 2011; and
             504          (b) at least once every five years thereafter.
             505          (4) The division's contract with dental plans for the program's benefits shall include


             506      risk sharing provisions in which the dental plan must accept 100% of the risk for any difference
             507      between the division's premium payments per client and actual dental expenditures.
             508          (5) The division may not award contracts to:
             509          (a) more than three responsive bidders under this section; or
             510          (b) an insurer that does not have a current license in the state.
             511          (6) (a) The division may cancel the request for proposals if:
             512          (i) there are no responsive bidders; or
             513          (ii) the division determines that accepting the bids would increase the program's costs.
             514          (b) If the division cancels the request for proposals under Subsection (6)(a), the
             515      division shall report to the Health and Human Services Interim Committee regarding the
             516      reasons for the decision.
             517          (7) Title 63G, Chapter 6, Utah Procurement Code, shall apply to this section.
             518          (8) (a) The division may:
             519          (i) establish a dental health care delivery system and payment reform pilot program for
             520      Medicaid dental benefits to increase access to cost effective and quality dental health care by
             521      increasing the number of dentists available for Medicaid dental services; and
             522          (ii) target specific Medicaid populations or geographic areas in the state.
             523          (b) The pilot program shall establish compensation models for dentists and dental
             524      hygienists that:
             525          (i) increase access to quality, cost effective dental care; and
             526          (ii) use funds from the Division of Family Health and Preparedness that are available to
             527      reimburse dentists for educational loans in exchange for the dentist agreeing to serve Medicaid
             528      and under-served populations.
             529          (c) The division may amend the state plan and apply to the Secretary of Health and
             530      Human Services for waivers or pilot programs if necessary to establish the new dental care
             531      delivery and payment reform model. The division shall evaluate the pilot program's effect on
             532      the cost of dental care and access to dental care for the targeted Medicaid populations. The
             533      division shall report to the Legislature's Health and Human Services Interim Committee by


             534      November 30th of each year that the pilot project is in effect.
             535          Section 11. Section 26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             536           26-18-2.6 (Effective 05/01/13). Dental benefits.
             537          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (8), the division shall establish a competitive
             538      bid process to bid out Medicaid dental benefits under this chapter.
             539          (b) The division may bid out the Medicaid dental benefits separately from other
             540      program benefits.
             541          (2) The division shall use the following criteria to evaluate dental bids:
             542          (a) ability to manage dental expenses;
             543          (b) proven ability to handle dental insurance;
             544          (c) efficiency of claim paying procedures;
             545          (d) provider contracting, discounts, and adequacy of network; and
             546          (e) other criteria established by the department.
             547          (3) The division shall request bids for the program's benefits:
             548          (a) in 2011; and
             549          (b) at least once every five years thereafter.
             550          (4) The division's contract with dental plans for the program's benefits shall include
             551      risk sharing provisions in which the dental plan must accept 100% of the risk for any difference
             552      between the division's premium payments per client and actual dental expenditures.
             553          (5) The division may not award contracts to:
             554          (a) more than three responsive bidders under this section; or
             555          (b) an insurer that does not have a current license in the state.
             556          (6) (a) The division may cancel the request for proposals if:
             557          (i) there are no responsive bidders; or
             558          (ii) the division determines that accepting the bids would increase the program's costs.
             559          (b) If the division cancels the request for proposals under Subsection (6)(a), the
             560      division shall report to the Health and Human Services Interim Committee regarding the
             561      reasons for the decision.


             562          (7) Title 63G, Chapter 6a, Utah Procurement Code, shall apply to this section.
             563          (8) (a) The division may:
             564          (i) establish a dental health care delivery system and payment reform pilot program for
             565      Medicaid dental benefits to increase access to cost effective and quality dental health care by
             566      increasing the number of dentists available for Medicaid dental services; and
             567          (ii) target specific Medicaid populations or geographic areas in the state.
             568          (b) The pilot program shall establish compensation models for dentists and dental
             569      hygienists that:
             570          (i) increase access to quality, cost effective dental care; and
             571          (ii) use funds from the Division of Family Health and Preparedness that are available to
             572      reimburse dentists for educational loans in exchange for the dentist agreeing to serve Medicaid
             573      and under-served populations.
             574          (c) The division may amend the state plan and apply to the Secretary of Health and
             575      Human Services for waivers or pilot programs if necessary to establish the new dental care
             576      delivery and payment reform model. The division shall evaluate the pilot program's effect on
             577      the cost of dental care and access to dental care for the targeted Medicaid populations. The
             578      division shall report to the Legislature's Health and Human Services Interim Committee by
             579      November 30th of each year that the pilot project is in effect.
             580          Section 12. Section 26-18-402 is amended to read:
             581           26-18-402. Medicaid Restricted Account.
             582          (1) There is created a restricted account in the General Fund known as the Medicaid
             583      Restricted Account.
             584          (2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3), the following shall be deposited into the
             585      Medicaid Restricted Account:
             586          (i) any general funds appropriated to the department for the state plan for medical
             587      assistance or for the Division of Health Care Financing that are not expended by the
             588      department in the fiscal year for which the general funds were appropriated and which are not
             589      otherwise designated as nonlapsing shall lapse into the Medicaid Restricted Account;


             590          (ii) any unused state funds that are associated with the Medicaid program, as defined in
             591      Section 26-18-2 , from the Department of Workforce Services and the Department of Human
             592      Services; and
             593          (iii) any penalties imposed and collected under:
             594          (A) Section 17B-2a-818.5 ;
             595          (B) Section 19-1-206 ;
             596          [(D)] (C) Section 63A-5-205 ;
             597          [(E)] (D) Section 63C-9-403 ; [or]
             598          [(F)] (E) Section 72-6-107.5 [.]; or
             599          [(C)] (F) Section 79-2-404 [;].
             600          (b) The account shall earn interest and all interest earned shall be deposited into the
             601      account.
             602          (c) The Legislature may appropriate money in the restricted account to fund programs
             603      that expand medical assistance coverage and private health insurance plans to low income
             604      persons who have not traditionally been served by Medicaid, including the Utah Children's
             605      Health Insurance Program created in Chapter 40.
             606          (3) For fiscal years 2008-09, 2009-10, 2010-11, 2011-12, and 2012-13 the following
             607      funds are nonlapsing:
             608          (a) any general funds appropriated to the department for the state plan for medical
             609      assistance, or for the Division of Health Care Financing that are not expended by the
             610      department in the fiscal year in which the general funds were appropriated; and
             611          (b) funds described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii).
             612          Section 13. Section 26-36a-206 is amended to read:
             613           26-36a-206. Penalties and interest.
             614          (1) A facility that fails to pay any assessment or file a return as required under this
             615      chapter, within the time required by this chapter, shall pay, in addition to the assessment,
             616      penalties and interest established by the department.
             617          (2) (a) Consistent with Subsection (2)(b), the department shall adopt rules in


             618      accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, which establish
             619      reasonable penalties and interest for the violations described in Subsection (1).
             620          (b) If a hospital fails to timely pay the full amount of a quarterly assessment, the
             621      department shall add to the assessment:
             622          (i) a penalty equal to 5% of the quarterly amount not paid on or before the due date;
             623      and
             624          (ii) on the last day of each quarter after the due date until the assessed amount and the
             625      penalty imposed under Subsection (2)(b)(i) are paid in full, an additional 5% penalty on:
             626          (A) any unpaid quarterly assessment; and
             627          (B) any unpaid penalty assessment.
             628          (c) The division may waive, reduce, or compromise the penalties and interest provided
             629      for in this section in the same manner as provided in Subsection 59-1-401 [(8)](13).
             630          Section 14. Section 34A-5-106 is amended to read:
             631           34A-5-106. Discriminatory or prohibited employment practices -- Permitted
             632      practices.
             633          (1) It is a discriminatory or prohibited employment practice to take any action
             634      described in Subsections (1)(a) through (f).
             635          (a) (i) An employer may not refuse to hire, promote, discharge, demote, or terminate
             636      any person, or to retaliate against, harass, or discriminate in matters of compensation or in
             637      terms, privileges, and conditions of employment against any person otherwise qualified,
             638      because of:
             639          (A) race;
             640          (B) color;
             641          (C) sex;
             642          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             643          (E) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older;
             644          (F) religion;
             645          (G) national origin; or


             646          (H) disability.
             647          (ii) A person may not be considered "otherwise qualified," unless that person possesses
             648      the following required by an employer for any particular job, job classification, or position:
             649          (A) education;
             650          (B) training;
             651          (C) ability, with or without reasonable accommodation;
             652          (D) moral character;
             653          (E) integrity;
             654          (F) disposition to work;
             655          (G) adherence to reasonable rules and regulations; and
             656          (H) other job related qualifications required by an employer.
             657          (iii) (A) As used in this chapter, "to discriminate in matters of compensation" means
             658      the payment of differing wages or salaries to employees having substantially equal experience,
             659      responsibilities, and skill for the particular job.
             660          (B) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(A):
             661          (I) nothing in this chapter prevents increases in pay as a result of longevity with the
             662      employer, if the salary increases are uniformly applied and available to all employees on a
             663      substantially proportional basis; and
             664          (II) nothing in this section prohibits an employer and employee from agreeing to a rate
             665      of pay or work schedule designed to protect the employee from loss of Social Security payment
             666      or benefits if the employee is eligible for those payments.
             667          (b) An employment agency may not:
             668          (i) refuse to list and properly classify for employment, or refuse to refer an individual
             669      for employment, in a known available job for which the individual is otherwise qualified,
             670      because of:
             671          (A) race;
             672          (B) color;
             673          (C) sex;


             674          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             675          (E) religion;
             676          (F) national origin;
             677          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             678          (H) disability; or
             679          (ii) comply with a request from an employer for referral of applicants for employment
             680      if the request indicates either directly or indirectly that the employer discriminates in
             681      employment on account of:
             682          (A) race;
             683          (B) color;
             684          (C) sex;
             685          (D) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             686          (E) religion;
             687          (F) national origin;
             688          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             689          (H) disability.
             690          (c) A labor organization may not exclude any individual otherwise qualified from full
             691      membership rights in the labor organization, expel the individual from membership in the labor
             692      organization, or otherwise discriminate against or harass any of the labor organization's
             693      members in full employment of work opportunity, or representation, because of:
             694          (i) race;
             695          (ii) sex;
             696          (iii) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             697          (iv) religion;
             698          (v) national origin;
             699          (vi) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             700          (vii) disability.
             701          (d) Unless based upon a bona fide occupational qualification, or required by and given


             702      to an agency of government for security reasons, an employer, employment agency, or labor
             703      organization may not print, or circulate, or cause to be printed or circulated, any statement,
             704      advertisement, or publication, use any form of application for employment or membership, or
             705      make any inquiry in connection with prospective employment or membership that expresses,
             706      either directly or indirectly:
             707          (i) any limitation, specification, or discrimination as to:
             708          (A) race;
             709          (B) color;
             710          (C) religion;
             711          (D) sex;
             712          (E) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             713          (F) national origin;
             714          (G) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             715          (H) disability; or
             716          (ii) the intent to make any limitation, specification, or discrimination described in
             717      Subsection (1)(d)(i).
             718          (e) A person, whether or not an employer, an employment agency, a labor organization,
             719      or the employees or members of an employer, employment agency, or labor organization, may
             720      not:
             721          (i) aid, incite, compel, or coerce the doing of an act defined in this section to be a
             722      discriminatory or prohibited employment practice;
             723          (ii) obstruct or prevent any person from complying with this chapter, or any order
             724      issued under this chapter; or
             725          (iii) attempt, either directly or indirectly, to commit any act prohibited in this section.
             726          (f) (i) An employer, labor organization, joint apprenticeship committee, or vocational
             727      school, providing, coordinating, or controlling apprenticeship programs, or providing,
             728      coordinating, or controlling on-the-job-training programs, instruction, training, or retraining
             729      programs may not:


             730          (A) deny to, or withhold from, any qualified person, the right to be admitted to, or
             731      participate in any apprenticeship training program, on-the-job-training program, or other
             732      occupational instruction, training or retraining program because of:
             733          (I) race;
             734          (II) color;
             735          (III) sex;
             736          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             737          (V) religion;
             738          (VI) national origin;
             739          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             740          (VIII) disability;
             741          (B) discriminate against or harass any qualified person in that person's pursuit of
             742      programs described in Subsection (1)(f)(i)(A), or to discriminate against such a person in the
             743      terms, conditions, or privileges of programs described in Subsection (1)(f)(i)(A), because of:
             744          (I) race;
             745          (II) color;
             746          (III) sex;
             747          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             748          (V) religion;
             749          (VI) national origin;
             750          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             751          (VIII) disability; or
             752          (C) except as provided in Subsection (1)(f)(ii), print, publish, or cause to be printed or
             753      published, any notice or advertisement relating to employment by the employer, or membership
             754      in or any classification or referral for employment by a labor organization, or relating to any
             755      classification or referral for employment by an employment agency, indicating any preference,
             756      limitation, specification, or discrimination based on:
             757          (I) race;


             758          (II) color;
             759          (III) sex;
             760          (IV) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             761          (V) religion;
             762          (VI) national origin;
             763          (VII) age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older; or
             764          (VIII) disability.
             765          (ii) Notwithstanding Subsection (1)(f)(i)(C), if the following is a bona fide
             766      occupational qualification for employment, a notice or advertisement described in Subsection
             767      (1)(f)(i)(C) may indicate a preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on:
             768          (A) race;
             769          (B) color;
             770          (C) religion;
             771          (D) sex;
             772          (E) pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions;
             773          (F) age;
             774          (G) national origin; or
             775          (H) disability.
             776          (2) Nothing contained in Subsections (1)(a) through (1)(f) shall be construed to
             777      prevent:
             778          (a) the termination of employment of an individual who, with or without reasonable
             779      accommodation, is physically, mentally, or emotionally unable to perform the duties required
             780      by that individual's employment;
             781          (b) the variance of insurance premiums or coverage on account of age; or
             782          (c) a restriction on the activities of individuals licensed by the liquor authority with
             783      respect to persons under 21 years of age.
             784          (3) (a) It is not a discriminatory or prohibited employment practice:
             785          (i) for an employer to hire and employ employees, for an employment agency to


             786      classify or refer for employment any individual, for a labor organization to classify its
             787      membership or to classify or refer for employment any individual or for an employer, labor
             788      organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship or other training
             789      or retraining programs to admit or employ any individual in any such program, on the basis of
             790      religion, sex, pregnancy, childbirth, or pregnancy-related conditions, age, national origin, or
             791      disability in those certain instances where religion, sex, pregnancy, childbirth, or
             792      pregnancy-related conditions, age, if the individual is 40 years of age or older, national origin,
             793      or disability is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal
             794      operation of that particular business or enterprise;
             795          (ii) for a school, college, university, or other educational institution to hire and employ
             796      employees of a particular religion if:
             797          (A) the school, college, university, or other educational institution is, in whole or in
             798      substantial part, owned, supported, controlled, or managed by a particular religious corporation,
             799      association, or society; or
             800          (B) the curriculum of the school, college, university, or other educational institution is
             801      directed toward the propagation of a particular religion;
             802          (iii) for an employer to give preference in employment to:
             803          (A) the employer's:
             804          (I) spouse;
             805          (II) child; or
             806          (III) son-in-law or daughter-in-law;
             807          (B) any person for whom the employer is or would be liable to furnish financial
             808      support if those persons were unemployed;
             809          (C) any person to whom the employer during the preceding six months has furnished
             810      more than one-half of total financial support regardless of whether or not the employer was or
             811      is legally obligated to furnish support; or
             812          (D) any person whose education or training was substantially financed by the employer
             813      for a period of two years or more.


             814          (b) Nothing in this chapter applies to any business or enterprise on or near an Indian
             815      reservation with respect to any publicly announced employment practice of the business or
             816      enterprise under which preferential treatment is given to any individual because that individual
             817      is a native American Indian living on or near an Indian reservation.
             818          (c) Nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted to require any employer, employment
             819      agency, labor organization, vocational school, joint labor-management committee, or
             820      apprenticeship program subject to this chapter to grant preferential treatment to any individual
             821      or to any group because of the race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or disability of the
             822      individual or group on account of an imbalance which may exist with respect to the total
             823      number or percentage of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or
             824      disability employed by any employer, referred or classified for employment by an employment
             825      agency or labor organization, admitted to membership or classified by any labor organization,
             826      or admitted to or employed in, any apprenticeship or other training program, in comparison
             827      with the total number or percentage of persons of that race, color, religion, sex, age, national
             828      origin, or disability in any community or county or in the available work force in any
             829      community or county.
             830          (4) It is not a discriminatory or prohibited practice with respect to age to observe the
             831      terms of a bona fide seniority system or any bona fide employment benefit plan such as a
             832      retirement, pension, or insurance plan that is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this
             833      chapter, except that no such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire an individual.
             834          (5) Notwithstanding Subsection (4), or any other statutory provision to the contrary, a
             835      person may not be subject to involuntary termination or retirement from employment on the
             836      basis of age alone, if the individual is 40 years of age or older, except:
             837          (a) under Subsection (6); and
             838          (b) when age is a bona fide occupational qualification.
             839          (6) Nothing in this section prohibits compulsory retirement of an employee who has
             840      attained at least 65 years of age, and who, for the two-year period immediately before
             841      retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, if:


             842          (a) that employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit
             843      from the employee's employer's pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation
             844      plan, or any combination of those plans; and
             845          (b) the benefit described in Subsection (6)(a) equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000.
             846          Section 15. Section 35A-8-414 is amended to read:
             847           35A-8-414. Property and funds of authority declared public property --
             848      Exemption from taxes -- Alternative agreement with public body.
             849          (1) The property and funds of an authority are declared to be public property used for
             850      essential public, governmental, and charitable purposes.
             851          (2) (a) Subject to Subsections (2)(b) and (c), the property and authority are exempt
             852      from all taxes and special assessments of a public body.
             853          (b) This tax exemption does not apply to any portion of a project used for a
             854      profit-making enterprise.
             855          (c) In taxing these portions appropriate allowance shall be made for any expenditure by
             856      an authority for utilities or other public services it provides to serve the property.
             857          (3) In lieu of taxes on its exempt property an authority may agree to make payments to
             858      a public body if the authority finds that making the payments is consistent with the
             859      maintenance of the low-rent character of housing projects and the achievement of the purposes
             860      of this part.
             861          Section 16. Section 38-1a-201 is amended to read:
             862           38-1a-201. Establishment of State Construction Registry -- Filing index.
             863          (1) Subject to receiving adequate funding through a legislative appropriation and
             864      contracting with an approved third party vendor as provided in Section 38-1a-202 , the division
             865      shall establish and maintain the State Construction Registry to:
             866          (a) (i) assist in protecting public health, safety, and welfare; and
             867          (ii) promote a fair working environment;
             868          (b) be overseen by the division with the assistance of the designated agent;
             869          (c) provide a central repository for all required notices;


             870          (d) make accessible, by way of an Internet website:
             871          (i) the filing and review of required notices; and
             872          (ii) the transmitting of building permit information under Subsection 38-1a-205 (1) and
             873      the reviewing of that information;
             874          (e) accommodate:
             875          (i) electronic filing of required notices and electronic transmitting of building permit
             876      information described in Subsection (1)(d)(ii); and
             877          (ii) the filing of required notices by alternate means, including United States mail,
             878      telefax, or any other method as the division provides by rule;
             879          (f) (i) provide electronic notification for up to three email addresses for each interested
             880      person who requests to receive notification under Section 38-1a-204 from the designated agent;
             881      and
             882          (ii) provide alternate means of providing notification to a person who makes a filing by
             883      alternate means, including United States mail, telefax, or any other method as the division
             884      prescribes by rule; and
             885          (g) provide hard-copy printing of electronic receipts for an individual filing evidencing
             886      the date and time of the individual filing and the content of the individual filing.
             887          (2) The designated agent shall index filings in the registry by:
             888          (a) the name of the owner;
             889          (b) the name of the original contractor;
             890          (c) subdivision, development, or other project name, if any;
             891          (d) lot or parcel number;
             892          (e) the address of the project property;
             893          (f) entry number;
             894          (g) the name of the county in which the project property is located;
             895          (h) for [construction] private projects [that are not government projects]:
             896          (i) the tax parcel identification number of each parcel included in the project property;
             897      and


             898          (ii) the building permit number;
             899          (i) for government projects, the government project-identifying information; and
             900          (j) any other identifier that the division considers reasonably appropriate in
             901      collaboration with the designated agent.
             902          Section 17. Section 51-7-15 is amended to read:
             903           51-7-15. Bonds of state treasurer and other public treasurers -- Reports to
             904      council.
             905          (1) (a) The state treasurer, county, city, and town treasurers, the clerk or treasurer of
             906      each school district, and any other public treasurers that the council designates by rule shall be
             907      bonded in an amount of not less than that established by the council.
             908          (b) The council shall base the minimum bond amount on the amount of public funds
             909      normally in the treasurer's possession or control.
             910          (2) (a) When a public treasurer deposits or invests public funds as authorized by this
             911      chapter, he and his bondsmen are not liable for any loss of public funds invested or deposited
             912      unless the loss is caused by the malfeasance of the treasurer or of any member of his staff.
             913          (b) A public treasurer and his bondsmen are liable for any loss for any reason from
             914      deposits or investments not made in conformity with this chapter and the rules of the council.
             915          (3) (a) Each public treasurer shall file a written report with the council on or before
             916      January 31 and July 31 of each year.
             917          (b) The report shall contain:
             918          (i) the information about the deposits and investments of that treasurer during the
             919      preceding six months ending December 31 and June 30, respectively, that the council requires
             920      by rule; and
             921          (ii) information detailing the nature and extent of interest rate contracts permitted by
             922      Subsection 51-7-17 [(2)](3).
             923          (c) The public treasurer shall make copies of the report available to the public at his
             924      offices during normal business hours.
             925          Section 18. Section 51-7-18.2 is amended to read:


             926           51-7-18.2. Public treasurer's reports -- Contents.
             927          (1) The council may:
             928          (a) require any public treasurer to prepare and file with it a written report in a form
             929      prescribed by the council containing the information required by this section; and
             930          (b) specify that the report will contain the information required by this section for any
             931      date.
             932          (2) The council shall require the report to include information:
             933          (a) specifying the amount of public funds in the public treasurer's possession or
             934      control;
             935          (b) detailing the nature and extent of the deposit and investment of those funds;
             936          (c) detailing the rate of return on each deposit or investment; and
             937          (d) detailing the nature and extent of interest rate contracts authorized by Subsection
             938      51-7-17 [(2)](3).
             939          (3) The public treasurer shall file the report with the council within 10 days after he
             940      receives the council's request.
             941          (4) Each public treasurer shall make copies of any reports required by this section
             942      available for inspection by the public at his office during normal business hours.
             943          Section 19. Section 53-3-207 is amended to read:
             944           53-3-207. License certificates or driving privilege cards issued to drivers by class
             945      of motor vehicle -- Contents -- Release of anatomical gift information -- Temporary
             946      licenses or driving privilege cards -- Minors' licenses, cards, and permits -- Violation.
             947          (1) As used in this section:
             948          (a) "driving privilege" means the privilege granted under this chapter to drive a motor
             949      vehicle;
             950          (b) "governmental entity" means the state and its political subdivisions as defined in
             951      this Subsection (1);
             952          (c) "political subdivision" means any county, city, town, school district, public transit
             953      district, community development and renewal agency, special improvement or taxing district,


             954      local district, special service district, an entity created by an interlocal agreement adopted under
             955      Title 11, Chapter 13, Interlocal Cooperation Act, or other governmental subdivision or public
             956      corporation; and
             957          (d) "state" means this state, and includes any office, department, agency, authority,
             958      commission, board, institution, hospital, college, university, children's justice center, or other
             959      instrumentality of the state.
             960          (2) (a) The division shall issue to every person privileged to drive a motor vehicle, a
             961      regular license certificate, a limited-term license certificate, or a driving privilege card
             962      indicating the type or class of motor vehicle the person may drive.
             963          (b) A person may not drive a class of motor vehicle unless granted the privilege in that
             964      class.
             965          (3) (a) Every regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving
             966      privilege card shall bear:
             967          (i) the distinguishing number assigned to the person by the division;
             968          (ii) the name, birth date, and Utah residence address of the person;
             969          (iii) a brief description of the person for the purpose of identification;
             970          (iv) any restrictions imposed on the license under Section 53-3-208 ;
             971          (v) a photograph of the person;
             972          (vi) a photograph or other facsimile of the person's signature;
             973          (vii) an indication whether the person intends to make an anatomical gift under Title
             974      26, Chapter 28, Revised Uniform Anatomical Gift Act, unless the driving privilege is extended
             975      under Subsection 53-3-214 (3); and
             976          (viii) except as provided in Subsection (3)(b), if the person states that the person is a
             977      veteran of the United States military on the application for a driver license in accordance with
             978      Section 53-3-205 and provides verification that the person was honorably discharged from the
             979      United States military, an indication that the person is a United States military veteran for a
             980      regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate issued on or after July 1, 2011.
             981          (b) A regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate issued to any person


             982      younger than 21 years on a portrait-style format as required in Subsection (5)(b)(i) is not
             983      required to include an indication that the person is a United States military veteran under
             984      Subsection (3)(a)(viii).
             985          (c) A new license certificate issued by the division may not bear the person's Social
             986      Security number.
             987          (d) (i) The regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving
             988      privilege card shall be of an impervious material, resistant to wear, damage, and alteration.
             989          (ii) Except as provided under Subsection (4)(b), the size, form, and color of the regular
             990      license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card shall be as
             991      prescribed by the commissioner.
             992          (iii) The commissioner may also prescribe the issuance of a special type of limited
             993      regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card under
             994      Subsection 53-3-220 (4).
             995          (4) (a) (i) The division, upon determining after an examination that an applicant is
             996      mentally and physically qualified to be granted a driving privilege, may issue to an applicant a
             997      receipt for the fee if the applicant is eligible for a regular license certificate or limited-term
             998      license certificate.
             999          (ii) (A) The division shall issue a temporary regular license certificate or temporary
             1000      limited-term license certificate allowing the person to drive a motor vehicle while the division
             1001      is completing its investigation to determine whether the person is entitled to be granted a
             1002      driving privilege.
             1003          (B) A temporary regular license certificate or a temporary limited-term license
             1004      certificate issued under this Subsection (4) shall be recognized and have the same rights and
             1005      privileges as a regular license certificate or a limited-term license certificate.
             1006          (b) The temporary regular license certificate or temporary limited-term license
             1007      certificate shall be in the person's immediate possession while driving a motor vehicle, and it is
             1008      invalid when the person's regular license certificate or limited-term license certificate has been
             1009      issued or when, for good cause, the privilege has been refused.


             1010          (c) The division shall indicate on the temporary regular license certificate or temporary
             1011      limited-term license certificate a date after which it is not valid as a temporary license.
             1012          (d) (i) Except as provided in Subsection (4)(d)(ii), the division may not issue a
             1013      temporary driving privilege card or other temporary permit to an applicant for a driving
             1014      privilege card.
             1015          (ii) The division may issue a learner permit issued in accordance with Section
             1016      53-3-210.5 to an applicant for a driving privilege card.
             1017          (5) (a) The division shall distinguish learner permits, temporary permits, regular
             1018      license certificates, limited-term license certificates, and driving privilege cards issued to any
             1019      person younger than 21 years of age by use of plainly printed information or the use of a color
             1020      or other means not used for other regular license certificates, limited-term license certificates,
             1021      or driving privilege cards.
             1022          (b) The division shall distinguish a regular license certificate, limited-term license
             1023      certificate, or driving privilege card issued to any person:
             1024          (i) younger than 21 years of age by use of a portrait-style format not used for other
             1025      regular license certificates, limited-term license certificates, or driving privilege cards and by
             1026      plainly printing the date the regular license certificate, limited-term license certificate, or
             1027      driving privilege card holder is 21 years of age, which is the legal age for purchasing an
             1028      alcoholic beverage or alcoholic product under Section [ 32B-14-403 ] 32B-4-403 ; and
             1029          (ii) younger than 19 years of age, by plainly printing the date the regular license
             1030      certificate, limited-term license certificate, or driving privilege card holder is 19 years of age,
             1031      which is the legal age for purchasing tobacco products under Section 76-10-104 .
             1032          (6) The division shall distinguish a limited-term license certificate by clearly indicating
             1033      on the document:
             1034          (a) that it is temporary; and
             1035          (b) its expiration date.
             1036          (7) (a) The division shall only issue a driving privilege card to a person whose privilege
             1037      was obtained without providing evidence of lawful presence in the United States as required


             1038      under Subsection 53-3-205 (8).
             1039          (b) The division shall distinguish a driving privilege card from a license certificate by:
             1040          (i) use of a format, color, font, or other means; and
             1041          (ii) clearly displaying on the front of the driving privilege card a phrase substantially
             1042      similar to "FOR DRIVING PRIVILEGES ONLY -- NOT VALID FOR IDENTIFICATION".
             1043          (8) The provisions of Subsection (5)(b) do not apply to a learner permit, temporary
             1044      permit, temporary regular license certificate, temporary limited-term license certificate, or any
             1045      other temporary permit.
             1046          (9) The division shall issue temporary license certificates of the same nature, except as
             1047      to duration, as the license certificates that they temporarily replace, as are necessary to
             1048      implement applicable provisions of this section and Section 53-3-223 .
             1049          (10) (a) A governmental entity may not accept a driving privilege card as proof of
             1050      personal identification.
             1051          (b) A driving privilege card may not be used as a document providing proof of a
             1052      person's age for any government required purpose.
             1053          (11) A person who violates Subsection (2)(b) is guilty of a class C misdemeanor.
             1054          (12) Unless otherwise provided, the provisions, requirements, classes, endorsements,
             1055      fees, restrictions, and sanctions under this code apply to a:
             1056          (a) driving privilege in the same way as a license or limited-term license issued under
             1057      this chapter; and
             1058          (b) limited-term license certificate or driving privilege card in the same way as a
             1059      regular license certificate issued under this chapter.
             1060          Section 20. Section 53-5a-102 is amended to read:
             1061           53-5a-102. Uniform firearm laws.
             1062          (1) The individual right to keep and bear arms being a constitutionally protected right
             1063      under Article I, Section 6 of the Utah Constitution, the Legislature finds the need to provide
             1064      uniform civil and criminal firearm laws throughout the state.
             1065          (2) Except as specifically provided by state law, a local authority or state entity may


             1066      not:
             1067          (a) prohibit an individual from owning, possessing, purchasing, selling, transferring,
             1068      transporting, or keeping a firearm at the individual's place of residence, property, business, or
             1069      in any vehicle lawfully in the individual's possession or lawfully under the individual's control;
             1070      or
             1071          (b) require an individual to have a permit or license to purchase, own, possess,
             1072      transport, or keep a firearm.
             1073          (3) In conjunction with Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 5, Weapons, this section is uniformly
             1074      applicable throughout this state and in all its political subdivisions and municipalities.
             1075          (4) All authority to regulate firearms is reserved to the state except where the
             1076      Legislature specifically delegates responsibility to local authorities or state entities.
             1077          (5) Unless specifically authorized by the Legislature by statute, a local authority or
             1078      state entity may not enact, establish, or enforce any ordinance, regulation, rule, or policy
             1079      pertaining to firearms that in any way inhibits or restricts the possession or use of firearms on
             1080      either public or private property.
             1081          (6) As used in this section:
             1082          (a) "firearm" has the same meaning as defined in [Subsection] Section 76-10-501 [(9)];
             1083      and
             1084          (b) "local authority or state entity" includes public school districts, public schools, and
             1085      state institutions of higher education.
             1086          (7) Nothing in this section restricts or expands private property rights.
             1087          Section 21. Section 53A-1a-506 is amended to read:
             1088           53A-1a-506. Eligible students.
             1089          (1) As used in this section:
             1090          (a) "District school" means a public school under the control of a local school board
             1091      elected pursuant to Title 20A, Chapter 14, Nomination and Election of State and Local School
             1092      Boards.
             1093          (b) "Refugee" means a person who is eligible to receive benefits and services from the


             1094      federal Office of Refugee Resettlement.
             1095          (2) All resident students of the state qualify for admission to a charter school, subject
             1096      to the limitations set forth in this section and Section 53A-1a-506.5 .
             1097          (3) (a) A charter school shall enroll an eligible student who submits a timely
             1098      application, unless the number of applications exceeds the capacity of a program, class, grade
             1099      level, or the charter school.
             1100          (b) If the number of applications exceeds the capacity of a program, class, grade level,
             1101      or the charter school, students shall be selected on a random basis, except as provided in
             1102      Subsections (4) through (6).
             1103          (4) A charter school may give an enrollment preference to:
             1104          (a) a student of a parent who has actively participated in the development of the charter
             1105      school;
             1106          (b) siblings of students presently enrolled in the charter school;
             1107          (c) a student of a parent who is employed by the charter school;
             1108          (d) students [matriculating] articulating between charter schools offering similar
             1109      programs that are governed by the same governing body;
             1110          (e) students [matriculating] articulating from one charter school to another pursuant to
             1111      [a matriculation] an articulation agreement between the charter schools that is approved by the
             1112      State Charter School Board; or
             1113          (f) students who reside within:
             1114          (i) the school district in which the charter school is located;
             1115          (ii) the municipality in which the charter school is located; or
             1116          (iii) a two-mile radius from the charter school.
             1117          (5) If a district school converts to charter status, the charter school shall give an
             1118      enrollment preference to students who would have otherwise attended it as a district school.
             1119          (6) (a) A charter school whose mission is to enhance learning opportunities for
             1120      refugees or children of refugee families may give an enrollment preference to refugees or
             1121      children of refugee families.


             1122          (b) A charter school whose mission is to enhance learning opportunities for English
             1123      language learners may give an enrollment preference to English language learners.
             1124          (7) A charter school may not discriminate in its admission policies or practices on the
             1125      same basis as other public schools may not discriminate in their admission policies and
             1126      practices.
             1127          Section 22. Section 53A-3-425 is amended to read:
             1128           53A-3-425. Association leave -- District policy.
             1129          (1) As used in this section:
             1130          (a) "Association leave" means leave from a school district employee's regular school
             1131      responsibilities granted for that employee to spend time for association, employee association,
             1132      or union duties.
             1133          (b) "Employee association" means an association that:
             1134          (i) negotiates employee salaries, benefits, contracts, or other conditions of employment;
             1135      or
             1136          (ii) performs union duties.
             1137          (2) Except as provided in Subsection (3), a local school board may not allow paid
             1138      association leave for a school district employee to perform an employee association or union
             1139      duty.
             1140          (3) (a) A local school board may allow paid association leave for a school district
             1141      employee to perform an employee association duty if:
             1142          (i) the duty performed by the employee on paid association leave will directly benefit
             1143      the school district, including representing the school district's licensed educators:
             1144          (A) on a board or committee, such as the school district's foundation, a curriculum
             1145      development board, insurance committee, or catastrophic leave committee;
             1146          (B) at a school district leadership meeting; or
             1147          (C) at a workshop or meeting conducted by the school district's local school board;
             1148          (ii) the duty performed by the employee on paid association leave does not include
             1149      political activity, including:


             1150          (A) advocating for or against a candidate for public office in a partisan or nonpartisan
             1151      election;
             1152          (B) soliciting a contribution for a political action committee, a political issues
             1153      committee, a registered political party, or a candidate, as defined in Section 20A-11-101 ; or
             1154          (C) initiating, drafting, soliciting signatures for, or advocating for or against a ballot
             1155      proposition, as defined in Section 20A-1-102 ; and
             1156          (iii) the local school board ensures compliance with the requirements of Subsections
             1157      (4)(a) through (g).
             1158          (b) Prior to a school district employee's participation in paid or unpaid association
             1159      leave, a local school board shall adopt a written policy that governs association leave.
             1160          (c) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(d), a local school board policy that governs
             1161      association leave shall require reimbursement to the school district of the costs for an
             1162      employee, including benefits, for the time that the employee is:
             1163          (i) on unpaid association leave; or
             1164          (ii) participating in a paid association leave activity that does not provide a direct
             1165      benefit to the school district.
             1166          (d) For a school district that allowed association leave described in Subsections
             1167      (3)(c)(i) and (ii) prior to January 1, 2011, the local school board policy that governs association
             1168      leave may allow up to 10 days of association leave before requiring a reimbursement described
             1169      in Subsection (3)(c).
             1170          (e) A reimbursement required under Subsection (3)(c), (d), or (4)(g) may be provided
             1171      by an employee, association, or union.
             1172          (4) If a local school board adopts a policy to allow paid association leave, the policy
             1173      shall include procedures and controls to:
             1174          (a) ensure that the duties performed by employees on paid association leave directly
             1175      benefit the school district;
             1176          (b) require the school district to document the use and approval of paid association
             1177      leave;


             1178          (c) require school district supervision of employees on paid association leave;
             1179          (d) require the school district to account for the costs and expenses of paid association
             1180      leave;
             1181          (e) ensure that during the hours of paid association leave a school district employee
             1182      may not engage in political activity, including:
             1183          (i) advocating for or against a candidate for public office in a partisan or nonpartisan
             1184      election;
             1185          (ii) soliciting a contribution for a political action committee, a political issues
             1186      committee, a registered political party, or a candidate, as defined in Section 20A-11-101 ; and
             1187          (iii) initiating, drafting, soliciting signatures for, or advocating for or against a ballot
             1188      proposition, as defined in Section 20A-1-102 ;
             1189          (f) ensure that association leave is only paid out of school district funds when the paid
             1190      association leave directly benefits the district; and
             1191          (g) require the reimbursement to the school district of the cost of paid association leave
             1192      activities that do not provide a direct benefit to education within the school district.
             1193          (5) If a local school board adopts a policy to allow paid association leave, that policy
             1194      shall indicate that a willful violation of this section or of a policy adopted in accordance with
             1195      Subsection (3) or (4) may be used for disciplinary action under Section 53A-8a-502 .
             1196          Section 23. Section 53A-25b-201 is amended to read:
             1197           53A-25b-201. Authority of the State Board of Education -- Rulemaking --
             1198      Superintendent -- Advisory Council.
             1199          (1) The State Board of Education is the governing board of the Utah Schools for the
             1200      Deaf and the Blind.
             1201          (2) (a) The board shall appoint a superintendent for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and
             1202      the Blind.
             1203          (b) The board shall make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             1204      Administrative Rulemaking Act, regarding the qualifications, terms of employment, and duties
             1205      of the superintendent for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.


             1206          (3) The superintendent shall:
             1207          (a) subject to the approval of the board, appoint an associate superintendent to
             1208      administer the Utah School for the Deaf based on:
             1209          (i) demonstrated competency as an expert educator of deaf persons; and
             1210          (ii) knowledge of school management and the instruction of deaf persons;
             1211          (b) subject to the approval of the board, appoint an associate superintendent to
             1212      administer the Utah School for the Blind based on:
             1213          (i) demonstrated competency as an expert educator of blind persons; and
             1214          (ii) knowledge of school management and the instruction of blind persons, including an
             1215      understanding of the unique needs and education of deafblind persons.
             1216          (4) (a) The board shall:
             1217          (i) establish [the] an Advisory Council for the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind
             1218      and appoint no more than 11 members to the advisory council;
             1219          (ii) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             1220      Rulemaking Act, regarding the operation of the advisory council; and
             1221          (iii) receive and consider the advice and recommendations of the advisory council but
             1222      is not obligated to follow the recommendations of the advisory council.
             1223          (b) The advisory council described in Subsection (4)(a) shall include at least:
             1224          (i) two members who are blind;
             1225          (ii) two members who are deaf; and
             1226          (iii) two members who are deafblind or parents of a deafblind child.
             1227          (5) The board shall approve the annual budget and expenditures of the Utah Schools
             1228      for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1229          (6) (a) On or before the November interim meeting each year, the board shall report to
             1230      the Education Interim Committee on the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1231          (b) The report shall be presented verbally and in written form to the Education Interim
             1232      Committee and shall include:
             1233          (i) a financial report;


             1234          (ii) a report on the activities of the superintendent and associate superintendents;
             1235          (iii) a report on activities to involve parents and constituency and advocacy groups in
             1236      the governance of the school; and
             1237          (iv) a report on student achievement including:
             1238          (A) student academic achievement data, including longitudinal data for both current
             1239      and previous students served by the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind;
             1240          (B) graduation rates; and
             1241          (C) students exiting the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind and their educational
             1242      placement after exiting the Utah Schools for the Deaf and the Blind.
             1243          Section 24. Section 54-17-801 is amended to read:
             1244           54-17-801. Definitions.
             1245          As used in this part:
             1246          (1) "Contract customer" means a person who executes or will execute a renewable
             1247      energy contract with a qualified utility.
             1248          (2) "Qualified utility" means an electric corporation that serves more than 200,000
             1249      retail customers in the state.
             1250          (3) "Renewable energy contract" means a contract under this [section] part for the
             1251      delivery of electricity from one or more renewable energy facilities to a contract customer
             1252      requiring the use of a qualified utility's transmission or distribution system to deliver the
             1253      electricity from a renewable energy facility to the contract customer.
             1254          (4) "Renewable energy facility":
             1255          (a) except as provided in Subsection (4)(b), has the same meaning as renewable energy
             1256      source defined in Section 54-17-601 ; and
             1257          (b) does not include an electric generating facility whose costs have been included in a
             1258      qualified utility's rates as a facility providing electric service to the qualified utility's system.
             1259          Section 25. Section 57-1-24.3 is amended to read:
             1260           57-1-24.3. Notices to default trustor -- Opportunity to negotiate foreclosure relief.
             1261          (1) As used in this section:


             1262          (a) "Default trustor" means a trustor under a trust deed that secures a loan that the
             1263      beneficiary or servicer claims is in default.
             1264          (b) "Foreclosure relief" means a mortgage modification program or other foreclosure
             1265      relief option offered by a beneficiary or servicer.
             1266          (c) "Loan" means an obligation incurred for personal, family, or household purposes,
             1267      evidenced by a promissory note or other credit agreement for which a trust deed encumbering
             1268      owner-occupied residential property is given as security.
             1269          (d) "Owner-occupied residential property" means real property that is occupied by its
             1270      owner as the owner's primary residence.
             1271          (e) "Servicer" means an entity, retained by the beneficiary:
             1272          (i) for the purpose of receiving a scheduled periodic payment from a borrower pursuant
             1273      to the terms of a loan; or
             1274          (ii) that meets the definition of servicer under 12 U.S.C. Sec. 2605(i)(2) with respect to
             1275      residential mortgage loans.
             1276          (f) "Single point of contact" means a person who, as the designated representative of
             1277      the beneficiary or servicer, is authorized to:
             1278          (i) coordinate and ensure effective communication with a default trustor concerning:
             1279          (A) foreclosure proceedings initiated by the beneficiary or servicer relating to the trust
             1280      property; and
             1281          (B) any foreclosure relief offered by or acceptable to the beneficiary or servicer; and
             1282          (ii) direct all foreclosure proceedings initiated by the beneficiary or servicer relating to
             1283      the trust property, including:
             1284          (A) the filing of a notice of default under Section 57-1-24 and any cancellation of a
             1285      notice of default;
             1286          (B) the publication of a notice of trustee's sale under Section 57-1-25 ; and
             1287          (C) the postponement of a trustee's sale under Section 57-1-27 or this section.
             1288          (2) (a) Before a notice of default is filed for record under Section 57-1-24 , a beneficiary
             1289      or servicer shall:


             1290          (i) designate a single point of contact; and
             1291          (ii) send notice by United States mail to the default trustor.
             1292          (b) A notice under Subsection (2)(a)(ii) shall:
             1293          (i) advise the default trustor of the intent of the beneficiary or servicer to file a notice of
             1294      default;
             1295          (ii) state:
             1296          (A) the nature of the default;
             1297          (B) the total amount the default trustor is required to pay in order to cure the default
             1298      and avoid the filing of a notice of default, itemized by the type and amount of each component
             1299      part of the total cure amount; and
             1300          (C) the date by which the default trustor is required to pay the amount to cure the
             1301      default and avoid the filing of a notice of default;
             1302          (iii) disclose the name, telephone number, email address, and mailing address of the
             1303      single point of contact designated by the beneficiary or servicer; and
             1304          (iv) direct the default trustor to contact the single point of contact regarding foreclosure
             1305      relief available through the beneficiary or servicer for which a default trustor may apply, if the
             1306      beneficiary or servicer offers foreclosure relief.
             1307          (3) Before the expiration of the three-month period described in Subsection 57-1-24 (2),
             1308      a default trustor may apply directly with the single point of contact for any available
             1309      foreclosure relief.
             1310          (4) A default trustor shall, within the time required by the beneficiary or servicer,
             1311      provide all financial and other information requested by the single point of contact to enable
             1312      the beneficiary or servicer to determine whether the default trustor qualifies for the foreclosure
             1313      relief for which the default trustor applies.
             1314          (5) The single point of contact shall:
             1315          (a) inform the default trustor about and make available to the default [trust] trustor any
             1316      available foreclosure relief;
             1317          (b) undertake reasonable and good faith efforts, consistent with applicable law, to


             1318      consider the default trustor for foreclosure relief for which the default trustor is eligible;
             1319          (c) ensure timely and appropriate communication with the default trustor concerning
             1320      foreclosure relief for which the default trustor applies; and
             1321          (d) notify the default trustor by United States mail of the decision of the beneficiary or
             1322      servicer regarding the foreclosure relief for which the default trustor applies.
             1323          (6) Notice of a trustee's sale may not be given under Section 57-1-25 with respect to
             1324      the trust property of a default trustor who has applied for foreclosure relief until after the single
             1325      point of contact provides the notice required by Subsection (5)(d).
             1326          (7) A beneficiary or servicer may cause a notice of a trustee's sale to be given with
             1327      respect to the trust property of a default trustor who has applied for foreclosure relief if, in the
             1328      exercise of the sole discretion of the beneficiary or servicer, the beneficiary or servicer:
             1329          (a) determines that the default trustor does not qualify for the foreclosure relief for
             1330      which the default trustor has applied; or
             1331          (b) elects not to enter into a written agreement with the default trustor to implement the
             1332      foreclosure relief.
             1333          (8) (a) A beneficiary or servicer may postpone a trustee's sale of the trust property in
             1334      order to allow further time for negotiations relating to foreclosure relief.
             1335          (b) A postponement of a trustee's sale under Subsection (8)(a) does not require the
             1336      trustee to file for record a new or additional notice of default under Section 57-1-24 .
             1337          (9) A beneficiary or servicer shall cause the cancellation of a notice of default filed
             1338      under Section 57-1-24 on the trust property of a default trustor if the beneficiary or servicer:
             1339          (a) determines that the default trustor qualifies for the foreclosure relief for which the
             1340      default trustor has applied; and
             1341          (b) enters into a written agreement with the default trustor to implement the foreclosure
             1342      relief.
             1343          (10) This section may not be construed to require a beneficiary or servicer to:
             1344          (a) establish foreclosure relief; or
             1345          (b) approve an application for foreclosure relief submitted by a default trustor.


             1346          (11) A beneficiary and servicer shall each take reasonable measures to ensure that their
             1347      respective practices in the foreclosure of owner-occupied residential property and any
             1348      foreclosure relief with respect to a loan:
             1349          (a) comply with all applicable federal and state fair lending statutes; and
             1350          (b) ensure appropriate treatment of default trustors in the foreclosure process.
             1351          (12) This section does not apply if the beneficiary under a trust deed securing a loan is
             1352      an individual.
             1353          (13) A beneficiary or servicer is considered to have complied with the requirements of
             1354      this section if the beneficiary or servicer designates and uses a single point of contact in
             1355      compliance with federal law, rules, regulations, guidance, or guidelines governing the
             1356      beneficiary or servicer and issued by, as applicable, the Board of Governors of the Federal
             1357      Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of
             1358      the Currency, the National Credit Union Administration, or the Consumer Financial Protection
             1359      Bureau.
             1360          (14) The failure of a beneficiary or servicer to comply with a requirement of this
             1361      section does not affect the validity of a trustee's sale of the trust property to a bona fide
             1362      purchaser.
             1363          Section 26. Section 57-14-2 is amended to read:
             1364           57-14-2. Definitions.
             1365          As used in this chapter:
             1366          [(4)] (1) "Charge" means the admission price or fee asked in return for permission to
             1367      enter or go upon the land.
             1368          [(1)] (2) (a) "Land" means any land within the territorial limits of Utah.
             1369          (b) "Land" includes roads, railway corridors, water, water courses, private ways and
             1370      buildings, structures, and machinery or equipment when attached to the realty.
             1371          [(2)] (3) "Owner" includes the possessor of any interest in the land, whether public or
             1372      private land, a tenant, a lessor, a lessee, and an occupant or person in control of the premises.
             1373          [(5)] (4) "Person" includes any person, regardless of age, maturity, or experience, who


             1374      enters upon or uses land for recreational purposes.
             1375          [(3)] (5) "Recreational purpose" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following or
             1376      any combination thereof:
             1377          (a) hunting;
             1378          (b) fishing;
             1379          (c) swimming;
             1380          (d) skiing;
             1381          (e) snowshoeing;
             1382          (f) camping;
             1383          (g) picnicking;
             1384          (h) hiking;
             1385          (i) studying nature;
             1386          (j) waterskiing;
             1387          (k) engaging in water sports;
             1388          (l) engaging in equestrian activities;
             1389          (m) using boats;
             1390          (n) mountain biking;
             1391          (o) riding narrow gauge rail cars on a narrow gauge track that does not exceed 24 inch
             1392      gauge;
             1393          (p) using off-highway vehicles or recreational vehicles;
             1394          (q) viewing or enjoying historical, archaeological, scenic, or scientific sites; and
             1395          (r) aircraft operations.
             1396          Section 27. Section 58-3a-502 is amended to read:
             1397           58-3a-502. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
             1398          (1) (a) If upon inspection or investigation, the division concludes that a person has
             1399      violated Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-3a-501 or any rule or order
             1400      issued with respect to Section 58-3a-501 , and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the
             1401      director or the director's designee from within the division for each alternative respectively,


             1402      shall promptly issue a citation to the person according to this chapter and any pertinent rules,
             1403      attempt to negotiate a stipulated settlement, or notify the person to appear before an
             1404      adjudicative proceeding conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             1405          (i) A person who violates Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-3a-501
             1406      or any rule or order issued with respect to Section 58-3a-501 , as evidenced by an uncontested
             1407      citation, a stipulated settlement, or by a finding of violation in an adjudicative proceeding, may
             1408      be assessed a fine pursuant to this Subsection (1) and may, in addition to or in lieu of, be
             1409      ordered to cease and desist from violating Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section
             1410      58-3a-501 or any rule or order issued with respect to this section.
             1411          (ii) Except for a cease and desist order, the licensure sanctions cited in Section
             1412      58-3a-401 may not be assessed through a citation.
             1413          (b) A citation shall:
             1414          (i) be in writing;
             1415          (ii) describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including a reference to the
             1416      provision of the chapter, rule, or order alleged to have been violated;
             1417          (iii) clearly state that the recipient must notify the division in writing within 20
             1418      calendar days of service of the citation if the recipient wishes to contest the citation at a hearing
             1419      conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act; and
             1420          (iv) clearly explain the consequences of failure to timely contest the citation or to make
             1421      payment of any fines assessed by the citation within the time specified in the citation.
             1422          (c) The division may issue a notice in lieu of a citation.
             1423          (d) Each citation issued under this section, or a copy of each citation, may be served
             1424      upon [any] a person upon whom a summons may be served in accordance with the Utah Rules
             1425      of Civil Procedure and may be made personally or upon the person's agent by a division
             1426      investigator or by any person specially designated by the director or by mail.
             1427          (e) If within 20 calendar days from the service of the citation, the person to whom the
             1428      citation was issued fails to request a hearing to contest the citation, the citation becomes the
             1429      final order of the division and is not subject to further agency review. The period to contest a


             1430      citation may be extended by the division for cause.
             1431          (f) The division may refuse to issue or renew, suspend, revoke, or place on probation
             1432      the license of a licensee who fails to comply with a citation after it becomes final.
             1433          (g) The failure of an applicant for licensure to comply with a citation after it becomes
             1434      final is a ground for denial of license.
             1435          (h) No citation may be issued under this section after the expiration of six months
             1436      following the occurrence of any violation.
             1437          (i) The director or the director's designee shall assess fines according to the following:
             1438          (i) for a first offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $1,000;
             1439          (ii) for a second offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $2,000;
             1440      and
             1441          (iii) for any subsequent offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to
             1442      $2,000 for each day of continued offense.
             1443          (2) An action initiated for a first or second offense which has not yet resulted in a final
             1444      order of the division shall not preclude initiation of any subsequent action for a second or
             1445      subsequent offense during the pendency of any preceding action. The final order on a
             1446      subsequent action shall be considered a second or subsequent offense, respectively, provided
             1447      the preceding action resulted in a first or second offense, respectively.
             1448          (3) Any penalty which is not paid may be collected by the director by either referring
             1449      the matter to a collection agency or bringing an action in the district court of the county in
             1450      which the person against whom the penalty is imposed resides or in the county where the office
             1451      of the director is located. Any county attorney or the attorney general of the state shall provide
             1452      legal assistance and advice to the director in any action to collect the penalty. In any action
             1453      brought to enforce the provisions of this section, reasonable attorney's fees and costs shall be
             1454      awarded to the division.
             1455          Section 28. Section 58-9-102 is amended to read:
             1456           58-9-102. Definitions.
             1457          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:


             1458          (1) "Authorizing agent" means a person legally entitled to authorize the cremation of
             1459      human remains.
             1460          (2) "Beneficiary" means the individual who, at the time of the [beneficiary's]
             1461      individual's death, is to receive the benefit of the property and services purchased under a
             1462      preneed funeral arrangement.
             1463          (3) "Board" means the Board of Funeral Service created in Section 58-9-201 .
             1464          (4) "Body part" means:
             1465          (a) a limb or other portion of the anatomy that is removed from a person or human
             1466      remains for medical purposes during treatment, surgery, biopsy, autopsy, or medical research;
             1467      or
             1468          (b) a human body or any portion of a body that has been donated to science for medical
             1469      research purposes.
             1470          (5) "Buyer" means a person who purchases a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1471          (6) "Calcination" means a process in which a dead human body is reduced by intense
             1472      heat to a residue that is not as substantive as the residue that follows cremation.
             1473          (7) "Cremated remains" means all the remains of a cremated body recovered after the
             1474      completion of the cremation process, including pulverization which leaves only bone fragments
             1475      reduced to unidentifiable dimensions and may possibly include the residue of foreign matter
             1476      including casket material, bridgework, or eyeglasses that were cremated with the human
             1477      remains.
             1478          (8) "Cremation" means the technical process, using direct flame and heat, that reduces
             1479      human remains to bone fragments through heat and evaporation and includes the processing
             1480      and usually the pulverization of the bone fragments.
             1481          (9) "Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which the cremation
             1482      process takes place and which is used exclusively for the cremation of human remains.
             1483          (10) "Cremation container" means the container:
             1484          (a) in which the human remains are transported to the crematory and placed in the
             1485      cremation chamber for cremation; and


             1486          (b) that meets substantially all of the following standards:
             1487          (i) composed of readily combustible materials suitable for cremation;
             1488          (ii) able to be closed in order to provide a complete covering for the human remains;
             1489          (iii) resistant to leakage or spillage;
             1490          (iv) rigid enough for handling with ease; and
             1491          (v) able to provide protection for the health, safety, and personal integrity of crematory
             1492      personnel.
             1493          (11) "Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the cremation
             1494      chamber and the holding facility.
             1495          (12) "Direct disposition" means the disposition of a dead human body:
             1496          (a) as quickly as law allows;
             1497          (b) without preparation of the body by embalming; and
             1498          (c) without an attendant funeral service or graveside service.
             1499          (13) "Disposition" means the final disposal of a dead human body by:
             1500          (a) earth interment;
             1501          (b) above ground burial;
             1502          (c) cremation;
             1503          (d) calcination;
             1504          (e) burial at sea;
             1505          (f) delivery to a medical institution; or
             1506          (g) other lawful means.
             1507          (14) "Embalming" means replacing body fluids in a dead human body with preserving
             1508      and disinfecting chemicals.
             1509          (15) (a) "Funeral merchandise" means any of the following into which a dead human
             1510      body is placed in connection with the transportation or disposition of the body:
             1511          (i) a vault;
             1512          (ii) a casket; or
             1513          (iii) other personal property.


             1514          (b) "Funeral merchandise" does not include:
             1515          (i) a mausoleum crypt;
             1516          (ii) an interment receptacle preset in a cemetery; or
             1517          (iii) a columbarium niche.
             1518          (16) "Funeral service" means a service, rite, or ceremony performed:
             1519          (a) with respect to the death of a human; and
             1520          (b) with the body of the deceased present.
             1521          (17) "Funeral service director" means an individual licensed under this chapter who
             1522      may engage in all lawful professional activities regulated and defined under the practice of
             1523      funeral service.
             1524          (18) (a) "Funeral service establishment" means a place of business at a specific street
             1525      address or location licensed under this chapter that is devoted to:
             1526          (i) the embalming, care, custody, shelter, preparation for burial, and final disposition of
             1527      dead human bodies; and
             1528          (ii) the furnishing of services, merchandise, and products purchased from the
             1529      establishment as a preneed provider under a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1530          (b) "Funeral service establishment" includes:
             1531          (i) all portions of the business premises and all tools, instruments, and supplies used in
             1532      the preparation and embalming of dead human bodies for burial, cremation, and final
             1533      disposition as defined by division rule; and
             1534          (ii) a facility used by the business in which funeral services may be conducted.
             1535          (19) "Funeral service intern" means an individual licensed under this chapter who is
             1536      permitted to:
             1537          (a) assist a funeral service director in the embalming or other preparation of a dead
             1538      human body for disposition;
             1539          (b) assist a funeral service director in the cremation, calcination, or pulverization of a
             1540      dead human body or its remains; and
             1541          (c) perform other funeral service activities under the supervision of a funeral service


             1542      director.
             1543          (20) "Graveside service" means a funeral service held at the location of disposition.
             1544          (21) "Memorial service" means a service, rite, or ceremony performed:
             1545          (a) with respect to the death of a human; and
             1546          (b) without the body of the deceased present.
             1547          (22) "Practice of funeral service" means:
             1548          (a) supervising the receipt of custody and transportation of a dead human body to
             1549      prepare the body for:
             1550          (i) disposition; or
             1551          (ii) shipment to another location;
             1552          (b) entering into a contract with a person to provide professional services regulated
             1553      under this chapter;
             1554          (c) embalming or otherwise preparing a dead human body for disposition;
             1555          (d) supervising the arrangement or conduct of:
             1556          (i) a funeral service;
             1557          (ii) a graveside service; or
             1558          (iii) a memorial service;
             1559          (e) cremation, calcination, or pulverization of a dead human body or the body's
             1560      remains;
             1561          (f) supervising the arrangement of:
             1562          (i) a disposition; or
             1563          (ii) a direct disposition;
             1564          (g) facilitating:
             1565          (i) a disposition; or
             1566          (ii) a direct disposition;
             1567          (h) supervising the sale of funeral merchandise by a funeral establishment;
             1568          (i) managing or otherwise being responsible for the practice of funeral service in a
             1569      licensed funeral service establishment;


             1570          (j) supervising the sale of a preneed funeral arrangement; and
             1571          (k) contracting with or employing individuals to sell a preneed funeral arrangement.
             1572          (23) (a) "Preneed funeral arrangement" means a written or oral agreement sold in
             1573      advance of the death of the beneficiary under which a person agrees with a buyer to provide at
             1574      the death of the beneficiary any of the following as are typically provided in connection with a
             1575      disposition:
             1576          (i) goods;
             1577          (ii) services, including:
             1578          (A) embalming services; and
             1579          (B) funeral directing services;
             1580          (iii) real property; or
             1581          (iv) personal property, including:
             1582          (A) a casket;
             1583          (B) another primary container;
             1584          (C) a cremation or transportation container;
             1585          (D) an outer burial container;
             1586          (E) a vault;
             1587          (F) a grave liner;
             1588          (G) funeral clothing and accessories;
             1589          (H) a monument;
             1590          (I) a grave marker; and
             1591          (J) a cremation urn.
             1592          (b) "Preneed funeral arrangement" does not include a policy or product of life
             1593      insurance providing a death benefit cash payment upon the death of the beneficiary which is
             1594      not limited to providing the products or services described in Subsection (23)(a).
             1595          (24) "Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the
             1596      completion of the cremation process to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual means.
             1597          (25) "Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the


             1598      completion of the cremation and processing to granulated particles by manual or mechanical
             1599      means.
             1600          (26) "Sales agent" means an individual licensed under this chapter as a preneed funeral
             1601      arrangement sales agent.
             1602          (27) "Temporary container" means a receptacle for cremated remains usually made of
             1603      cardboard, plastic, or similar material designed to hold the cremated remains until an urn or
             1604      other permanent container is acquired.
             1605          (28) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-9-501 .
             1606          (29) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-9-502 .
             1607          (30) "Urn" means a receptacle designed to permanently encase the cremated remains.
             1608          Section 29. Section 58-13-5 is amended to read:
             1609           58-13-5. Information relating to adequacy and quality of medical care --
             1610      Immunity from liability.
             1611          (1) As used in this section, "health care provider" has the same meaning as defined in
             1612      Section 78B-3-403 .
             1613          (2) (a) The division, and the boards within the division that act regarding the health
             1614      care providers defined in this section, shall adopt rules to establish procedures to obtain
             1615      information concerning the quality and adequacy of health care rendered to patients by those
             1616      health care providers.
             1617          (b) It is the duty of an individual licensed under Title 58, Occupations and Professions,
             1618      as a health care provider to furnish information known to him with respect to health care
             1619      rendered to patients by any health care provider licensed under Title 58, Occupations and
             1620      Professions, as the division or a board may request during the course of the performance of its
             1621      duties.
             1622          (3) A health care facility as defined in Section 26-21-2 which employs, grants
             1623      privileges to, or otherwise permits a licensed health care provider to engage in licensed practice
             1624      within the health care facility, and any professional society of licensed health care providers,
             1625      shall report any of the following events in writing to the division within 60 days after the event


             1626      occurs regarding the licensed health care provider:
             1627          (a) terminating employment of an employee for cause related to the employee's practice
             1628      as a licensed health care provider;
             1629          (b) terminating or restricting privileges for cause to engage in any act or practice
             1630      related to practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1631          (c) terminating, suspending, or restricting membership or privileges associated with
             1632      membership in a professional association for acts of unprofessional, unlawful, incompetent, or
             1633      negligent conduct related to practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1634          (d) subjecting a licensed health care provider to disciplinary action for a period of more
             1635      than 30 days;
             1636          (e) a finding that a licensed health care provider has violated professional standards or
             1637      ethics;
             1638          (f) a finding of incompetence in practice as a licensed health care provider;
             1639          (g) a finding of acts of moral turpitude by a licensed health care provider; or
             1640          (h) a finding that a licensed health care provider is engaged in abuse of alcohol or
             1641      drugs.
             1642          (4) This section does not prohibit any action by a health care facility, or professional
             1643      society comprised primarily of licensed health care providers to suspend, restrict, or revoke the
             1644      employment, privileges, or membership of a health care provider.
             1645          (5) The data and information obtained in accordance with this section is classified as a
             1646      "protected" record under Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management
             1647      Act.
             1648          (6) (a) Any person or organization furnishing information in accordance with this
             1649      section in response to the request of the division or a board, or voluntarily, is immune from
             1650      liability with respect to information provided in good faith and without malice, which good
             1651      faith and lack of malice is presumed to exist absent clear and convincing evidence to the
             1652      contrary.
             1653          (b) The members of the board are immune from liability for any decisions made or


             1654      actions taken in response to information acquired by the board if those decisions or actions are
             1655      made in good faith and without malice, which good faith and lack of malice is presumed to
             1656      exist absent clear and convincing evidence to the contrary.
             1657          (7) An individual who is a member of a hospital administration, board, committee,
             1658      department, medical staff, or professional organization of health care providers [is], and any
             1659      hospital, other health care entity, or professional organization conducting or sponsoring the
             1660      review, is immune from liability arising from participation in a review of a health care
             1661      provider's professional ethics, medical competence, moral turpitude, or substance abuse.
             1662          (8) This section does not exempt a person licensed under Title 58, Occupations and
             1663      Professions, from complying with any reporting requirements established under state or federal
             1664      law.
             1665          Section 30. Section 58-17b-103 is amended to read:
             1666           58-17b-103. Administrative inspections.
             1667          (1) The division may for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the provisions of
             1668      this chapter, require a self-audit or enter and inspect the business premises of a person:
             1669          (a) licensed under Part 3, Licensing; or
             1670          (b) who is engaged in activities that require a license under Part 3, Licensing.
             1671          (2) Before conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division shall, after
             1672      identifying the person in charge:
             1673          (a) give proper identification;
             1674          (b) request to see the applicable license or licenses;
             1675          (c) describe the nature and purpose of the inspection; and
             1676          (d) provide, upon request, the authority of the division to conduct the inspection and
             1677      the penalty for refusing to permit the inspection as provided in Section 58-17b-504 .
             1678          (3) In conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the division may, after meeting
             1679      the requirements of Subsection (2):
             1680          (a) examine any record, prescription, order, drug, device, equipment, machine,
             1681      electronic device or media, or area related to activities for which a license has been issued or is


             1682      required by Part 3, Licensing, for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the applicable
             1683      provisions of this chapter;
             1684          (b) take a drug or device for further analysis if considered necessary;
             1685          (c) temporarily seize a drug or device which is suspected to be adulterated, misbranded,
             1686      outdated, or otherwise in violation of this chapter, pending an adjudicative proceeding on the
             1687      matter;
             1688          (d) box and seal drugs suspected to be adulterated, outdated, misbranded, or otherwise
             1689      in violation of this chapter; and
             1690          (e) dispose of or return any drug or device obtained under this Subsection (3) in
             1691      accordance with procedures established by division rule.
             1692          (4) An inspection conducted under Subsection (1) shall be during regular business
             1693      hours.
             1694          (5) If, upon inspection, the division concludes that a person has violated the provisions
             1695      of this chapter or Chapter 37, Utah Control Substances Act, or any rule or order issued with
             1696      respect to those chapters, and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the director or the
             1697      director's designee shall promptly issue a fine or citation to the licensee in accordance with
             1698      Section 58-17b-504 .
             1699          Section 31. Section 58-17b-309 is amended to read:
             1700           58-17b-309. Exemptions from licensure.
             1701          (1) For purposes of this section:
             1702          (a) "Cosmetic drug":
             1703          (i) means a prescription drug that is:
             1704          (A) for the purpose of promoting attractiveness or altering the appearance of an
             1705      individual; and
             1706          (B) listed as a cosmetic drug subject to the exemption under this section by the division
             1707      by administrative rule or has been expressly approved for online dispensing, whether or not it is
             1708      dispensed online or through a physician's office; and
             1709          (ii) does not include a prescription drug that is:


             1710          (A) a controlled substance;
             1711          (B) compounded by the physician; or
             1712          (C) prescribed or used for the patient for the purpose of diagnosing, curing, or
             1713      preventing a disease.
             1714          (b) "Injectable weight loss drug":
             1715          (i) means an injectable prescription drug:
             1716          (A) prescribed to promote weight loss; and
             1717          (B) listed as an injectable prescription drug subject to exemption under this section by
             1718      the division by administrative rule; and
             1719          (ii) does not include a prescription drug that is a controlled substance.
             1720          (c) "Prescribing practitioner" means an individual licensed under:
             1721          (i) Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act, as an advanced practice registered nurse with
             1722      prescriptive practice;
             1723          (ii) Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act;
             1724          (iii) Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act; or
             1725          (iv) Chapter 70a, Physician Assistant Act.
             1726          (2) In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Sections 58-1-307 and
             1727      58-17b-309.5 , the following individuals may engage in the acts or practices described in this
             1728      section without being licensed under this chapter:
             1729          (a) if the individual is described in Subsections (2)(b), (d), [and] or (e), the individual
             1730      notifies the division in writing of the individual's intent to dispense a drug under this
             1731      subsection;
             1732          (b) a person selling or providing contact lenses in accordance with Section 58-16a-801 ;
             1733          (c) an individual engaging in the practice of pharmacy technician under the direct
             1734      personal supervision of a pharmacist while making satisfactory progress in an approved
             1735      program as defined in division rule;
             1736          (d) a prescribing practitioner who prescribes and dispenses a cosmetic drug or an
             1737      injectable weight loss drug to the prescribing practitioner's patient in accordance with


             1738      Subsection (4); or
             1739          (e) an optometrist, as defined in Section 58-16a-102 , acting within the optometrist's
             1740      scope of practice as defined in Section 58-16a-601 , who prescribes and dispenses a cosmetic
             1741      drug to the optometrist's patient in accordance with Subsection (4).
             1742          (3) In accordance with Subsection 58-1-303 (1)(a), an individual exempt under
             1743      Subsection (2)(c) must take all examinations as required by division rule following completion
             1744      of an approved curriculum of education, within the required time frame. This exemption
             1745      expires immediately upon notification of a failing score of an examination, and the individual
             1746      may not continue working as a pharmacy technician even under direct supervision.
             1747          (4) A prescribing practitioner or optometrist is exempt from licensing under the
             1748      provisions of this part if the prescribing practitioner or optometrist:
             1749          (a) (i) writes a prescription for a drug the prescribing practitioner or optometrist has the
             1750      authority to dispense under Subsection (4)(b); and
             1751          (ii) informs the patient:
             1752          (A) that the prescription may be filled at a pharmacy or dispensed in the prescribing
             1753      practitioner's or optometrist's office;
             1754          (B) of the directions for appropriate use of the drug;
             1755          (C) of potential side-effects to the use of the drug; and
             1756          (D) how to contact the prescribing practitioner or optometrist if the patient has
             1757      questions or concerns regarding the drug;
             1758          (b) dispenses a cosmetic drug or injectable weight loss drug only to the prescribing
             1759      practitioner's patients or for an optometrist, dispenses a cosmetic drug only to the optometrist's
             1760      patients;
             1761          (c) follows labeling, record keeping, patient counseling, storage, purchasing and
             1762      distribution, operating, treatment, and quality of care requirements established by
             1763      administrative rule adopted by the division in consultation with the boards listed in Subsection
             1764      (5)(a); and
             1765          (d) follows USP-NF 797 standards for sterile compounding if the drug dispensed to


             1766      patients is reconstituted or compounded.
             1767          (5) (a) The division, in consultation with the board under this chapter and the relevant
             1768      professional board, including the Physician Licensing Board, the Osteopathic Physician
             1769      Licensing Board, the Physician Assistant Licensing Board, the Board of Nursing, the
             1770      Optometrist Licensing Board, or the Online Prescribing, Dispensing, and Facilitation Board,
             1771      shall adopt administrative rules pursuant to Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
             1772      Rulemaking Act to designate:
             1773          (i) the prescription drugs that may be dispensed as a cosmetic drug or weight loss drug
             1774      under this section; and
             1775          (ii) the requirements under Subsection (4)(c).
             1776          (b) When making a determination under Subsection (1)(a), the division and boards
             1777      listed in Subsection (5)(a)[,] may consider any federal Food and Drug Administration
             1778      indications or approval associated with a drug when adopting a rule to designate a prescription
             1779      drug that may be dispensed under this section.
             1780          (c) The division may inspect the office of a prescribing practitioner or optometrist who
             1781      is dispensing under the provisions of this section, in order to determine whether the prescribing
             1782      practitioner or optometrist is in compliance with the provisions of this section. If a prescribing
             1783      practitioner or optometrist chooses to dispense under the provisions of this section, the
             1784      prescribing practitioner or optometrist consents to the jurisdiction of the division to inspect the
             1785      prescribing practitioner's or optometrist's office and determine if the provisions of this section
             1786      are being met by the prescribing practitioner [and] or optometrist.
             1787          (d) If a prescribing practitioner or optometrist violates a provision of this section, the
             1788      prescribing practitioner or optometrist may be subject to discipline under:
             1789          (i) this chapter; and
             1790          (ii) (A) Chapter 16a, Utah Optometry Practice Act;
             1791          (B) Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act;
             1792          (C) Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act;
             1793          (D) Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act;


             1794          (E) Chapter 70a, Physician Assistant Act; or
             1795          (F) Chapter 83, Online Prescribing, Dispensing, and Facilitation Act.
             1796          (6) Except as provided in Subsection (2)(e), this section does not restrict or limit the
             1797      scope of practice of an optometrist or optometric physician licensed under Chapter 16a, Utah
             1798      Optometry Practice Act.
             1799          Section 32. Section 58-22-102 is amended to read:
             1800           58-22-102. Definitions.
             1801          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             1802          (1) "Board" means the Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors
             1803      Licensing Board created in Section 58-22-201 .
             1804          (2) "Building" means a structure which has human occupancy or habitation as its
             1805      principal purpose, and includes the structural, mechanical, and electrical systems, utility
             1806      services, and other facilities required for the building, and is otherwise governed by the State
             1807      Construction Code or an approved code under Title 15A, State Construction and Fire Codes
             1808      Act.
             1809          (3) "Complete construction plans" means a final set of plans, specifications, and reports
             1810      for a building or structure that normally includes:
             1811          (a) floor plans;
             1812          (b) elevations;
             1813          (c) site plans;
             1814          (d) foundation, structural, and framing detail;
             1815          (e) electrical, mechanical, and plumbing design;
             1816          (f) information required by the energy code;
             1817          (g) specifications and related calculations as appropriate; and
             1818          (h) all other documents required to obtain a building permit.
             1819          (4) "EAC/ABET" means the Engineering Accreditation Commission/Accreditation
             1820      Board for Engineering and Technology.
             1821          (5) "Fund" means the Professional Engineer, Professional Structural Engineer, and


             1822      Professional Land Surveyor Education and Enforcement Fund created in Section 58-22-103 .
             1823          (6) "NCEES" means the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and
             1824      Surveying.
             1825          (7) "Principal" means a licensed professional engineer, professional structural engineer,
             1826      or professional land surveyor having responsible charge of an organization's professional
             1827      engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying practice.
             1828          (8) "Professional engineer" means a person licensed under this chapter as a
             1829      professional engineer.
             1830          (9) (a) "Professional engineering or the practice of engineering" means a service or
             1831      creative work, the adequate performance of which requires engineering education, training, and
             1832      experience in the application of special knowledge of the mathematical, physical, and
             1833      engineering sciences to the service or creative work as consultation, investigation, evaluation,
             1834      planning, design, and design coordination of engineering works and systems, planning the use
             1835      of land and water, facility programming, performing engineering surveys and studies, and the
             1836      review of construction for the purpose of monitoring compliance with drawings and
             1837      specifications; any of which embraces these services or work, either public or private, in
             1838      connection with any utilities, structures, buildings, machines, equipment, processes, work
             1839      systems, projects, and industrial or consumer products or equipment of a mechanical, electrical,
             1840      hydraulic, pneumatic, or thermal nature, and including other professional services as may be
             1841      necessary to the planning, progress, and completion of any engineering services.
             1842          (b) The practice of professional engineering does not include the practice of
             1843      architecture as defined in Section 58-3a-102 , but a licensed professional engineer may perform
             1844      architecture work as is incidental to the practice of engineering.
             1845          (10) "Professional engineering intern" means a person who:
             1846          (a) has completed the education requirements to become a professional engineer;
             1847          (b) has passed the fundamentals of engineering examination; and
             1848          (c) is engaged in obtaining the four years of qualifying experience for licensure under
             1849      the direct supervision of a licensed professional engineer.


             1850          (11) "Professional land surveying or the practice of land surveying" means a service or
             1851      work, the adequate performance of which requires the application of special knowledge of the
             1852      principles of mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant
             1853      requirements of law for adequate evidence to the act of measuring and locating lines, angles,
             1854      elevations, natural and man-made features in the air, on the surface of the earth, within
             1855      underground workings, and on the beds of bodies of water for the purpose of determining areas
             1856      and volumes, for the monumenting or locating of property boundaries or points controlling
             1857      boundaries, and for the platting and layout of lands and subdivisions of lands, including the
             1858      topography, alignment and grades of streets, and for the preparation and perpetuation of maps,
             1859      record plats, field notes records, and property descriptions that represent these surveys and
             1860      other duties as sound surveying practices could direct.
             1861          (12) "Professional land surveyor" means an individual licensed under this chapter as a
             1862      professional land surveyor.
             1863          (13) "Professional structural engineer" means a person licensed under this chapter as a
             1864      professional structural engineer.
             1865          (14) "Professional structural engineering or the practice of structural engineering"
             1866      means a service or creative work in the following areas, and may be further defined by rule by
             1867      the division in collaboration with the board:
             1868          (a) providing structural engineering services for significant structures including:
             1869          (i) buildings and other structures representing a substantial hazard to human life, which
             1870      include:
             1871          (A) buildings and other structures whose primary occupancy is public assembly with an
             1872      occupant load greater than 300;
             1873          (B) buildings and other structures with elementary school, secondary school, or day
             1874      care facilities with an occupant load greater than 250;
             1875          (C) buildings and other structures with an occupant load greater than 500 for colleges
             1876      or adult education facilities;
             1877          (D) health care facilities with an occupant load of 50 or more resident patients, but not


             1878      having surgery or emergency treatment facilities;
             1879          (E) jails and detention facilities with a gross area greater than 3,000 square feet; or
             1880          (F) an occupancy with an occupant load greater than 5,000;
             1881          (ii) buildings and other structures designated as essential facilities, including:
             1882          (A) hospitals and other health care facilities having surgery or emergency treatment
             1883      facilities with a gross area greater than 3,000 square feet;
             1884          (B) fire, rescue, and police stations and emergency vehicle garages with a mean height
             1885      greater than 24 feet or a gross area greater than 5,000 square feet;
             1886          (C) designated earthquake, hurricane, or other emergency shelters with a gross area
             1887      greater than 3,000 square feet;
             1888          (D) designated emergency preparedness, communication, and operation centers and
             1889      other buildings required for emergency response with a mean height more than 24 feet or a
             1890      gross area greater than 5,000 square feet;
             1891          (E) power-generating stations and other public utility facilities required as emergency
             1892      backup facilities with a gross area greater then 3,000 square feet;
             1893          (F) structures with a mean height more than 24 feet or a gross area greater than 5,000
             1894      square feet containing highly toxic materials as defined by the division by rule, where the
             1895      quantity of the material exceeds the maximum allowable quantities set by the division by rule;
             1896      and
             1897          (G) aviation control towers, air traffic control centers, and emergency aircraft hangars
             1898      at commercial service and cargo air services airports as defined by the Federal Aviation
             1899      Administration with a mean height greater than 35 feet or a gross area greater than 20,000
             1900      square feet; and
             1901          (iii) buildings and other structures requiring special consideration, including:
             1902          (A) structures or buildings that are:
             1903          (I) normally occupied by human beings; and
             1904          (II) five stories or more in height; or
             1905          (III) that have an average roof height more than 60 feet above the average ground level


             1906      measured at the perimeter of the structure; or
             1907          (B) all buildings over 200,000 aggregate gross square feet in area; and
             1908          (b) includes the definition of professional engineering or the practice of professional
             1909      engineering as provided in Subsection (9).
             1910          (15) "Structure" means that which is built or constructed, an edifice or building of any
             1911      kind, or a piece of work artificially built up or composed of parts joined together in a definite
             1912      manner, and as otherwise governed by the State Construction Code or an approved code under
             1913      Title 15A, State Construction and Fire Codes Act.
             1914          (16) "Supervision of an employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter of a licensee"
             1915      means that a licensed professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional
             1916      land surveyor is responsible for and personally reviews, corrects when necessary, and approves
             1917      work performed by an employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter under the direction of the
             1918      licensee, and may be further defined by rule by the division in collaboration with the board.
             1919          (17) "TAC/ABET" means the Technology Accreditation Commission/Accreditation
             1920      Board for Engineering and Technology.
             1921          (18) "Unlawful conduct" is defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-22-501 .
             1922          (19) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 may be further defined
             1923      by rule by the division in collaboration with the board.
             1924          Section 33. Section 58-22-201 is amended to read:
             1925           58-22-201. Board.
             1926          (1) There is created a Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors
             1927      Licensing Board. The board shall consist of four licensed professional engineers, one licensed
             1928      professional structural engineer, one licensed professional land surveyor, and one member from
             1929      the general public. The composition of the four professional engineers on the board shall be
             1930      representative of the various professional engineering disciplines.
             1931          (2) The board shall be appointed and shall serve in accordance with Section 58-1-201 .
             1932      The members of the board who are professional engineers shall be appointed from among
             1933      nominees recommended by representative engineering societies in this state. The member of


             1934      the board who is a land surveyor shall be appointed from among nominees recommended by
             1935      representative professional land surveyor societies.
             1936          (3) The duties and responsibilities of the board shall be in accordance with Sections
             1937      58-1-202 and 58-1-203 . In addition, the board shall designate one of its members on a
             1938      permanent or rotating basis to:
             1939          (a) assist the division in reviewing complaints concerning the unlawful or
             1940      unprofessional conduct of a [license] licensee; and
             1941          (b) advise the division in its investigation of these complaints.
             1942          (4) A board member who has, under Subsection (3), reviewed a complaint or advised
             1943      in its investigation may be disqualified from participating with the board when the board serves
             1944      as a presiding officer in an adjudicative proceeding concerning the complaint.
             1945          Section 34. Section 58-22-503 is amended to read:
             1946           58-22-503. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
             1947          (1) (a) If upon inspection or investigation, the division concludes that a person has
             1948      violated Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-22-501 or any rule or order
             1949      issued with respect to Section 58-22-501 , and that disciplinary action is appropriate, the
             1950      director or the director's designee from within the division for each alternative respectively,
             1951      shall promptly issue a citation to the person according to this chapter and any pertinent rules,
             1952      attempt to negotiate a stipulated settlement, or notify the person to appear before an
             1953      adjudicative proceeding conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
             1954          (i) A person who violates Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section 58-22-501
             1955      or any rule or order issued with respect to Section 58-22-501 , as evidenced by an uncontested
             1956      citation, a stipulated settlement, or by a finding of violation in an adjudicative proceeding, may
             1957      be assessed a fine pursuant to this Subsection (1) and may, in addition to or in lieu of, be
             1958      ordered to cease and desist from violating Subsections 58-1-501 (1)(a) through (d) or Section
             1959      58-22-501 or any rule or order issued with respect to this section.
             1960          (ii) Except for a cease and desist order, the licensure sanctions cited in Section
             1961      58-22-401 may not be assessed through a citation.


             1962          (b) A citation shall:
             1963          (i) be in writing;
             1964          (ii) describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including a reference to the
             1965      provision of the chapter, rule, or order alleged to have been violated;
             1966          (iii) clearly state that the recipient must notify the division in writing within 20
             1967      calendar days of service of the citation if the recipient wishes to contest the citation at a hearing
             1968      conducted under Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act; and
             1969          (iv) clearly explain the consequences of failure to timely contest the citation or to make
             1970      payment of any fines assessed by the citation within the time specified in the citation.
             1971          (c) The division may issue a notice in lieu of a citation.
             1972          (d) Each citation issued under this section, or a copy of each citation, may be served
             1973      upon [any] a person upon whom a summons may be served in accordance with the Utah Rules
             1974      of Civil Procedure and may be made personally or upon the person's agent by a division
             1975      investigator or by any person specially designated by the director or by mail.
             1976          (e) If within 20 calendar days from the service of the citation, the person to whom the
             1977      citation was issued fails to request a hearing to contest the citation, the citation becomes the
             1978      final order of the division and is not subject to further agency review. The period to contest a
             1979      citation may be extended by the division for cause.
             1980          (f) The division may refuse to issue or renew, suspend, revoke, or place on probation
             1981      the license of a licensee who fails to comply with a citation after it becomes final.
             1982          (g) The failure of an applicant for licensure to comply with a citation after it becomes
             1983      final is a ground for denial of license.
             1984          (h) No citation may be issued under this section after the expiration of six months
             1985      following the occurrence of any violation.
             1986          (i) The director or the director's designee shall assess fines according to the following:
             1987          (i) for a first offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $1,000;
             1988          (ii) for a second offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to $2,000;
             1989      and


             1990          (iii) for any subsequent offense handled pursuant to Subsection (1)(a), a fine of up to
             1991      $2,000 for each day of continued offense.
             1992          (2) An action initiated for a first or second offense which has not yet resulted in a final
             1993      order of the division shall not preclude initiation of any subsequent action for a second or
             1994      subsequent offense during the pendency of any preceding action. The final order on a
             1995      subsequent action shall be considered a second or subsequent offense, respectively, provided
             1996      the preceding action resulted in a first or second offense, respectively.
             1997          (3) Any penalty which is not paid may be collected by the director by either referring
             1998      the matter to a collection agency or bringing an action in the district court of the county in
             1999      which the person against whom the penalty is imposed resides or in the county where the office
             2000      of the director is located. Any county attorney or the attorney general of the state shall provide
             2001      legal assistance and advice to the director in any action to collect the penalty. In any action
             2002      brought to enforce the provisions of this section, reasonable attorney's fees and costs shall be
             2003      awarded to the division.
             2004          Section 35. Section 58-26a-102 is amended to read:
             2005           58-26a-102. Definitions.
             2006          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             2007          (1) "Accounting experience" means applying accounting and auditing skills and
             2008      principles that are taught as a part of the professional education qualifying a person for
             2009      licensure under this chapter and generally accepted by the profession, under the supervision of
             2010      a licensed certified public accountant.
             2011          (2) "AICPA" means the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
             2012          (3) (a) "Attest and attestation engagement" means providing any or all of the following
             2013      financial statement services:
             2014          (i) an audit or other engagement to be performed in accordance with the Statements on
             2015      Auditing Standards (SAS);
             2016          (ii) a review of a financial statement to be performed in accordance with the Statements
             2017      on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS);


             2018          (iii) an examination of prospective financial information to be performed in accordance
             2019      with the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE); or
             2020          (iv) an engagement to be performed in accordance with the standards of the PCAOB.
             2021          (b) The standards specified in this definition shall be adopted by reference by the
             2022      division under its rulemaking authority in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah
             2023      Administrative Rulemaking Act, and shall be those developed for general application by
             2024      recognized national accountancy organizations such as the AICPA and the PCAOB.
             2025          (4) "Board" means the Utah Board of Accountancy created in Section 58-26a-201 .
             2026          (5) "Certified Public Accountant" or "CPA" means an individual currently licensed by
             2027      this state or any other state, district, or territory of the United States of America to practice
             2028      public accountancy or who has been granted a license as a certified public accountant under
             2029      prior law or this chapter.
             2030          (6) "Certified Public Accountant firm" or "CPA firm" means a qualified business entity
             2031      holding a valid registration as a Certified Public Accountant firm under this chapter.
             2032          (7) "Client" means the person who retains a licensee for the performance of one or
             2033      more of the services included in the definition of the practice of public accountancy. "Client"
             2034      does not include a CPA's employer when the licensee works in a salaried or hourly rate
             2035      position.
             2036          (8) "Compilation" means providing a service to be performed in accordance with
             2037      Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) that is presenting, in
             2038      the form of financial statements, information that is the representation of management or
             2039      owners, without undertaking to express any assurance on the statements.
             2040          (9) "Experience" means:
             2041          (a) accounting experience; or
             2042          (b) professional experience.
             2043          (10) "Licensee" means the holder of a current valid license issued under this chapter.
             2044          (11) "NASBA" means the National Association of State Boards of Accountancy.
             2045          (12) "PCAOB" means the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.


             2046          (13) "Practice of public accounting" means the offer to perform or the performance by
             2047      a person holding himself out as a certified public accountant of one or more kinds of services
             2048      involving the use of auditing or accounting skills including the issuance of reports or opinions
             2049      on financial statements, performing attestation engagements, the performance of one or more
             2050      kinds of advisory or consulting services, or the preparation of tax returns or the furnishing of
             2051      advice on tax matters for a client.
             2052          (14) "Peer review" means a study, appraisal, or review of one or more aspects of the
             2053      professional work of a person or qualified business entity in the practice of public accountancy,
             2054      by a licensee or any other qualified person in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this
             2055      chapter and who is not affiliated with the person or qualified business entity being reviewed.
             2056          (15) "Principal place of business" means the office location designated by the licensee
             2057      for purposes of substantial equivalency and licensure by endorsement.
             2058          (16) "Professional experience" means experience lawfully obtained while licensed as a
             2059      certified public accountant in another jurisdiction, recognized by rule, in the practice of public
             2060      accountancy performed for a client, which includes expression of assurance or opinion.
             2061          (17) "Qualified business entity" means a sole proprietorship, corporation, limited
             2062      liability company, or partnership engaged in the practice of public accountancy.
             2063          (18) "Qualified continuing professional education" means a formal program of
             2064      education that contributes directly to the professional competence of a certified public
             2065      accountant.
             2066          (19) "Qualifying examinations" means:
             2067          (a) the AICPA Uniform CPA Examination;
             2068          (b) the AICPA Examination of Professional Ethics for CPAs;
             2069          (c) the Utah Laws and Rules Examination; and
             2070          (d) any other examination approved by the board and adopted by the division by rule in
             2071      accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             2072          (20) (a) "Report" means:
             2073          (i) when used with reference to financial statements, an opinion, report or other form of


             2074      language that:
             2075          (A) states or implies assurance as to the reliability of any financial statements; or
             2076          (B) implies that the person or firm issuing it has special knowledge or competence in
             2077      accounting or auditing and specifically includes compilations and reviews; such an implication
             2078      of special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of names or
             2079      titles indicating that the person or firm is a public accountant or auditor, or from the language
             2080      of the report itself; or
             2081          (ii) any disclaimer of opinion when it is conventionally understood to imply any
             2082      positive assurance as to the reliability of the financial statements referred to or language
             2083      suggesting special competence on the part of the person or firm issuing such language; and it
             2084      includes any other form of language that is conventionally understood to imply such assurance
             2085      or such special knowledge or competence.
             2086          (b) "Report" does not include a financial statement prepared by an unlicensed person if:
             2087          (i) that financial statement has a cover page which includes essentially the following
             2088      language: "I (we) have prepared the accompanying financial statements of (name of entity) as
             2089      of (time period) for the (period) then ended. This presentation is limited to preparing, in the
             2090      form of financial statements, information that is the representation of management (owners). I
             2091      (we) have not audited or reviewed the accompanying financial statements and accordingly do
             2092      not express an opinion or any other form of assurance on them."; and
             2093          (ii) the cover page and any related footnotes do not use the terms "compilation,"
             2094      "review," "audit," "generally accepted auditing standards," "generally accepted accounting
             2095      principles," or other similar terms.
             2096          (21) "Review of financial statements" means performing inquiry and analytical
             2097      procedures which provide a reasonable basis for expressing limited assurance that there are no
             2098      material modifications that should be made to the statements in order for them to be in
             2099      conformity with generally accepted accounting principles or, if applicable, with another
             2100      comprehensive basis of accounting; and, the issuance of a report on the financial statements
             2101      stating that a review was performed in accordance with the standards established by the


             2102      American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
             2103          (22) (a) "Substantial equivalency" means a determination by the division in
             2104      collaboration with the board or its designee that:
             2105          (i) the education, examination, and experience requirements set forth in the statutes and
             2106      administrative rules of another jurisdiction are comparable to or exceed the education,
             2107      examination, and experience requirements set forth in the Uniform Accountancy Act; or
             2108          (ii) an individual CPA's education, examination, and experience qualifications are
             2109      comparable to or exceed the education, examination, and experience requirements set forth in
             2110      the Uniform Accountancy Act.
             2111          (b) In ascertaining whether an individual's qualifications are substantially equivalent as
             2112      used in this chapter, the division in collaboration with the board shall take into account the
             2113      qualifications without regard to the sequence in which the education, examination, and
             2114      experience requirements were attained.
             2115          (23) "Uniform Accountancy Act" means the model public accountancy legislation
             2116      developed and promulgated by national accounting and regulatory associations that contains
             2117      standardized definitions and regulations for the practice of public accounting as recognized by
             2118      the division in collaboration with the board.
             2119          (24) "Unlawful conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-26a-501 .
             2120          (25) "Unprofessional conduct" is as defined in Sections 58-1-501 and 58-26a-502 and
             2121      as may be further defined by rule.
             2122          (26) "Year of experience" means 2,000 hours of cumulative experience.
             2123          Section 36. Section 58-28-307 is amended to read:
             2124           58-28-307. Exemptions from chapter.
             2125          In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307 this chapter does not
             2126      apply to:
             2127          (1) any person who practices veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry upon any
             2128      animal owned by him, and the employee of that person when the practice is upon an animal
             2129      owned by his employer, and incidental to his employment, except:


             2130          (a) this exemption does not apply to any person, or his employee, when the ownership
             2131      of an animal was acquired for the purpose of circumventing this chapter; and
             2132          (b) this exemption does not apply to the administration, dispensing, or prescribing of a
             2133      prescription drug, or nonprescription drug intended for off label use, unless the administration,
             2134      dispensing, or prescribing of the drug is obtained through an existing veterinarian-patient
             2135      relationship;
             2136          (2) any person who as a student at a veterinary college approved by the board engages
             2137      in the practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry as part of his academic training
             2138      and under the direct supervision and control of a licensed veterinarian, if that practice is during
             2139      the last two years of the college course of instruction and does not exceed an 18-month
             2140      duration;
             2141          (3) a veterinarian who is an officer or employee of the government of the United
             2142      States, or the state, or its political subdivisions, and technicians under his supervision, while
             2143      engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry for that government;
             2144          (4) any person while engaged in the vaccination of poultry, pullorum testing, typhoid
             2145      testing of poultry, and related poultry disease control activity;
             2146          (5) any person who is engaged in bona fide and legitimate medical, dental,
             2147      pharmaceutical, or other scientific research, if that practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, or
             2148      dentistry is directly related to, and a necessary part of, that research;
             2149          (6) veterinarians licensed under the laws of another state rendering professional
             2150      services in association with licensed veterinarians of this state for a period not to exceed 90
             2151      days;
             2152          (7) registered pharmacists of this state engaged in the sale of veterinary supplies,
             2153      instruments, and medicines, if the sale is at his regular place of business;
             2154          (8) any person in this state engaged in the sale of veterinary supplies, instruments, and
             2155      medicines, except prescription drugs which must be sold in compliance with state and federal
             2156      regulations, if the supplies, instruments, and medicines are sold in original packages bearing
             2157      adequate identification and directions for application and administration and the sale is made in


             2158      the regular course of, and at the regular place of business;
             2159          (9) any person rendering emergency first aid to animals in those areas where a licensed
             2160      veterinarian is not available, and if suspicious reportable diseases are reported immediately to
             2161      the state veterinarian;
             2162          (10) any person performing or teaching nonsurgical bovine artificial insemination;
             2163          (11) any person affiliated with an institution of higher education who teaches
             2164      nonsurgical bovine embryo transfer or any technician trained by or approved by an institution
             2165      of higher education who performs nonsurgical bovine embryo transfer, but only if any
             2166      prescription drug used in the procedure is prescribed and administered under the direction of a
             2167      veterinarian licensed to practice in Utah;
             2168          (12) (a) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal
             2169      chiropractic by a chiropractic physician licensed under Chapter 73, Chiropractic Physician
             2170      Practice Act, who has completed an animal chiropractic course approved by the American
             2171      Veterinary Chiropractic Association or the division;
             2172          (b) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal physical
             2173      therapy by a physical therapist licensed under Chapter 24b, Physical Therapy Practice Act, who
             2174      has completed at least 100 hours of animal physical therapy training, including quadruped
             2175      anatomy and hands-on training, approved by the division;
             2176          (c) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of animal massage
             2177      therapy by a massage therapist licensed under Chapter 47b, Massage Therapy Practice Act,
             2178      who has completed at least 60 hours of animal massage therapy training, including quadruped
             2179      anatomy and hands-on training, approved by the division; and
             2180          (d) upon written referral by a licensed veterinarian, the practice of acupuncture by an
             2181      acupuncturist licensed under Chapter 72, Acupuncture Licensing Act, who has completed a
             2182      course of study on animal acupuncture approved by the division;
             2183          (13) unlicensed assistive personnel performing duties appropriately delegated to the
             2184      unlicensed assistive personnel in accordance with Section 58-28-502 ;
             2185          (14) an animal shelter employee who is:


             2186          (a) acting under the indirect supervision of a licensed veterinarian; and
             2187          (b) performing animal euthanasia in the course and scope of employment; and
             2188          (15) an individual providing appropriate training for animals[,]; however, this
             2189      exception does not include diagnosing any medical condition, or prescribing or dispensing any
             2190      prescription drugs or therapeutics.
             2191          Section 37. Section 58-37-10 is amended to read:
             2192           58-37-10. Search warrants -- Administrative inspection warrants -- Inspections
             2193      and seizures of property without warrant.
             2194          (1) Search warrants relating to offenses involving controlled substances may be
             2195      authorized pursuant to the Utah Rules of Criminal Procedure.
             2196          (2) Issuance and execution of administrative inspection warrants shall be as follows:
             2197          (a) Any judge or magistrate of this state within his jurisdiction upon proper oath or
             2198      affirmation showing probable cause, may issue warrants for the purpose of conducting
             2199      administrative inspections authorized by this act or regulations thereunder and seizures of
             2200      property appropriate to such inspections. Probable cause for purposes of this act exists upon
             2201      showing a valid public interest in the effective enforcement of the act or rules promulgated
             2202      thereunder sufficient to justify administrative inspection of the area, premises, building, or
             2203      conveyance in the circumstances specified in the application for the warrant.
             2204          (b) A warrant shall issue only upon an affidavit of an officer or employee duly
             2205      designated and having knowledge of the facts alleged sworn to before a judge or magistrate
             2206      which establish the grounds for issuing the warrant. If the judge or magistrate is satisfied that
             2207      grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe they exist, he shall
             2208      issue a warrant identifying the area, premises, building, or conveyance to be inspected, the
             2209      purpose of the inspection, and if appropriate, the type of property to be inspected, if any. The
             2210      warrant shall:
             2211          (i) state the grounds for its issuance and the name of each person whose affidavit has
             2212      been taken to support it;
             2213          (ii) be directed to a person authorized by Section 58-37-9 of this act to execute it;


             2214          (iii) command the person to whom it is directed to inspect the area, premises, building,
             2215      or conveyance identified for the purpose specified and if appropriate, direct the seizure of the
             2216      property specified;
             2217          (iv) identify the item or types of property to be seized, if any; and
             2218          (v) direct that it be served during normal business hours and designate the judge or
             2219      magistrate to whom it shall be returned.
             2220          (c) A warrant issued pursuant to this section must be executed and returned within 10
             2221      days after its date unless, upon a showing of a need for additional time, the court instructs
             2222      otherwise in the warrant. If property is seized pursuant to a warrant, the person executing the
             2223      warrant shall give to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken a
             2224      copy of the warrant and a receipt for the property taken or leave the copy and receipt at the
             2225      place where the property was taken. Return of the warrant shall be made promptly and be
             2226      accompanied by a written inventory of any property taken. The inventory shall be made in the
             2227      presence of the person executing the warrant and of the person from whose possession or
             2228      premises the property was taken, if they are present, or in the presence of at least one credible
             2229      person other than the person executing the warrant. A copy of the inventory shall be delivered
             2230      to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken and to the applicant
             2231      for the warrant.
             2232          (d) The judge or magistrate who issued the warrant under this section shall attach a
             2233      copy of the return and all other papers to the warrant and file them with the court.
             2234          (3) The department is authorized to make administrative inspections of controlled
             2235      premises in accordance with the following provisions:
             2236          (a) For purposes of this section only, "controlled premises" means:
             2237          (i) Places where persons licensed or exempted from licensing requirements under this
             2238      act are required to keep records.
             2239          (ii) Places including factories, warehouses, establishments, and conveyances where
             2240      persons licensed or exempted from licensing requirements are permitted to possess,
             2241      manufacture, compound, process, sell, deliver, or otherwise dispose of any controlled


             2242      substance.
             2243          (b) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant a law enforcement officer
             2244      or employee designated in Section 58-37-9 , upon presenting the warrant and appropriate
             2245      credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, has the right to enter controlled premises
             2246      for the purpose of conducting an administrative inspection.
             2247          (c) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant, a law enforcement
             2248      officer or employee designated in Section 58-37-9 has the right:
             2249          (i) To inspect and copy records required by this chapter.
             2250          (ii) To inspect within reasonable limits and a reasonable manner, the controlled
             2251      premises and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished material, containers, and labeling
             2252      found, and except as provided in Subsection (3)(e), all other things including records, files,
             2253      papers, processes, controls, and facilities subject to regulation and control by this chapter or by
             2254      rules promulgated by the department.
             2255          (iii) To inventory and take stock of any controlled substance and obtain samples of any
             2256      substance.
             2257          (d) This section shall not be construed to prevent the inspection of books and records
             2258      without a warrant pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued by a court or the department
             2259      nor shall it be construed to prevent entries and administrative inspections including seizures of
             2260      property without a warrant:
             2261          (i) with the consent of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled
             2262      premises;
             2263          (ii) in situations presenting imminent danger to health or safety;
             2264          (iii) in situations involving inspection of conveyances where there is reasonable cause
             2265      to believe that the mobility of the conveyance makes it impracticable to obtain a warrant;
             2266          (iv) in any other exceptional or emergency circumstance where time or opportunity to
             2267      apply for a warrant is lacking; and
             2268          (v) in all other situations where a warrant is not constitutionally required.
             2269          (e) No inspection authorized by this section shall extend to financial data, sales data,


             2270      other than shipment data, or pricing data unless the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the
             2271      controlled premises consents in writing.
             2272          Section 38. Section 58-37c-3 is amended to read:
             2273           58-37c-3. Definitions.
             2274          In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102 , as used in this chapter:
             2275          (1) "Board" means the Controlled Substance Precursor Advisory Board created in
             2276      Section 58-37c-4 .
             2277          (2) "Controlled substance precursor" includes a chemical reagent and means any of the
             2278      following:
             2279          (a) Phenyl-2-propanone;
             2280          (b) Methylamine;
             2281          (c) Ethylamine;
             2282          (d) D-lysergic acid;
             2283          (e) Ergotamine and its salts;
             2284          (f) Diethyl malonate;
             2285          (g) Malonic acid;
             2286          (h) Ethyl malonate;
             2287          (i) Barbituric acid;
             2288          (j) Piperidine and its salts;
             2289          (k) N-acetylanthranilic acid and its salts;
             2290          (l) Pyrrolidine;
             2291          (m) Phenylacetic acid and its salts;
             2292          (n) Anthranilic acid and its salts;
             2293          (o) Morpholine;
             2294          (p) Ephedrine;
             2295          (q) Pseudoephedrine;
             2296          (r) Norpseudoephedrine;
             2297          (s) Phenylpropanolamine;


             2298          (t) Benzyl cyanide;
             2299          (u) Ergonovine and its salts;
             2300          (v) 3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone;
             2301          (w) propionic anhydride;
             2302          (x) Insosafrole;
             2303          (y) Safrole;
             2304          (z) Piperonal;
             2305          (aa) N-Methylephedrine;
             2306          (bb) N-ethylephedrine;
             2307          (cc) N-methylpseudoephedrine;
             2308          (dd) N-ethylpseudoephedrine;
             2309          (ee) Hydriotic acid;
             2310          (ff) gamma butyrolactone (GBL), including butyrolactone, 1,2 butanolide,
             2311      2-oxanolone, tetrahydro-2-furanone, dihydro-2(3H)-furanone, and tetramethylene glycol, but
             2312      not including gamma aminobutric acid (GABA);
             2313          (gg) 1,4 butanediol;
             2314          (hh) any salt, isomer, or salt of an isomer of the chemicals listed in Subsections (2)(a)
             2315      through (gg);
             2316          (ii) Crystal iodine;
             2317          (jj) Iodine at concentrations greater than 1.5% by weight in a solution or matrix;
             2318          (kk) Red phosphorous, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.7 ;
             2319          (ll) anhydrous ammonia, except as provided in Section 58-37c-19.9 ;
             2320          (mm) any controlled substance precursor listed under the provisions of the Federal
             2321      Controlled Substances Act which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             2322      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 ; and
             2323          (nn) any chemical which is designated by the director under the emergency listing
             2324      provisions set forth in Section 58-37c-14 .
             2325          (3) "Deliver," "delivery," "transfer," or "furnish" means the actual, constructive, or


             2326      attempted transfer of a controlled substance precursor.
             2327          (4) "Matrix" means something, as a substance, in which something else originates,
             2328      develops, or is contained.
             2329          (5) "Person" means any individual, group of individuals, proprietorship, partnership,
             2330      joint venture, corporation, or organization of any type or kind.
             2331          (6) "Practitioner" means a physician, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian,
             2332      pharmacist, scientific investigator, pharmacy, hospital, pharmaceutical manufacturer, or other
             2333      person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research
             2334      with respect to, administer, or use in teaching[,] or chemical analysis a controlled substance in
             2335      the course of professional practice or research in this state.
             2336          (7) (a) "Regulated distributor" means a person within the state who provides, sells,
             2337      furnishes, transfers, or otherwise supplies a listed controlled substance precursor chemical in a
             2338      regulated transaction.
             2339          (b) "Regulated distributor" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             2340      this chapter.
             2341          (8) (a) "Regulated purchaser" means any person within the state who receives a listed
             2342      controlled substance precursor chemical in a regulated transaction.
             2343          (b) "Regulated purchaser" does not include any person excluded from regulation under
             2344      this chapter.
             2345          (9) "Regulated transaction" means any actual, constructive or attempted:
             2346          (a) transfer, distribution, delivery, or furnishing by a person within the state to another
             2347      person within or outside of the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical; or
             2348          (b) purchase or acquisition by any means by a person within the state from another
             2349      person within or outside the state of a threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical.
             2350          (10) "Retail distributor" means a grocery store, general merchandise store, drug store,
             2351      or other entity or person whose activities as a distributor are limited almost exclusively to sales
             2352      for personal use:
             2353          (a) in both number of sales and volume of sales; and


             2354          (b) either directly to walk-in customers or in face-to-face transactions by direct sales.
             2355          (11) "Threshold amount of a listed precursor chemical" means any amount of a
             2356      controlled substance precursor or a specified amount of a controlled substance precursor in a
             2357      matrix; however, the division may exempt from the provisions of this chapter a specific
             2358      controlled substance precursor in a specific amount and in certain types of transactions which
             2359      provisions for exemption shall be defined by the division by rule adopted pursuant to Title
             2360      63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
             2361          (12) "Unlawful conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 includes knowingly and
             2362      intentionally:
             2363          (a) engaging in a regulated transaction without first being appropriately licensed or
             2364      exempted from licensure under this chapter;
             2365          (b) acting as a regulated distributor and selling, transferring, or in any other way
             2366      conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person within the state who is not appropriately
             2367      licensed or exempted from licensure as a regulated purchaser, or selling, transferring, or
             2368      otherwise conveying a controlled substance precursor to a person outside of the state and
             2369      failing to report the transaction as required;
             2370          (c) acting as a regulated purchaser and purchasing or in any other way obtaining a
             2371      controlled substance precursor from a person within the state who is not a licensed regulated
             2372      distributor, or purchasing or otherwise obtaining a controlled substance precursor from a
             2373      person outside of the state and failing to report the transaction as required;
             2374          (d) engaging in a regulated transaction and failing to submit reports and keep required
             2375      records of inventories required under the provisions of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to
             2376      this chapter;
             2377          (e) making any false statement in any application for license, in any record to be kept,
             2378      or on any report submitted as required under this chapter;
             2379          (f) with the intent of causing the evasion of the recordkeeping or reporting
             2380      requirements of this chapter and rules related to this chapter, receiving or distributing any listed
             2381      controlled substance precursor chemical in any manner designed so that the making of records


             2382      or filing of reports required under this chapter is not required;
             2383          (g) failing to take immediate steps to comply with licensure, reporting, or
             2384      recordkeeping requirements of this chapter because of lack of knowledge of those
             2385      requirements, upon becoming informed of the requirements;
             2386          (h) presenting false or fraudulent identification where or when receiving or purchasing
             2387      a listed controlled substance precursor chemical;
             2388          (i) creating a chemical mixture for the purpose of evading any licensure, reporting or
             2389      recordkeeping requirement of this chapter or rules related to this chapter, or receiving a
             2390      chemical mixture created for that purpose;
             2391          (j) if the person is at least 18 years of age, employing, hiring, using, persuading,
             2392      inducing, enticing, or coercing another person under 18 years of age to violate any provision of
             2393      this chapter, or assisting in avoiding detection or apprehension for any violation of this chapter
             2394      by any federal, state, or local law enforcement official; and
             2395          (k) obtaining or attempting to obtain or to possess any controlled substance precursor
             2396      or any combination of controlled substance precursors knowing or having a reasonable cause to
             2397      believe that the controlled substance precursor is intended to be used in the unlawful
             2398      manufacture of any controlled substance.
             2399          (13) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-102 and as may be further
             2400      defined by rule includes the following:
             2401          (a) violation of any provision of this chapter, the Controlled Substance Act of this state
             2402      or any other state, or the Federal Controlled Substance Act; and
             2403          (b) refusing to allow agents or representatives of the division or authorized law
             2404      enforcement personnel to inspect inventories or controlled substance precursors or records or
             2405      reports relating to purchases and sales or distribution of controlled substance precursors as such
             2406      records and reports are required under this chapter.
             2407          Section 39. Section 58-37c-17 is amended to read:
             2408           58-37c-17. Inspection authority.
             2409          For the purpose of inspecting, copying, and auditing records and reports required under


             2410      this chapter and rules adopted pursuant thereto, and for the purpose of inspecting [an] and
             2411      auditing inventories of listed controlled substance precursors, the director, or his authorized
             2412      agent, and law enforcement personnel of any federal, state, or local law enforcement agency is
             2413      authorized to enter the premises of regulated distributors and regulated purchasers during
             2414      normal business hours to conduct administrative inspections.
             2415          Section 40. Section 58-37d-2 is amended to read:
             2416           58-37d-2. Purpose.
             2417          The clandestine production of methamphetamine, other amphetamines, phencyclidine,
             2418      narcotic analgesic analogs, so-called "designer drugs,"[,] various hallucinogens, cocaine and
             2419      methamphetamine base "crack" cocaine and methamphetamine "ice" respectively, has
             2420      increased dramatically throughout the western states and Utah. These highly technical illegal
             2421      operations create substantial dangers to the general public and environment from fire,
             2422      explosions, and the release of toxic chemicals. By their very nature these activities often
             2423      involve a number of persons in a conspiratorial enterprise to bring together all necessary
             2424      components for clandestine production, to thwart regulation and detection, and to distribute the
             2425      final product. Therefore, the Legislature enacts the following Utah Clandestine Laboratory Act
             2426      for prosecution of specific illegal laboratory operations. With regard to the controlled
             2427      substances specified herein, this act shall control, notwithstanding the prohibitions and
             2428      penalties in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act.
             2429          Section 41. Section 58-47b-301 is amended to read:
             2430           58-47b-301. Licensure required.
             2431          (1) An individual shall hold a license issued under this chapter in order to engage in the
             2432      practice of massage therapy, except as specifically provided in Section 58-1-307 or
             2433      58-47b-304 .
             2434          (2) An individual shall have a license in order to:
             2435          (a) represent himself as a massage therapist or massage apprentice;
             2436          (b) [represents] represent himself as providing a service that is within the practice of
             2437      massage therapy or [uses] use the word massage or any other word to describe such services; or


             2438          (c) [charges] charge or [receives] receive a fee or any consideration for providing a
             2439      service that is within the practice of massage therapy.
             2440          Section 42. Section 59-2-1109 is amended to read:
             2441           59-2-1109. Indigent persons -- Deferral or abatement -- Application -- County
             2442      authority to make refunds.
             2443          (1) A person under the age of 65 years is not eligible for a deferral or abatement
             2444      provided for poor people under Sections 59-2-1107 and 59-2-1108 unless:
             2445          (a) the county finds that extreme hardship would prevail if the grants were not made; or
             2446          (b) the person has a disability.
             2447          (2) (a) An application for the deferral or abatement shall be filed on or before
             2448      September 1 with the county in which the property is located.
             2449          (b) The application shall include a signed statement setting forth the eligibility of the
             2450      applicant for the deferral or abatement.
             2451          (c) Both husband and wife shall sign the application if the husband and wife seek a
             2452      deferral or abatement on a residence:
             2453          (i) in which they both reside; and
             2454          (ii) which they own as joint tenants.
             2455          (d) A county may extend the deadline for filing under Subsection (2)(a) until December
             2456      31 if the county finds that good cause exists to extend the deadline.
             2457          (3) (a) For purposes of this Subsection (3):
             2458          (i) "Property taxes due" means the taxes due on a person's property:
             2459          (A) for which an abatement is granted by a county under Section 59-2-1107 ; and
             2460          (B) for the calendar year for which the abatement is granted.
             2461          (ii) "Property taxes paid" is an amount equal to the sum of:
             2462          (A) the amount of the property taxes the person paid for the taxable year for which the
             2463      person is applying for the abatement; and
             2464          (B) the amount of the abatement the county grants under Section 59-2-1107 .
             2465          (b) A county granting an abatement to a person under Section 59-2-1107 shall refund


             2466      to that person an amount equal to the amount by which the person's property taxes paid exceed
             2467      the person's property taxes due, if that amount is $1 or more.
             2468          (4) For purposes of this section:
             2469          (a) a poor person is any person:
             2470          (i) whose total household income as defined in Section 59-2-1202 is less than the
             2471      maximum household income certified to a homeowner's credit under Subsection 59-2-1208 (1);
             2472          (ii) who resides for not less than 10 months of each year in the residence for which the
             2473      tax relief, deferral, or abatement is requested; and
             2474          (iii) who is unable to meet the tax assessed on the person's residential property as the
             2475      tax becomes due; and
             2476          (b) "residence" includes a mobile home as defined under Section [ 70D-2-401 ]
             2477      70D-2-102 .
             2478          (5) If the claimant is the grantor of a trust holding title to real or tangible personal
             2479      property on which an abatement or deferral is claimed, the claimant may claim the portion of
             2480      the abatement or deferral under Section 59-2-1107 or 59-2-1108 and be treated as the owner of
             2481      that portion of the property held in trust for which the claimant proves to the satisfaction of the
             2482      county that:
             2483          (a) title to the portion of the trust will revest in the claimant upon the exercise of a
             2484      power:
             2485          (i) by:
             2486          (A) the claimant as grantor of the trust;
             2487          (B) a nonadverse party; or
             2488          (C) both the claimant and a nonadverse party; and
             2489          (ii) regardless of whether the power is a power:
             2490          (A) to revoke;
             2491          (B) to terminate;
             2492          (C) to alter;
             2493          (D) to amend; or


             2494          (E) to appoint;
             2495          (b) the claimant is obligated to pay the taxes on that portion of the trust property
             2496      beginning January 1 of the year the claimant claims the abatement or deferral; and
             2497          (c) the claimant meets the requirements under this part for the abatement or deferral.
             2498          (6) The commission shall adopt rules to implement this section.
             2499          (7) Any poor person may qualify for:
             2500          (a) the deferral of taxes under Section 59-2-1108 ;
             2501          (b) if the person meets the requisites of this section, for the abatement of taxes under
             2502      Section 59-2-1107 ; or
             2503          (c) both:
             2504          (i) the deferral described in Subsection (7)(a); and
             2505          (ii) the abatement described in Subsection (7)(b).
             2506          Section 43. Section 63A-12-111 is amended to read:
             2507           63A-12-111. Government records ombudsman.
             2508          (1) (a) The director of the division shall appoint a government records ombudsman.
             2509          (b) The government records ombudsman may not be a member of the records
             2510      committee.
             2511          (2) The government records ombudsman shall:
             2512          (a) be familiar with the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records
             2513      Access and Management Act;
             2514          (b) serve as a resource for a person who is making or responding to a records request or
             2515      filing an appeal relating to a records request;
             2516          (c) upon request, attempt to mediate disputes between requestors and responders; and
             2517          (d) on an annual basis, report to the Government Operations [and Political
             2518      Subdivisions] Interim Committee on the work performed by the government records
             2519      ombudsman during the previous year.
             2520          (3) The government records ombudsman may not testify, or be compelled to testify,
             2521      before the records committee, another administrative body, or a court regarding a matter that


             2522      the government records ombudsman provided services in relation to under this section.
             2523          Section 44. Section 63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             2524           63G-6-202 (Superseded 05/01/13). Powers and duties of board.
             2525          (1) Except as otherwise provided in Section 63G-6-104 and Subsection
             2526      63G-6-208 (1)(b), the policy board shall:
             2527          (a) make rules, consistent with this chapter, governing the procurement, management,
             2528      and control of any and all supplies, services, technology, and construction to be procured by the
             2529      state; and
             2530          (b) consider and decide matters of policy within the provisions of this chapter,
             2531      including those referred to it by the chief procurement officer.
             2532          (2) (a) The policy board may:
             2533          (i) audit and monitor the implementation of its rules and the requirements of this
             2534      chapter;
             2535          (ii) upon the request of a local public procurement unit, review that procurement unit's
             2536      proposed rules to ensure that they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter; and
             2537          (iii) approve the use of innovative procurement methods proposed by local public
             2538      procurement units.
             2539          (b) Except as provided in Section 63G-6-807 , the policy board may not exercise
             2540      authority [over the award or administration of]:
             2541          (i) over the award or administration of any particular [contact] contract; or
             2542          (ii) over any dispute, claim, or litigation pertaining to any particular contract.
             2543          Section 45. Section 63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13) is amended to read:
             2544           63G-6a-203 (Effective 05/01/13). Powers and duties of board.
             2545          (1) In addition to making rules in accordance with Section 63G-6a-402 and the other
             2546      provisions of this chapter, the board shall consider and decide matters of policy within the
             2547      provisions of this chapter, including those referred to it by the chief procurement officer.
             2548          (2) (a) The board may:
             2549          (i) audit and monitor the implementation of its rules and the requirements of this


             2550      chapter;
             2551          (ii) upon the request of a local public procurement unit, review that local public
             2552      procurement unit's proposed rules to ensure that they are not inconsistent with the provisions of
             2553      this chapter or rules made by the board; and
             2554          (iii) approve the use of innovative procurement processes.
             2555          (b) Except as provided in Section 63G-6a-1702 , the board may not exercise authority
             2556      over [the award or administration of]:
             2557          (i) the award or administration of any particular contract; or
             2558          (ii) any dispute, claim, or litigation pertaining to any particular contract.
             2559          (3) The board does not have authority over a matter involving:
             2560          (a) a non-executive state procurement unit;
             2561          (b) a local government unit; or
             2562          (c) except as otherwise expressly provided in this chapter, a local public procurement
             2563      unit.
             2564          Section 46. Section 63G-7-701 is amended to read:
             2565           63G-7-701. Payment of claim or judgment against state -- Presentment for
             2566      payment.
             2567          (1) [(a)] Each claim, as defined by Subsection 63G-7-102 (1), that is approved by the
             2568      state or any final judgment obtained against the state shall be presented for payment to:
             2569          [(i)] (a) the state risk manager; or
             2570          [(ii)] (b) the office, agency, institution, or other instrumentality involved, if payment by
             2571      that instrumentality is otherwise permitted by law.
             2572          [(b)] (2) If payment of the claim is not authorized by law, the judgment or claim shall
             2573      be presented to the board of examiners for action as provided in Section 63G-9-301 .
             2574          [(c)] (3) If a judgment against the state is reduced by the operation of Section
             2575      63G-7-604 , the claimant may submit the excess claim to the board of examiners.
             2576          Section 47. Section 63I-1-209 is amended to read:
             2577           63I-1-209. Repeal dates, Title 9.


             2578          [(1)] Title 9, Chapter 1, Part 8, Commission on National and Community Service Act,
             2579      is repealed July 1, 2014.
             2580          [(2) Subsection 35A-8-302 (6), defining "qualifying city," is repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2581          [(3) Subsection 35A-8-305 (2), related to a grant for fiscal year 2011-12 only, is
             2582      repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2583          [(4) The language in Subsection 35A-8-307(2) that reads "except for Subsection
             2584      35A-8-305 (2)" is repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2585          [(5) Subsection 35A-8-307 (3), requiring the Permanent Community Impact Fund
             2586      Board to make a finding before making a grant to a city under Subsection 35A-8-305 (2), is
             2587      repealed January 1, 2013.]
             2588          Section 48. Section 63I-1-213 is amended to read:
             2589           63I-1-213. Repeal dates, Title 13.
             2590          [Title 13, Chapter 16, Motor Fuel Marketing Act, is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2591          Section 49. Section 63I-1-235 is amended to read:
             2592           63I-1-235. Repeal dates, Title 35A.
             2593          (1) Title 35A, Utah Workforce Services Code, is repealed July 1, 2015.
             2594          [(2) Section 35A-3-114 , the Displaced Homemaker Program, together with the
             2595      provision for funding that program contained in Subsection 17-16-21 (2)(b), is repealed July 1,
             2596      2012.]
             2597          [(3)] (2) Title 35A, Chapter 8, Part 7, Utah Housing Corporation Act, is repealed July
             2598      1, 2016.
             2599          [(4)] (3) Title 35A, Chapter 8, Part 18, Transitional Housing and Community
             2600      Development Advisory Council, is repealed July 1, 2014.
             2601          Section 50. Section 63I-1-258 is amended to read:
             2602           63I-1-258. Repeal dates, Title 58.
             2603          (1) Title 58, Chapter 9, Funeral Services Licensing Act, is repealed July 1, 2018.
             2604          (2) Title 58, Chapter 13, Health Care Providers Immunity from Liability Act, is
             2605      repealed July 1, 2016.


             2606          [(13)] (3) Section 58-13-2.5 is repealed July 1, 2013.
             2607          [(3)] (4) Title 58, Chapter 15, Health Facility Administrator Act, is repealed July 1,
             2608      2015.
             2609          [(4)] (5) Section 58-17b-309.5 is repealed July 1, 2015.
             2610          [(5)] (6) Title 58, Chapter 20a, Environmental Health Scientist Act, is repealed July 1,
             2611      2013.
             2612          [(6)] (7) Title 58, Chapter 40, Recreational Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2613      2023.
             2614          [(7)] (8) Title 58, Chapter 41, Speech-language Pathology and Audiology Licensing
             2615      Act, is repealed July 1, 2019.
             2616          [(8)] (9) Title 58, Chapter 42a, Occupational Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2617      2015.
             2618          [(9)] (10) Title 58, Chapter 46a, Hearing Instrument Specialist Licensing Act, is
             2619      repealed July 1, 2013.
             2620          [(10)] (11) Title 58, Chapter 47b, Massage Therapy Practice Act, is repealed July 1,
             2621      2014.
             2622          [(11)] (12) Section 58-69-302.5 is repealed on July 1, 2015.
             2623          [(12)] (13) Title 58, Chapter 72, Acupuncture Licensing Act, is repealed July 1, 2017.
             2624          Section 51. Section 63I-2-261 is amended to read:
             2625           63I-2-261. Repeal dates -- Title 61.
             2626          [Section 61-2c-205.1 is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2627          Section 52. Section 63I-2-267 is amended to read:
             2628           63I-2-267. Repeal dates -- Title 67.
             2629          [Section 67-19a-101.5 is repealed July 1, 2012.]
             2630          Section 53. Section 67-1a-2 is amended to read:
             2631           67-1a-2. Duties enumerated.
             2632          (1) The lieutenant governor shall:
             2633          (a) perform duties delegated by the governor, including assignments to serve in any of


             2634      the following capacities:
             2635          (i) as the head of any one department, if so qualified, with the consent of the Senate,
             2636      and, upon appointment at the pleasure of the governor and without additional compensation;
             2637          (ii) as the chairperson of any cabinet group organized by the governor or authorized by
             2638      law for the purpose of advising the governor or coordinating intergovernmental or
             2639      interdepartmental policies or programs;
             2640          (iii) as liaison between the governor and the state Legislature to coordinate and
             2641      facilitate the governor's programs and budget requests;
             2642          (iv) as liaison between the governor and other officials of local, state, federal, and
             2643      international governments or any other political entities to coordinate, facilitate, and protect the
             2644      interests of the state;
             2645          (v) as personal advisor to the governor, including advice on policies, programs,
             2646      administrative and personnel matters, and fiscal or budgetary matters; and
             2647          (vi) as chairperson or member of any temporary or permanent boards, councils,
             2648      commissions, committees, task forces, or other group appointed by the governor;
             2649          (b) serve on all boards and commissions in lieu of the governor, whenever so
             2650      designated by the governor;
             2651          (c) serve as the chief election officer of the state as required by Subsection (2);
             2652          (d) keep custody of the Great Seal of Utah;
             2653          (e) keep a register of, and attest, the official acts of the governor;
             2654          (f) affix the Great Seal, with an attestation, to all official documents and instruments to
             2655      which the official signature of the governor is required; and
             2656          (g) furnish a certified copy of all or any part of any law, record, or other instrument
             2657      filed, deposited, or recorded in the office of the lieutenant governor to any person who requests
             2658      it and pays the fee.
             2659          (2) (a) As the chief election officer, the lieutenant governor shall:
             2660          (i) exercise general supervisory authority over all elections;
             2661          (ii) exercise direct authority over the conduct of elections for federal, state, and


             2662      multicounty officers and statewide or multicounty ballot propositions and any recounts
             2663      involving those races;
             2664          (iii) assist county clerks in unifying the election ballot;
             2665          (iv) (A) prepare election information for the public as required by statute and as
             2666      determined appropriate by the lieutenant governor; and
             2667          (B) make the information under Subsection (2)(a)(iv)(A) available to the public and to
             2668      news media on the Internet and in other forms as required by statute or as determined
             2669      appropriate by the lieutenant governor;
             2670          (v) receive and answer election questions and maintain an election file on opinions
             2671      received from the attorney general;
             2672          (vi) maintain a current list of registered political parties as defined in Section
             2673      20A-8-101 ;
             2674          (vii) maintain election returns and statistics;
             2675          (viii) certify to the governor the names of those persons who have received the highest
             2676      number of votes for any office;
             2677          (ix) ensure that all voting equipment purchased by the state complies with the
             2678      requirements of Subsection 20A-5-302 (2) and Sections 20A-5-402.5 and 20A-5-402.7 ;
             2679          (x) conduct the study described in Section 67-1a-14 ; and
             2680          (xi) perform other election duties as provided in Title 20A, Election Code.
             2681          (b) As chief election officer, the lieutenant governor may not assume the
             2682      responsibilities assigned to the county clerks, city recorders, town clerks, or other local election
             2683      officials by Title 20A, Election Code.
             2684          (3) (a) The lieutenant governor shall:
             2685          (i) (A) determine a new city's classification under Section 10-2-301 upon the city's
             2686      incorporation under Title 10, Chapter 2, Part 1, Incorporation, based on the city's population
             2687      using the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee; and
             2688          (B) (I) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the new city belongs based on
             2689      the city's population; and


             2690          (II) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2691      city's legislative body;
             2692          (ii) (A) determine the classification under Section 10-2-301 of a consolidated
             2693      municipality upon the consolidation of multiple municipalities under Title 10, Chapter 2, Part
             2694      6, Consolidation of Municipalities, using population information from:
             2695          (I) each official census or census estimate of the United States Bureau of the Census;
             2696      or
             2697          (II) the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee, if the
             2698      population of a municipality is not available from the United States Bureau of the Census; and
             2699          (B) (I) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the consolidated municipality
             2700      belongs based on the municipality's population; and
             2701          (II) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2702      consolidated municipality's legislative body; and
             2703          (iii) monitor the population of each municipality using population information from:
             2704          (A) each official census or census estimate of the United States Bureau of the Census;
             2705      or
             2706          (B) the population estimate from the Utah Population Estimates Committee, if the
             2707      population of a municipality is not available from the United States Bureau of the Census.
             2708          (b) If the applicable population figure under Subsection (3)(a)(ii) or (iii) indicates that
             2709      a municipality's population has increased beyond the population for its current class, the
             2710      lieutenant governor shall:
             2711          (i) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the municipality belongs based on
             2712      the increased population figure; and
             2713          (ii) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2714      legislative body of the municipality whose class has changed.
             2715          (c) (i) If the applicable population figure under Subsection (3)(a)(ii) or (iii) indicates
             2716      that a municipality's population has decreased below the population for its current class, the
             2717      lieutenant governor shall send written notification of that fact to the municipality's legislative


             2718      body.
             2719          (ii) Upon receipt of a petition under Subsection 10-2-302 (2) from a municipality whose
             2720      population has decreased below the population for its current class, the lieutenant governor
             2721      shall:
             2722          (A) prepare a certificate indicating the class in which the municipality belongs based
             2723      on the decreased population figure; and
             2724          (B) within 10 days after preparing the certificate, deliver a copy of the certificate to the
             2725      legislative body of the municipality whose class has changed.
             2726          Section 54. Section 67-19-13.5 is amended to read:
             2727           67-19-13.5. Department provides payroll services to executive branch agencies --
             2728      Report.
             2729          (1) As used in this section:
             2730          (a) (i) "Executive branch entity" means a department, division, agency, board, or office
             2731      within the executive branch of state government that employs a person who is paid through the
             2732      central payroll system developed by the Division of Finance as of December 31, 2011.
             2733          (ii) "Executive branch entity" does not include the Offices of the Attorney General,
             2734      State Treasurer, State Auditor, [Department] or Departments of Transportation, [Department
             2735      of] Technology Services, or [the Department of] Natural Resources.
             2736          (b) (i) "Payroll services" means using the central payroll system as directed by the
             2737      Division of Finance to:
             2738          (A) enter and validate payroll reimbursements, which include reimbursements for
             2739      mileage, a service award, and other wage types;
             2740          (B) calculate, process, and validate a retirement;
             2741          (C) enter a leave adjustment; and
             2742          (D) certify payroll by ensuring an entry complies with a rule or policy adopted by the
             2743      department or the Division of Finance.
             2744          (ii) "Payroll services" does not mean:
             2745          (A) a function related to payroll that is performed by an employee of the Division of


             2746      Finance;
             2747          (B) a function related to payroll that is performed by an executive branch agency on
             2748      behalf of a person who is not an employee of the executive branch agency;
             2749          (C) the entry of time worked by an executive branch agency employee into the central
             2750      payroll system; or
             2751          (D) approval or verification by a supervisor or designee of the entry of time worked.
             2752          (2) (a) Except as provided by Subsection (2)(b), on or before September 19, 2012, the
             2753      department shall provide payroll services to all executive branch entities.
             2754          (b) On or before June 30, 2013, the department shall provide payroll services to the
             2755      Department of Public Safety for an employee who is certified by the Peace Officer Standards
             2756      and Training Division.
             2757          (3) (a) After September 19, 2012, an executive branch entity, other than the
             2758      department, the Division of Finance, or the Department of Public Safety, may not create a
             2759      full-time equivalent position or part-time position, or request an appropriation to fund a
             2760      full-time equivalent position or part-time position for the purpose of providing payroll services
             2761      to the entity.
             2762          (b) After June 30, 2013, the Department of Public Safety may not create a full-time
             2763      equivalent position or part-time position, or request an appropriation to fund a full-time
             2764      equivalent position or part-time position for the purpose of providing payroll services.
             2765          (4) The Department of Transportation, the Department of Technology Services, and the
             2766      Department of Natural Resources shall report on the inability to transfer payroll services to the
             2767      department or the progress of transferring payroll services to the department:
             2768          (a) to the Government Operations Interim Committee before October 30, 2012; and
             2769          (b) to the Infrastructure and General Government Appropriations Subcommittee on or
             2770      before February 11, 2013.
             2771          Section 55. Section 76-1-403 is amended to read:
             2772           76-1-403. Former prosecution barring subsequent prosecution for offense out of
             2773      same episode.


             2774          (1) If a defendant has been prosecuted for one or more offenses arising out of a single
             2775      criminal episode, a subsequent prosecution for the same or a different offense arising out of the
             2776      same criminal episode is barred if:
             2777          (a) the subsequent prosecution is for an offense that was or should have been tried
             2778      under Subsection 76-1-402 (2) in the former prosecution; and
             2779          (b) the former prosecution:
             2780          (i) resulted in acquittal; [or]
             2781          (ii) resulted in conviction; [or]
             2782          (iii) was improperly terminated; or
             2783          (iv) was terminated by a final order or judgment for the defendant that has not been
             2784      reversed, set aside, or vacated and that necessarily required a determination inconsistent with a
             2785      fact that must be established to secure conviction in the subsequent prosecution.
             2786          (2) There is an acquittal if the prosecution resulted in a finding of not guilty by the trier
             2787      of facts or in a determination that there was insufficient evidence to warrant conviction. A
             2788      finding of guilty of a lesser included offense is an acquittal of the greater offense even though
             2789      the conviction for the lesser included offense is subsequently reversed, set aside, or vacated.
             2790          (3) There is a conviction if the prosecution resulted in a judgment of guilt that has not
             2791      been reversed, set aside, or vacated; a verdict of guilty that has not been reversed, set aside, or
             2792      vacated and that is capable of supporting a judgment; or a plea of guilty accepted by the court.
             2793          (4) There is an improper termination of prosecution if the termination takes place
             2794      before the verdict, is for reasons not amounting to an acquittal, and takes place after a jury has
             2795      been impaneled and sworn to try the defendant, or, if the jury trial is waived, after the first
             2796      witness is sworn. However, termination of prosecution is not improper if:
             2797          (a) the defendant consents to the termination; [or]
             2798          (b) the defendant waives his right to object to the termination; or
             2799          (c) the court finds and states for the record that the termination is necessary because:
             2800          (i) it is physically impossible to proceed with the trial in conformity with the law; [or]
             2801          (ii) there is a legal defect in the proceeding not attributable to the state that would make


             2802      any judgment entered upon a verdict reversible as a matter of law; [or]
             2803          (iii) prejudicial conduct in or out of the courtroom not attributable to the state makes it
             2804      impossible to proceed with the trial without injustice to the defendant or the state; [or]
             2805          (iv) the jury is unable to agree upon a verdict; or
             2806          (v) false statements of a juror on voir dire prevent a fair trial.
             2807          Section 56. Section 76-1-501 is amended to read:
             2808           76-1-501. Presumption of innocence -- "Element of the offense" defined.
             2809          (1) A defendant in a criminal proceeding is presumed to be innocent until each element
             2810      of the offense charged against him is proved beyond a reasonable doubt. In the absence of
             2811      [such] this proof, the defendant shall be acquitted.
             2812          (2) As used in this part the words "element of the offense" mean:
             2813          (a) The conduct, attendant circumstances, or results of conduct proscribed, prohibited,
             2814      or forbidden in the definition of the offense;
             2815          (b) The culpable mental state required.
             2816          (3) The existence of jurisdiction and venue are not elements of the offense but shall be
             2817      established by a preponderance of the evidence.
             2818          Section 57. Section 76-3-202 is amended to read:
             2819           76-3-202. Paroled persons -- Termination or discharge from sentence -- Time
             2820      served on parole -- Discretion of Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2821          (1) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(b), every person committed to the state
             2822      prison to serve an indeterminate term and later released on parole shall, upon completion of
             2823      three years on parole outside of confinement and without violation, be terminated from the
             2824      person's sentence unless the parole is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2825          (b) Every person committed to the state prison to serve an indeterminate term and later
             2826      released on parole on or after July 1, 2008, and who was convicted of any felony offense under
             2827      Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person, or any attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to
             2828      commit any of these felony offenses, shall complete a term of parole that extends through the
             2829      expiration of the person's maximum sentence, unless the parole is earlier terminated by the


             2830      Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2831          (2) Every person convicted of a second degree felony for violating Section 76-5-404 ,
             2832      forcible sexual abuse, or 76-5-404.1 , sexual abuse of a child and aggravated sexual abuse of a
             2833      child, or attempting, conspiring, or soliciting the commission of a violation of any of those
             2834      sections, and who is paroled before July 1, 2008, shall, upon completion of 10 years parole
             2835      outside of confinement and without violation, [shall] be terminated from the sentence unless
             2836      the person is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2837          (3) (a) Every person convicted of a first degree felony for committing any offense listed
             2838      in Subsection (3)(b), or attempting, conspiring, or soliciting the commission of a violation of
             2839      any of those sections, shall complete a term of lifetime parole outside of confinement and
             2840      without violation unless the person is earlier terminated by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
             2841          (b) The offenses referred to in Subsection (3)(a) are:
             2842          (i) Section 76-5-301.1 , child kidnapping;
             2843          (ii) Subsection 76-5-302 (1)(b)(vi), aggravated kidnapping involving a sexual offense;
             2844          (iii) Section 76-5-402 , rape;
             2845          (iv) Section 76-5-402.1 , rape of a child;
             2846          (v) Section 76-5-402.2 , object rape;
             2847          (vi) Section 76-5-402.3 , object rape of a child;
             2848          (vii) Subsection 76-5-403 (2), forcible sodomy;
             2849          (viii) Section 76-5-403.1 , sodomy on a child;
             2850          (ix) Section 76-5-404.1 , sexual abuse of a child and aggravated sexual abuse of a child;
             2851      or
             2852          (x) Section 76-5-405 , aggravated sexual assault.
             2853          (4) Any person who violates the terms of parole, while serving parole, for any offense
             2854      under Subsection (1), (2), or (3), shall at the discretion of the Board of Pardons and Parole be
             2855      recommitted to prison to serve the portion of the balance of the term as determined by the
             2856      Board of Pardons and Parole, but not to exceed the maximum term.
             2857          (5) In order for a parolee convicted on or after May 5, 1997, to be eligible for early


             2858      termination from parole, the parolee must provide to the Board of Pardons and Parole:
             2859          (a) evidence that the parolee has completed high school classwork and has obtained a
             2860      high school graduation diploma, a GED certificate, or a vocational certificate; or
             2861          (b) documentation of the inability to obtain one of the items listed in Subsection (5)(a)
             2862      because of:
             2863          (i) a diagnosed learning disability; or
             2864          (ii) other justified cause.
             2865          (6) Any person paroled following a former parole revocation may not be discharged
             2866      from the person's sentence until:
             2867          (a) the person has served the applicable period of parole under this section outside of
             2868      confinement and without violation;
             2869          (b) the person's maximum sentence has expired; or
             2870          (c) the Board of Pardons and Parole orders the person to be discharged from the
             2871      sentence.
             2872          (7) (a) All time served on parole, outside of confinement and without violation,
             2873      constitutes service of the total sentence but does not preclude the requirement of serving the
             2874      applicable period of parole under this section, outside of confinement and without violation.
             2875          (b) Any time a person spends outside of confinement after commission of a parole
             2876      violation does not constitute service of the total sentence unless the person is exonerated at a
             2877      parole revocation hearing.
             2878          (c) (i) Any time a person spends in confinement awaiting a hearing before the Board of
             2879      Pardons and Parole or a decision by the board concerning revocation of parole constitutes
             2880      service of the sentence.
             2881          (ii) In the case of exoneration by the board, the time spent is included in computing the
             2882      total parole term.
             2883          (8) When any parolee without authority from the Board of Pardons and Parole absents
             2884      himself from the state or avoids or evades parole supervision, the period of absence, avoidance,
             2885      or evasion tolls the parole period.


             2886          (9) (a) While on parole, time spent in confinement outside the state may not be credited
             2887      toward the service of any Utah sentence.
             2888          (b) Time in confinement outside the state or in the custody of any tribal authority or the
             2889      United States government for a conviction obtained in another jurisdiction tolls the expiration
             2890      of the Utah sentence.
             2891          (10) This section does not preclude the Board of Pardons and Parole from paroling or
             2892      discharging an inmate at any time within the discretion of the Board of Pardons and Parole
             2893      unless otherwise specifically provided by law.
             2894          (11) A parolee sentenced to lifetime parole may petition the Board of Pardons and
             2895      Parole for termination of lifetime parole.
             2896          Section 58. Section 76-3-203.5 is amended to read:
             2897           76-3-203.5. Habitual violent offender -- Definition -- Procedure -- Penalty.
             2898          (1) As used in this section:
             2899          (a) "Felony" means any violation of a criminal statute of the state, any other state, the
             2900      United States, or any district, possession, or territory of the United States for which the
             2901      maximum punishment the offender may be subjected to exceeds one year in prison.
             2902          (b) "Habitual violent offender" means a person convicted within the state of any violent
             2903      felony and who on at least two previous occasions has been convicted of a violent felony and
             2904      committed to either prison in Utah or an equivalent correctional institution of another state or
             2905      of the United States either at initial sentencing or after revocation of probation.
             2906          (c) "Violent felony" means:
             2907          (i) any of the following offenses, or any attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit
             2908      any of the following offenses punishable as a felony:
             2909          (A) aggravated arson, arson, knowingly causing a catastrophe, and criminal mischief,
             2910      Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 1, Property Destruction;
             2911          (B) assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-102.5 ;
             2912          (C) disarming a police officer, Section 76-5-102.8 ;
             2913          (D) aggravated assault, Section 76-5-103 ;


             2914          (E) aggravated assault by prisoner, Section 76-5-103.5 ;
             2915          (F) mayhem, Section 76-5-105 ;
             2916          (G) stalking, Subsection 76-5-106.5 (2) or (3);
             2917          (H) threat of terrorism, Section 76-5-107.3 ;
             2918          (I) child abuse, Subsection 76-5-109 (2)(a) or (b);
             2919          (J) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, Section 76-5-109.1 ;
             2920          (K) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, Section 76-5-110 ;
             2921          (L) abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-111 ;
             2922          (M) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, Section 76-5-112.5 ;
             2923          (N) criminal homicide offenses under Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 2, Criminal Homicide;
             2924          (O) kidnapping, child kidnapping, and aggravated kidnapping under Title 76, Chapter
             2925      5, Part 3, Kidnapping, Trafficking, and Smuggling;
             2926          (P) rape, Section 76-5-402 ;
             2927          (Q) rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.1 ;
             2928          (R) object rape, Section 76-5-402.2 ;
             2929          (S) object rape of a child, Section 76-5-402.3 ;
             2930          (T) forcible sodomy, Section 76-5-403 ;
             2931          (U) sodomy on a child, Section 76-5-403.1 ;
             2932          (V) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ;
             2933          (W) aggravated sexual abuse of a child or sexual abuse of a child, Section 76-5-404.1 ;
             2934          (X) aggravated sexual assault, Section 76-5-405 ;
             2935          (Y) sexual exploitation of a minor, Section 76-5b-201 ;
             2936          (Z) sexual exploitation of a vulnerable adult, Section 76-5b-202 ;
             2937          (AA) aggravated burglary and burglary of a dwelling under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 2,
             2938      Burglary and Criminal Trespass;
             2939          (BB) aggravated robbery and robbery under Title 76, Chapter 6, Part 3, Robbery;
             2940          (CC) theft by extortion under Subsection 76-6-406 (2)(a) or (b);
             2941          (DD) tampering with a witness under Subsection 76-8-508 (1);


             2942          (EE) retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant under Section 76-8-508.3 ;
             2943          (FF) tampering with a juror under Subsection 76-8-508.5 (2)(c);
             2944          (GG) extortion to dismiss a criminal proceeding under Section 76-8-509 if by any
             2945      threat or by use of force theft by extortion has been committed pursuant to Subsections
             2946      76-6-406 (2)(a), (b), and (i);
             2947          (HH) possession, use, or removal of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under
             2948      Subsections 76-10-306 (3) through (6);
             2949          (II) unlawful delivery of explosive, chemical, or incendiary devices under Section
             2950      76-10-307 ;
             2951          (JJ) purchase or possession of a dangerous weapon or handgun by a restricted person
             2952      under Section 76-10-503 ;
             2953          (KK) unlawful discharge of a firearm under Section 76-10-508 ;
             2954          (LL) aggravated exploitation of prostitution under Subsection 76-10-1306 (1)(a);
             2955          (MM) bus hijacking under Section 76-10-1504 ; and
             2956          (NN) discharging firearms and hurling missiles under Section 76-10-1505 ; or
             2957          (ii) any felony violation of a criminal statute of any other state, the United States, or
             2958      any district, possession, or territory of the United States which would constitute a violent
             2959      felony as defined in this Subsection (1) if committed in this state.
             2960          (2) If a person is convicted in this state of a violent felony by plea or by verdict and the
             2961      trier of fact determines beyond a reasonable doubt that the person is a habitual violent offender
             2962      under this section, the penalty for a:
             2963          (a) third degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony;
             2964          (b) second degree felony is as if the conviction were for a first degree felony; or
             2965          (c) first degree felony remains the penalty for a first degree penalty except:
             2966          (i) the convicted person is not eligible for probation; and
             2967          (ii) the Board of Pardons and Parole shall consider that the convicted person is a
             2968      habitual violent offender as an aggravating factor in determining the length of incarceration.
             2969          (3) (a) The prosecuting attorney, or grand jury if an indictment is returned, shall


             2970      provide notice in the information or indictment that the defendant is subject to punishment as a
             2971      habitual violent offender under this section. Notice shall include the case number, court, and
             2972      date of conviction or commitment of any case relied upon by the prosecution.
             2973          (b) (i) The defendant shall serve notice in writing upon the prosecutor if the defendant
             2974      intends to deny that:
             2975          (A) the defendant is the person who was convicted or committed;
             2976          (B) the defendant was represented by counsel or had waived counsel; or
             2977          (C) the defendant's plea was understandingly or voluntarily entered.
             2978          (ii) The notice of denial shall be served not later than five days prior to trial and shall
             2979      state in detail the defendant's contention regarding the previous conviction and commitment.
             2980          (4) (a) If the defendant enters a denial under Subsection (3)(b) and if the case is tried to
             2981      a jury, the jury may not be told, until after it returns its verdict on the underlying felony charge,
             2982      of the:
             2983          (i) defendant's previous convictions for violent felonies, except as otherwise provided
             2984      in the Utah Rules of Evidence; or
             2985          (ii) allegation against the defendant of being a habitual violent offender.
             2986          (b) If the jury's verdict is guilty, the defendant shall be tried regarding the allegation of
             2987      being an habitual violent offender by the same jury, if practicable, unless the defendant waives
             2988      the jury, in which case the allegation shall be tried immediately to the court.
             2989          (c) (i) Before or at the time of sentencing the trier of fact shall determine if this section
             2990      applies.
             2991          (ii) The trier of fact shall consider any evidence presented at trial and the prosecution
             2992      and the defendant shall be afforded an opportunity to present any necessary additional
             2993      evidence.
             2994          (iii) Before sentencing under this section, the trier of fact shall determine whether this
             2995      section is applicable beyond a reasonable doubt.
             2996          (d) If any previous conviction and commitment is based upon a plea of guilty or no
             2997      contest, there is a rebuttable presumption that the conviction and commitment were regular and


             2998      lawful in all respects if the conviction and commitment occurred after January 1, 1970. If the
             2999      conviction and commitment occurred prior to January 1, 1970, the burden is on the prosecution
             3000      to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant was then represented by
             3001      counsel or had lawfully waived the right to have counsel present, and that the defendant's plea
             3002      was understandingly and voluntarily entered.
             3003          (e) If the trier of fact finds this section applicable, the court shall enter that specific
             3004      finding on the record and shall indicate in the order of judgment and commitment that the
             3005      defendant has been found by the trier of fact to be a habitual violent offender and is sentenced
             3006      under this section.
             3007          (5) (a) The sentencing enhancement provisions of Section 76-3-407 supersede the
             3008      provisions of this section.
             3009          (b) Notwithstanding Subsection (5)(a), the "violent felony" offense defined in
             3010      Subsection (1)(c) shall include any felony sexual offense violation of Title 76, Chapter 5, Part
             3011      4, Sexual Offenses, to determine if the convicted person is a habitual violent offender.
             3012          (6) The sentencing enhancement described in this section does not apply if:
             3013          (a) the offense for which the person is being sentenced is:
             3014          (i) a grievous sexual offense;
             3015          (ii) child kidnapping, Section 76-5-301.1 ;
             3016          (iii) aggravated kidnapping, Section 76-5-302 ; or
             3017          (iv) forcible sexual abuse, Section 76-5-404 ; and
             3018          (b) applying the sentencing enhancement provided for in this section would result in a
             3019      lower maximum penalty than the penalty provided for under the section that describes the
             3020      offense for which the person is being sentenced.
             3021          Section 59. Section 76-4-203 is amended to read:
             3022           76-4-203. Criminal solicitation -- Elements.
             3023          (1) An actor commits criminal solicitation if, with intent that a felony be committed, he
             3024      solicits, requests, commands, offers to hire, or importunes another person to engage in specific
             3025      conduct that under the circumstances as the actor believes them to be would be a felony or


             3026      would cause the other person to be a party to the commission of a felony.
             3027          (2) An actor may be convicted under this section only if the solicitation is made under
             3028      circumstances strongly corroborative of the actor's intent that the offense be committed.
             3029          (3) It is not a defense under this section that the person solicited by the actor:
             3030          (a) does not agree to act upon the solicitation;
             3031          (b) does not comm